SLIET SET 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key B.E. Lateral Entry SET-III Group C

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SLIET SET 2025
Question Paper · B.E.
Lateral Entry SET-III
Group C
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SLIET SET 2025 Question Paper B.E. Lateral Entry SET-III Group C
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SLIET SET 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key B.E. Lateral Entry SET-III Group C

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PaperCode: 2003 Paper Name: 2003-B.E. (LATERAL ENTRY) (SET III)-GROUP C Set Name: Original

Q-1 Aditya-L1 is dedicated mission of ISRO to study ------.

A Moon B Mars

C Jupiter D Sun
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Q-2 The Indus water treaty which has recently been suspended was between India and ---------.

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A China

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C Bangladesh
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Q-3 Cellular jail is located in --------.

A Goa B Shaheed dweep

C Pune D Sri Vijaya Puram

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Q-4
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The ratio of Sun’s distance from earth to the diameter of Sun is approximately ---------.

100
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A B
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C 108 D 112

Q-5 As per the latest data released by the IMF World Economic Outlook, position of India among World largest economies is
expected to be at ------------ in May/June 2025.

A 4th B 5th

C 6th D 3rd

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What is the missing number in sequence 4,8,14,22,32,--------?
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Q-6

A
as 42 B 44
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C 46 D 48

Q-7 Choose the correct passive form of the sentence given below:
Had the police arrested the burglar.

A Had the burglar been arrested by the B Have the burglar been arrested by the police.
police.

C The burglar has been arrested by the police.

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D Had the burglar was arrested by the police.
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I can’t find my _____ bag. For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit gl
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Q-8
A lose loosing
B Question Paper with Answer Key B.E. Lateral Entry SET-III Group C
SLIET SET 2025
C lost D left

Q-9 Identify the word which is similar in the meaning to the phrase (in inverted commas) of the sentence:
When she heard the news, she was “like a dog with two tails”.

A very greedy B very enthusiastic

C very morose D very happy

Q-10 Let's wait until it _______ raining.

A stops B stopped

C stopping D stop

Q-11 Which element has the largest atomic radius?

A Li B Na

C F D I

Q-12

A reduction B oxidation

C Loss of electron D no change

Q-13 The correct order of orbitals in which electrons are filled is?

A 3d, 4s, 4p, 4d B 4s, 3d, 4p, 5s

C 5s, 4p, 3d, 4d D 3d, 4p, 4s, 4d

Q-14 Which of the following is incorrect about ‘s’ orbitals?

A They are spherical in shape B They are found in all principal energy levels

C They can only hold one electron D None of these

Q-15 Which pair of metals has the same electronic configuration

A Cr³⁺, Fe³⁺ B Mn²⁺, Fe³⁺

C V³⁺, Cr³⁺ D Mn²⁺, Ni²⁺

Q-16 The hybridisation of S in SF₆ molecule is
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B Question Paper with Answer Key B.E. Lateral Entry SET-III Group C
SLIET SET 2025
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Q-17 Among the following compounds which one is most ionic?

A BeS B BCl₃

C MgCl₂ D Al₂O₃

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Q-18
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Which element has the highest first ionization energy?
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A O
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C C D B

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Q-19 The chemical formula of ammonium phosphate is

A (NH₄)PO₄ B (NH₄)₂PO₄

C (NH₄)₃PO₄ D None of these

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Arrange the following in increasing order of their bond order He₂, O₂ , N₂ and NO

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Q-20

A He₂˂O₂ ˂N₂˂ NO B He₂˃O₂˃N₂ ˃NO

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C He₂˂N₂˂ NO ˂O₂

l as D He₂˂O₂˂NO ˂N₂

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Q-21 Which of the following is scalar physical quantity?

A Velocity B Acceleration

C Speed D Momentum

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Q-22 Newton’s first law of motion is also known as:

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A Law of inertia B Law of acceleration

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Law of action-reaction Law of gravitation
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C D

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a Q-23 If m is mass of the displaced object, x is displacement and k is spring constant, then the restoring force (F) in SHM
(Simple harmonic motion) is given by:

A F = kx B F = -kx

C F = ma D F = mv

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Q-24 The distance between two consecutive crests or troughs in a transverse wave is called

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A Amplitude

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B Frequency
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C Time period
s D Wavelength
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SLIET SET 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key B.E. Lateral Entry SET-III Group C

Q-25 The ability of material to return to its original state after deformation is called:

A Plasticity B Elasticity

C Ductility D Malleability

Q-26 Bernoulli’s principle is based on the conservation of...

A Mass B Momentum

C Charge D Energy

Q-27 The majority charge carriers in p-type semiconductor are....

A Electrons B Holes

C Protons D Positrons

Q-28 The process of adding impurities to a semiconductor is called

A Diffusion B Ionization

C Doping D Recombination

Q-29 Which quantum number is used to find energy of electron in an energy level

A Principle quantum number (n) B Azimuthal quantum number (l)

C Magnetic quantum number (m) D Spin quantum number (s)

Q-30 Which of the following is not emitted during a radioactive decay?

A Alpha particle B Gamma rays

C Beta particle D Neutron

Q-31 How many different ways can a team of five people be formed from a total of ten people so that two specific people are
included in each team ?

A 56 B 55

C 57 D 58

Q-32

A B

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D Question Paper with Answer Key B.E. Lateral Entry SET-III Group C
SLIET SET 2025
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Q-33

A B

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C D

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Q-34
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A 2,4 B 4,1

C 4,2 D 2,2

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Q-35

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A B

C D

Q-36 If the mean of certain set of data is 25 and variance is 16, then the coefficient of variance is
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A 15 B 16
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17 18
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C D

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A a=4,b=1 B a=1,b=4

C a=-4,b=1 D a=4,b=-4

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SLIET SET 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key B.E. Lateral Entry SET-III Group C
Q-38

A 6/5 B 5/6

C (-5)/6 D (-6)/5

Q-39

A B

C D

Q-40 If a line has direction ratios 2,-1,-2, determine its direction cosines

A B

C D

Q-41 Which of the following is not an intensive property of a thermodynamic system?

A Mass B Pressure

C Temperature D None of these

Q-42 Concept of entropy, a measure of disorder or randomness in a system is being introduced by

A Zeroth Law of thermodynamics B First Law of thermodynamics

C Second Law of thermodynamics D Third Law of thermodynamics

Q-43 The third law of thermodynamics states that entropy of a perfectly ordered crystalline substance is_______ at absolute
zero of temperature.

A Zero B Less than Zero

C Greater than Zero D One

Q-44 Roult’s law states that
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B Question
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capacity at constant pressure) + Cv
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Paper with Answer Key B.E. Lateral Entry SET-III Group C

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(heat capacity at constant volume) = R (Gas (heat capacity at constant volume) = R (Gas

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constant). constant).
a C Partial vapor pressure of a solvent in a D Partial vapor pressure of a solvent in a
solution is directly proportional to its solution is inversely proportional to its mole
mole fraction in the solution. fraction in the solution.

Q-45 For a reversible reaction at equilibrium, the free energy change is

A small negative B zero

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C small positive D none of these

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Q-46
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A time B temperature

C concentration D none of these

Q-47

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A B
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C 3 D 5

Q-48 If the reactants are entering into a CSTR having inside reactant volume of 20 Litre at a flow rate of 5 litre/minute, the
residence time (in minute) for the reactants in a CSTR will be

A 0.25 B 4

C 25 D 100

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The reaction in which the rate of reaction does not depend on concentration of reactants is known as m
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Q-49

A
as zero order reaction B
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C second order reaction D third order reaction

Q-50 Which of the following is the cause of global warming?

A Excessive burning of fossil fuels B Afforestation

C Accumulation of plastic waste D Decrease in carbon dioxide concentration in
atmosphere

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Q-51
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In which of the following mode of heat transfer, the heat is transmitted without medium?
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A Convection Conduction
B Question Paper with Answer Key B.E. Lateral Entry SET-III Group C
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C Radiation D Insulation

Q-52 The fundamental Law which describes the heat flow through a material by conduction is ____.

A Fourier’s Law B Stefan-Boltzmann Law

C Plank’s law D Newton’s Law

Q-53 Which of the following is not a heat transfer equipment?

A Heat exchanger B Evaporator

C Condenser D none of these

Q-54 Fick’s first law of diffusion describes_________________

A movement of solute from higher B movement of solute from lower concentration
concentration to lower concentration. to higher concentration.

C movement of heat from higher temperature D movement of heat from lower temperature to
to lower temperature. higher temperature.

Q-55 Which of the following is not true?

A The process wherein molecular B Plate and packed columns are used for the
substances are accumulated in higher separation processes.
concentrations on the surface is called
absorption.

C Sieve tray distillation column is used for the D The soluble component in absorption
separation of ethanol-water system in the equipment is called solute.
alcohol industry.

Q-56 Bernoulli’s theorem states that the sum of pressure energy, kinetic energy, and potential energy at any point of the
fluids is………….

A very high B moderate high

C constant D low

Q-57 Which of the following is true for constant pressure filtration?

A Resistance decreases with time. B Rate of filtration increases with time.

C Rate of filtration decreases with time. D Rate of filtration is constant.

Q-58 As per the Rittingers law, the work required is proportional to ______

A consumed energy. B the initial feed.

C surface area created. D final volume obtained.
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SLIET SET 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key B.E. Lateral Entry SET-III Group C

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a Q-59 Which one of the following is not a type of pump?
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A Centrifugal B Diaphragm

C Gear D none of these

Q-60 Cream separator is being utilized in dairy industry for__________

A pasteurizing the milk. B separating milk into cream and skim
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C milk storage.
. c D flavouring the cream.
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Q-61
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The radiation pyrometer is used to measure__________.

A temperature B pressure

C liquid level D flow rate

Q-62 A manometer measures ______________pressure.

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A absolute B atmospheric

C gauge

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Which one of the following is not used for the measurement of fluid flow?

A Pitot tube B Orifice meter

C Venturi meter D none of these

Q-64 Biodiversity refers to______________.

A variety of a particular plant species in an B variety and abundance of different
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ecosystem. species of all living things in an
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ecosystem

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diversified biomass in a particular area. none of these
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C D

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a Q-65 The _____________ effect provides the relationship between absorption/evolution of heat at the thermocouple
junctions and the current flow in the circuit.

A Peltier B Seebeck

C Thomson D none of these

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Q-66 Which one of the following is not a cause of deforestation?

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A Agricultural expansion

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B Urbanization
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C Soil erosion
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SLIET SET 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key B.E. Lateral Entry SET-III Group C

Q-67 Which one of the following is utilized for the measurement of liquid level?

A Pirani gauge B Polarimeter

C MacLeod gauge D Air purge system

Q-68 Which of the following comprises the municipal solid waste?

A Food waste B Plastic cans

C Wood waste D All of these

Q-69 Which of the following statement is correct?

A Noise pollution contributes to the global B Smog is not a type of air pollution.
warming.

C Agricultural pesticides cause water D Unrestricted grazing helps in equitable use of
pollution. resources

Q-70 Thermodynamic system of a steam turbine is an example of _______.

A Close system B Open system

C Both close and open system D None of these

Q-71 Which of the following is a monosaccharide?

A Sucrose B Lactose

C Fructose D Maltose

Q-72 Which of the following is an example of a fibrous protein?

A Hemoglobin B Keratin

C Insulin D Myoglobin

Q-73 Unsaturated fats are primarily found in

A Animal fats B Dairy products

C Processed foods D Nuts and oil seeds

Q-74 Denaturation of proteins results in

A Complete breakdown into amino acids B Loss of biological activity and change in
structure

C Increased solubility in water D Formation of a stronger peptide bond
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SLIET SET 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key B.E. Lateral Entry SET-III Group C

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a Q-75 Rancidity of fats occurs due to
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A Freezing B Exposure to light, air, and moisture

C Mixing with proteins D Heating at high temperatures

Q-76 The process of converting unsaturated fats into saturated fats by adding hydrogen is called

A Hydrolysis B Hydrogenation
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C Saponification
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D Oxidation
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Q-77 Which chemical test is used to detect the presence of reducing sugars?

A Benedict’s test a B Biuret test

C Iodine test D Fehling’s test

Q-78 Which of the following bacteria is rod-shaped?

A Bacilli B Cocci

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C Vibrio D Spirillum

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Q-79 Canned meat is generally spoiled by

A Clostridium B Escherichia

C Pseudomonas D Salmonella

Q-80 Which type of spoilage is expected in the canned evaporated milk?

A Curd formation B Bulged can

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C Bitter flavour D All of these

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Q-81 What is the primary purpose of cereals milling?
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agA To increase their moisture content B To improve their color

C To remove husk and bran, improving D To reduce their nutritional value
digestibility

Q-82 The degree of milling in cereals affects

A Nutritional value B Shelf life

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C Cooking quality D All of these

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Q-83 Which of the following is a traditional method SLIET SET 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key B.E. Lateral Entry SET-III Group C
of oil extraction?

A Expeller pressing B Cold pressing

C Solvent extraction D Supercritical fluid extraction

Q-84 Which of the following factors affects oil yield during extraction?

A Type of oilseed B Moisture content

C Extraction method used D All of these

Q-85 What is the primary objective of milk homogenization?

A To increase milk’s viscosity B To break down fat globules and prevent
cream separation

C To kill harmful bacteria D To remove lactose from milk

Q-86 What equipment is commonly used for pasteurizing milk?

A Heat exchanger B Homogenizer

C Centrifuge D Ultrafiltration unit

Q-87 Which chemical is commonly used for curing meat?

A Sodium chloride B Sodium nitrate

C Potassium hydroxide D Calcium carbonate

Q-88 What does HACCP stand for in meat and poultry processing?

A Hazard Analysis and Critical Control B High Accuracy Chemical Control Process
Points

C Healthy Animal Care and Processing Plan D Heat Application and Cold Cooking Process

Q-89 Which microorganism is primarily responsible for alcoholic fermentation?

A Lactobacillus B Saccharomyces cerevisiae

C Escherichia coli D Streptococcus thermophilus

Q-90 In distilled alcoholic beverages, what process is used to concentrate alcohol content?

A Filtration B Pasteurization

C Distillation D Carbonation

Q-91 What gas is commonly usedFortomore
carbonate soft drinks?
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B Question Paper with Answer Key B.E. Lateral Entry SET-III Group C
SLIET SET 2025
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C
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Q-92 What is the primary purpose of blanching in fruit and vegetable processing?

A To add flavor B To soften the texture

C To inactivate enzymes D To increase the sugar content

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Which quality attribute determines the crispiness of potato chips?
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A Chemical properties
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C Aroma D Nutritional content

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Q-94 What is used to measure the sweetness of a food product?

A pH meter B Refractometer

C Texture analyzer D Thermometer

Which simple test can be used to detect the presence of starch in milk?
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Q-95

A Adding iodine solution B Adding vinegar

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C Boiling the milk

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Q-96 Which food safety authority is responsible for controlling food adulteration in India?

A WHO B FSSAI

C FDA D ISO

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Q-97 What does the term "rheology" refer to in food science?

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A Study of food color changes B Study of heat transfer in food processing

C
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Study of the flow and deformation of
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Study of microbial growth in food

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D

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Q-98 Which of the following is a subjective method of sensory evaluation?

A pH measurement B Texture analysis

C Consumer panel testing D Gas chromatography

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Q-99 What is "threshold testing" in sensory evaluation?

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A Testing for the minimum concentration

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B Measuring the nutritional content of food
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at which a stimulus is detected
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C Determining the exact chemical composition SLIET SET 2025 Analyzing
D Question the color of food
Paper with Answer Key B.E. Lateral Entry SET-III Group C
of food

Q-100 What does the FSSAI logo on packaged food indicate?

A The product is organic B The product meets food safety and
quality standards

C The product is imported D The product is expensive

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