JEMAS PG 2022 Question Paper M.Sc Aud

FOR JEMAS PG EXAM PREPARATION

JEMAS PG 2022
Question Paper · M.Sc
Aud
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT

JEMAS PG 2022 Question Paper M.Sc Aud

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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m .co s e m JEMAS PG 2022 Question Paper M.Sc Aud

s e JEMAS(PG)-2022 MSc Aud g l a
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1. MLB test can be administered if an individual has
(A) bilateral symmetrical hearing loss
(B) unilateral hearing loss
(C) bilateral asymmetrical hearing loss
(D) hearing loss with normal threshold at least at one frequency

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2. Canal caps have maximum attenuation at frequencies

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(A) lesser than 1000Hz

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(B) above 8000Hz
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(C) below 50 Hz
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(D) greater than 1000Hz
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3. a
Thegfull
(A) 40 weeks
(B) 36 weeks
(C) 38 weeks
(D) 32 weeks

4. The ABR waveforms are first visible in a pre-mature infant of approximately
(A) 28-30 weeks of gestational age
(B) 40 weeks of gestational age
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(C) 6 months of chronological age
(D) 12 months of chronological age
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5. Apgar scores are evaluated at
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(A) 5 minutes after birth
(B) 10 minutes after birth
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(C) both a and b
(D) randomly selected times after birth

6. Interaural attenuation for speech is typically measured by obtaining
(A) SRT
(B) SDT
(C) SIS
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(D) PTA

m .7.co Multiple perforations of tympanic members are usually associated with
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s e (A) ASOM
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g la (B) Traumatic conditions
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a (C) CSOM
(D) tuberculous otitis media

8. Filter setting to record electro-oculography should be at least between
(A) 0 to 40 Hz
(B) 100 to 3000 Hz
(C) 50 to 100 Hz
(D) 150 to 1500 Hz

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JEMAS PG 2022 Question Paper M.Sc Aud

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9. In early childhood, children with good hearing abilities learn language mainly through
(A) random access
(B) incidental learning
(C) direct instruction
(D) visual modality

10. The healed perforations in the tympanic membrane are referred to as
(A) Scar
(B) Monomers
(C) Plaques
(D) Abscess

11. Visual enhancement test is a sub test of
(A) Minimal auditory capabilities
(B) HINT
(C) Synthetic sentence identification
(D) Speech Pattern contrast test

12. A hearing aid provides 90dB output with 40 dB input. If the knee point is set to 50
dBSPL and compression ratio is set to 2:1, the output of the hearing aid for a 60dB input
will be
(A) 90 dB
(B) 95 dB
(C) 100 dB
(D) 105 dB

13. In RETFLs, the dB expressed is in reference to
(A) 1N
(B) 1mN
(C) 1µN
(D) 1µVolt

14. The RMS average of a sine wave is
(A) always positive
(B) always negative
(C) always zero
(D) positive or negative depending on the polarity

15. The test Scan-C does not incorporate
(A) filtered words
(B) dichotic digits
(C) auditory figure ground
(D) competing sentences

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m .co s e m JEMAS PG 2022 Question Paper M.Sc Aud

s e JEMAS(PG)-2022 MSc Aud g l a
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16. Prosody training in children with APD is recommended for those with problem in
(A) Temporal resolution
(B) Binaural integration
(C) temporal pattering
(D) binaural interaction

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17. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act,2016 recommends providing free education for those

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with disability until the age of
(A) 5 years
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(B) 20 years
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(C) 18 years
(D) 12 years
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18.
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a of these physiological procedures is recommended for initial hearing screening by JCIH
Which
(A) OAE
(B) ABR
(C) Immittance
(D) Both a and b

19. The Moro’s reflex disappears after
(A) 2 months
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(B) 4 months
(C) 6 months
(D) 8 months
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Chronic supportive otitis media canla
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20.
(A) Chronic discharge a g result in

(B) Deafness
(C) facial palsy
(D) all the above

21. Wave V/I amplitude ratio in infant is
(A) Increased
(B) Reduced
(C) more than 1
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m (D) more than 5
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Logging function is a part of
s e (A) Microphone
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a (C) Dosimeter
(D) Preamplifier

23. A 1000 Hz tone is said to have a pitch of
(A) 1 mel
(B) 10 mels
(C) 100 mels
(D) 1000 mels

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JEMAS PG 2022 Question Paper M.Sc Aud

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24. SLMs used to calibrate the audiometers should be of
(A) Type I
(B) Type II
(C) Type III
(D) Type IV

25. Human cochlea show earliest response to sound by............. week of gestation
(A) 10th
(B) 20th
(C) 30th
(D) 36th

26. The recommended analysis window for recording click ABR in infants is
(A) 5ms
(B) 10ms
(C) 15ms
(D) 25ms

27. Peak that is associated with the active attention is
(A) P3a
(B) P1
(C) MMN
(D) P3b

28. Luscher and Zwislocki’s difference limen test should be administered at
(A) 40dB HL
(B) 40dB SL
(C) 70 dB HL
(D) 80 dB SPL

29. If the intensity is increased by 4 times, the dB’s would increase by
(A) 3 dB
(B) 9 dB
(C) 6 dB
(D) 10 dB

30. Acoustic reflex in conductive hearing loss is absent in
(A) Phone ear
(B) Stimulus ear
(C) both ears
(D) probe ear

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m .co s e m JEMAS PG 2022 Question Paper M.Sc Aud

s e JEMAS(PG)-2022 MSc Aud g l a
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31. Stimulus in acoustic reflex decay test is presented for a duration of
(A) 10 ms
(B) 100 ms
(C) 10 s
(D) 60 s

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32. The weight used over supra-aural headphones while calibrating is

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(A) 500 gms
(B) 550 gms
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(C) 600 gms
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(D) 1000 gms
l Jerger box pattern is seen in ag
33. a
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box
(A) Brainstem lesion
(B) Cochlear hearing loss
(C) facial nerve lesion
(D) middle ear lesion

34. Threshold tone decay is also known as
(A) Loudness adaptation
(B) Threshold adaptation
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(C) recruitment
(D) decruitment
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The configuration of induction loopla
35.
extent is a g system that reduces the spill over to the maximum

(A) Simple loop
(B) Clover leaf
(C) zigzag
(D) 3D induction loop

36. As per IS: 10775, the equivalent input noise of a hearing aid shall not exceed
(A) 17 dBSPL
(B) 30 dBSPL
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(C) 25dBSPL

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(D) 12 dBSPL

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The test that uses sentences as material for speech perception testing is

g la (A) SERT
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a (B) ANT
(C) PSt
(D) NU-CHIPS

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JEMAS PG 2022 Question Paper M.Sc Aud

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38. The stimuli that is most preferred for frequency specific hearing threshold estimation
using VRA is
(A) Pure tones
(B) narrow band noise
(C) warble tones
(D) ripple noise

39. All employees working in critical noise area should have a 'baseline audiogram' that is
preceded by a period of at least
(A) 2 hours of quiet
(B) 14 hours of quiet
(C) 48 hours of quiet
(D) 24 hours of quiet

40. Meckel's carlilage and Reichert's cartilage give rise to
(A) cochlea
(B) utricle and saccule
(C) auditory nerve
(D) ossicles

41. Probe microphones are used for measuring
(A) Stapedial reflexes
(B) OAE
(C) insertion gain
(D) all the above

42. Negative tympanometric peak pressure is seen in cases having
(A) Wax in the ear
(B) Abnormal Eustachian tube
(C) fluid in the middle ear
(D) all of the above

43. 20 dB SPL + 20dB SPL equals
(A) 40 dB SPL
(B) 23 dB SPL
(C) 0dB SPL
(D) 26 dB SPL

44. Class____ type of amplifiers are also called as pushpull amplifier
(A) A
(B) D
(C) C
(D) B

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m .co s e m JEMAS PG 2022 Question Paper M.Sc Aud

s e JEMAS(PG)-2022 MSc Aud g l a
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45. The unit of loudness level is
(A) Mel
(B) Sone
(C) dB
(D) Phon

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46. Standing wave occurs in children at

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(A) 2000 Hz
(B) 3000 Hz
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(C) 4000 Hz
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(D) 6000 Hzs ag
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47. TheaCarhart
(A) Otitis media
(B) Ossicular chain discontinuity
(C) Noise induced hearing loss
(D) Otosclerosis

48. The minimum age at which VRA can be administered is:
(A) 6 months
(B) 12 months
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(C) 18 months
(D) 24 months
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49. Libby horn is used to improve hearing a
aid performance in _____region:
(A) Low frequency
(B) Mid frequency
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(C) high frequency
(D) all the above

50. The term IDEA stands for:
(A) Individuals with Disabilities Education Act
(B) International Disorders Education Act
(C) International Disabilities Education Act
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(D) Indian Disabilities Education Act

c.51.o Which of the following effects is produced by lowering the cot-off ofshigh
e mpass filter from
s em (A) a conventional protocol used for testing adults using ABR?
g l a
la Better separation between waves IV & V
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ag (B) Enhancement of wave I
(C) Enhancement of wave V
(D) All of the above

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JEMAS PG 2022 Question Paper M.Sc Aud

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52. Which of the following stimuli will most appropriately be described as “short-duration,
unidirectional voltage pulse”?
(A) Logon
(B) Chirp
(C) Tone-burst
(D) Click

53. ..................... corresponds to a large early inion response that occurs in response to loud
acoustic stimulation or skull vibration and is unaffected by the degree of sensorineural
hearing loss.
(A) MLR
(B) ECochG
(C) VEMP
(D) PAM

54. If the responses recorded to a brief tone of opposite polarities are subtracted, the resultant
waveform would correspond to .............
(A) FFR
(B) MLR
(C) ABR
(D) None of the above

55. The labyrinthine artery, that give the blood supply to the vestibular end organs, is likely to
arise from.............
(A) Anterior inferior cerebellar artery
(B) Superior cerebellar artery
(C) Basilar artery
(D) All of the above

56. The posterior semicircular canal is inclined at an angle of about .......... from the plane of
the horizontal semicircular canal.
(A) 100o
(B) 92 o
(C) 80 o
(D) None of the above

57. Sound-induced vertigo is phenomenon seen in cases with ...................
(A) Superior canal dehiscence
(B) Perilymphatic fistula
(C) Neither ‘a’ nor ‘b’
(D) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’

58. ................... is the most common site of BPPV.
(A) Lateral SCC
(B) Posterior SCC
(C) Superior SCC
(D) Cochlea

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m .co s e m JEMAS PG 2022 Question Paper M.Sc Aud

s e JEMAS(PG)-2022 MSc Aud g l a
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59. The standard temperatures used for caloric stimulation using air as the medium for
irrigation is ...........above and below the body temperature.
(A) 7 o
(B) 13 o
(C) 44 o
(D) 30 o
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60. Elberling & Don (1984) are regarded as pioneers for developing ................ method for
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ABR.
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(A) MLS
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(B) FSP
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(C) Artifact rejection
(D) All of the above

61. The ABLB test was originally developed by Fowler (1936) with the aim of identifying
........................................
(A) Cochlear pathology
(B) Retrocochlear pathology
(C) Early otosclerosis
(D) Meniere’s disease

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(A) Luscher & Zwislocki
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62. The modern day SISI test is the modified form of the DLI procedure developed by ................

(B) Fowler
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(C) Bekesy
(D) Metz

63. Type III Bekesy tracing is mostly associated with ..............................
(A) Cochlear pathology
(B) VIIIth nerve tumor
(C) Pseudohypocusis
(D) Conductive hearing loss

64. The original SSW test developed by Katz uses a ..................... mode of stimulus presentation.
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(A) Dichotic
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(B) Diotic
(C) Monotic
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(D) Sound field
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asitetypeoftympanograms
ag normal
absence of bilaterally crossed and uncrossed reflexes with ‘A’
audiograms would indicate towards the localization of the pathology to
and

....................
(A) Middle ear
(B) External ear
(C) Cochlea
(D) Brainstem

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66. The Jerger & Tillman’s modification of ............ technique gave rise to SAL test.
(A) Naunton’s
(B) Rainville’s
(C) Weber’s
(D) Rinne’s

67. CHAMP is used to detect
(A) Minnere’s disease
(B) ANSD
(C) Presbycusis
(D) Ototoxicity

68. The diameter of the Internal Auditory Canal in an average normal human adult is .....
(A) 8 mm
(B) 12 mm
(C) 5 mm
(D) 1.5 mm

69. The lateral wall of middle ear cleft, in the epitympanic recess, is formed by ............ portion of
the Temporal bone.
(A) Petrous
(B) Squamous
(C) Mastoid
(D) Zygomatic

70. A client is complaining of hearing loss in left ear. Weber is lateralized to right ear and Rinne is
positive in right but negative in left. These findings could most likely be interpreted as
.............................
(A) Left ear conductive hearing loss with right ear normal
(B) Left ear sensorineural hearing loss with right ear normal
(C) Left ear conductive hearing loss with right ear sensorineural hearing loss
(D) Bilateral symmetrical sensorineural hearing loss

71. Goldenhar’s syndrome is also known as
(A) Hemifacial microsomia
(B) Oculo-auriclo-vertebral spectrum
(C) First and second arch syndrome
(D) All the above

72. Complete labyrinthine aplasia of inner ear is also known as
(A) Michel deformity
(B) Cochlear aplasia,
(C) Cochlear hypoplasia,
(D) IP-I and IP II

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m .co s e m JEMAS PG 2022 Question Paper M.Sc Aud

s e JEMAS(PG)-2022 MSc Aud g l a
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73. ANSI S3.1-1999 provides criteria of
(A) Specification for Audiometers
(B) Permissible ambient noise during audiometric testing
(C) Specifications for Sound Level Meters
(D) Method for Manual Pure-Tone Threshold Audiometry

74. Custom hearing aids can be prescribed to children greater than _________ years.
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(A) 12
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(B) 9
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(C) 11
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(D) 7
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l is more appropriate for universal newborn hearing screening? ag
75. Whichgtest
(A) a
HRR
(B) ABR
(C) OAE
(D) BOA

76. Early conductive hearing loss leads to _________
(A) Localization problem
(B) Poor school performance
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(C) Language impairment
(D) All of the above

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77. Which is the best choice of behavioral test for a child age of 1 year and does not have neck
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control?
(A) PTA
(B) OAE
(C) BOA
(D) VRA

78. In infants, which probe tone frequency should be used during immittance audiometry?
(A) 678 Hz
(B) 1000 Hz

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(C) 256 Hz

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(D) 678/1000 Hz
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79. Early speech perception test was given by __________
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(B) Erber & Alencewicz, 1976

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(D) Geers & Moorg, 1996

80. TROCA was developed for __________ population.
(A) Mental retardation
(B) Autistic
(C) Developmentally disabled
(D) Mental retardation/developmentally disabled

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JEMAS PG 2022 Question Paper M.Sc Aud

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81. If one sound is twice as noisy as another, then it will be __________ PNdB higher and it will
have ________ number of noys.
(A) 10, double
(B) 20, triple
(C) 5, half
(D) None of the above

82. What are the types of hearing loss from noise exposure?
(A) Acoustic trauma
(B) NITTS
(C) NIPTS
(D) All of the above

83. _________ is a more sensitive method for the early diagnosis of cochlear damage than PTA.
(A) OAE
(B) High frequency audiometry
(C) SOAE
(D) Impedance

84. As per AAOO, binaural handicap is calculated by _____________formula.
(A) 5 X (better ear %) + (poorer ear %) X 1/ 6
(B) (Average threshold – 15) X 1.5
(C) 4 X (better ear %) + (poorer ear %) X 1/6
(D) None of the above.

85. The highest NRR ever measured on an EPD is ___________________.
(A) 25
(B) 10
(C) 15
(D) 35

86. Promontory is in-
(A) Lateral wall of tympanic cavity
(B) Medial wall of tympanic cavity
(C) Anterior wall of tympanic cavity
(D) Posterior wall of tympanic cavity

87. Vertical length of Middle ear is-
(A) 15 mm
(B) 25 mm
(C) 10 cm
(D) 13 mm

88. Posterior portion of Tympanic membrane is supplied by-
(A) Hypoglossal nerve
(B) Trigeminal nerve
(C) Facial nerve
(D) Vagus nerve

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m .co s e m JEMAS PG 2022 Question Paper M.Sc Aud

s e JEMAS(PG)-2022 MSc Aud g l a
a a
89. Macewen’s Triangle is -
(A) Sigmoid sinus
(B) Superior petrosal sinus
(C) Suprameatal triangle
(D) All of the above

90. Lateral semicircular canal lies-
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(A) 30 degrees to the horizontal plane
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(B) 90 degrees to the horizontal plane
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(C) 45 degrees to the horizontal plane
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(D) 60 degrees to the horizontal plane

l is not the part of membranous labyrinth- ag
91. Whichgone
(A) a
Utricle
(B) Otic capsule
(C) Cochlear duct
(D) Endolymphatic duct

92. Otoconia is present in-
(A) Sensory Neuro- epithelium
(B) Statoconial membrane
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(C) Cochlear duct
(D) All the above

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93. In the tunnel of corti inner and outer rod cell estimate-
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(A) 6000 and 4000
(B) 4000 and 6000
(C) 8000 and 10000
(D) 10000 and 8000

94. Tectorial membrane is composed by-
(A) Pristine
(B) Gelatin
(C) Elastin

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(D) Histamin

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95. Literate style of language-

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(A) Regulate social interaction
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(C) Contains predictable syntax

ag (D) Regulate thinking

96. Tragus is developed from
(A) Fourth hillock
(B) Sixth hillock
(C) Third hillock
(D) First hillock

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JEMAS PG 2022 Question Paper M.Sc Aud

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97. Place theory of hearing was proposed by-
(A) Rutherford
(B) Lawrence
(C) Bekesy
(D) Helmholtz

98. Critical Reading is –
(A) Literacy Socialization
(B) Fluent Reading
(C) Synthesis of new Knowledge
(D) Use of Inference

99. IA for BC testing is estimated as –
(A) 5
(B) 0
(C) 10
(D) 40

100. Type 4 Bekesy tracing is found in-
(A) Neural lesion
(B) Functional hearing loss
(C) Sensory lesion
(D) None of the above

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