HPU M.Sc. Nursing Entrance 2022 Question Paper

HP M.Sc Nursing Entrance Exam

Question Paper - 2022

This question paper has been compiled on the basis of question
paper and answer keys shared by coaching centers on social
media after the exam.

1. Ventilation refers to the:-

A. Movement of air into and out of the lungs
B. Gas exchange between the blood and the tissues
C. Transportation of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood
D. Gas exchange between the air in the lungs and the blood

2. An injection of iron dextran should always be given Z-track on an adult person. Which

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is the preferred location?

A. Deltoid muscle

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B. Ventrogluteal muscle
C. Vastus Lateralis muscle of thigh
D. Dorsogluteal muscle

3. Leukocyte that increases in numbers during allergic reactions and parasitic injection is
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the?

A. Lymphocyte
B. Monocyte
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C. Eosinophil
D. Neutrophil
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4. The auditory tubes open into the:-

A. Fauces
B. Nasopharynx
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C. Oropharynx
D. Laryngopharynx

5. Kussmaul’s breathing is associated with:-

A. Pneumonia
B. Cardiac arrest
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Diabetic acidosis

6. In which of the following conditions the patient will have flushed and dry skin?

A. Shock
B. Dehydration
C. Edema
D. Hypervolemia

7. Which of the following is mismatched?

A. Bronchitis –Inflammation of the bronchi
B. Emphysema—destruction of the alveolar walls
C. Cystic fibrosis—replacement of lung tissue with fibrous connective tissue
D. Pulmonary fibrosis—loss of elastic recoil in the lung

8. What is the acute complication of diabetes mellitus?

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A. Diabetic ketoacidosis
B. Hypoglycemia

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C. Neuropathy
D. Nephropathy

9. Disorder of heart muscle is known as:-
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A. Myocarditis
B. Carditis
C. Cardiomyopathy
D. Cardiac tamponade
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10. Removal of all or part of the larynx and surrounding structure is called:-

A. Laryngotomy
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B. Pharyngotomy
C. Laryngectomy
D. Mastoidectomy
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11. Which is not the clinical manifestation of osteoporosis?

A. Lordosis
B. Impaired breathing
C. Back pain
D. Bone loss in jaw

12. Glasgow coma scale in used for the diagnosis of:-

A. Neurological problems
B. Digestive problems

C. Circulatory problems
D. Respiratory problems

13. Hydrocephalus is caused by:-

A. Increased production of RBC
B. Decreased production of WBC
C. Imbalance in production and absorption of CSF
D. Increased blood circulation of brain

14. Slow breathing is termed as:-

A. Eupnea

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B. Tachypnea
C. Bradypnea
D. Hyperpnea

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15. Syphilis is caused by:-

A. Treponema pallidum
B. trachomatis
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C. Herpes simplex
D. Varicella zoster

16. Maximum time limit for the tracheobronchial suctioning is:-
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A. 1 to 2 minutes
B. 1 to 2 seconds
C. 3 to 5 seconds
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D. 10 to 15 seconds

17. What is frostbite:-
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A. Diminished secretion of insulin
B. Excessive exposure to hot
C. Excessive exposure of cold
D. Insect bite

18. Localized accumulation of pus in the peritonsillar tissue is known as:-

A. Quinsy
B. Laryngitis
C. Suppurative tonsillitis
D. Epistaxis

19. Deficiency of vitamin B12 causes?

A. Berry berry
B. Thalassemia
C. Pellagra
D. Pernicious anemia

20. Which type of the rhinitis occurs after eating hot and spicy foods or alcohol intake?

A. Gustatory rhinitis
B. Occupational rhinitis
C. Vasomotor rhinitis

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D. Allergic rhinitis

21. Which of the following branches of sociology studies the relationship between

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organism and environment?

A. Ergonomics
B. Social physiology
C. Ecology
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D. Social pathology

22. Saunders has viewed the community as:-
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A. Common place
B. Social system
C. Group of people
D. All of these
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23. Community health means the health of people in terms of:-
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A. Physical and mental health
B. Social and spiritual health
C. A and B
D. None of these

24. The services provided by community health nurses are:-

A. Preventive
B. Promotive
C. Preventive, promotive, curative and rehabilitative
D. Rehabilitative

25. A community health nurse does not follow which of the following factors for
developing InterPersonal Relationship:-

A. Empathy
B. Listener
C. Untrustworthy
D. Confident

26. Current concept of health promotion and the related activities lead to:-

A. Better treatment of a problem
B. Critical awareness and lifestyle changes
C. Adoption of prophylactic services

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D. Better health services usage

27. Health promotion is the process to achieve health by:-

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A. Enabling people to increase control over their health
B. Improving their health by lifestyle changes
C. Creating awareness among people
D. All of these
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28. Which of the following is not a prerequisite of health promotion?

A. Educate
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B. Treat
C. Enable
D. Mediate
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29. Health promotion includes all except:-

A. Effective and concrete public participation
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B. Directed towards action on the determinants of health
C. Does not approach or use complementary method against health hazards
D. Focusing on people at risk for specific disease

30. Health promotional activities include?

A. Inadequate health system
B. Poor environment
C. Unhealthy lifestyle
D. Information, educational and communication

31. Health maintenance requires the measures to achieve health by:-

A. Unsafe environment
B. Health services
C. Increasing stress
D. Unhygienic condition

32. For maintaining health, individuals need to take:-

A. Unbalanced diet
B. Too much food
C. Increasing stress
D. Food in hygienic conditions

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33. Exercise is helpful in maintaining health by:-

A. Strengthening the heart muscles

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B. Improving the immune system
C. Strengthening the body muscles and bone
D. All of these

34. Hygiene aspect of health maintenance include:-
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A. Personal hygiene
B. Environmental hygiene
C. Both a and b
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D. None of these

35. Which of the following is the characteristic of Community?
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A. Different language
B. Different attitude
C. Common values and interest
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D. None of these

36. How many pairs of chromosomes are in human beings?

A. 20
B. 21
C. 22
D. 23

37. Which type of cell division occurs in reproductive cells?

A. Mitosis

B. Meiosis
C. None of the above
D. A and B

38. What are the constituents of chromosomes?

A. Chromatin
B. Centromere
C. Genes
D. All of the above

39. What is present in chromosomes for carrying out hereditary information:

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A. Chromatin
B. Centromere
C. Genes

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D. All of the above

40. The observable physical and behavioural characteristics of an individual are called?

A. Genotype
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B. Phenotype
C. None of the above
D. A and B
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41. pH of vagina during pregnancy:

A. Acidic
B. Basic
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C. Neutral
D. Sometime acidic & sometimes basic
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42. The normal uterus weight is ___________ gms:

A. 80
B. 90
C. 60
D. 50

43. Which hormone is responsible for secondary sexual characteristics?

A. Estrogen
B. Luteinizing
C. Progesterone

D. All of these

44. The female hormone secreted from ovary is:

A. All of the other option
B. FSH
C. LH
D. Estrogen

45. During labor, station +1 indicates that the presenting part is:

A. High in the false pelvis
B. On the perineum

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C. Slightly below the ischial spine
D. Slightly above the ischial spine

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46. Oral contraceptives are prescribed for a client. What side effect should the nurse
inform the client might occur?

A. Cervicitis
B. Ovarian cysts
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C. Breakthrough bleeding
D. Fibrocystic breast disease

47. What does Menorrhagia mean?
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A. Excessive bleeding during menstruation
B. Bleeding between menstrual periods
C. Painful menstruation
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D. Irregular menstruation

48. During pregnancy, deficiency of which of the following leads to neural tube defects?
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A. Folic acid
B. Iron
C. Calcium
D. Zinc

49. What is the name of the first secretion from the mother’s breast following delivery?

A. Sequestrum
B. Colostrum
C. Lochia
D. Leucorrhoea

50. During which stage of labor, the placenta is delivered?

A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4

51. Which of the following conditions is screened by “Pap Smear”?

A. Ovarian cancer
B. Breast cancer
C. Endometrial cancer

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D. Cervical cancer

52. Who discovered the Partograph?

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A. Dr. R.H. Philpoter
B. Dr. A.L. Mudaliar
C. Dr. William Show
D. Dr. Shirodkar
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53. First Movements of the baby felt by the mother are known as?

A. Lightening
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B. Engagement
C. Quickening
D. Ballottement
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54. Why is bed rest essential in pre-eclampsia?

A. Prevents eclampsia
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B. Mobilizes tissue fluid circulations are
decreases edema
C. Prevents premature labor
D. It improves blood circulation and decreases
Edema

55. Which one is the hazard of induction of labor with Pitocin?

A. Elevation in blood pressure
B. Infection
C. Rupture of uterus
D. Early rupture of membrane

56. Which is the common ideal female pelvis?

A. Android
B. Gynaecoid
C. Platypelloid
D. Anthropoid

57. As per W.H.O how much additional amount of calories should be taken by a pregnant
woman?

A. 300 K. Calorie
B. 500 K. Calorie

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C. 1000 K. Calorie
D. 100 K. Calorie

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58. Which of the following is the highest diameter of the female pelvis?

A. Anterior-Posterior
B. Lateral
C. Oblique
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D. All are equal

59. What is the commonest cause of Postpartum Hemorrhage?
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A. Atonicity of uterus
B. Subinvolution
C. Birth Injury
D. Puerperal sepsis
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60. Which of the following vaccines is commonly given to pregnant mothers?
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A. Measles
B. B.C.G.
C. Tetanus
D. D.P.T.

61. The following statements about breastfeeding are correct, except:

A. There is reduced risk of diarrhea
B. Weight gain velocity is more than formula fed babies
C. There is reduced risk of acute otitis media
D. There is increased risk of hemorrhagic disease of new-born

62. The lactation is promoted by:

A. Estrogen and progesterone
B. Corticosteroids
C. Growth hormone
D. Prolactin

63. It is recommended to promote exclusive breastfeeding during first:

A. 2 months of life
B. 6 months of life
C. 9 months of life
D. 12 months of life

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64. Adequacy of breastfeeding is assessed by all of the following parameters except:

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A. Adequacy of nutrition
B. Test weighing
C. Satisfactory weight gain
D. Happy and satisfied mother baby day
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65. Bottle feeding is indicated in all of the following conditions, except:

A. Adopted baby
B. Mother receiving anti-cancer drugs
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C. HIV – positive mother
D. To maintain figure and breast tightness

66. The predominant intracellular cation is:
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A. Sodium
B. Potassium
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C. Chloride
D. Calcium

67. The osmolality of WHO-ORS formulation is:

A. 215 mmol/l
B. 230 mmol/l
C. 245 mmol/l
D. 260 mmol/l

68. Hyponatremia is defined as serum sodium level of less than:

A. 120 mEq/L
B. 130 mE/L
C. 140 mE/L
D. 150 mE/L

69. The fluid deficit in children with burns is calculated at the rate of ____________ for
every percent of burn:

A. 2 ml/kg
B. 3 ml/kg
C. 4 ml/kg
D. 5 ml/kg

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70. The specific antidote for cyanide poisoning is:

A. EDTA

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B. Amyl nitrate inhalation
C. Pilocarpine
D. Atropine

71. The commonly used ointment in burn patients is:
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A. Silver sulfadiazine
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Hydrocortisone
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D. Metronidazole

72. In case of blunt injury due to fall, the most important immediate first-aid measure is:
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A. Hot fomentation
B. Application of cold pack
C. Application of crepe bandage
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D. Local application of antiseptic lotion

73. What is the first action on commencing resuscitation of a newborn baby?

A. Follow ABC approach
B. Dry and cover baby
C. Commence chest compressions
D. Insert a Guedel airway

74. The breaths-to-compressions ratio for a child Is:

A. 1 breath for every 15 compressions

B. 2 breaths for every 15 compressions
C. 2 breaths for every 30 compressions
D. 1 breath for every 30 compressions

75. The most useful initial assessment of the newborn infant includes which of the
Following?

A. Tone, breathing, heart rate
B. Colour of baby
C. APGAR score
D. Temperature of baby

76. The united Nations adopted declaration of rights of child on:

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A. 20 Nov. 1959
B. 20 Nov. 1996

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C. 20 Nov. 1906
D. 19 Nov. 1996

77. Gainful employment of children below 15 years of age with the aim of earning
livelihood for themselves and family is Termed:
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A. Child abuse
B. Child neglect
C. Child self esteem
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D. Child labor

78. According to child labor and protection act, minimum age for employment of children
is:
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A. 10 years
B. 12 years
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C. 14 years
D. 16 years

79. Hindu adoption and maintenance Act. Was passed in:

A. 1956
B. 1980
C. 1950
D. 1999

80. Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHA) is a childhood disorder known as:

A. Hypokinetic disorders
B. Hyperactivity disorders
C. Hyperkinetic disorders
D. Hypostasis disorders

81. Who coined the term psychiatry?

A. JB Watson
B. Philippe Pinel
C. Andrew Combe
D. Johann Christian Reil

82. National Mental health Program was launched in the year:

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A. 1983
B. 1987

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C. 1982
D. 2017

83. Parrot like repetition of words refers to as:
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A. Echolalia
B. Echopraxia
C. Paraphasia
D. Word Salad
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84. Which is non therapeutic technique?

A. Broad opening
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B. Focusing
C. Paraphrasing
D. Advising
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85. Meaning of anhedonia is:

A. No pleasure in most of the activities
B. No motor movement
C. Evening sadness
D. Morning sadness

86. Which one of the following is not included in Bluer’s 4 A’s symptoms?

A. Autism
B. Associative looseness

C. Ambivalence
D. Anhedonia

87. Which of Freud's three main structures of personality is described to be unconscious
and pleasure seeking?

A. ID
B. Ego
C. Superego
D. Projection

88. Which of the following may be seen in dissociative disorders?

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A. Hallucinations
B. Delusions
C. Seizures

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D. Phobias

89. La belle indifference may be seen in:

A. Dissociative disorders
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B. Phobic anxiety disorders
C. Schizophrenia
D. Bipolar affective disorders
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90. Pathological use of drugs for nonmedical purpose is considered as:

A. Addiction
B. Withdrawal
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C. Tolerance
D. Substance abuse
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91. Bulimia nervosa is characterized by recurrent binge-eating and inappropriate use of
compensatory behaviors. An example of compensatory behavior is:

A. Self-induced vomiting
B. Use of laxatives
C. Use of enemas
D. All of above

92. Fluvoxamine belongs to class to drug:

A. TCAs
B. MAOIs

C. SSRIs
D. SNRIs

93. Lithium toxicity happens at serum lithium level of:

A. 0.8 mEq/L
B. >2 mEq/L
C. 0.6 mEq/L
D. >0.1 mEq/L

94. The most persistent adverse effect of ECT is:

A. Retrograde amnesia

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B. Fractures
C. Seizures
D. Hypertension

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95. Aversion therapy is based on principle of:

A. Operant conditioning
B. Classical conditioning
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C. Observational learning
D. Here and now technique

96. Which of the following is not an extrapyra-midal symptom?
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A. Acute dystonia
B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
C. Akathisia
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D. Hypertensive crisis

97. Prevention of the emergence of risk factors in population is included as:
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A. Primary prevention
B. Primordial prevention
C. Secondary prevention
D. Tertiary prevention

98. The NMHP was launched in the year:

A. 1982
B. 1996
C. 1990
D. 2005

99. An abnormal behavior threatens a person’s own health and safety or the health and
safety of another person is an example of:

A. Crisis
B. Psychiatric emergency
C. Psychosis
D. Neurosis

100. Maladjustment to retirement is an example of:

A. Adventitious crisis
B. Maturational crisis

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C. Situational crisis
D. Government crisis

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101. Which of the following is the structural and functional unit of the human nervous
System?

A. Brain
B. Axon
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C. Dendron
D. Neuron

102. What does corpus callosum connect in the human brain?
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A. Two optic lobes
B. Bone and muscle
C. Two cerebral hemisphere
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D. Two lobes of pituitary gland

103. Which of the following parts of the human brain has a center for controlling
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breathing?

A. Medulla oblongata
B. Diencephalon
C. Cerebrum
D. Cerebellum

104. How many pairs of the spinal nerve are found in humans?

A. 31
B. 13
C. 33

D. 12

105. Which of the following taste buds is present on the lateral sides of the human
tongue?

A. Bitter
B. Salty
C. Sour
D. Sweet

106. Which of the following is a balancing organ in humans?

A. Eardrum

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B. Vestibular system
C. Cochlea
D. Organ of corti

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107. Which of the following hormones helps in the secretion of HCL from the stomach?

A. Gastrin
B. Secretin
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C. Pepsin
D. Renin

108. Which of the following is the largest gland in the human body?
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A. Thymus
B. Kidney’s
C. Liver
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D. Pancreas

109. Which of the following human cells produce insulin?
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A. Beta cell
B. F cells
C. Alpha cells
D. Delta cells

110. Which of the following helps Human sperm with locomotion?

A. Flagellum
B. Basal body
C. Nucleosome
D. Cilia

111. When a nurse is tried under criminal law, the nurse is being brought to trial by:

A. Society as a whole
B. The plaintiff’s lawyer
C. An organization
D. An individual

112. The newly licensed practical/vocational nurse begins work on a hospital unit where
LPNs/LVNs are allowed to start intravenous fluids. The physician orders intravenous
fluids to be stated on one of this nurse’s assigned clients. Which of the following actions
would be most necessary on the part of this newly hired and newly licensed nurse before
starting an intravenous on the client?

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A. Check the hospital policy and check on any certification required.
B. Ask another nurse to do a supervised check on administering IVs.

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C. Ask one of your nursing-school instructors to refresh your skills
D. Take a continuing education IV course to make sure you have the skills.

113. When working as a licensed vocational nurse, you determine that your client
scheduled for surgery does not understand the physician’s earlier explanation of the
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surgery. The client is asking many questions about the risks and seems worried. Which
of the following actions would be best on your Part?

A. Quickly explain the surgery procedure and the risks to the client.
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B. Cancel the surgery
C. Ask you supervising RN to explain the surgery procedure and its risks.
D. Notify the physician.
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114. When an LVN/LPN is working for a health-care organization that has professional
liability insurance, the nurse needs to base a decision on whether to buy individual
professional liability insurance on which of the following things?
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A. The possibility that the organization could countersue the nurse in a lawsuit
B. The cost of professional liability insurance to the nurse
C. The amount and type of coverage the health- care organization carries
D. The number of hours worked and the type of nursing work

115. When documenting an assigned client’s record during and at the end of the shift, the
nurse must keep in mind which of the following facts?

A. In order to get the care done for all assigned clients, the charting must be as brief as possible
B. The proper format, such as SOAP or PIE. As chosen by the hospital, must be adhered to

C. The chart is a legal document and may be all a nurse has to support care that was given if
called to court.
D. Clients need to be assessed and the care documented at least once every hour during the
shift.

116. Which of the following scale of measurement is appropriate to measure the weight of
the patient?

A. Ordinal scale
B. Nominal scale
C. Ratio scale
D. Interval scale

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117. In a normal distribution curve, which of the following is true?

A. Mean=median

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B. Mean=SD
C. Mean=Variance
D. Mean=2 x SD

118. Which of the following is not the purpose of EBP?
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A. To improve patient outcomes
B. To obtain more research funds
C. To eliminate unsound practices
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D. To provide high-quality care

119. Which of the following stands true for the full form of SPSS?
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A. Statistical package for Social System
B. Statistical package for Social Science
C. Statistical package for Statistical science
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D. Statistical package for statistical system

120. Which of the following is not a measure of variability?

A. Median
B. Variance
C. Standard deviation
D. Range

121. Touching a patient or holding a patient without consent is known as:

A. Assault

B. Battery
C. Defamation
D. None of these

122. Does professionalization of medicine in primary health care mean?

A. Doctor’s role as a diagnosis of ailments in care
B. Participation of a new cadre of health workers
in care
C. Doctors to be out from the primary health
care
D. Nurses to be made de professionalized

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123. Which of the following is the basic element of experimentation?

A. Manipulation

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B. Control
C. Randomization
D. All of these

124. Which of the following is not an element of management?
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A. Reporting
B. Organizing
C. Staffing
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D. Commanding

125. Essential component of nursing education:
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A. Care
B. cure
C. Coordination
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D. All of the above

126. Who is called the father of medicine?

A. Louis Pasteur
B. Lord lister
C. Hippocrates
D. Darwin

127. Decrease in response with particular amount of drug is called:

A. Resistance

B. Addiction
C. Tolerance
D. Dependence

128. Drugs used to relieve pain are termed as:

A. Anesthetics
B. Analgesics
C. Antidotes
D. Antipyretics

129. What is the chemical name of aspirin (ASA)?

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A. Acetic salicylic acid
B. Acetyl salicylic acid
C. Acetone salicylic acid

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D. Amide salicylic acid

130. Histopathology lab deals with:

A. Cells
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B. Tissues
C. Organs
D. Organ system
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131. A substance needed by the body for growth energy, repair and maintenance is
called:

A. Nutrient
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B. Carbohydrate
C. Calorie
D. Fatty acid
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132. All of the following are nutrients found in food except?

A. Plasma
B. Proteins
C. Carbohydrates
D. Vitamins

133. A diet high in saturated fats can be linked to which of the following disease?

A. Kidney failure
B. Bulimia

C. Anorexia
D. Cardiovascular disease

134. Which of the following involves carrying genetic information form DNA for protein
synthesis?

A. sn-RNA
B. r-RNA
C. m-RNA
D. t-RNA

135. Plant convert glucose into:

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A. starch only
B. Cellulose only
C. Sucrose

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D. Starch & cellulose

136. What is Microbiology?

A. Study of molecules that are visible to Human Eyes
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B. Study of Animals and their Family
C. Study of Organisms that are not visible to Naked Eyes
D. Study of Microscope
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137. Who is known as the father of Microbiology?

A. Edwin John Butler
B. Ferdinand Cohn
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C. Robert Koch
D. Antoni Van Leeuwenhoek
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138. Which of the following are produced by microorganisms?

A. Alcoholic Beverages
B. Fermented Dairy products
C. Breads
D. All of the above

139. Which of the following inhibits DNA replication?

A. X-Rays
B. Gamma Rays
C. UV Light

D. Cathode Rays

140. Which of the following is true for cytoplasmic membrane?

A. Site of Generation of Proton Motive Force
B. Hydrophilic Barrier
C. Hydrophobic Barrier
D. Hydrophobic Barrier and site of generation of Proton Motive Force

141. The scientific study of mind and behavior of an individual is known as

A. Psychology
B. Sociology

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C. Anthropology
D. Epidemiology

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142. Abnormal psychology is the study of:

A. Normal mind
B. Unconscious mind
C. Subconscious mind
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D. Unusual pattern of mind and behavior

143. Sociology helps nurses to know about
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A. Social life
B. Politics
C. Community
D. Personal life
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144. ____ is the practice that one’s must marry within one own caste or group:
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A. Polygamy
B. Quadrigamy
C. Endogamy
D. Monogamy

145. Fundamental unit of society:

A. Family
B. Group
C. Kinship
D. Marriage

146. The country that has the highest in Barley Production?

A. China
B. India
C. Russia
D. France

147. The hottest planet in the solar system?

A. Mercury
B. Venus
C. Mars
D. Jupiter

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148. World first Nursing school was started in:

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A. India
B. London
C. America
D. Italy
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149. ICN was found in the year:

A. 1899
B. 1898
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C. 1897
D. 1896

150. Revised National Health Policy of India was announced in:
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A. 2000
B. 2001
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C. 2002
D. 2003