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FOR KUET EXAM PREPARATION
KUET 2023
Question Paper · M.Sc.
Nanotechnology
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT
KUET 2023 Question Paper M.Sc. Nanotechnology
Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests
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Sr. No. .............................
ENTRANCE TEST-2023
SCHOOL OF BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES
A .com
NANOTECHNOLOGY
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Question Booklet Series
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Total Questions : 60
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Time Allowed : 70 Minutes Roll No. :
a s g l
g l Instructions for Candidates :
a
a Entrance Test Roll Number in the space provided at the top of this page of Question Booklet
1. Write your
and fill up the necessary information in the spaces provided on the OMR Answer Sheet.
2. OMR Answer Sheet has an Original Copy and a Candidate’s Copy glued beneath it at the top. While
making entries in the Original Copy, candidate should ensure that the two copies are aligned properly
so that the entries made in the Original Copy against each item are exactly copied in the Candidate’s
Copy.
3. All entries in the OMR Answer Sheet, including answers to questions, are to be recorded in the Original
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Copy only.
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4. Choose the correct / most appropriate response for each question among the options A, B, C and D and
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darken the circle of the appropriate response completely. The incomplete darkened circle is not correctly
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read by the OMR Scanner and no complaint to this effect shall be entertained.
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5. Use only blue/black ball point pen to darken the circle of correct/most appropriate response. In no case
gel/ink pen or pencil should be used.
6. Do not darken more than one circle of options for any question. A question with more than one darkened
response shall be considered wrong.
7. There will be ‘Negative Marking’ for wrong answers. Each wrong answer will lead to the deduction
of 0.25 marks from the total score of the candidate.
8. Only those candidates who would obtain positive score in Entrance Test Examination shall be eligible
for admission.
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9. Do not make any stray mark on the OMR sheet.
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10. Calculators and mobiles shall not be permitted inside the examination hall.
s e
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11. Rough work, if any, should be done on the blank sheets provided with the question booklet.
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Answer Sheet must be handled carefully and it should not be folded
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will not be evaluated.
13. Ensure that your OMR Answer Sheet has been signed by the Invigilator and the candidate himself/
herself.
14. At the end of the examination, hand over the OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator who will first tear off
the original OMR sheet in presence of the Candidate and hand over the Candidate’s Copy to the candidate.
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(Chemistry) 6. The compressibility factor for a perfect gas is
1. The coordination number of constituent ions in equal to :
calcium fluoride is : (A) Zero
(B) 1
(A) 1 : 1
(C) Zero to 1
(B) 8 : 4
(D) Depends upon the nature of gas
(C) 4 : 8 7. Select the most appropriate statement :
(D) 1 : 8 (A) Numerically Surface tension is equal to
2. The % ionic character of H–F bond (with surface energy but with units different than
electronegativity of F = 3.98 and H = 2.0) is : that of surface energy
(B) The spherical shape of liquid drops and gas
(A) 17.95
bubbles is because of the viscosity of liquids
(B) 38.61
(C) The surface tension of fluids decreases
(C) 45.40 linearly with an increase in temperature
(D) 69.65 (D) The surface tension of fluids vanishes
3. According to Fajan’s rules, covalency is favoured roughly 6 degrees below the critical
temperature
by :
8. For the crystal plane that cuts the crystal axes at
(A) Small anion and large cation
(2a, 3b, c), the Miller indices are given as :
(B) Small anion and small cation (A) (2 3 6)
(C) Large anion and a small cation (B) (3 2 6)
(D) Large anion and a large cation (C) (6 2 3)
4. The bond order for O22– : (D) (6 3 2)
(A) 1 9. In the presence of water, alkali metal hydrides
release :
(B) 2
(A) Hydrogen and Metal
(C) 1.5 (B) Hydrogen and Metal hydroxide
(D) 2.5 (C) Oxygen and Metal
5. According to kinetic theory of gases, the average (D) Oxygen and Metal Hydroxide
translational kinetic energy per molecule of an 10. Which among the following groups of ions do not
ideal gas at 300 K is : show the properties characteristic of transition
elements ?
(A) 1.242 × 10–20J
(A) Cu, Ag, Au
(B) 6.21 × 10–21J
(B) Ni, Pd, Pt
(C) 4.14 × 10–21J (C) Mn, Cu, Ni
(D) 2.07 × 10–21J (D) Zn, Cd, Hg
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11. The shielding effect of electrons in lanthanides 16. Select the most stable carbanion :
decreases in the order : (A) CH3CH 2–
(A) s > d > p > f
(B) (CH3)2CH –
(B) s > p > d > f
(C) (CH3)3C–
(C) f > d > p > s
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–
(D) C6H5CH2
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(D) f > s > d > p
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12. In the complex K4[Fe(CN)6], Fe has an oxidation 17. The substituent Nitro in nitrobenzene is :
(A) An electron donating group that favoursm
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state and an effective atomic number of :
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electrophilic substitution at Ortho andaPara
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(A) 2+ and 52
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positions
(B) 2+ and 36
(B) An electron withdrawing group that favours
(C) 3+ and
electrophilic substitution reactions at meta
(D) 3+ and 36 position
13. Which among the following is t rue for (C) An electron donating group that facilitates
Cyclopentadienyl cation ? its nucleophilic substitution reactions at meta
(A) It is a cyclic, conjugated aromatic cation position
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(B) It is an acyclic conjugated cation that obeys (D) An electron withdrawing group that favours
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the Huckels rule its electrophilic substitution reactions at
(C) It is not a conjugated cation
l a s ortho, para and meta positions
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(D) It is a cyclic conjugated anti-aromatic 18. SN reaction of alkyl halides is independent of :
molecule (A) Concentration of the attacking nucleophile
14. The absolute configuration of the two chiral (B) Concentration of alkyl halide
centers in Mesotartaric acid is : (C) Nature of the leaving group
(A) 2R, 3R (D) Nature of solvent
(B) 2R, 3S 19. The chemical transformation
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(C) 2S, 3S
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,
C 6H 5CHO CN
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C6 H 5 COCHOHC 6 H 5
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15.m.The most stable conformation of cyclohexane is : e
EtOH , H 2O
(D) 2S, 3R
e (A) Chair l a s
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is better known as :
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(A) Benzillic acid Rearrangement
a (B) Twist Boat (B) Claisen Rearrangement
(C) Half Chair (C) Benzoin Condensation
(D) Boat (D) Huben-Hoesch Reaction
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20. Conversion of cyclohexanone to a cyclic ester 24. Select the incorrect statement :
using peracid is : (A) The Clapeyron-Clausius equation is valid
for one-component two-phase systems
(A) Oppenauer oxidation
(B) The degrees of freedom for a one-component
(B) Gatterman reaction
system can change from Zero to two
(C) Schmidt reaction (C) The eutectic point in the phase diagram for
(D) Baeyer-Villiger Oxidation the Lead-Silver system has zero degrees of
freedom
21. In a certain process, a system absorbed 250 Joules
(D) In simple two component Eutectic systems,
of heat while doing 300 Joules of work. The net
composition corresponding to eutectic point
change in the internal energy of the system will
has the highest melting point
be : 25. In electrolyte solutions :
(A) –550 Joules (A) Increase in dilution decreases the mobility
(B) –50 Joules of constituent ions
(C) +50 Joules (B) The fraction of current carried by any ion
(D) +550 Joules depends upon the mobility of all the
constituent ions
22. Expansion of a gas under adiabatic conditions
(C) Increase in dilution increases the specific
results in :
conductance but decreases molar
(A) Decrease in temperature if the gas is ideal
conductance
(B) Increase in temperature if the gas is ideal (D) Increase in dilution increases the specific
(C) Decrease in temperature if the gas is non- conductance as well as the molar
ideal conductance
(D) Decrease in temperature whether the gas is 26. In the conductometric titration of a strong acid
ideal or non-ideal with a weak base :
(A) The conductance decreases up to the end
23. The change in entropy when two moles of an ideal
point and then increases
gas expand reversibly from a volume of 5 dm3 to
(B) The conductance increases up to the end
50 dm3 at a temperature of 300 K is :
point and then remains constant
(A) 11.488 kJK–1
(C) The conductance decreases up to the end
–1
(B) 11.488 JK point and then remains constant
–1
(C) 38.29 kJK (D) The conductance shows no change up to the
(D) 38.29 JK–1 end point and then increases
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27. For an electrochemically reversible Galvanic 30. Select the incorrect statement :
Cell :
(A) Heat change at constant volume is equal to
(A) The electrical energy is greater than the
enthalpy of the cell react ion if t he change in internal energy
temperature coefficient of the EMF of the (B) The enthalpy change associated with a
cell is positive
reaction is independent of the path of the
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(B) The electrical energy is less than the enthalpy
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reaction
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of the cell reaction if the temperature
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coefficient of the EMF of cell is positive (C) Specific heat is an intensive property
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(C) The electrical energy is always less than the
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(D) The standard enthalpy of neutralization of
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enthalpy of the cell reaction
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(D) The electrical energy is always more than strong acids depends on the concentrations
the enthalpy of the cell reaction of acid and base
28. Select the incorrect statement : 31. Tollen’s reagent is :
(A) For a zero-order reaction, the average rate
is always equal to the instantaneous rate (A) Ammonical solution of silver nitrate
(B) The t1/2 of a zero-order reaction doubles if (B) Aqueous solution of silver nitrate
the concentration of reactant is doubled
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(C) Acidic solution of silver nitrate
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(C) The t 1/2 of a first -order react ion is
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independent of the initial concentration of
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(D) Alcoholic solution of silver nitrate
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the reactant
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(D) The quantum yield of the photochemical 32. The metal commonly used for the detection of
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decomposition of HI does not change with N, S and halogens in organic compounds is :
the progress of the reaction
(A) K
29. The correct conversion factor for the coefficient
of viscosity () is : (B) Li
(A) (in CGS units) = 0.1 × (in SI units) (C) Na
(B) (in CGS units) = 10 × (in SI units)
(C) (in CGS units) = 0.01 × (in SI units) (D) Mg
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(D) (in CGS units) = 100 × (in SI units)
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(Physics) 37. Gauss law will be invalid if :
33. A bullet is fired from a gun, the recoiling of gun (A) Electric charge was not quantized
is an example of :
(B) The inverse square law isn’t exactly true
(A) Conservation of energy
(C) The velocity of light isn’t a universal
(B) Conservation of momentum constant
(C) Conservation of angular momentum (D) None of these
(D) Both (A) and (B) 38. The Biot-Savart law states that :
34. The special theory of relativity states that all (A) The magnitude of the magnetic field is
physical laws are the same : inversely proportional to the square of the
(A) In frames of reference which accelerate distance from the current element
(B) In frames of reference which move in (B) The magnitude of the magnetic field is
circles directly proportional to the current through
(C) In frames of reference which move at the current element
uniform velocity (C) The magnitude of the magnetic field is
(D) In frames of reference which move in directly proportional to the length of the
ellipses current element
35. Two photons approach each other, what is their (D) All of the above
relative velocity ?
39. Lenz’s law is the consequence of :
(A) c
(A) Law of conservation of Mass
(B) 2c
(B) Law of conservation of Energy
(C) 0
(C) Law of conservation of Momentum
2
(D) c (D) All of the above
36. The differential equation of the simple harmonic 40. For time varying currents, the field or waves will
motion given by x = A cos (t + ) is :
be :
d2x (A) Electrostatic
(A) 2 x 0
dt 2 (B) Magneto static
d2x (C) Electromagnetic
(B) 2 x 0
dt 2 (D) All
41. Entropy occurs due to :
d2x
(C) x 0 (A) Temperature change
dt 2
(B) Mass change
d2x (C) Change in macroscopic variables
(D) x 0
dt 2
(D) None
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42. As the wavelength of the radiation decreases, the 47. Sound with a frequency of less than 20 Hz is
intensity of the black body radiations : called :
(A) Remains constant (A) Ultrasonic
(B) Decreases (B) Infrasonic
(C) First increases then decrease (C) Supersonic
(D) Increases (D) Sonic
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43. At temperature T, the power radiated by a body 48. Decibel is a unit of :
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(A) Solar Intensity
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is Q watts. At the temperature 3T the power
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(B) Sound Intensity
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radiated by it will be :
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(C) Velocity of Sound
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(A) 3Q
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(B) 81Q (D) None
(C) 27Q 49. The minimum energy required for a photoelectron
(D) 9Q to escape from a metal surface :
(A) Work function
44. According to the law of equipartition of energy,
the energy associated with each degree of freedom (B) Planck’s constant
is : (C) Atomic energy
(A) E = kBT (D) Binding energy
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50. The uncertainty principle and the concept of wave
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(B) E = 1/2 kBT
.
nature of matter was proposed by ____ and ____
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(C) E = 3/2 kBT 2
respectively.
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(D) E = 3/2 kBT
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(A) Heisenberg, Planck
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45. Lissajous figure :
(B) Heisenberg, de-Broglie
(A) is a curve formed by the superposition of
(C) de-Broglie, Heisenberg
two simple harmonic motions
(D) Planck, Heisenberg
(B) is a curve traced out by a point that
51. Orbital is :
undergoes two simple harmonic motions in
(A) Circular path around the nucleus in which
mutually perpendicular directions
the electron revolves
(C) is a curve traced out by a point that
(B) Space around the nucleus where the
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undergoes two simple harmonic motions
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probability of finding the electron is
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(D) All of the above
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maximum
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46. In the Young’s double slit experiment both the slits
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(C) Amplitude of electrons wave
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are similar. If the length of one of the slits is
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(D) None of these
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halved, which of the following is true ?
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52. Uncertainty principle gave the concept of :
a
(A) Dark fringes become brighter (A) Probability
(B) Bright fringes become wider (B) An orbital
(C) Dark fringes become darker (C) Wavelength
(D) Bright fringes become darker (D) None of these
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53. Schroder equation governs wave form of : 57. The specific heat at constant volume of solid
(A) Classic Mechanics obeys Debye’s law at :
(A) High temperatures
(B) Quantum mechanics
(B) Low pressure
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Low temperatures
(D) None
(D) High pressure
54. Which of the following is the time independent
58. Many of the semiconductors are crystals of the
Schrodinger equation ? type :
(A) H = E (A) Face-centered cubic
(B) H = – E (B) Body-centered cubic
(C) H = 1/E (C) Simple cubic
(D) 1/H = E (D) All of the above
55. Zeeman Effect cannot be proved by : 59. With an increase in temperature the electrical
conductivity of an intrinsic semiconductor :
(A) Bohr’s Model
(A) Remains same
(B) Hamiltonian Operators
(B) Decreases
(C) L–S Coupling
(C) Increases
(D) Quantum-Mechanics
(D) First increases then decrease
56. Alpha Particle consists of : 60. MOSFET is :
(A) 4 protons (A) Uncontrolled device
(B) 4 neutrons (B) Temperature controlled device
(C) 2 electrons, 2 protons, 2 neutrons (C) Current controlled device
(D) 2 protons and 2 neutrons only (D) Voltage controlled device
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OR 38. In eukaryotes, the extra nuclear DNA is present
(Biology) in :
33. Which of the following organic compounds are (A) Mitochondria and chloroplast
classified as lipids ?
(B) Nucleus and Mitochondria
i. Polysaccharides
(C) Mitochondria and Golgi bodies
ii. Triglycerides
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iii. Steroids (D) None of the above
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39. At what stage of cell division does nuclear
.
iv. Prostaglandins
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membrane disappear ?
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(A) i, ii and iii
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(B) i, ii and iv
a s (A) Metaphase
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(C) ii, iii and iv (B) Anaphase
(D) i, iii and iv (C) Prophase
34. Some enzymes when secreted are in inactive state,
(D) Anaphase
such enzymes are called :
40. Which among the following statements is not
(A) Apoenzymes
(B) Proenzymes true ?
(C) Cofactors (A) Rough ER synthesizes glycoproteins
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c. o(C) Smooth ER does not synthesize proteins
(D) Coenzymes (B) Smooth ER synthesizes fatty acids
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35. Vitamin K is necessary for blood clotting as it
s 41. The process of DNA transcription in prokaryotic
helps in the formation of :
(A) Fibrinogen in liver
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(B) Thromboplastin
(C) Heparin in liver
a organisms occurs in :
(A) Cytoplasm
(D) Prothrombin in liver
36. The building blocks of nucleic acids and proteins (B) Nucleus
are respectively called as : (C) Nucleolus
(A) Nucleotides and amino acids (D) None of the above
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(B) Nucleosides and histones
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42. The scientists who jointly shared the Nobel Prize
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(C) Nitrogenous base and sugar
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. code and its role in
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in Physiology or Medicine 1968 for their
37. .
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protein synthesis : as
(D) Sugar and amino acids
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interpretation of the genetic
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The lipid layers in plasma membrane remain
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linked to each other by their :
a
(A) Nirenberg, Khorana
(A) Polar ends which are hydrophobic
(B) Non-polar ends which are hydrophilic (B) Watson, Crick and Wilkins
(C) Polar ends which are hydrophilic (C) Nirenberg, Crick and Wilkins
(D) Non-polar ends which are hydrophobic (D) Nirenberg, Watson and Khorana
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43. The enzymes that catalyzes the synthesize of RNA 48. The plasmid that was used for the first time as
from a DNA template are : cloning vector by Herbert Boyer and Stanley
(A) RNA polymerases Norman Cohen :
(B) DNA polymerases (A) pBR322
(C) Polymerase alpha (B) pSC101
(D) Polymerase epsilon (C) pUC18
44. Which among the following is not a genetic (D) Ti
disorder ? 49. By using a pinhole to only allow images from a
particular depth of field, which microscopy
(A) Down syndrome
enables the visualization of tissues at different
(B) Neurocysticercosis
focal planes ?
(C) Cystic fibrosis
(A) Phase contrast microscopy
(D) Sickle cell anemia
(B) Confocal microscopy
45. Most commonly enzymes used in genetic
(C) Electron microscopy
engineering are :
(D) All of the above
(A) Ligase and RNA polymerase
50. Which of the following biomolecules are mainly
(B) DNA and RNA polymerase detected and analyzed by blotting techniques ?
(C) Restriction endonuclease and ligase (A) Nucleic acids and proteins
(D) None of the above (B) Carbohydrates and lipids
46. Who invented Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) (C) Proteins and lipids
technique and was awarded Nobel Prize in (D) None of the above
Chemistry for 1993 ? 51. Western blotting ident ifies and provides
(A) Watson and Crick preliminary quantitation of a specific _____ based
(B) Nirenberg on molecular weight, by SDS-PAGE.
(C) Kary Mullis (A) Protein in a mixture of proteins
(D) H. Khorana (B) DNA in a mixture of Nucleic acids
47. The first genetically engineered hormone (C) RNA in a mixture of Nucleic acids
produced through recombinant DNA (rDNA) (D) Lipids in a mixture of fatty acids
technology by Genentech and Licensed by Elli 52. Which among the following can be diagnosed by
Lilly and company was : using ELISA test ?
(A) Insulin (A) HIV
(B) FSH (B) SARS-CoV-2
(C) GH (C) Pregnancy
(D) Erythropoietin (D) All of the above
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53. Beta-oxidation of fatty acids occurs only in : 57. The antibody molecules that can activate the
(A) Cytoplasm complement are :
(B) Mitochondria (A) IgG & IgA
(C) Nucleus (B) IgG & IgE
(D) Nucleolus (C) IgG & IgM
(D) IgM & IgE
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54. Which among the following is not inherited
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metabolic disease ? 58. Hemolytic disease of newborn is an example of
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(A) Phenylketonuria (PKU) _____ reaction.
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(A) Type-I hypersensitivity
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(B) Maple syrup urine disease (MSUD)
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(C) Homocystinuria (HCU) (B) Type-II hypersensitivity
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(D) Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (C) Type-III hypersensitivity
(PNH) (D) Type-IV hypersensitivity
55. Besides mitochondria, the other production site 59. Which of the following immunoglobulin is called
of ATP is : reaginic antibody ?
(A) Golgi complex of animals (A) IgG
(B) Golgi complex of plants (B) IgD
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(C) Chloroplast of plants (C) IgE
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56. The normal concentration of amino acids in the 60.. Which among the following is produced almost
(D) All of the above (D) IgM
s em exclusively by activated helper T Cells ?
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blood is between :
a
(A) 35 and 65 mg/dl (A) Interleukin 2 (IL2)
(B) 10 and 25 mg/dl (B) Histamine
(C) 40 and 80 mg/dl (C) Immunoglobulin
(D) 20 and 55 mg/dl (D) Anaphylatoxins
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ROUGH WORK
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