HP M.Sc. Nursing 2025 Question Paper

Atal Medical & Research University, H.P.
(A State Govt. University)
(SLBS Govt. Medical College & Hospital Campus, Ner Chowk, Mandi, H.P.)
Website:- www.amruhp.ac.in , Email: [email protected], Phone No. 01905-243967

Answer keys
for M. Sc. Nursing Entrance test
Paper Code-2503
held on 11th June, 2025
Morning Shift (10:00 AM to 12:00 Noon)

If a candidate does not satisfy with the key answers, he/she can make
representation with documentary proof to the COE, Atal Medical and Research
University, HP, at Nerchowk, Distt. Mandi, HP-175008 through email on
[email protected] up to 13.06.2025 by 05:00 PM and thereafter,
no representation will be entertained under any circumstances.

Sd/-
(Dr. Parveen Kumar Sharma)
Controller of Examinations
Atal Medical & Research University, HP,
Ner Chowk, Distt. Mandi.

Paper Code- 2503

(To be filled by the candidate) Booklet S. No. ____________________

Roll No. (In figures) ____________________________________________________________________

Roll No. (In words) _____________________________________________________________________

_____________________________________________________________________________________

Name of the Candidate : _________________________________________________________________

Father’s Name : ________________________________________________________________________

Center of Examination : _________________________________________________________________

Total No. of Questions : 100

Paper Code- 2503
Time Allowed : 2 Hours Maximum Marks : 100
IMPORTANT NOTE:

(i) OMR Answer Sheet will be supplied by the Examination Centre Superintendent for answering the
questions.
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(ix) Use of Calculator is not allowed.
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(xi) MOBILE TELEPHONES (EVEN ON SWITCH-OFF MODE) AND SUCH OTHER ELECTRONIC DEVICES
ARE NOT ALLOWED INSIDE THE EXAMINATION HALL.
(xii) The question paper-booklet will be retained by the candidate after the entrance test is over.
(xiii) Question No. 1-20 is of Medical Surgical Nursing including Anatomy, Physiology, Pharmacology,
Pathology, Genetics & Microbiology, 21-40 is of Community HealthNursing including Research
& Statistics, 41-60 is of Obstetric & GynecologicalNursing including Nursing Education &
Administration, 61-80 is of Child Health Nursing including Nutrition, Biochemistry &
Biophysics and 81-100 is of Mental health Nursing including Psychology & Sociology subjects.

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Q1. Lungs are enclosed within: (d) Bicarbonate
(a) Perichondrium Answer d
(b) Periosteum
(c) Pericardium Q5. Which of the following is the functional
(d) Pleural membrane unit of food absorption?
Answer d (a) Villi
(b) Red blood cells
Q2. Heartbeat originates from the: (c) Small intestine
(a) papillary muscles (d) Aggregated lymphoid nodules
(b) AV node Answer a
(c) SA node
(d) Purkinje fibres Q6. Epithelial cells of the stomach secretes
Answer c ________
(a) Hydrochloric acid
Q3. Cartilage at the end of long bones is: (b) Oxytocin
(a) Calcified cartilage (c) Adrenaline
(b) Fibrous cartilage (d) Testosterone
(c) Hyaline cartilage Answer a
(d) Elastic cartilage
Answer c Q7. Which of the following vitamin get
destroy due to polishing of rice?
Q4. The maximum amount of carbon (a) Ascorbic acid
dioxide in the human body is transported (b) Thiamine
as: (c) Calciferol
(a) Carbide (d) Cobalamin
(b) Amylase Answer b
(c) Phosphate

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Q8. Application of the drug to the skin Q11. A patient with hypothyroidism is at
usually by rubbing is known as: risk for which of the following
(a) Insertion condition?
(b) Insufflation (a) Cretinism
(c) Instillation (b) Diabetic Ketoacidosis
(d) Inunction (c) Myxedema Coma
Answer d (d) Thyroid storm
Answer c
Q9. Test dose of penicillin is administered
by which of the following route? Q12. Halo test is used to check:
(a) Subcutaneous (a) CSF leakage
(b) Intravenous (b) Balancing
(c) Intramuscular (c) Brain damage
(d) Intradermal (d) Hearing
Answer d Answer a

Q10. What is the correct temperature used Q13. In Pneumothorax, breath sounds will
in autoclave method to sterilize be
instruments? (a) Increased on unaffected side
(a) 40 Degree C For 10 Min. (b) Absent on unaffected side
(b) 100 Degree C For 25 Min. (c) Increased on affected side
(c) 126 Degree C For 20 Min. (d) Absent on affected side
(d) 110 Degree C For 15 Min. Answer d
Answer c

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Q14. “Involuntary flapping motion of wrist Q17. Nurse would expect which of the
and fingers” in a patient with Cirrhosis following body part to be involved in
of Liver is known as: early stage of Hodgkin’s lymphoma?
(a) Fetor hepaticus (a) Chest
(b) Kernicterus (b) Bone
(c) Asterixis (c) Neck
(d) Abnormal Babinski reflex (d) Pelvis
Answer c Answer c

Q15. What is most likely to be noticed in a Q18. Which of the following diagnostic
patient with serum calcium level of tests is used to measure bone density and
7mg/dl diagnose osteoporosis?
(a) Ptosis (a) X-ray
(b) Diminished deep tendon reflexes (b) Ultrasound
(c) Positive kerning sign (c) Dual energy X-ray absorptiometry
(d) Positive trousseau sign (DEXA) scan
Answer d (d) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
Answer c
Q16. Kaposi’s sarcoma is associated with
(a) HIV Q19. An aneurysm is a bulging in the
(b) Epstein Bar virus (a) Cell Wall
(c) Corona virus (b) Weak wall of an artery
(d) Human Papilloma virus (c) Herniated umbilicus
Answer a (d) Inguinal hernia
Answer b

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Q20. Which among the following is a non- Q22. World Health Organization has
absorbable suture? proposed that health expenditure be
(a) Catgut viewed as catastrophic whenever a
(b) Chromic catgut household's what per cent of non-
(c) Vicryl subsistence income, (income available
(d) Nylon after basic needs have been met) is spent
Answer d as out-of-pocket health expenditure is
Q21. Which of the followings is the not the more than…………..
indicator for measuring Global Hunger (a) 20%
Index (GHI). (b) 30%
(a) Child morbidity: the morbidity (c) 40%
pattern of children under the age of (d) 50%
five years. Answer (c)
(b) Undernourishment: the share of the Q23. The Napier’s Aldehyde test is used for
population whose caloric intake is the diagnosis of?
insufficient. (a) Kala-azar
(c) Child stunting: the share of children (b) Dengue
under the age of five who have low (c) Measles
height for their age, reflecting (d) Pneumonia
chronic undernutrition. Answer (a)
(d) Child wasting: the share of children Q24. The disinfecting action of chlorine on
under the age of five who have low water is mainly due to?
weight for their height, reflecting (a) Hydrogen chloride
acute undernutrition. (b) Hypochlorous acid
Answer (a) (c) potassium chloride
(d) Hydrogen ions
Answer (b)

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Q25. The System of medicine currently not (c) 35 years and above
recognized by the Government of India (d) 40 years and above
is? Answer (b)
(a) Ayurveda
(b) Homeopathy Q28. BCG vaccine is always given in the
(c) Acupuncture left arm's upper aspect. What is the
(d) Unani reason behind this
Answer ( c) (a) To avoid administering multiple
vaccines on the same arm
Q26. The Leprosy Trust of India introduced (b) To minimise the risk of severe side
the IEC activity by introducing a effects
concept of a 12-year-old local school (c) To maintain uniformity so that it could
girl who will lead a campaign for a be easily identified whether the baby
leprosy-free India. What was the name is immunized or not
of the girl used in this campaign? (d) Because the left arm has a better
(a) Geeta immune response
(b) Meena Answer (c)
(c) Radha
(d) Sapna Q29. The infection by which organism can
Answer (d) cause cervix cancer
(a) Hepatitis B
Q27. Which age population is screened for (b) Human Papillomavirus (HPV)
non-communicable diseases under the (c) Human Immunodeficiency Virus
National Program for Non- (HIV)
communicable Diseases (NP-NCD) (d) Helicobacter Pylori (H. pylori)
(a) 25 years and above Answer (b)
(b) 30 years and above

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Q30. After how many post-vasectomy (b) Reduce annual new HIV infections
consecutive sperm count tests should be by 90%
performed to ensure less than 10 (c) Reduce AIDS-related mortalities by
000/mL or no motile sperm to declare 80%
vasectomy successful? (d) Eliminate vertical transmission of
(a) One HIV and Syphilis
(b) Two Answer (b)
(c) Three
(d) Four Q33. The adulteration of Argemone oil with
Answer (b) Mustard oil can cause:
(a) Epidemic dropsy
Q31. Which of the following is not a (b) Lathyrism.
common treatment option for managing (c) Skin rashes
Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)? (d) Jaundice
(a) Lifestyle changes (diet and Answer (a)
exercise).
(b) Insulin-sensitizing medication (e.g. Q34. Which of the following methods is
metformin). used to test the internal consistency of a
(c) Hormonal birth control. research tool
(d) Chemotherapy. (a) Cronbach’s alpha
Answer (d) (b) Test-retest method
(c) Parallel test
Q32. Which of the following is not the Goal (d) Factor analysis
of National AIDS Control Program Answer (a)
(NACP)-V
(a) Reduce annual new HIV infections
by 80%

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Q35. Which of the following statements is not Q37. For calculating the mean difference in
true for describing assumptions in a two groups which parametric test is
research study: used …
(a) An assumption is a realistic (a) ANOVA.
expectation that we believe to be true, (b) t test.
however, no adequate evidence exists to (c) Mann-Whitney U test.
support this belief. (d) Kruskal wallis test
(b) Assumptions provide a basis to Answer (b)
develop theories & research instruments
& therefore, influence the development Q38. What is life expectancy at birth?
& implementation of research (a) The average number of years a
(c) Assumptions are statements that are newborn is expected to live.
scientifically tested by using statistical (b) The age at which half of the
tests. population is expected to have died.
(d) Assumptions may also be drawn from (c) The maximum age a human can
theories. reach.
Answer (c) (d) The average number of years a
person is expected to live.
Q36. Which of the following is qualitative Answer (a)
research?
(a) Case-control study Q39. Which of the following is the non-
(b) Descriptive study probability sampling technique
(c) Experimental study (a) Simple random sampling
(d) Phenomenological study (b) Stratified sampling
Answer (d) (c) Quota sampling
(d) Systematic random Sampling
Answer (c)

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Q40. Under the Antara program of (c) Uterine rupture
contraceptives, which of the following (d) Ectopic pregnancy
statements is not true? Answer: b) Placental abruption
(a) Injectable contraceptive Medroxy
Progesterone Acetate (MPA) is a Q42. Interpret the finding on CTG given
hormonal contraceptive method for below:
women that prevents pregnancy for
three months.
(b) It is a non-reversible method of
contraception
(c) It can be easily administered in the
arms, thighs or buttocks.
(a) Early Deceleration
(d) Suitable for breastfeeding women
(b) Late Deceleration
(after 6 weeks of childbirth).
(c) Variable deceleration
Answer (b)
(d) Foetal bradycardia
Answer: b) late deceleration
Q41. A 28-year-old G2P1 woman presents
to the emergency department at 32
Q43. A 30-year-old woman presents with
weeks gestation with sudden onset of
complaints of heavy menstrual bleeding
vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain.
and pelvic pain. On transvaginal
On examination, her uterus is tender and
ultrasound, a 5 cm complex cystic mass
palpation reveals contractions. Fetal
is identified on the right ovary. Serum
heart rate monitoring shows fetal
CA-125 level is elevated. What is the
distress. What is the most likely
most likely diagnosis?
diagnosis?
(a) Endometrioma
(a) Placenta previa
(b) Serous cystadenoma
(b) Placental abruption

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(c) Mature cystic teratoma Q46. Which vaccination is not safe in
(d) Ovarian cancer pregnancy?
Answer: d) Ovarian cancer (a) Typhoid
(b) Hepatitis B
Q44. Identify the name of the instrument (c) Influenza
(d) MMR
Answer: d) MMR

Q47. In the Obstetric Haemorrhage Bundle,
(a) Allis tissue forceps
"B-Lynch suture" refers to:
(b) Kelly’s forceps
(a) A method of uterine artery ligation
(c) Vulsellum
(b) A technique for manual removal of
(d) Ovum forceps
the placenta
Answer : C) Vulsellum
(c) A compression suture to control
uterine bleeding
Q45. In the Bishop scoring system, what
(d) A protocol for administering blood
does a higher score indicate?
products
(a) More favorable conditions for
Answer: C) A compression suture to
induction of labor
control uterine bleeding
(b) Less favorable conditions for
Q48. The recommended daily dose of iron
induction of labor
supplementation in pregnant women
(c) No correlation with labor induction
with anemia is:
success
(a) 10 mg
(d) Increased risk of fetal distress
(b) 20 mg
Answer: a) More favorable
(c) 30 mg
conditions for induction of labor
(d) 120 mg
Answer: d) 120 mg

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Q49. Mrs. Rashmi was admitted for Answer: B) Protamin Sulphate
delivery. When assessing fetal heart rate
status during labor, the monitor displays Q51. The pregnant woman complains of
late decelerations with tachycardia and numbness and "Pins and needles" in her
decreasing variability. The nurse fingers and hands. the condition is called
interprets it as as?
(a) a normal occurrence. (a) Carpel Tunnel Syndrome
(b) Due to compression of foetal head (b) Varicosities
during descent (c) Pica
(c) Due to dehydration in labour and (d) Heartburn
increase IV fluids Answer. A) Carpel Tunnel Syndrome
(d) Utero placental insufficiency and an
emergency situation
Answer: d) utero placental Q52. The SUMAN program in India
insufficiency and an emergency focuses on:
situation (a) Promoting exclusive breastfeeding
(b) Reducing maternal mortality rates
Q50. While the postpartum woman is (c) Improving access to quality antenatal
receiving heparin for thrombophlebitis, and postnatal care
which of the following drugs would the (d) Preventing child marriages
nurse expect to administer if the client Answer: C) Improving access to
develops complications related to heparin quality antenatal and post-natal care
therapy?
(a) Calcium Gluconate Q53. Experienced nurses facilitating and
(b) Protamine Sulphate evaluating student learning in the clinical
(c) Methergine Area are called
(d) Nitrofurantoin (a) Adjunct faculty

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(b) Preceptors (b) Structure, workforce, Organization,
(c) Instructors types
(d) Clinical teaching associates (c) Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities,
Answer: B) Preceptors threats
Q54. The Nurse is administering a cleansing (d) Signs, worries, objectives,
enema to a patient with a fecal techniques.
Impaction. The patient should place in Answer: C) Strengths, weaknesses,
which position? Opportunities, threats

(a) Left Sim’s Position
Q57. The method of patient assignment
(b) Right Sim’s Position
focuses on the patients' geographic
(c) On the left side of the body with the
location for staff Assignment
head of the bed elevated 45 degree
(a) Team nursing
(d) Fowler’s Position
(b) Modular nursing
Answer (a) Left Sim’s Position
(c) Primary nursing
(d) Case management
Q55. Variation is a teaching skill used in
Answer: b) modular nursing
(a) Project method
(b) Concept mapping
Q58. In material management, the period in
(c) Micro teaching
days that elapses between placing an
(d) Kinesthetic learning
order and receiving the stores is termed
Answer : c) Micro teaching
as
(a) Lead time
Q56. The SWOT analysis is a technique use
(b) Economic Order Quantity
for assessing following of which four
(c) Quantity survey
aspects
(d) Reorder time
(a) Speed, wants, order, timing
Answer; a) lead time

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Q59. The clinical or care pathways in Q62. What is the primary goal in the care of
nursing are prepared based on a child with cystic fibrosis?
(a) Best practice for most of the patients, (a) Increase physical activity
most of the time. (b) Prevent respiratory infections
(b) Protocols (c) Reduce dietary fat intake
(c) Standards (d) Enhance social interaction
(d) Outcomes Answer: B) Prevent respiratory
Answer: a) Best practice for most of infections
the patients, most of the time Q63. Which immunization is recommended
Q60. The expansion of PDCA - an iterative for all newborns before hospital
four-step management method is discharge?
(a) Plan–do–check–act (a) Hepatitis B vaccine
(b) Propose –do–check–act (b) MMR vaccine
(c) Plan–do–clarify–act (c) Varicella vaccine
(d) Plan–decide –check–act (d) HPV vaccine
Answer: a) Plan- Do-Check- Act Answer: A) Hepatitis B vaccine
Q61. Which of the following is a priority Q64. A child with Kawasaki disease
nursing intervention for a child requires which of the following
experiencing an asthma attack? treatments?
(a) Administering oral fluids (a) High-dose aspirin and IV
(b) Providing high-flow oxygen immunoglobulin
(c) Encouraging deep breathing (b) Antibiotics and antipyretics
exercises (c) Steroids and antihistamines
(d) Administering a bronchodilator (d) Antivirals and corticosteroids
Answer: D) Administering a bronchodilator Answer: A) High-dose aspirin and IV
immunoglobulin

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Q65. Which of the following is a common Q68. The first priority in the management
sign of dehydration in infants? of a child with severe burns is:
(a) Frequent urination (a) Pain control
(b) Sunken fontanel (b) Infection prevention
(c) Excessive salivation (c) Fluid resuscitation
(d) Weight gain (d) Nutritional support
Answer: B) Sunken fontanel Answer: C) Fluid resuscitation

Q66. What is the most appropriate nursing Q69. What is the most common cause of
action when a child presents with meningitis in children under five ?
suspected epiglottitis? (a) Haemophilus influenzae type B
(a) Inspect the throat with a tongue (b) Streptococcus pneumoniae
depressor (c) Neisseria meningitidis
(b) Prepare for immediate intubation (d) Escherichia coli
(c) Administer IV antibiotics Answer: A) Haemophilus influenzae type B
(d) Encourage the child to lie flat
Answer: c ) Administer IV antibiotics
Q70. Which assessment finding is typical
Q67. Which condition is indicated by a in a child with coarctation of the aorta?
"machine-like" murmur in children? (a) Cyanosis
(a) Atrial septal defect (b) Bounding pulses in the arms
(b) Patent ductus arteriosus (c) Hypotension in the upper extremities
(c) Ventricular septal defect (d) Decreased urinary output
(d) Coarctation of the aorta Answer: B) Bounding pulses in the arms
Answer: B) Patent ductus arteriosus

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Q71. Which vitamin deficiency is (b) Iron
associated with rickets in children? (c) Magnesium
(a) Vitamin A (d) Folate
(b) Vitamin B12 Answer: D) Folate
(c) Vitamin D
(d) Vitamin K Q75. Which enzyme is crucial for the
Answer: C) Vitamin D breakdown of lactose in the small
intestine?
Q72. A common source of folic acid in the (a) Amylase
diet is: (b) Lipase
(a) Citrus fruits (c) Lactase
(b) Dairy products (d) Pepsin
(c) Leafy green vegetables Answer: C) Lactase
(d) Red meat
Answer: C) Leafy green vegetables Q76. The primary storage form of glucose
in the liver and muscle cells is:
Q73. What is the primary nutritional (a) Glucagon
concern for a child with celiac disease? (b) Glycogen
(a) Protein deficiency (c) Insulin
(b) Gluten intolerance (d) Starch
(c) High-fat diet Answer: B) Glycogen
(d) Sugar intolerance
Answer: B) Gluten intolerance Q77. Which of the following amino acids
is considered essential and must be
Q74. Which mineral is preventing of neural obtained from the diet?
tube defects in pregnant women? (a) Alanine
(a) Calcium (b) Glycine

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(c) Lysine (c) Radiofrequency waves and magnetic
(d) Glutamine fields
Answer: C) Lysine (d) X-rays
Answer: C) Radiofrequency waves and
Q78. The Doppler effect is commonly used magnetic fields
in healthcare to measure:
(a) Blood pressure Q81. Which of the following is NOT a
(b) Heart rate projective test?
(c) Blood flow velocity (a) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality
(d) Respiratory rate Inventory (MMPI)
Answer: C) Blood flow velocity (b) Rorschach Inkblot Test
(c) Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)
Q79. Which type of radiation is most (d) Rotter Incomplete Sentence Blank
commonly used in the treatment of (RISB)
cancer? Answer (a)
(a) Ultraviolet radiation
(b) Infrared radiation Q82. What is NOT a positive symptom of
(c) Gamma radiation schizophrenia?
(d) Microwave radiation (a) Delusions
Answer: C) Gamma radiation (b) Hallucinations
(c) Anhedonia
Q80. MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) (d) Disorganized speech
primarily uses which type of physical Answer (c)
principle?
(a) Electromagnetic radiation Q83. At a synapse, the determination of
(b) Sound waves further impulse transmission is
accomplished by means of:

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(a) Potassium ions Q86. Which of the following activities
(b) Interneuron’s would be most appropriate for the child
(c) Neurotransmitters with ADHD?
(d) The Myelin sheath (a) Monopoly
Answer (c) (b) Volleyball
(c) Pool
Q84. If a person stares at, fixates on , a small (d) Checkers
stationary spot of light in a completely Answer (b) Volleyball
dark room, the spot with eventually
appear to move. This can be expressed Q87. The healthcare provider is caring for a
in the terms of patient who has undergone
(a) Induced movement electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). The
(b) Autokinetic effect patient should be carefully assessed for
(c) Stroboscopic motion which of the following common adverse
(d) Virtual motion effects of this treatment?
Answer (b) (a) Headache and cognitive impairment.
(b) Aggression and violent behaviour
Q85. Which of the following medication is (c) Palpitations and cardiac arrest
most likely to order for Mr Sohan (d) Blurred vision
during his withdrawal syndrome ? Answer (a)
(a) Haloperidole
(b) Chlorodizepoxide Q88. For refractory schizophrenia,
(c) Propoxyphane clozapine concentrations greater than --
(d) Phenytoin -------- are suggested to achieve a
Answer (b) Chlorodizepoxide therapeutic response.
(a) 200ng/dl
(b) 250ng/dl

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(c) 300ng/dl (d) Increased levels of thyrotropin
(d) 350ng/dl Answer (a) Increased levels of melatonin
Answer (d)
Q92. Piaget’s theory of development has
Q89. Asha was abused as a child. She been referred to as _______ because in
doesn't remember the abuse but now his view, children adapt to the world by
struggles to trust others and form actively building and organizing their
relationships. experiences.
(a)Repression (a) Constructivism
(b) Rationalization (b) Post conventional
(c) Projection (c) egocentrism
(d) Sublimation (d) Psychosocial
Answer (a) Answer (a)

Q90. Which authors proposed the modal Q93. In which of the following psychiatric
model of memory? disorders do genetic tendencies appear
(a) Lansdale and Baguley (2008) to exist?
(b) Tulving and Thompson (1975) (a) Schizophrenia
(c) Atkinson and Shiffrin (1968) (b) Dissociative disorder
(d) Craik and Lockhart (1972) (c) Conversion disorder
Answer (c) (d) Narcissistic personality disorder
Q91. Which of the following hormones has Answer (a) Schizophrenia
been implicated in the etiology of
Seasonal affective disorder (SAD)? Q94. The ‘id’ is that part of the psyche that:
(a) Increased levels of melatonin (a) Uses defensive function for
(b) Decreased levels of oxytocin protection
(c) Decreased levels of prolactin (b) Is impulsive and without morals.

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(c) Determines the circumstances Answer (a)
before making decisions.
(d) The censoring portion of the mind. Q97. Who coined the term sociology
Answer (b) (a) Herbert Spencer
(b) Auguste Comte
Q95. A 5 year old boy is diagnosed to have (c) Emile Durkheim
autistic disorder. Which of the following (d) Karl Marx
manifestations may be noted in a client Answer (b)
with autistic disorder?
(a) argumentativeness, disobedience, Q98. What is the meaning of the term
angry outburst ‘archy’ in the word patriarchy?
(b) intolerance to change, disturbed (a) Authority
relatedness, stereotypes (b) Ownership
(c) distractibility, impulsiveness and (c) Lineage
overactivity (d) Descent
(d) aggression, truancy, stealing, lying Answer (a)
Answer (b)

Q96. The goals of acute treatment for Q99. A teenage girl is diagnosed to have
schizophrenia include all except: borderline personality disorder. Which
(a) Encouraging introspection and manifestations support the diagnosis?
reflection (a) Lack of self esteem, strong
(b) Eliminating or reducing symptoms dependency needs and impulsive
such as disturbed behavior behaviour
(c) Reducing the severity of psychosis (b) social withdrawal, inadequacy,
and associated symptoms sensitivity to rejection and criticism
(d) Preventing harm

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(c) Suspicious, hypervigilance and
coldness
(d) Preoccupation with perfectionism,
orderliness and need for control
Answer (a)

Q100. It would be most helpful for the nurse
to deal with a client with severe anxiety
by:
(a) Give specific instructions using
concise statements.
(b) Ask the client to identify the cause of
her anxiety.
(c) Explain in detail the plan of care
developed
(d) Urge the client to focus on what the
nurse is saying
Answer (a)

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