RRB Group D 2026 Question Paper 06 Feb All Shifts (in English)

FOR RRB GROUP D EXAM PREPARATION

RRB Group D 2026
Question Paper · All
Shifts (in English)
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT DATE

RRB Group D 2026 Question Paper All Shifts (in English) 06 Feb

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Test Date 06/02/2026
Test Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Science

Q.1 Which of the following statements about Newton’s third law of motion is incorrect?
Ans A. When one object exerts a force on another, the second object exerts an equal and opposite force back.

B. The forces are equal in magnitude but opposite in direction.

C. The forces act simultaneously on two different objects.

D. The action and reaction forces act on the same object.

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Q.2 Which part of the brain is primarily responsible for higher-level thought processes and
complex interpretation of sensory information?

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Ans A. The brainstem

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B. The cerebellum

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D. The forebrain

Q.3 In a large population of sweet pea plants growing in stable conditions, which of the
following best explains why genetic variation through sexual reproduction is still
crucial for their long-term survival?
Ans A. Sweet pea plants reproduce faster sexually than asexually, ensuring more biomass production.

B. Genetic variation ensures uniform flower color and height across future generations.
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C. Variation helps sweet pea plants avoid cross-pollination, maintaining purity of the parental line.

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D. Hidden (recessive) alleles in sweet peas may offer resistance against future environmental stress.

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Q.4 The resistance of a metal wire of length 2 m is 10 Ω at 25°C. If the diameter of the wire is

g l 0.4 mm, what will be the resistivity of the metal at that temperature?
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a Ans
[Given, π = 3.14]
A. 3.6 x 10-6 Ωm

B. 1.55 x 10-6 Ωm

C. 6.3 x 10-5 Ωm

D. 6.3 x 10-7 Ωm

Q.5 Which component of blood serves as the fluid matrix in which cells are suspended?
Ans A. White blood cells
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B. Platelets

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C. Plasma
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D. Red blood cells
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 1 of 32

Q.6 Which of the following feature enables muscular tissue to produce movement in
animals?
Ans A. Presence of contractile proteins

B. Ability to transmit nerve impulses

C. Storage of fat droplets

D. Secretion of digestive enzymes

Q.7 In plants that reproduce by budding, which process directly initiates the formation of a
new individual?
Ans A. Development of seeds from flowers

B. Fusion of gametes from different individuals

C. Localized repeated cell division at a specific site

D. Random cell death in tissues

Q.8 A student wants to separate a heterogeneous mixture of mud and water collected from
a pond. Based on your understanding of mixtures, which method would be most
effective and why?
Ans A. Filtration, because the solid particles in mud are not dissolved in water

B. Evaporation, because it removes the solvent

C. Chromatography, because it separates based on movement in a medium

D. Distillation, because it separates based on boiling points

Q.9 A wire of resistivity ρ, has a length L and area of cross-section A. If the resistance of
the wire is R, then which of the following is the correct relation for R?
Ans A. R = Aρ/L

B. R = ρL/A

C. R = ρLA

D. R = L/ρA

Q.10 When a force is applied at 90° to the direction of displacement of an object, the work
done:
Ans A. is maximum

B. cannot be determined

C. is zero

D. is minimum but not zero

Q.11 The cellular organelles are suspended in a jelly called _________.
Ans A. Cytoplasm

B. Lumen

C. Nucleoplasm

D. Stroma

Q.12 What will the distance-time graph look like for an object moving with uniform speed?
Ans A. The graph is a zig zag line.

B. The graph looks like a sine wave.

C. The graph is a straight line.

D. The graph cannot be drawn.

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 2 of 32

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Q.13 In plants, after fertilisation, the ovule develops into which of the following?
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Ans A. Fruit

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B. Embryo

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C. Endosperm

D. Seed

Q.14 The way of obtaining fish from natural resources is called __________.
Ans A. Composite fishing

B. Farming fishing

C. Culture fishing

D. Capture fishing
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Q.15 Consider the following statements and select the correct option.

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Statement A: Small quantities of ethanol cause drunkenness.
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Statement B: Intake of pure ethanol is safe for health.
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Ans A. Both statements A and B are incorrect.

B. Statement A is incorrect, but B is correct.

C. Both statements A and B are correct.

D. Statement A is correct, but B is incorrect.

Q.16 What is ultrasonography used for during pregnancy?
Ans A. To detect birth defects and monitor the baby’s growth

B. To find the blood group of the baby
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C. To measure the mother's weight

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D. To check the mother’s heartbeat
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Q.17
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A ball is thrown up with a velocity of x m/s. The ball attains a maximum height of 50 m.
What is the value of x? (Take the value of g as 10 m/s2)
Ans A. 10 m/s

B. 10√10 m/s

C. 1000 m/s

D. 100 m/s

Q.18 A substance is said to be reduced when:
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Ans A. it loses hydrogen or gains oxygen
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B. it loses oxygen only

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a Q.19 Which method is commonly used to prevent rusting of Iron?
Ans A. Melting

B. Magnetising

C. Galvanisation

D. Heating

Q.20 Which property best explains why solids have a definite shape and volume?
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Ans A. The particles can move freely past each other.

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B. The particles have large spaces between them.

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C. The particles are closely packed in a fixed arrangement.

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D. The particles are random
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 3 of 32

Q.21 Which gas is released when hydrochloric acid reacts with calcium carbonate?
Ans A. Carbon dioxide

B. Nitrogen

C. Hydrogen

D. Oxygen

Q.22 Which of the following statement(s) is/are true regarding a concave lens?

(i) A concave lens is also called a diverging lens.
(ii) A concave lens always forms a real and inverted image of the object placed
anywhere in front of it.
(iii) A concave lens always forms a virtual and erect image of the object placed
anywhere in front of it.
Ans A. Only (iii)

B. Both (i) and (iii)

C. Only (ii)

D. Both (i) and (ii)

Q.23 Lenses are used in spectacles to correct vision because they work on the principle of
__________.
Ans A. Diffraction

B. Polarization

C. Reflection

D. Refraction

Q.24 Which of the following is a straight-chain saturated hydrocarbon?
Ans A. Butane

B. Cyclohexane

C. Benzene

D. Propene

Q.25 A molecule of methane contains one carbon atom bonded to four hydrogen atoms.
What is the chemical formula for methane?
Ans A. CH4

B. CH3

C. C4H

D. C2H4

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 The arithmetic mean of the observations 67, 76, 97, 34, 38, 63, 95, 95 and 74 is:
Ans A. 63

B. 62

C. 71

D. 68

Q.27

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Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 4 of 32

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Q.28
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Ans A. 2

B. 4

C. 3

D. 5

Q.29

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Ans
A.
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B.

C.

D.

Q.30 The average of the first 10 odd natural numbers is:

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Ans A. 10

B. 10.5

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C. 9.5

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D. 11
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Q.31 A garrison of 1200 men has provisions for 13 days. How long (in days) will the
provisions last if the garrison is increased by 360 men?2670
Ans A. 30

B. 5

C. 20

D. 10

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Q.32
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A person earns ₹40,000 per month. He allocates 25% of his income to rent, 15% to food,
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and 10% to transportation, and saves the remainder. How much does he save every

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month?
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Ans A. ₹10,000
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a C. ₹20,000

D. ₹24,000

Q.33 The amount on a sum of ₹8,400 at 15% per annum compound interest, compounded
annually, in 2 years will be:
Ans A. ₹11,109

B. ₹11,668

C. ₹11,339
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D. ₹10,837
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 5 of 32

Q.34 The price of a faucet and a wash basin are ₹860 and ₹2900, respectively. If the price of
the faucet and that of the wash basin is increased by 5% and 10%, respectively, then
find the price of 6 faucets and 6 wash basins.6720
Ans A. ₹22,560

B. ₹24,558

C. ₹36,500

D. ₹20,550

Q.35 The LCM of two numbers 216 and 120 is 1080. Find the HCF of these numbers.
Ans A. 32

B. 48

C. 36

D. 24

Q.36 If sin θ = 3/5, then find the value of cos θ.
Ans A. 3/5

B.

C. 5/4

D. 4/5

Q.37 If ₹2,443 is divided among 363 children such that each girl and each boy get ₹6 and ₹7,
respectively, then how many boys are there?
Ans A. 285

B. 325

C. 225

D. 265

Q.38 A person covers a certain distance with a speed of 17 km/h in 8 min. If he wants to
cover the same distance in 5 min, what should be his speed?
Ans A. 26.2 km/h

B. 27.2 km/h

C. 29.2 km/h

D. 28.2 km/h

Q.39 One pipe can fill a tank in 9 minutes, while another pipe can empty the completely filled
tank in 12 minutes. If both the pipes are opened together when the tank is empty, how
many minutes will it take to fill one-half of the tank?
Ans A. 18

B. 19

C. 37

D. 36

Q.40 The volume of a solid cylinder is 6776 cm3 and its height is 44 cm. What is the total
surface area of the solid cylinder?

Ans A. 2244 cm2

B. 2221 cm2

C. 2227 cm2

D. 2273 cm2

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 6 of 32

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Q.41 In an equilateral triangle ABC, point D lies on side BC such that, 3BD = BC. Which of the
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following relations is correct?

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Ans A. 7AD2=9AB2
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C. 9AD2=7AB2 ag l
D. 3AD2=4AB2

Q.42 The income of Amit in 2019 was ₹22,200. He gets an increment of 10% every year. What
was his income (in ₹) in 2021?
Ans A. 24,420

B. 26,640

C. 26,862
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D. 22,200

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Q.43
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A basket contains 96 fruits consisting of mangoes and oranges. If there are 42 more
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mangoes than oranges, then how many mangoes are there?

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Ans A. 49

B. 59

C. 69

D. 79

Q.44 A cistern has a leak at the bottom. A pipe can fill the cistern in 6 hours, but due to the
leak, it takes 8 hours to fill the cistern. How long would the leak take to empty the full
cistern?

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B.

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C.
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Q.45
a

Ans A. 56.5 m

B. 52.5 m

C. 58.5 m

D. 50.5 m
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Q.46 The marked price of a jeans was ₹7,750 but the shopkeeper offered successive

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discounts of 20% and 30%. Ultimately for how much did he sell the item?593
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Ans A. ₹4,397
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a C. ₹4,224

D. ₹4,356

Q.47 ₹12,986 is divided among A, B and C in such a way that if ₹33, ₹70 and ₹19 are
deducted from their respective shares, they have money in the ratio 14:8:2. Find the
difference between B’s and C’s original shares.
Ans A. ₹3,366

B. ₹3,166
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C. ₹3,267

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D. ₹3,116
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 7 of 32

Q.48 If ( 42 )a × ( 162 )2a × ( 34 )b × ( 92 )2b = 220 × ( 92 )6, find the values of a and b,
respectively.
Ans A. 2, 1

B. 3, 2

C. 2, 3

D. 1, 2

Q.49 A shopkeeper offers the following four schemes.
A) Two successive discounts of 19% and 19%
B) Buy 2, get 10
C) Discount of 11%
D) Two successive discounts of 25% and 17%

Which scheme is best for customers?
Ans A. D

B. A

C. C

D. B

Q.50

Ans A. 1,205

B. 1,280

C. 1,250

D. 1,520

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All pencils are erasers.
All pencils are rulers.
All rulers are boxes.

Conclusions:
(I) All pencils are boxes.
(II) Some rulers are erasers.
Ans A. Only conclusion (II) follows

B. Only conclusion (I) follows

C. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

D. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

Q.52 Six people G, H, I, Q, R and S are sitting in a straight line facing the north. Only three
people are seated to the left of H. Only Q is seated to the right of S. Only three people
are seated between Q and I. G is seated at some place to the right of R. How many
people are seated between R and S?
Ans A. Two

B. One

C. Three

D. Four

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 8 of 32

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Q.53 All 36 students in a class are standing in a row, facing north. Priya is 9th from the left
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end while Neeraj is 27th from the right end. How many people stand between Priya and
. Neeraj?
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Ans A. 3

B. 1
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C. 0

D. 2

Q.54 What should come in place of ? in the given series?
30 36 47 63 84 ?6042
Ans A. 112

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B. 109

C. 111
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D. 110

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Q.55 Raman ranked 10th from the top and 5th from the bottom in his class. How many
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students are there in his class?
Ans A. 11

B. 10

C. 14

D. 12

Q.56 What should come in place of ‘?’ in the given series?
153 164 177 192 209 ?
Ans A. 230
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B. 226
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C. 228
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D. 227
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Q.57
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A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. B sits second
to the right of A. E sits to the immediate left of A. C is the immediate neighbour of F and
G. D sits second to the left of F.
How many people sit between E and G when counted from the left of E?
Ans A. None

B. One

C. Three

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D. Four

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Q.58

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If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
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5431786, what will be difference between the highest and lowest digits in the number

s e thus formed?
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a B. 14

C. 8

D. 10

Q.59 Refer to the following series and answer the question (all numbers are single-digit
numbers only) (Counting to be done from left to right only)
(Left) 3 7 9 8 5 3 6 2 2 1 5 3 7 1 5 7 5 7 1 8 4 3 6 9 7 4 4 (Right)
How many such odd digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd

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digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?

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Ans A. More than three

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B. Three
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C. One

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D. Two
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 9 of 32

Q.60 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and
‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

42 × 7 ÷ 8 − 16 + 9 = ?
Ans A. 50

B. 52

C. 60

D. 55

Q.61 Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single
digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 6 6 8 6 7 4 5 9 9 1 7 6 8 1 4 5 4 7 1 4 1 1 4 3 5 4 3 (Right)

How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?
Ans A. 3

B. 1

C. 0

D. 2

Q.62 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.
(Left) 629 125 534 756 438 (Right)
(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
NOTE - All operations to be done from left to right.
If all the numbers are arranged in ascending order, the position of how many numbers
will remain unchanged?
Ans A. Three

B. One

C. None

D. Two

Q.63 LMUG is related to RHYD in a certain way. In the same way, JNSF is related to PIWC. To
which of the following is HIVT related, following the same logic?
Ans A. MEZR

B. MDYQ

C. NEYR

D. NDZQ

Q.64 Refer to the following series and answer the question (all numbers are single digit
numbers only).
(Left) 8 6 5 6 7 2 5 9 8 6 3 2 3 3 4 4 4 6 1 4 4 1 4 5 2 6 6 (Right)
How many such even numbers are there (from left to right) each of which is
immediately preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an odd
number?4397
Ans A. 5

B. 3

C. 6

D. 4

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 10 of 32

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Q.65 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
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the following sets.

. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
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the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
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adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
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(5, 14, 35)
(4,13, 33)3158
Ans A. (8, 17, 27)

B. (10, 19, 45)

C. (7, 16, 40)

D. (16, 7, 21)

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Q.66 Ravi drove 20 km from his office towards the north. He then took a right turn and drove
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5 km. He took another right turn and drove 10 km, and then turned right, drove 5 km,
and stopped at point A. How far is Ravi from his initial position?
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(Note: All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)
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Ans A. 15 km
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B. 5 km
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C. 20 km

D. 10 km

Q.67 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

158 169 191 224 268 ?
Ans A. 321

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B. 323

C. 332
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D. 312
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Q.68 ag
Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some bats are nets.
All cubs are nets.

Conclusions:
(I) Some bats are cubs.
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(II) All nets are cubs.
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Ans A. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

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B. Only conclusion (II) follows.

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a D. Only conclusion (I) follows.

Q.69 In a certain code language,
A + B means ‘A is the sister of B’,
A – B means ‘A is the father of B’,
A × B means ‘A is the brother of B’ and
A ÷ B means ‘A is the mother of B’.

How is N related to S if ‘N ÷ O × P – Q + S’?
Ans A. Father's sister

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B. Mother's sister

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C. Father's mother

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D. Sister
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ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 11 of 32

Q.70 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?
FVO 18, DTM 29, BRK 40, ZPI 51, ?
Ans A. XNF 62

B. WNH 61

C. YNF 65

D. XNG 62

Q.71 What should come in place of ? in the given series in order to make it logically
complete?
AZ81 BC64 DG49 GL36 ?
Ans A. JT25

B. KR16

C. JS25

D. KR25

Q.72 ANTY is related to CKOZ in a certain way based on English alphabetical order. In the
same way, UIQL is related to WFLM. To which of the following is DSNB related to,
following the same logic?
Ans A. EPLD

B. HPKD

C. FPIC

D. GPKC

Q.73 If ‘I’ stands for ‘+’, ‘J’ stands for ‘×’, ‘K’ stands for ‘÷’ and ‘L’ stands for ‘−’, then what will
come in place of question mark (?) in the following equation?

59 J 4 K 2 I 150 J 2 L 102 K 2 L 15 K 5 L 10 = ?
Ans A. 298

B. 376

C. 354

D. 312

Q.74 In a certain code language, ‘YARN’ is coded as ‘5731’ and ‘ROSE’ is coded as ‘2148’.
What is the code for ‘R’ in the given code language?
Ans A. 4

B. 3

C. 2

D. 1

Q.75 Anand starts from Point A and drives 43 km towards the south. He then takes a left turn,
drives 40 km, turns left and drives 45 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 51 km. He
takes a final left turn, drives 2 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. 11 km to the east

B. 12 km to the west

C. 13 km to the west

D. 10 km to the east

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 12 of 32

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Q.76 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter cluster pairs
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are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong

. to that group?
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(Note: The odd man out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
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position in the letter cluster)
Ans A. VR - ZV
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B. DW - HA

C. TG - XK

D. BN - GS

Q.77 Based on the alphabetical order, three of the following four are alike in a certain way
and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter cluster)
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Ans A. TYC
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B. MRV

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C. WBF
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D. EIM

Q.78 In a certain code language, ‘TEAR’ is coded as ‘5731’ and ‘POST’ is coded as ‘2148’.
What is the code for ‘T’ in the given code language?
Ans A. 8

B. 1

C. 5

D. 2

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Q.79 Seven people, S, Q, U, A, R, E and D are sitting in a row, facing north.
Only two people sit to the left of U. Only three people sit between U and R. Only one

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person sits between R and S. E sits to the immediate left of A. D is not an immediate
neighbor of R.
How many people sit to the right of Q?
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Ans A. Two
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B. Four

C. Three

D. One

Q.80 JITD is related to EEQB in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, QHSB is related to LDPZ. To which of the following is TNYT related to
following the same logic?

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Ans A. PKVS

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B. OKUR

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C. OJVR

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a Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

Q.81 Which city hosted the 2024 National Boxing Championships from 6 to 13 January?
Ans A. Guwahati

B. Patna

C. Bareilly

D. Jaipur

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 13 of 32

Q.82 The 11th edition of the Joint Military Exercise ‘MITRA SHAKTI‑2025’ between India and
Sri Lanka was held in which of the following cities?
Ans A. Kochi

B. Belagavi

C. Jodhpur

D. Chennai

Q.83 As per the new Know Your Customer (KYC) relaxations of the Reserve Bank of India
(RBI) notified in May 2025, low‑risk customers are allowed to continue transactions
without KYC until _____.
Ans A. 30 June 2026

B. 30 June 2025

C. 31 December 2025

D. 31 March 2026

Q.84 Which of the following was the first integrated multi-state mock drill in Delhi-NCR,
simulating a large-scale earthquake across 55 locations, conducted from 1 August
2025?
Ans A. Exercise Suraksha Chakra

B. Exercise Surya Kiran

C. Exercise Tristate Shakti

D. Exercise Sahayata Setu

Q.85 In September 2025, TDK Corporation inaugurated its Advanced Technologies Lithium-
ion Battery Manufacturing Plant in which Indian state?
Ans A. Kerala

B. Haryana

C. Uttarakhand

D. Rajasthan

Q.86 Which of the following volcanoes, located in Ethiopia, was in the news in November
2025 for erupting for the first time in recorded history?
Ans A. Krasheninnikov

B. Kilauea

C. Mount Semeru

D. Hayli Gubbi

Q.87 According to a US business intelligence report, who was the most popular democratic
leader in July 2025?
Ans A. Amit Shah

B. Nirmala Sitharaman

C. Rahul Gandhi

D. Narendra Modi

Q.88 Under which Article of the Constitution of India was Justice Meenakshi Madan Rai
appointed by the President to perform the duties of the Chief Justice of the Sikkim High
Court in December 2025?
Ans A. Article 223

B. Article 217

C. Article 124

D. Article 226

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 14 of 32

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Q.89 Who is the 2025 World Junior champion of the open section of Atomic Chess
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Championship held at Petrovac, Montenegro?

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Ans A. Pranav Venkatesh
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C. Matic Lavrencic ag l
D. Pentala Harikrishan

Q.90 Which international joint naval exercise in a disputed maritime region raised eyebrows
in 2025?
Ans A. Exercise Ajeya Warrior in the Bay of Bengal

B. India–Philippines naval drill in the South China Sea

C. Exercise Malabar with India and Australia near the Malacca Strait
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D. Iron Fist Drill with Russia in the Indian Ocean

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Q.91
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Which is the first fully indigenous microprocessor developed by C-DAC under the
l as
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Microprocessor Development Programme in 2025?

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ag
Ans A. PRATYUSH55

B. SHAKTI101

C. PARAM32

D. DHRUV64

Q.92 Which group of people is expected to benefit the most from the removal of minimum
balance penalties by Indian Bank and Punjab National Bank in July 2025?
Ans A. Urban business executives and corporate professionals

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B. College students and monthly salaried employees

C. High-income investors and wealthy individuals

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D. Rural citizens and low-income account holders

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Q.93
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What was the theme of India’s 76th Republic Day celebrated on 26 January 2025?
Ans A. Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat

B. Digital India: Power to Empower

C. Swarnim Bharat: Virasat aur Vikas

D. Atmanirbhar Bharat: Udaan Nayi Soch Ki

Q.94 Who scored 759 runs to win the IPL 2025 Orange Cap for Gujarat Titans?

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Ans A. Virat Kohli

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B. Rajat Patidar

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l as
l as D. Sai Sudharsan
ag
ag Q.95 In 2025, which ministry launched the Trade Intelligence and Analytics Portal to offer
transparent and real-time trade data?
Ans A. Ministry of Finance

B. Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation

C. Ministry of Commerce and Industry

D. Ministry of External Affairs

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 15 of 32

Q.96 In July 2025, which panel has suggested revising the ‘Guidelines for declaration of ESZ,
2011' issued by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC)?
Ans A. The Standing Committee of the National Board for Wildlife

B. The Standing Committee of Central Pollution Control Board

C. The Standing Committee of Ministry of Rural Development

D. The Standing Committee of National Tiger Conservation Authority

Q.97 Who became the sixth male golfer in history to complete a career Grand Slam by
winning the 2025 Masters Tournament?
Ans A. Jordan Spieth

B. Phil Mickelson

C. Tiger Woods

D. Rory McIlroy

Q.98 Which of the following countries is set to host the first ever Olympic Esports Games, as
announced by the International Olympic Committee (IOC) in 2027?
Ans A. France

B. Saudi Arabia

C. Qatar

D. China

Q.99 Which of the following countries was among the 37 countries that presented its
Voluntary National Review (VNR) at the High-Level Political Forum (HLPF) held in July
2025?
Ans A. China

B. India

C. Nepal

D. Sri Lanka

Q.100 In April 2025, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) came out with the
operational framework for PaRRVA. What is the purpose of PaRRVA?
Ans A. Approving mutual fund licences

B. Verifying investment performance claims

C. Settling trading disputes

D. Tax auditing of listed firms

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 16 of 32

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Test Date 06/02/2026
Test Time 12:45 PM - 2:15 PM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Scienceag
Q.1 Which of the following is a combination reaction?
Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

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Q.2
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Which of the following is a traditional water harvesting method in Rajasthan, India?
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Ans A. Check dam
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B. Borewell
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C. Johad a
D. Hand pump

Q.3 The process by which the eye lens changes its focal length to focus on near or distant
objects is called __________.
Ans A. Accommodation

B. Adjustment

C. Adaptation
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D. Reflection

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Q.4 mMetals are generally good conductors of heat. Which of the following is an exception to
l as
l as this?
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ag Ans A. Iron

B. Copper

C. Aluminium

D. Mercury

Q.5 If a particle covers a distance of 12 m in every 3 s, what is the slope of its distance-time
graph?
Ans A. 0.25 m/s

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B. 4.0 m/s

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C. 3.0 m/s

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D. 12.0 m/s

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ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 17 of 32

Q.6 Which of the following is the energy possessed by a body by virtue of its position,
shape and configuration?
Ans A. Potential Energy

B. Muscular Energy

C. Heat Energy

D. Kinetic Energy

Q.7 If the power of a lens is –4 D, which of the following is true about the lens?
Ans A. It is a concave lens of focal length 0.4 m.

B. It is a convex lens of focal length 2.5 m.

C. It is a concave lens of focal length 25 cm.

D. It is a convex lens of focal length 25 cm.

Q.8 Which of the following is most important for child-bearing and women's health?
Ans A. Intake of too much caffeine

B. Proper diet and prenatal care

C. Smoking daily

D. Skipping meals

Q.9 A reaction in which the positive and negative ions of two ionic compounds exchange
places to form two new compounds is an example of:
Ans A. Displacement reaction

B. Double displacement reaction

C. Combination reaction

D. Decomposition reaction

Q.10 According to Right Hand Thumb Rule, if the curling of the fingers of our right hand
gives the direction of magnetic field, then the thumb of our right hand is aligned along
the direction of which physical quantity?
Ans A. Force acting on the conductor

B. Induced Current in the conductor

C. Current flowing through the conductor

D. Electric field applied across the conductor

Q.11 When copper reacts with oxygen on heating in air, which of the following correctly
represents the product formed, along with its colour?
Ans A. Copper(I) oxide (Cu₂O) – white in colour

B. Copper(I) oxide (Cu₂O) – red in colour

C. Copper(II) oxide (CuO) – brown in colour

D. Copper(II) oxide (CuO) – black in colour

Q.12 A plant breeder crosses two pure-breeding pea plants—one producing round seeds
and the other producing wrinkled seeds. Based on Mendel’s findings, what phenotype
would all the seeds in the F₁ generation display?
Ans A. Wrinkled seeds

B. Half round, half wrinkled

C. Round seeds

D. A mix of round and wrinkled in varying proportions

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 18 of 32

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Q.13 When the frequency of vibration of a sound source increases, the resulting sound will
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have _________.

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Ans A. Greater loudness
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C. Smaller amplitude ag l
D. Higher pitch

Q.14 When the distance–time graph of an object is a curved line, it indicates that _________.
Ans A. The speed of the object is changing with time

B. The object remains stationary

C. The object is moving with a constant speed

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D. There is no acceleration in the motion
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Q.15 .co
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about the buoyant force experienced by
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an object when it is immersed in a fluid?
s l a
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(i) All objects experience a force of buoyancy when they are immersed in a fluid.
ag
ag
(ii) The magnitude of this buoyant force depends on the density of the fluid.
Ans A. Only (ii)

B. Both (i) and (ii)

C. Only (i)

D. Neither (i) nor (ii)

Q.16 Which of the following is a heterogeneous mixture?

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Ans A. Sugar solution

B. Air

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C. Sand and water
s e
D. Salt solution
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Q.17
a
Which rule helps in identifying the direction of the force acting on a current-carrying
conductor placed in a magnetic field?
Ans A. Right-hand thumb rule

B. Fleming’s left-hand rule

C. Maxwell’s corkscrew rule

D. Ohm’s law

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Q.18 Which of the following conditions are essential for the rusting of iron?
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Ans A. Presence of carbon dioxide

m s e
a
B. Presence of only water (moisture)

s e g l
g l a C. Presence of only oxygen
a
a D. Presence of both oxygen and water (moisture)

Q.19 Which of the following is true for mitosis but not for meiosis?
Ans A. Results in haploid cells

B. Promotes genetic variation

C. Produces identical daughter cells

D. Occurs in reproductive cells

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s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 19 of 32

Q.20 Which of the following correctly represents the mass number of an element?
Ans A. The difference between protons and neutrons

B. The number of electrons

C. The sum of protons and neutrons

D. The number of protons only

Q.21 Which process occurring in the Golgi apparatus shows its role in synthesis?
Ans A. Absorption of water through osmosis

B. Conversion of proteins into amino acids

C. Formation of complex sugars from simple sugars

D. Synthesis of nucleic acids from ribosomes

Q.22 The common name for Apis florae is:
Ans A. The little bee

B. The dwarf bee

C. The giant bee

D. The Asian bee

Q.23 Which factor does NOT increase the rate of evaporation?
Ans A. Decrease in humidity

B. Decrease in temperature

C. Increase in wind speed

D. Increase in surface area

Q.24 Arrange the following steps in correct sequence during the process of fragmentation-
based reproduction:
1. Growth of lost body parts through mitosis
2. Breakdown of body/filament into fragments
3. A Mature organism lives independently
4. Each fragment develops into a complete organism
Ans A. 4 – 2 – 1 – 3

B. 2 – 4 – 1 – 3

C. 1 – 2 – 4 – 3

D. 2 – 1 – 4 – 3

Q.25 Which of the following correctly represents the pathway of air during respiration in
human beings?
Ans A. Mouth → Stomach → Lungs → Alveoli

B. Mouth → Heart → Lungs → Diaphragm

C. Nostrils → Throat → Lungs → Alveoli

D. Nostrils → Food pipe → Heart → Lungs

Section : Mathematics

Q.26

Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 20 of 32

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Q.27 The ratio of the ages of A and B at present is 5 : 1. Five years earlier from now, the ratio
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was 6 : 1. Find the present age of B.

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Ans A. 25 years
m a
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C. 20 years ag l
D. 35 years

Q.28 Pipe A and Pipe B can fill a cistern together in 8 hours. Pipe B is 25% more efficient
than Pipe A. Find the capacity of the cistern, if it is given that pipe A fills the cistern at a
speed of 5 litres per minute.
Ans A. 5400 litres

B. 4200 litres
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C. 8240 litres
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D. 7000 litres

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Q.29
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The ratio of Ratnesh’s monthly income to expenditure is 12 : 7. His income is increased

l a
by 40% and expenditure is increased by 50%. What is the new ratio of income to
ag
ag
expenditure?6712
Ans A. 8 : 5

B. 10 : 7

C. 11 : 6

D. 4 : 3

Q.30 In an election, 8640 people or 72% of the eligible voters cast their votes. If the number
of eligible voters increases by 8% next year, how many eligible voters will there be in
total next year?3199
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Ans A. 12,860

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B. 13,860
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C. 13,960
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D. 12,960 a
Q.31
Ans A. 24

B. 27

C. 26

D. 25

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Q.32
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The amount on a sum of ₹6,200 at 20% per annum compound interest, compounded
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annually, in 2 years will be:

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Ans
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A. ₹9,928

g l a
g l a B. ₹8,928
a
a C. ₹8,036

D. ₹8,670

Q.33 A, B and C are three candidates in an election. A got 18% votes and B got 43% votes,
whereas C was on second rank. If B won the election by 6,996 votes, then find the total
number of votes.
Ans A. 1,57,980

B. 1,55,545

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C. 1,74,900

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D. 1,61,230

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ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 21 of 32

Q.34 A metallic cylindrical pipe has outer radius 7 cm, inner radius 5 cm, and length 14 cm.
Find the volume of the metal used in the pipe.
Ans A. 346π cm3

B. 352π cm3

C. 336π cm3

D. 342π cm3

Q.35 Two bells in a school ring at 8 am. One bell rings after every 30 minutes and the other
after every 40 minutes. If the school gets over at 2 pm, how many times in a day do the
bells ring together?
Ans A. 2

B. 4

C. 5

D. 3

Q.36 A shopkeeper marks an article at ₹x and offers a discount of 63% on the marked price.
He sells it for ₹481 after charging VAT of 25% on the discounted price. What is the value
of x?
Ans A. 1,200

B. 1,300

C. 1,040

D. 1,100

Q.37 (x − 2)² is equal to:
Ans A. x² − 4x + 4

B. x² − 2x + 4

C. x² − 4x + 2

D. x² + 4x + 4

Q.38 Find the single discount equivalent to two successive discounts of 29% and 28%.
Ans A. 46.03%

B. 51.29%

C. 47.39%

D. 48.88%

Q.39 Which of the following numbers is divisible by 45?
Ans A. 555555

B. 306999

C. 20475

D. 25436

Q.40

Ans A. 13

B. 6

C. 4

D. 9

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 22 of 32

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Q.41 One pipe can fill a tank in 6 minutes, while another pipe can empty the completely filled
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tank in 24 minutes. If both the pipes are opened together when the tank is empty, how

. many minutes will it take to fill one-half of the tank?
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Ans A. 5

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B. 8

C. 9
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D. 4

Q.42 Keshav bought 52 books for ₹1,120 from one shop and 47 books for ₹915 from another.
What is the average price (in ₹, rounded off to two decimal places) he paid per book?
Ans A. 21.56

B. 20.56
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C. 22.56
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D. 23.56

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Q.43

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Ans A. 47 ag
B. 44

C. 46

D. 45

Q.44 A car travels from city X to city Y, covering the first 120 km at a speed of 50 km/h and
the remaining 180 km at a speed of 80 km/h. Calculate the average speed for the entire
journey. (round off your answer to two decimal places).
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Ans A. 64.12 km/h

B. 64.52 km/h
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C. 64.92 km/h
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D. 63.52 km/h
ag
Q.45 A company earns a profit that is distributed among the company's three partners in the
ratio of 7 : 13 : 9. If the difference between the smallest and the largest shares is
₹58,326, the total profit of the company is:
Ans A. 2,81,934

B. 2,81,811

C. 2,81,909

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D. 2,81,955

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Q.46

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The lengths of the parallel sides of a trapezium are 20 cm and 10 cm, respectively. The
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lengths of the two non-parallel sides are 13 cm each. Find the area (in cm2) of the
trapezium.
g l a
g l a Ans A. 120 a
a B. 180

C. 140

D. 160

Q.47 The average of the first 14 odd natural numbers, is:
Ans A. 14

B. 13.5

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C. 14.5

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D. 15

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 23 of 32

Q.48 Tom has been saving money for a new bike and has ₹12,000 in his saving account. He
decides to save an additional ₹1,500 each week. How many weeks will it take for Tom to
have a total of ₹21,000?
Ans A. 6 weeks

B. 7 weeks

C. 5 weeks

D. 8 weeks

Q.49 A shopkeeper marks an article at ₹2,000 and offers a discount of 10%.
What is the selling price?
Ans A. ₹1,950

B. ₹1,800

C. ₹1,850

D. ₹1,900

Q.50 Simplify: tan4 θ + tan2 θ
Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a row, facing north. F sits
fifth from the right end of the row. Only three people sit to the right of C. D
is the immediate neighbor of B and C. A sits to the right of E but left of F.
How many people sit between G and A?
Ans A. Three

B. Two

C. Four

D. One

Q.52 Refer to the following letter series and answer the question.

(Left) F J L T M N C R P W X Z K O H A Y Q D G E B (Right)

How many letters appear after "Q" but before "E" in the given series?5698
Ans A. Four

B. Two

C. Five

D. Three

Q.53 All 51 people are standing in a row facing north. Rekha is 13th from the left end while
Ajay is 6th from the right end. How many people are there between Rekha and Ajay?
Ans A. 32

B. 34

C. 33

D. 31

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 24 of 32

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Q.54 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
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given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly

. known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
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statement(s).
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Statements: All flutes are drums. All drums are guitars.
Conclusion (I): No guitar is a flute
Conclusion (II): Some guitars are flutes ag
Ans A. Only conclusion (I) follows

B. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

C. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

D. Only conclusion (II) follows

Q.55 Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?

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(36 − 28) × 3 + 9 × 5 − (108 ÷ 4) + 42 = 96
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(Note: Interchange should be done of the entire number and not individual digits of a
given number.)
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Ans A. 3 and 5

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B. 36 and 42

C. 4 and 3

D. 9 and 4

Q.56 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
to that group?
(Note: The odd man out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. VC - BH
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B. XF - CK

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C. MD - RI
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D. GN - LS
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Q.57
a
Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
to that group?
(Note: The odd man out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. EK - IP

B. GU - KY

C. PC - TG
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D. LR - PV

Q.58
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TOIL is related to BWQT in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
s e m
s e same way, ZUOR is related to HCWZ. To which of the following options is XSMP related,
g l a
g l a following the same logic?
a
a Ans A. FAXW

B. FAZS

C. FAUX

D. FAXE

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 25 of 32

Q.59 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking
down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
/ subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

77 - 3 - 80
12 - 4 - 161422
Ans A. 14 - 9 - 25

B. 6 - 5 - 11

C. 20 - 13 - 43

D. 11 - 1 - 23

Q.60 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

167 176 194 221 257 ?
Ans A. 302

B. 303

C. 301

D. 304

Q.61 In a certain code language, ‘leaves turn brown’ is coded as ‘ka gs rl’ and ‘gather leaves
daily’ is coded as ‘ny hf gs’. How is ‘leaves’ coded in the given language?
Ans A. gs

B. rl

C. ka

D. hf

Q.62 Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the following equation correct?

(56 ÷ 14) × 3 + 7 × 9 − 15 × 5 + 28 = 103

(Note: The entire number should be interchanged and not individual digits of a given
number.)
Ans A. 7 and 14

B. 28 and 14

C. 5 and 7

D. 56 and 28

Q.63 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.
(Left) 435 325 123 756 264 (Right)
(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
NOTE - All operations to be done from left to right.
What will be the resultant if the third digit of the highest number is added to the second
digit of the lowest number?
Ans A. 12

B. 10

C. 9

D. 8

Q.64 Seven people, S, Q, U, A, R, E and D are sitting in a row, facing north.
No one sits to the left of A. Only four people sit between A and S. Only three people sit
to the right of R. U sits to the immediate left of E. D is not an immediate neighbor of R.
Who sits at the rightmost end of the line?
Ans A. D

B. S

C. E

D. A
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 26 of 32

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Q.65 Piyush starts from Point X and drives 6 km towards east. He then takes a left turn,
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drives 3 km, turns right, and drives 5 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 3 km.

. Finally, he takes a right turn, drives 5 km, and stops at Point P. How far (shortest
e m
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distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point X again?
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(All turns are 90 degrees turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. 4 km towards east
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B. 6 km towards west

C. 4 km towards north

D. 3 km towards east

Q.66 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
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Statements:
All books are pens.
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Some pens are crayons.

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Conclusion (I): All crayons are pens.
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Conclusion (II): Some books are crayons.
Ans A. Only conclusion (I) follows

B. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

C. Only conclusion (II) follows

D. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

Q.67 In a certain code language,
A+ B means ‘A is the sister of B’
A # B means ‘A is the brother of B’
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A × B means ‘A is the wife of B’
A @ B means ‘ A is the father of B’
Based on the above, how is L related to R if ‘ L×O#V@E+R’?
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Ans A. Father's brother's daughter
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B. Father's brother's wife
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C. Mother

D. Sister

Q.68 Six people, G, H, I, Q, R and S, are sitting in a straight line, facing north. Only two
people sit to the right of Q. Only one person sits between Q and S. Only one person sits
between H and R. R sits to the immediate left of Q. Only I sits to the right of G. How
many people sit between H and G?

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Ans A. Two

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B. One
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a Q.69 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 4 @ 3 % 5 $ 1 # 6 & 9 * 5 + 1 ? 6 + = 5 $ # 2 (Right)

If all the symbols are dropped from the series, which of the following will be seventh
from the right?
Ans A. 9

B. 3

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C. 6

D. 5

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Q.70 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

WTQ 69 URO 76 SPM 83 QNK 90 ?
Ans A. OPR 96

B. OKH 96

C. OMH 97

D. OLI 97

Q.71 In a row of 50 students facing North, Miku is 12th from the right end. If Pushkar is 5th to
the left of Miku, what is Pushkar's position from the left end of the line?
Ans A. 33rd

B. 34th

C. 31st

D. 32nd

Q.72 Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows. (All numbers are single
digit numbers only.) Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 5 7 9 4 2 1 4 7 9 3 2 6 8 5 4 1 9 5 4 3 2 (Right)

How many such even digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
even digit and also immediately followed by an even digit?
Ans A. 1

B. 3

C. 2

D. 4

Q.73 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

18 25 32 39 46 ?
Ans A. 53

B. 49

C. 56

D. 52

Q.74 Rohit starts from Point A and drives 15 km towards the West. He then takes a left turn,
drives 11 km, turns left and drives 18 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 14 km. He
takes a final left turn, drives 3 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
90 degrees turns only unless specified).
Ans A. 4 km to the South

B. 3 km to the South

C. 3 km to the North

D. 4 km to the North

Q.75 In a certain code language, ‘ride waves carefully’ is coded as ‘el uw cb’ and ‘waves
crash loud’ is coded as ‘sr cb vq’. How is ‘waves’ coded in the given language?
Ans A. el

B. sr

C. cb

D. uw

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 28 of 32

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Q.76 MPLQ is related to SVRW in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
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the same way, ORNS is related to UXTY. To which of the following is FIEJ related to,

. following the same logic?
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Ans A. LOKP

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B. LOKQ

C. LNKQ
a
D. LNKP

Q.77 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

336 327 318 309 300 ?
Ans A. 289

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B. 291

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C. 281

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D. 285

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Q.78
l as
HOCX is related to SZNI in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
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same way, ZGUP is related to KRFA. To which of the following options is GNBW related
to, following the same logic?
Ans A. THYU

B. RYHU

C. RMKI

D. RYMH

Q.79 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?
m
FVO 18, DTM 29, BRK 40, ZPI 51, ?
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Ans A. WNH 61
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B. YNF 65
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C. XNF 62 a
D. XNG 62

Q.80 If ‘D’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘E’ stands for ‘×’, ‘F’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘G’ stands for ‘−’, then what
will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

24 E 2 D 4 F 5 G 3 = ?
Ans A. 13

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B. 11

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C. 12

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ag Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

Q.81 What is India’s rank in the Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) 2026?
Ans A. 33rd

B. 13th

C. 23rd

D. 10th

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Q.82 The Quality Council of India (QCI), the national custodian of accreditation in India,
commemorated the World Accreditation Day, 2025, in which city?
Ans A. Indore

B. Bhopal

C. New Delhi

D. Jaipur

Q.83 Who among the following was the Player of the Tournament in the ICC Women’s Cricket
World Cup 2025?
Ans A. Jemimah Rodrigues

B. Deepti Sharma

C. Shafali Verma

D. Smriti Mandhana

Q.84 What is the estimated capital expenditure allocation for FY2025–26?
Ans A. ₹12.63 lakh crore

B. ₹9 lakh crore

C. ₹11.21 lakh crore

D. ₹10 lakh crore

Q.85 What is the name of the bill passed by the West Bengal Assembly in June 2025 to cap
healthcare expenses in private hospitals?
Ans A. West Bengal Health Protection (Amendment) Bill, 2025

B. West Bengal Clinical Establishments (Registration, Regulation and Transparency) (Amendment) Bill, 2025

C. West Bengal Medical Cost Transparency (Amendment) Bill, 2025

D. West Bengal Patient Safety (Amendment) Bill, 2025

Q.86 Launched in March 2024 in India, what is the name of the platform that allows
individuals to report fraudulent communications, including calls, texts, and WhatsApp
messages?
Ans A. Ruzuku

B. Chakshu

C. Podia

D. Proctur

Q.87 Which of the following authors won the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2025?
Ans A. László Krasznahorkai

B. George Orwell

C. John Steinbeck

D. Ernest Hemingway

Q.88 As per the 2023 Air Quality Life Index (AQLI) report by the Energy Policy Institute at the
University of Chicago (EPIC), what is the reduction in life expectancy for the average
Indian due to exposure to fine particulate air pollution (PM2.5)?
Ans A. 3.8 years

B. 6.7 years

C. 2.5 years

D. 5.3 years

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 30 of 32

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Q.89 'Strengthening Global South Cooperation for a More Inclusive and Sustainable
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Governance' was the theme of the 17th summit of which international organization held

. in July 2025?
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Ans A. G20

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B. BRICS

C. NATO
a
D. ASEAN

Q.90 Which organisation is set to be established at GIFT City, Gandhinagar from the
beginning of 2026 to strengthen India’s artificial intelligence ecosystem through
collaboration between government, industry, and academia?
Ans A. Indian AI Research Organization

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B. Centre for Advanced Artificial Intelligence Research

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C. National Artificial Intelligence Authority

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D. Indian Institute of Artificial Intelligence

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Q.91
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Operation Alert, launched by the Border Security Force in August 2025, primarily aimed
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to strengthen security along which Indian border?
Ans A. Assam border

B. Punjab border

C. Jammu and Kashmir border

D. Rajasthan border

Q.92 In which of the following National Parks did an India-born female cheetah give birth to
five cubs in November 2025, marking a major milestone under Project Cheetah?

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Ans A. Bandipur National Park

B. Ranthambore National Park
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C. Gir National Park
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D. Kuno National Park
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Q.93 What is the projected fiscal deficit for FY2025–26 as per the Union Budget 2025-26?
Ans A. 5.1% of GDP

B. 4.4% of GDP

C. 4.8% of GDP

D. 3.9% of GDP

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Q.94 Which country added India to its List of Qualifications Exempt from Assessment
m
(LQEA) in June 2025?
Ans

m .co A. New Zealand
s e m
s e B. Canada
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g l a C. The United Kingdom a
a D. Australia

Q.95 Who set a javelin F42 world record (61.17 m) at the 2025 WPA Grand Prix?
Ans A. Ravi Rangoli

B. Gurjar Mahendra

C. Pingane Mina Vilas

D. Sumit Antil

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Q.96 Which senior Indian official attended the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)
Defence Ministers’ Conclave in June 2025?
Ans A. Rajnath Singh

B. S Jaishankar

C. Amit Shah

D. Narendra Modi

Q.97 Which award highlights lifetime achievement in sports broadcasting, won by David Hill
in 2025?
Ans A. Sports Emmy Journalism Award

B. Sports Business Journal's Lifetime Achievement Award

C. Sports Business Journal' Laureus Media Honour

D. Sports Basketball Award

Q.98 What is the name of India’s first 5.5 Gen stealth aircraft showcased by DRDO at Aero
India 2025?
Ans A. Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft

B. Advanced Light Weight Torpedo

C. TEDBF

D. LCA Tejas Mk-2

Q.99 Which of the following national parks was designated as 58th tiger reserve of India in
March 2025?
Ans A. Panna National Park

B. Kuno National Park

C. Pench National Park

D. Madhav National Park

Q.100 Which of the following veteran Indian goalkeepers announced that he will retire after
the Paris Olympics, ending an 18-year career during which he played a pivotal role in
some of the team's historic moments?
Ans A. M S Srinath

B. Rajneesh Karmakar

C. P R Sreejesh

D. Ramesh Babu

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 32 of 32