RRB Group D 2026 Question Paper 09 Feb All Shifts (in English)

FOR RRB GROUP D EXAM PREPARATION

RRB Group D 2026
Question Paper · All
Shifts (in English)
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT DATE

RRB Group D 2026 Question Paper All Shifts (in English) 09 Feb

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Test Date 09/02/2026
Test Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Science

Q.1 Which of the following salts will have a pH close to 7 when dissolved in water?
Ans A. Na₂CO₃

B. NaCl

C. CH₃COONa

D. NH₄Cl

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Q.2 If the distance-time graph of an object is a straight line parallel to the time axis, what is
the object's speed?

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Ans A. Zero

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B. Uniform

C. Non-zero constant ag
D. Increasing

Q.3 Which of the following best explains the division of labour seen in multicellular
organisms?
Ans A. All cells perform the same function in an organism

B. Different cells have specialized functions

C. Multicellular organisms have only one type of cell
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D. Each body part is made up of a single cell

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Q.4 mThe concentration of H⁺ ions in a solution primarily determines its:
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l as Ans A. Degree of acidity in aqueous phase
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C. Level of gas compressibility factor

D. Extent of metallic bonding strength

Q.5 How is the change in Gravitational Potential Energy (ΔPEg) of a system related to the
work (Wg) done by the gravitational force?

Ans A. Wg = ΔPEg

B. The two are unrelated
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C. Wg = 0

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D. Wg = −ΔPEg
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 1 of 48

Q.6 Which contraceptive method is most appropriate for a couple who wishes to avoid both
hormonal and surgical methods?
Ans A. Using barrier methods like condoms

B. Natural methods (periodic abstinence)

C. Taking oral pills

D. Inserting a copper-T

Q.7 The law of conservation of mass states that:
Ans A. Matter can be destroyed during reactions

B. Mass can neither be created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction

C. Matter can be created in reactions

D. Mass always decreases during a reaction

Q.8 Copper reacts with moist carbon dioxide in the air and slowly loses its shiny brown
surface and gains a _________ colour coating of basic copper carbonate.
Ans A. black

B. white

C. reddish brown

D. green

Q.9 A decrease in oxygen availability in the environment is most likely to first impact which
step of aerobic respiration in animal cells?
Ans A. Krebs cycle

B. Electron transport chain

C. Glycolysis

D. Lactic acid fermentation

Q.10 If the current in a straight conductor is doubled, the magnetic field at a given distance
from it:
Ans A. Becomes zero

B. Doubles

C. Halves

D. Remains the same

Q.11 The SI unit of average speed is:
Ans A. km/hr

B. m/s

C. cm/s

D. m/s2

Q.12 A girl clapped her hands near a cliff and heard the echo after 8 s. What is the distance
of the cliff from the girl if the speed of the sound is taken as 320 m s–1?
Ans A. 640 m

B. 80 m

C. 320 m

D. 1280 m

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 2 of 48

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Q.13 What is the advantage of cross-breeding local and exotic cattle breeds?
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Ans A. Higher meat and milk yield

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B. Faster reproduction rate

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C. Lower adaptability to environment

D. Denser wool yield

Q.14 Corrosion of iron is commonly known as rusting, and it requires:
Ans A. salt and strong acid presence

B. iron and very cold temperatures

C. water and atmospheric oxygen

D. moisture and high acidity
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Q.15 Arrange the following in the correct sequences of development after fertilisation in
humans.
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Embryo, Zygote and Foetus

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Ans A. Foetus - Embryo - Zygote

B. Zygote - Foetus - Embryo

C. Embryo - Foetus - Zygote

D. Zygote - Embryo - Foetus

Q.16 Which of the following plants is a weed?
Ans A. Oryza sativa

B. Vigna unguiculata
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C. Cyperus rotundus

D. Pisum sativum
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Q.17
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Two children of the same parents resemble each other but are not exactly alike because
___________.
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Ans A. their parents show very little genetic variation

B. each of them inherits all genetic characters from one parent only

C. they show different combinations of the genetic variation existing in their parents

D. each of them shows variation in their DNA copying mechanisms

Q.18 A compound is a substance in which elements are:

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Ans A. Easily separable

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B. Chemically combined in fixed proportion

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l as D. Mixed temporarily
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water?
Ans A. The total mass of products is always greater than reactants in a reaction.

B. A chemical compound always contains the same elements combined in a fixed ratio by mass.

C. Elements combine in any ratio to form compounds.

D. The properties of compounds are the same as those of elements.

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Q.20 Which of the following circuit elements is used to vary the amount of
current following through a closed circuit?
Ans A. Ammeter

B. Plug key

C. Voltmeter

D. Rheostat

Q.21 The random wavering or flickering of objects viewed through a turbulent
stream of hot air rising above a fire or radiator is an effect of
______________.
Ans A. Diffraction of light

B. Heat radiation causing visual distortion

C. Tyndall effect

D. Atmospheric refraction on a small scale

Q.22 What is the method of removal of metabolic waste in many unicellular organisms?
Ans A. Through a simple diffusion process

B. Through osmosis

C. Through the use of special organs

D. Through filtration through kidneys

Q.23 Which of the following quantities determines the magnitude of the buoyant force on a
body?
Ans A. Surface area of the body

B. Density of the fluid and volume displaced

C. Temperature of the fluid

D. Weight of the body

Q.24 What type of image is always formed by a concave lens, no matter where the object is
placed?
Ans A. Virtual, erect, and diminished

B. Real, erect, and same size

C. Virtual, inverted, and enlarged

D. Real, inverted, and enlarged

Q.25 In electrolytic refining, the impure metal is used as the:
Ans A. anode

B. electrolyte

C. separator

D. cathode

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 A shopkeeper marks an article at ₹x and offers a discount of 54% on the marked price.
He sells it for ₹437 after charging VAT of 52% on the discounted price. What is the value
of x?
Ans A. 500

B. 600

C. 200

D. 625

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 4 of 48

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Q.27 Find the single discount equivalent to two successive discounts of 5% and 8%.
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Ans A. 14.67%

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B. 12.6%

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C. 10.8%

D. 14.63%

Q.28

Ans A. 16

B. 15

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C. 12

D. 18
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Q.29 The average of 6.5, 10.7, 20.2 and a is 17. The value of a is:

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Ans A. 29.6
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B. 30.6

C. 31.6

D. 32.6

Q.30 Simplify (6pq + 14q)2 - (6pq - 14q)2.
Ans A. 168pq2

B. 336pq2

C. 168p2q2
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D. 336p2q

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Q.31 P and Q together can fill a cistern with water in 8 hours. If P alone can fill the cistern

cistern with water?1241
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with water in 20 hours, then in how many hours will Q alone fill three-fourth of the same

Ans A. 10

B. 11

C. 21

D. 20

Q.32

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Ans A. The numerator is greater than denominator by 10

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a D. The difference between denominator and numerator is 12

Q.33 A field is in the shape of a quadrilateral. One of its diagonals is 10 m long. The
perpendicular distances from the other two vertices to this diagonal are 12 m and 13 m,
respectively. What is the area of the field?
Ans A. 110 m²

B. 100 m²

C. 130 m²

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D. 125 m²

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Q.34 The volume of a solid cylinder is 2926 cm3 and its height is 19 cm. What is the total
surface area of the solid cylinder?

Ans A. 1144 cm2

B. 1175 cm2

C. 1106 cm2

D. 1121 cm2

Q.35 ₹8,442 is divided among S, B, and C in such a way that if ₹7, ₹73, and ₹68 be deducted
from their respective shares, they have money in the ratio 6 : 7 : 16. Find the difference
between the B’s and C’s original shares.
Ans A. ₹2,674

B. ₹2,524

C. ₹2,569

D. ₹2,624

Q.36

Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.37 Arman runs 8.8 km in 1 hour 20 minutes. How long will he take to run 26.4 km at double
the previous speed?3797
Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.38 If the ages of 2 members of a family are in the ratio 6:1, and the average of their ages is
35 years. Find the total of their ages after 11 years.
Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.39 The ratio of the present ages of two friends, A and B, is 3:4. Four years ago, the ratio of
their ages was 7:10. Find their present ages.
Ans A. 18 years and 24 years

B. 15 years and 20 years

C. 21 years and 28 years

D. 12 years and 16 years

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 6 of 48

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Q.40
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Ans
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B.

C.

D.

Q.41 The volume (in m3) of a cube with edges of 19 m is:
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Ans A. 6859
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B. 6696

C. 6957
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D. 6748
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Q.42 ag
An 11-digit number 8732326687X is divisible by 18. What is the value of X?
Ans A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 5

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Q.43 What is the L.C.M. of 45, 63 and 81?

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Ans A. 2455

B. 2545
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C. 2835
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D. 2385
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Q.44 The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point on the ground 48 m from the
foot of the tower is 30°. Find the height of the tower in metres.
Ans A.

B.

C.

D.
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Q.45 Three people, X, Y and Z, are working together to plant trees in a garden. X and Y

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together can complete the job in 20 days. Y and Z together can complete the job in 24
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How long will it take for X, Y and Z working together to complete the job?3212
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a B.

C.

D.

Q.46 The average price of three items of furniture is ₹16,425. If their prices are in the ratio 3 :
5 : 7, the price of the costliest item (in ₹) will be:
Ans A. 7,665

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B. 22,995

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C. 5,475

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D. 9,855

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Q.47 A store originally sold a jacket for ₹120. After a 15% increase in price, what is the new
price of the jacket?
Ans A. ₹18

B. ₹120

C. ₹138

D. ₹102

Q.48 The compound interest on ₹5,625 for 6 months at 16% per annum, interest being
compounded quarterly is:
Ans A. ₹955

B. ₹459

C. ₹746

D. ₹702

Q.49 A sold an article to B at a loss of 12%. B sold it to C at a profit of 20%. If C paid ₹1,122
to B, find the cost price of the article for A.
Ans A. ₹1,062.50

B. ₹985.30

C. ₹1,038.80

D. ₹999.70

Q.50

Ans A. 26

B. 19

C. 23

D. 20

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 687 652 691 287 286 (Right)
(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
NOTE - All operations to be done from left to right.

What will be the resultant if the second digit of the highest number is added to the third
digit of the lowest number?2425
Ans A. 17

B. 16

C. 15

D. 19

Q.52 RUOT is related to VYSX in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
the same way, MPJO is related to QTNS. To which of the given options is HKEJ related,
following the same logic?
Ans A. LOIN

B. LPIM

C. LPIN

D. LOIM

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 8 of 48

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Q.53 What should come in place of ‘?’ in the given series?
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158 171 186 204 226 ?

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Ans A. 249
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C. 255 ag l
D. 251

Q.54 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance from commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements: All cushions are pillows. No pillow is a blanket. Some blankets are
envelopes.
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Conclusion I: Some envelopes are pillows.
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Conclusion II: No cushion is a blanket.

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Ans A. Only Conclusion I follows.

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B. Both Conclusions I and II follow.

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C. Only Conclusion II follows.

D. Neither Conclusion I nor II follows.

Q.55 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. You have to take the given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts.
You have to decide which conclusion/s logically follow/s from the given statements.

Statements: All lotions are creams. All creams are shampoos. No cream is a facewash.

Conclusion (I) : No shampoo is a facewash.
Conclusion (II) : No lotion is a facewash.
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Ans A. Only conclusion (I) follows

B. Only conclusion (II) follows
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C. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
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D. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
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Q.56 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only.)

(Left) 7 4 1 2 4 9 8 5 3 6 1 5 2 6 5 4 8 3 9 6 5 2 3 9 1 4 2 (Right)

If all the odd numbers are dropped from the series, which of the following will be
seventh from the right?
Ans A. 8

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B. 2

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C. 4

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D. 6

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a (Left) 423 253 174 324 749 (Right)
(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
NOTE - All operations to be done from left to right.
If 2 is added to the first digit of every number, in how many numbers will the first digit
be exactly divisible by the second digit?15147
Ans A. Three

B. None

C. Two

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D. One

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 9 of 48

Q.58 What should come in place of ? in the given series in order to make it logically
complete?
JF125 KE64 MC27 PZ8 ?3863
Ans A. TW1

B. TV1

C. TV8

D. SV1

Q.59 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four are alike in a certain
way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. JOR

B. GKN

C. TXA

D. YCF

Q.60 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the
following sets.
(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /
subtracting / multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and
then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(14 280 5)
(7 336 12)
Ans A. 21 336 4

B. 12 578 10

C. 18 876 9

D. 13 992 11

Q.61 In a certain code language,
A + B means ‘A is the son of B’,
A - B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
A x B means ‘A is the wife of B’, and
A ÷ B means ‘A is the father of B’.

Based on the above, how is D related to J if ‘D ÷ F x G + H - J’?
Ans A. Sister's son's wife's brother

B. Brother's son's wife's brother

C. Sister's son's wife's father

D. Brother's son's wife's father

Q.62 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

MJB 9, QNF 16, URJ 23, YVN 30, ?9648
Ans A. CYR 42

B. BZS 36

C. CZR 37

D. AYR 37

Q.63 In a certain code language, ‘chase clouds away’ is coded as ‘hl mt dv’ and ‘clouds block
sun’ is coded as ‘ya co hl’. How is ‘clouds’ coded in the given language?
Ans A. hl

B. dv

C. mt

D. ya
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 10 of 48

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Q.64 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and
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‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

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99 ÷ 3 − 15 ÷ 5 + 156 × 2 − 12 × 4 − 16 ÷ 8 + 11 = ?
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B. 449 ag l
C. 361

D. 390

Q.65 T, U, V, W, X and Y are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Y is an
immediate neighbour of both T and V. U is sitting to the immediate right of V. W is
sitting second to the left of Y. How many people sit between X and Y when counted
from the right of X?

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Ans A. Three

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B. Two

C. One
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D. Four
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Q.66 ag
Seven people, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T are sitting in a straight row, facing north. Only four
people sit to the right of S. T sits second to the left of N. R sits fourth to the left of P. Q
sits to the immediate right of S. Who sits at the extreme left end of the line?
Ans A. O

B. T

C. Q

D. R

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Q.67 EADI is related to KGJO in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, IEHM is related to OKNS. To which of the following is MILQ related to,
following the same logic?
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Ans A. SORX
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B. SPRX
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C. SPRW

D. SORW

Q.68 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

173 166 159 152 145 ?
Ans A. 139

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B. 136

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C. 137

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Ans A. 3

B. 2

C. 4

D. 1

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Q.70 Refer to the following letter series and answer the question.

(Left) M R Y T O N B F W A H L D X G Z J Q V E P K (Right)

How many vowels are there in the above series?5696
Ans A. Five

B. Four

C. Six

D. Three

Q.71 Find out the correct alternative that when filled in the blanks in the same sequence will
make the series logically complete.

BA_C F_HG _ILK NM_O R_TS
Ans A. DELPQ

B. DEJPP

C. DEJPQ

D. DIJPQ

Q.72 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

79 83 92 108 133 ?6048
Ans A. 171

B. 170

C. 169

D. 168

Q.73 In a row of 85 students facing north, Rohan’s position is 35th from the left and
Shekhar’s position is 25th from the right. Kuldeep is sitting exactly between both of
them. Find the position of Kuldeep from Rohan when counted to the right of Rohan.
Ans A. 15th

B. 12th

C. 13th

D. 14th

Q.74 VTQS is related to PNKM in a certain way. In the same way, PMKF is related to JGEZ. To
which of the given options is ROLG related, following the same logic?
Ans A. LJEB

B. LIFA

C. MIFA

D. MJEM

Q.75 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and
‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

97 − 46 + 12 ÷ 8 × 2 = ?
Ans A. 99

B. 95

C. 97

D. 102

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 12 of 48

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Q.76 Each of the digits in the number 7231456 is arranged in the ascending order from left to
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right. The position(s) of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in

. the original number?
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Ans A. One

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B. None

C. Three
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D. Two

Q.77 Based on the alphabetical order, three of the following four are alike in a certain way
and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter cluster)
Ans A. BAY
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B. ONL

C. GFE

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D. TSQ
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Q.78 A,B,C,D,E,F and G are sitting in a straight line facing North.
Only E sits to the left of B. Only four people sit between E and C. Only G sits between F
and D and F is not an immediate neighbor of C.
How many people sit to the right of D?
Ans A. 3

B. 1

C. 2

D. 4

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Q.79 In a row of 55 people facing north, Tanmay sits 18th from the left end. If only 17 people

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sit between Yash and Tanmay, then what is Yash’s position from the right end of the
row?
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Ans A. 19th

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B. 20th
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C. 18th

D. 21st

Q.80 Mr. Apso starts from point A and drives 7 km towards north. He then takes a right turn,
drives 4 km, turns right and drives 9 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 8 km. He
takes a final right turn, drives 2 km and stops at point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach point A again? (All turns are
90-degree turns only unless specified.) 474
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Ans A. 3 km to the west
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B. 5 km to the east

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C. 2 km to the west

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a Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

Q.81 In October 2025, which of the following cities of Vietnam hosted the high-level signing
ceremony of the United Nations Convention against Cybercrime, where 72 UN member
states signed the deal?
Ans A. Vinh

B. Hanoi

C. Can Tho
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D. Dalat

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Q.82 Which javelin thrower became the first from India to throw beyond 90 m internationally
in May 2025?
Ans A. Abdul Khaliq

B. Sachin Yadav

C. Neeraj Chopra

D. Shivpal Singh

Q.83 What is the role of the Centralised Information Management System (CIMS) which was
available to the regulated entities (REs) on or before May 13, 2025?
Ans A. Filing complaints online

B. Tracking mobile apps

C. Monitoring tax payments

D. Managing digital data

Q.84 Which Indian state finished at the top of the medal tally in the Khelo India Para Games
2025?
Ans A. Maharashtra

B. Haryana

C. Uttar Pradesh

D. Tamil Nadu

Q.85 Who was awarded the Sahitya Akademi Award 2024 for his book "Ik Hor Ashwthama" in
the Dogri language?
Ans A. Dalip Kaur Tiwana

B. Jaswant Singh

C. Chaman Arora

D. Shiv Kumar Batalvi

Q.86 The 9th Asian Winter Games were held in February, 2025, with athletes from 34
countries, in:
Ans A. Uzbekistan

B. China

C. Kyrgystan

D. Qatar

Q.87 The Right to Disconnect Bill, 2025, seeks to establish which principle in the modern
digital workplace?
Ans A. Uniform labour laws

B. Mandatory overtime compensation

C. Clear work–life boundaries

D. Employer control over digital platforms

Q.88 In 2025, which legendary Indian cricketer was inducted into the ICC Hall of Fame along
with Matthew Hayden and Hashim Amla?
Ans A. Virat Kohli

B. Sourav Ganguly

C. Rahul Dravid

D. MS Dhoni

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 14 of 48

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Q.89 Which types of equipment were included in the new defence acquisitions approved by
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India’s Defence Acquisition Council in 2025?

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Ans A. Stealth fighter jets and hypersonic glide vehicles
m a
se B. Submarines and satellite-based surveillance systems

C. Amphibious warships, missiles and swarm drones ag l
D. Aircraft carriers and long-range cruise missiles

Q.90 The DRAVYA portal, launched in 2025 as a digital knowledge repository for medicinal
substances, was initiated by which ministry?
Ans A. Ministry of Pharmaceuticals

B. Ministry of Ayush

C. Ministry of Biotechnology
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D. Ministry of Education

em
Q.91
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What percentage of districts in the North Eastern Region showed an increase in their
l as
l as
composite SDG Index score as per the second edition of the North Eastern Region
(NER) District Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) Index Report (2023-24) released
ag
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by NITI Aayog in July 2025?
Ans A. 75%

B. 65%

C. 95%

D. 85%

Q.92 During the August 2025 Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) review, what revision did the
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) make to its inflation forecast for FY 2025-26?

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Ans A. Kept unchanged at 3.7%

B. Revised upward to 4.5%
e m
C. Slashed sharply to 2.5%
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D. Lowered to 3.1%
ag
Q.93 What is the maximum financial support provided for new construction of a tribal
homestay unit under the Swadesh Darshan Scheme in April 2025?
Ans A. ₹4 Lakh

B. ₹3 Lakh

C. ₹5 Lakh

D. ₹7 Lakh

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Q.94
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Who among the following is known affectionately as “Bihar Kokila” and “Swar Kokila”?
.co
Ans

m .co A. Chandan
s e m
s e B. Payal Singh
g l a
g l a C. Sharda Sinha a
a D. Bharat Byas

Q.95 At which event did the Vice-President of India, C. P. Radhakrishnan, deliver an
inaugural address emphasizing that climate action is an opportunity, not a constraint?
Ans A. Bharat Climate Forum 2026

B. India Energy Summit 2026

C. International Solar Alliance Meet 2026

D. Global Green Growth Forum 2026
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 15 of 48

Q.96 Who among the following was appointed as the Chief Justice of India with effect from
24 November 2025?
Ans A. Justice Surya Kant

B. Justice Sanjiv Khanna

C. Justice D.Y. Chandrachud

D. Justice B.R. Gavai

Q.97 What major reform did the Government of India implement to simplify workers’ rights
and labour law compliance in 2025?
Ans A. Expansion of the Minimum Wages Act only

B. Merger of 29 labour laws into four Labour Codes

C. Elimination of trade unions and withdrawal of their legal recognition

D. Introduction of universal basic income

Q.98 The National Frequency Allocation Plan, 2025 (NFAP-2025) primarily deals with the
allocation of which of the following?
Ans A. Radio-frequency spectrum

B. Electric vehicle charging bands

C. Postal codes

D. Railway land-use frequencies

Q.99 Which of the following ranked as the top national park, with a score of 92.7%, in the
Union Environment Ministry's Management Effectiveness Evaluation for the 2020–25
cycle?
Ans A. Manas National Park

B. Bandipur National Park

C. Kanha National Park

D. Eravikulam National Park

Q.100 Which landmark treaty was adopted by WHO member states on 20 May 2025, aiming to
strengthen global pandemic preparedness?
Ans A. WHO Pandemic Agreement

B. Global Health Security Pact

C. Global Vaccine Agreement

D. International Health Regulations (IHR)

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 16 of 48

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a

Test Date 09/02/2026
Test Time 12:45 PM - 2:15 PM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Scienceag
Q.1 Baking soda releases which gas on heating?
Ans A. O₂

B. CO₂

C. H₂

D. N₂

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Q.2 What is the typical oxide used along with aluminium in a thermite reaction?
Ans A. Magnesium oxide
e m
B. Iron (III) oxide
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C. Copper oxide
ag
D. Zinc oxide

Q.3 Which cells in xylem are primarily responsible for the vertical transport of water and
minerals in plants?
Ans A. Sieve tubes

B. Xylem fibres

C. Tracheids and vessels
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D. Companion cells
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Q.4
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Which of the following conditions must be satisfied for work to be done according to
s e m
s e science?

g l a
g l a Ans A. Only the object moves, even if no force is applied.
a
a B. The object is at rest, and a force is applied.

C. Only a force is applied, even if the object does not move.

D. A force must act on an object, and the object must be displaced.

Q.5 Imagine a country continues to use CFCs despite the global agreement. What could be
the consequences for that country and the world?
Ans A. Environmental harm and global criticism

B. Faster industrial development
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C. No effect, as other countries have stopped using CFCs

m s e m
D. Increase in rainfall
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 17 of 48

Q.6 What is a colloidal solution?
Ans A. Mixture in which particles fully dissolve and settle

B. Transparent mixture with gases only

C. Heterogeneous mixture with fine particles

D. Uniform mixture with large particles

Q.7 A flexible support to developing plant parts is provided by _______.
Ans A. Xylem

B. Phloem

C. Collenchyma

D. Chlorenchyma

Q.8 In which state of matter is the space between particles maximum ?
Ans A. Solid

B. Liquid

C. All have equal space

D. Gas

Q.9 In household electricity supply, which of the following statements correctly describes
the colour codes of the wires?
Ans A. The live wire is black, the neutral wire is green, and the earth wire is blue

B. The live wire is red, the neutral wire is black, and the earth wire is green

C. The live wire is blue, the neutral wire is green, and the earth wire is red

D. The live wire is green, the neutral wire is red, and the earth wire is black

Q.10 A race car starting from rest accelerates uniformly. If the car covers 22.5 m in the 5th
second of its motion, what is the total distance covered at the end of 10 seconds?
Ans A. 375 m

B. 300 m

C. 250 m

D. 450 m

Q.11 An object is thrown vertically upwards and rises to a height of 20 m. What was the
velocity with which the object was thrown? (Take g =10 m/s²).
Ans A. 40 m/s

B. 10 m/s

C. 30 m/s

D. 20 m/s

Q.12 Which of the following types of ore is pyrite?
Ans A. Halide

B. Oxide

C. Nitrate

D. Sulphide

Q.13 Which of the following is NOT caused by atmospheric refraction?
Ans A. Sun appearing higher in sky than its actual geometric position

B. Advanced sunrise and delayed sunset

C. Twinkling of stars

D. Reddish colour of sun at sunrise / sunset

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 18 of 48

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Q.14 The heating effect of electric current is least in _________.
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Ans A. Iron

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B. Copper

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C. Nichrome

D. Tungsten

Q.15 If the velocity of a car increases from 20 m/s to 40 m/s in 4 seconds, the acceleration of
the car is _____.
Ans A. 5 m/s²

B. 5 m/s

C. 10 m/s

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D. 10 m/s²
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Q.16 .co
When a drop of ink is added to water and left undisturbed, the ink gradually spreads
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throughout the water. Which property of matter does this observation best
s l a
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demonstrate?

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Ans A. Fixed positions of particles

B. Spaces between particles

C. Attraction between particles

D. Continuous movement of particles

Q.17 Herbicides protect crops by ________.
Ans A. Killing insects

B. Killing bacteria
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C. Killing weeds

D. Killing fungi
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Q.18
Ans A. random ag
In a longitudinal wave, particle’s motion is ___________.

B. parallel to the wave direction

C. circular

D. perpendicular to the wave motion

Q.19 Fill in the blanks with the correct sequence of organs.
Urine is formed in the _______ → passes through the _______ → stored in the _______
→ and finally released through the _______.
m
Ans
mA. Kidney → Ureter → Urinary bladder → Urethra
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m .co B. Urethra → Urinary bladder → Ureter → Kidney
s e m
s e C. Urinary bladder → Kidney → Ureter → Urethra
g l a
g l a D. Ureter → Kidney → Urethra → Urinary bladder
a
a Q.20 The distance between the pole and focus of a concave mirror is 30 cm. A real and
inverted image is formed by this mirror on a screen at 40 cm from the pole of this
mirror. What will be the object distance?
Ans A. - 120/7 cm

B. + 120/7 cm

C. - 120 cm

D. + 120 cm

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 19 of 48

Q.21 What role does the placenta play during the development of the embryo in the human
female reproductive system?
Ans A. It facilitates the exchange of nutrients and wastes between mother and embryo.

B. It is the location where fertilisation of egg and sperm occurs.

C. It produces eggs needed for fertilisation.

D. It unites the two oviducts into the uterus.

Q.22 Which of the following organisms shows the phenomenon of regeneration?
Ans A. House fly

B. Honey bee

C. Mosquito

D. Planaria

Q.23 What is the most important condition for successful fragmentation reproduction in
Spirogyra?
Ans A. Each fragment possessing the capability to perform basic life functions

B. The ability of fragments to form seeds

C. Presence of reproductive organs in each fragment

D. Availability of a fully developed vascular system

Q.24 Which of the following is an example of addition reaction?
Ans A. Chlorination of methane

B. Hydrolysis of acetic acid

C. Dehydration of alcohol

D. Hydrogenation of ethene

Q.25 Which statement best defines a combination reaction?
Ans A. Two reactants break down into simpler products.

B. Two or more reactants combine to form a single product.

C. One element displaces another element from its compound.

D. Two compounds exchange ions to form new compounds.

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 Rishi can do a piece of work in 11 days. Shan is 10% more efficient than Rishi. The
number of days taken by Shan to do the same piece of work is:2969
Ans A. 10

B. 20

C. 11

D. 15

Q.27

Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 20 of 48

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Q.28 If the radius of a sphere is 3 cm, then its surface area is:
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Ans A. 98 π cm2

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B. 49 π cm2

g l a
a
C. 72 π cm2

D. 36 π cm2

Q.29 Find the volume of a cuboid whose length, breadth and height are in the ratio 4 : 3 : 2
and total surface area is 832 cm2.
Ans A. 1586 cm3

B. 1536 cm3

C. 1516 cm3
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D. 1556 cm3
m
Q.30
m .co
₹13,525 is divided among A, B, and C in such a way that if ₹29, ₹70, and ₹28 be
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deducted from their respective shares, they have money in the ratio 19 : 6 : 8. Find the
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a ag
difference between the B’s and C’s original shares.
l
ag
Ans A. ₹762

B. ₹662

C. ₹712

D. ₹770

Q.31 Nine years ago, Asha was thrice as old as Bhawna. Seven years
from now, Asha will be twice as old as Bhawna. Find the present
age of Bhawna.
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Ans A. 28 years

B. 26 years
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C. 30 years
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D. 25 years
ag
Q.32 What is the mode of the following data?

85, 73, 89, 82, 67, 61, 78, 69, 86, 68, 64, 76, 64, 85, 68, 85, 68, 81, 68, 72, 64, 72, 76, 84, 88
Ans A. 73

B. 89

C. 85

D. 68
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Q.33

m .co s e m
s e
Ans A. 17,560
g l a
g l a B. 17,800
a
a C. 16,800

D. 17,500

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 21 of 48

Q.34 Pipe A can fill a cistern in 15 minutes and Pipe B can fill it in 35 minutes, while Pipe C
can empty the full cistern in 1 hour. If all the pipes are turned on at the same time, in
how much time (in minutes) will the cistern be full?
Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.35 Successive discounts of 40% and 15% are equivalent to a single discount of ________.
Ans A. 51%

B. 49%

C. 50%

D. 52%

Q.36 A man loses 20% of his money. He then spends 25% of what remains. If he is left with
₹525, what was his original amount?
Ans A. ₹890

B. ₹880

C. ₹885

D. ₹875

Q.37 There are 156 boy students and 143 girl students in a school. The principal wants to
divide them in sections, such that a section can have only boys or only girls. If all
sections should have the same number of students, and the principal wants to have as
fewer sections as possible, how many sections would be there in the school?
Ans A. 45

B. 25

C. 43

D. 23

Q.38 In a quadrilateral ABCD, ∠ A = 36° and ∠ B = 93°. The bisectors of ∠ C and ∠ D meet at O.
What is the measure of ∠ DOC?
Ans A. 64.5°

B. 62°

C. 69.5°

D. 68°

Q.39 The difference between a single discount of 46% and two successive discounts of 30%
and 20% on the marked price of an article is ₹256. Find the marked price of the article
(in ₹).
Ans A. 12,600

B. 12,800

C. 12,200

D. 12,400

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 22 of 48

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Q.40 A sum of ₹15,000 is lent at the rate of 15% per annum compound interest, compounded
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annually for two years. What is the interest received (in ₹) after two years?

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s
Ans A. 4,738.25
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se B. 4,973.75

C. 5,137.25 ag l
D. 4,837.50

Q.41 The number of two-digit numbers divisible by 6 is:
Ans A. 15

B. 18

C. 12

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D. 16
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Q.42 .co
A girl goes to school at a speed of 10 km/hr. She comes back with a speed of 40 km/hr.
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Find her average speed for the whole journey.
s l a
Ans A. 21 km/hr
l a ag
B. 6 km/hr
ag
C. 16 km/hr

D. 13 km/hr

Q.43 The average of the first 16 odd natural numbers, is:
Ans A. 15.5

B. 16

C. 17
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D. 16.5
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Q.44
la
The ratio of incomes of two persons is 8:5 and the ratio of their expenditure is 2:1. If

g
each of them manages to save ₹160 per month, find the difference of their monthly

Ans
income.
A. ₹220
a
B. ₹260

C. ₹240

D. ₹200

Q.45 Find the single discount equivalent to two successive discounts of 28% and 16%.

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Ans A. 43.51%

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B. 43.38%

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l as
l as D. 39.92%
ag
ag Q.46 The value of 133 - 83 is:
Ans A. 1430

B. 1725

C. 1685

D. 1769

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 23 of 48

Q.47

734
Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.48 If 66% of the first number is equal to three-fifths of the second number, what is the ratio
of the first number to the second number?
Ans A. 5 : 7

B. 9 : 14

C. 8 : 11

D. 10 : 11

Q.49 Evaluate the given expression.

35 - [25 - {31 - (21 - 11 + 9)}]
Ans A. 25

B. 21

C. 19

D. 22

Q.50 Find the value of sec2 18° - cot2 72° + sin2 30° + cosec2 60° - cosec2 18° + tan2 72°.
Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 Rajesh starts from Point M and drives 13 km towards the north. Then he takes a right
turn and drives 6 km, he turns right again and drives 5 km. Then he takes a left turn and
drives 3 km, then he turns right and drives 10 km. He then takes a final right turn and
drives 9 km and stops at Point N. How far (shortest distance) and towards which
direction should he drive in order to reach Point M again? (All turns are 90-degree turns
only unless specified.)
Ans A. 4 km towards the north

B. 2 km towards the north

C. 4 km towards the south

D. 2 km towards the south

Q.52 In a certain code language,
A+ B means ‘A is the sister of B’
A # B means ‘A is the brother of B’
A × B means ‘A is the wife of B’
A @ B means ‘ A is the father of B’
Based on the above, how is L related to R if ‘L@O+V#E×R’?
Ans A. Wife's father

B. Father

C. Wife's brother

D. Brother

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 24 of 48

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Q.53 Refer to the following number, symbol series and answer the question. Counting to be
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done from left to right only (all numbers are single digit numbers only).

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(Left) # 5 1 & & 5 + 8 3 & * < \ 9 $ > > * 5 / 7 (Right)
as
se How many such symbols are there each of which is immediately preceded by another
symbol and also immediately followed by a number? ag l
Ans A. Three

B. Two

C. One

D. Four

Q.54 Mohak starts from Point A and drives 12 km towards the South. He then takes a left
turn, drives 11 km, turns left and drives 15 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 14
m
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km. He takes a final left turn, drives 3 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest
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distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again?
(All turns are 90 degrees turns only unless specified)
em
Ans
e
A. 3 km to the west
m l as
l as
B. 3 km to the east
ag
ag
C. 4 km to the west

D. 4 km to the east

Q.55 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows. Counting to
be done from left to right only. (All numbers are single-digit numbers only.)

(Left) 3 1 2 9 8 4 1 5 4 2 1 5 8 1 3 4 7 5 3 6 5 7 6 6 1 1 2 (Right)

How many such odd numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
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Ans A. 2

B. 1
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C. 0
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D. 3
ag
Q.56 YOBD is related to IYLN in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, MCPR is related to WMZB. To which of the following options is QGTV related
to, following the same logic?
Ans A. AQDF

B. ADRT

C. ADER

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D. AXSW

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Q.57

m .co
In a certain code language, ‘JARS’ is coded as ‘6428’ and ‘SIDE’ is coded as ‘5761’.
What is the code for ‘S’ in the given code language?
s e m
s e
Ans
g l a
a
A. 7

g l B. 6 a
a C. 8

D. 5

Q.58 If 1 is added to each even digit and 2 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number
8239847, how many digits will appear more than once in the new number thus formed?
Ans A. One

B. None

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C. Three

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D. Two
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Q.59 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the
centre. F sits third to the right of G. A sits third to the right of F. C is the
immediate neighbour of B and A. D sits third to the right of A.
How many people sit between E and D when counted from the left of E ?

Ans A. Two

B. Four

C. Five

D. Three

Q.60 Varun ranked 24th from the top and 47th from the bottom in his class. How many
students are there in his class?
Ans A. 69

B. 72

C. 70

D. 71

Q.61 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

76 81 91 111 151 ?6044
Ans A. 233

B. 231

C. 230

D. 232

Q.62 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the
information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance
with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically
follow(s) from the statement(s).
Statements: All shells are mats. All mats are lotions.
Conclusion (I): Some lotions are shells
Conclusion (II): No lotion is a shell
Ans A. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

B. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

C. Only conclusion (I) follows

D. Only conclusion (II) follows

Q.63 BONZ is related to SFEQ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
the same way, REDP is related to IVUG. To which of the following options is QDCO
related, following the same logic?
Ans A. HUTF

B. HTYU

C. HFTY

D. HUFT

Q.64 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. D sits third to
the right of C. E sits third to the left of C. B sits second to the left of D. G sits to the
immediate left of A. How many people sit between F and G when counted from the left
of F?
Ans A. Four

B. Two

C. One

D. Three

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 26 of 48

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Q.65 A,B,C,D,E,F and G are sitting in a straight line facing North.
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Only five people sit between D and C. E sits to the immediate left of C. Only one person

. e
sits between E and A. G sits at some place to the left of F but at some place to the right
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of B.
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How many people sit to the right of A?
Ans A. 1
ag
B. 3

C. 4

D. 2

Q.66 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four are alike in a certain
way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
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Ans A. PSW
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B. FIN

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C. DGK
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l a ag
ag
D. JMQ

Q.67 In a row of people all facing North, Alok is 12th from the right end. Pyush is 18th from
the right end. Pyush is exactly between Alok and Priyanka. If Priyanka is 5th from the
left end of the line, how many people are there in the row?
Ans A. 27

B. 26

C. 29

D. 28
m
Q.68 .co
Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
m
given series to make it logically complete?
s e
FCF 47 HEH 58 JGJ 69 LIL 80 ?6929
g la
Ans A. NKN 90
a
B. NKN 91

C. MJM 90

D. MLM 91

Q.69 Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given
series to make it logically complete?

PDH, RFJ, THL, VJN, ?
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Ans
mA. XLP
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m .co B. XMO
s e m
s e C. XMP
g l a
g l a D. XLO a
a

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s e l a
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 27 of 48

Q.70 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All notepads are diaries.
All diaries are organisers.
Some organisers are planners.

Conclusions:
(I): All notepads are organisers.
(II): Some planners are notepads.
Ans A. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

B. Only conclusion (II) follows

C. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

D. Only conclusion (I) follows

Q.71 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and
‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

66 × 6 ÷ 3 − 128 ÷ 2 + 15 × 3 − 16 ÷ 2 + 17 = ?
Ans A. 245

B. 224

C. 239

D. 299

Q.72 Refer to the following series and answer the question. (All numbers are single-digit
numbers only) (Counting to be done from left to right only).
(Left) 5 4 3 6 7 8 2 1 9 3 3 2 4 5 (Right)
How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
even number and immediately followed by an even number?
Ans A. Two

B. One

C. More than three

D. Three

Q.73 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and
‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

37 ÷ 5 − 91 + 16 × 4 = ?
Ans A. 268

B. 270

C. 272

D. 274

Q.74 In a certain code language, ‘touch snow gently’ is coded as ‘lu ek ag’ and ‘snow falls
light’ is coded as ‘ph lu yn’. How is ‘snow’ coded in the given language?
Ans A. ek

B. yn

C. lu

D. ph

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 28 of 48

m
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Q.75 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows. Counting to
m
co
be done from left to right only.

. (All numbers are single-digit numbers only.)
e m
m as
se l
(Left) 8 7 4 1 5 7 4 8 6 6 6 2 5 5 8 4 3 9 4 3 1 7 7 5 1 2 5 (Right)

How many such odd numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by an ag
even number and also immediately followed by an even number?
Ans A. 3

B. 1

C. 0

D. 2

Q.76 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter cluster pairs
m
.co
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
m
.co
to that group?
(Note: The odd man out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
em
e m
position in the letter cluster)

l as
Ans A. BK - GP

l as ag
ag
B. OY - TD

C. FS - KY

D. MP - RU

Q.77 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

61 66 72 77 83 ?6046
Ans A. 87

m
B. 88

C. 89

m .co
D. 90
s e
g la
a
Q.78 JLIU is related to EKGV in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, MWQE is related to HVOF. To which of the following is CBTJ related to,
following the same logic ?
Ans A. ZNOP

B. WOPK

C. XARK

D. YQRP

Q.79 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
m
.co
the following sets.
m
.co
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
e m
e m adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3

l as
s
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

l a ag
ag 15 - 3 - 45
12 - 4 - 48
Ans A. 5 - 6 - 36

B. 41 - 3 - 113

C. 10 - 2 - 30

D. 31 - 2 - 62

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 29 of 48

Q.80 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?)
in the following series.

121, 144, 169, 196, ?
Ans A. 215

B. 115

C. 225

D. 125

Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

Q.81 Which of the following neighboring countries of India had a ranking worse than India in
the Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) Index in the 2025 edition of the Sustainable
Development Report (SDR) released in June 2025?
Ans A. Sri Lanka

B. Pakistan

C. Nepal

D. Bhutan

Q.82 In 2025, which country requested consultations with India at the World Trade
Organization regarding trade measures on solar cells and modules?
Ans A. Brazil

B. China

C. Australia

D. South Korea

Q.83 In which competition did Parul Chaudhary break her national record in 2025?
Ans A. Asian Athletics Championship

B. Commonwealth Games

C. Indian National Championships

D. Doha Diamond League

Q.84 Which missile was successfully launched by DRDO from a rail-based mobile launcher
under full operational conditions on 24 September 2025?
Ans A. Agni-I

B. BrahMos

C. Agni-Prime

D. Prithvi-II

Q.85 Which of the following missions is the first space-based Indian mission to study the
sun?
Ans A. Mangalyaan

B. Chandrayaan-1

C. Aditya L1

D. AstroSat

Q.86 As on 31st August 2025, how many total projects did NABARD sanction under term
loans across 8 State Governments?
Ans A. 64

B. 86

C. 92

D. 72

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 30 of 48

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Q.87 The launch of “Mission Shakti 5.0” during International Girl Child Week (October 3–11,
m
co
2025) in Uttar Pradesh contributed mainly to progress in which of the following

. Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)?
e m
m as
se
Ans A. Responsible consumption and production

g l
B. Quality education

C. Clean energy / sustainable energy
a
D. Gender equality

Q.88 In 2025, India signed a $126.42 million loan agreement with which institution for the
purpose of developing sustainable tourism infrastructure around Tehri Lake in
Uttarakhand?
Ans A. International Monetary Fund

m
.co
B. World Bank

m
.co
C. New Development Bank

em
e m
D. Asian Development Bank

l as
Q.89
l as
Which Indian Ministry released the first-ever monthly Periodic Labour Force Survey
ag
ag
(PLFS) in April 2025?
Ans A. Ministry of Home Affairs

B. Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation

C. Ministry of Labour and Employment

D. Ministry of Finance

Q.90 In May 2025, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) initiated reviewing digital wallets linked to
which of the following sectors after BluSmart shutdown?

m
.co
Ans A. Healthcare

B. Food delivery
e m
C. Electric vehicle services
las
D. Travel bookings
ag
Q.91 In the context of 2025 discussions on global governance and foreign-policy literacy,
which of the following books by Richard Haass is widely cited as a concise primer that
helps general readers understand world politics and major global challenges?
Ans A. The New Map

B. The World: A Brief Introduction

C. The Future Is Asian

D. The Long Game
m
m .co
.co m
Q.92 Which party held the Kaliganj seat in West Bengal during the by-polls held in June

m
2025?
s e
s e
Ans A. Biju Janata Dal
g l a
g l a B. Trinamool Congress a
a C. Bharatiya Janata Party

D. Aam Aadmi Party

Q.93 Which four entertainment icons were honored with Oscars at the 2025 Governors
Awards?
Ans A. Tom Cruise, Dolly Parton, Debbie Allen, Wynn Thomas

B. Meryl Streep, Judi Dench, Clint Eastwood, Martin Scorsese

m .
.co
C. Steven Spielberg, Angela Bassett, Benicio del Toro, Julie Taymor

e m
D. George Lucas, Viola Davis, Michael Mann, Sofia Coppola

e m l as
l as ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 31 of 48

Q.94 The BHARAT study, launched by the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru, in
2023, focuses on:
Ans A. Surveying rural health infrastructure for elderly care

B. Identifying economic patterns of India's aging population

C. Studying biomarkers of healthy aging, resilience, adversity, and transitions

D. Promoting traditional wellness practices among senior citizens

Q.95 In August 2025, which of the following banks declared the loan accounts of Reliance
Communications and Anil Ambani as fraud, following a similar action by the State Bank
of India (SBI)?
Ans A. Bank of India

B. Punjab National Bank

C. Indian Overseas Bank

D. ICICI Bank

Q.96 What was the main purpose of bringing the four Labour Codes into effect on 21
November 2025?
Ans A. Enhancing worker safety

B. Streamlining labour regulations

C. Expanding 11 social security coverage

D. Introducing minimum wages

Q.97 Which Indian state hosted the 2025 Asia Rugby U-20 Sevens Championship, which was
held on August 9–10?
Ans A. Assam

B. Bihar

C. West Bengal

D. Tamil Nadu

Q.98 Who received the Hollywood Music in Media Awards 2024 for the film Aadujeevitham:
The Goat Life?
Ans A. Shankar-Ehsaan-Loy

B. Himesh Reshammiya

C. A.R. Rahman

D. Ilaiyaraaja

Q.99 Who won the prestigious Women Player of the Year Female award for FIH 2024?
Ans A. Yibbi Jansen

B. Sarah Wilson

C. Zoe Diaz

D. Ye Jiao

Q.100 At the 2025 Khelo India Youth Games, Bihar made a notable achievement. What was the
total number of medals won by the state?
Ans A. 25

B. 40

C. 30

D. 36

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 32 of 48

m
co
m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
a

Test Date 09/02/2026
Test Time 4:30 PM - 6:00 PM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

m
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

.co
1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
m s em
e
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

s l a
l a ag
ag
Section : General Science

Q.1 Which structure in Rhizopus is directly involved in the process of reproduction through
spore formation?
Ans A. Hyphae

B. Mycelium

C. Sporangia

D. Rhizoids
m
Q.2 Which property enables carbon to form long chains?
m .co
Ans A. Polymerisation
s e
B. Catenation
g la
C. Tetravalency a
D. Isomerism

Q.3 A sound wave has a speed of 320 m/s. If the wavelength of the wave is 0.4 m, what is
the frequency of this wave?
Ans A. 128 Hz

B. 80 Hz

C. 1280 Hz
m
m .co
.co
D. 800 Hz

e m
e
Q.4 mThe filament of a light bulb is made up of tungsten, because of its ______.
l as
l as Ans A. High resistance and low melting point
ag
ag B. High resistance and high melting point

C. Low resistance and low melting point

D. Low resistance and high melting point

Q.5 In plants, food made in leaves is transported to other parts by the complex tissue called
__________.
Ans A. Phloem

B. Sclerenchyma
m .
C. Xylem

m .co s e m
D. Collenchyma
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 33 of 48

Q.6 A sealed syringe containing air is pressed from one end while keeping the other end
closed. What is the most likely outcome of this action in terms of the state of air inside
the syringe?
Ans A. The volume of air increases and pressure decreases

B. The air escapes completely from the syringe

C. The volume of air decreases and its pressure increases

D. The temperature of air inside drops significantly

Q.7 A constant force acts on an object of mass 4 kg for a duration of 2 s, increasing its
velocity from 2 m/s to 8 m/s. If the same force is applied for a duration of 4 s, then what
would be the final velocity of the object?
Ans A. 14 m/s

B. 10 m/s

C. 20 m/s

D. 12 m/s

Q.8 A boy lifts an object above his head by exerting a force. Which of the following works is
negative?
Ans A. Work done by the force of gravity

B. Work done by the boy

C. Work done by the object

D. Work done by the applied force

Q.9 Which of the following is the correct unit of average speed in SI system?
Ans A. km/h²

B. m/s²

C. s/m²

D. m/s

Q.10 Which of the following is NOT an olfactory indicator?
Ans A. Vanilla

B. Onion

C. Litmus

D. Clove oil

Q.11 Which of the following statements is true about weight and mass?
Ans A. Only weight changes on the Moon

B. Only mass changes on the Moon

C. Neither mass nor weight changes on the Moon

D. Both mass and weight change on the Moon

Q.12 During a nerve impulse transmission, neurotransmitters are released from one neuron
and received by another.
Which part of neurons are primarily involved in this chemical communication?
Ans A. Axon → Myelin sheath of nerve

B. Axon terminal → Dendrite of another neuron

C. Cell body → Axon of same neuron

D. Dendrite → Axon terminal of same neuron

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 34 of 48

m
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Q.13 During the birth, the ovaries of a girl child contain ____________.
m
co m
Ans A. Only mature eggs

m . s e
se
B. Both mature and immature eggs

g l a
a
C. Only immature eggs

D. No eggs

Q.14 In a toaster, the heating wire glows red because __________.
Ans A. The current is very high.

B. It resists the current and gets hot.

C. It has low melting point.

D. It has zero resistance.
m
m .co
.co m
Q.15 Read the following statements carefully and select the correct option.

m s e
e
Assertion (A): Keeping oily food in airtight containers prevents rancidity.
s l a
ag
Reason (R): Airtight containers slow down the oxidation of fats and oils.

l a
ag
Ans A. Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.

B. A is true, but R is false.

C. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

D. A is false, but R is true.

Q.16 How does the space between particles change from solid to gas?
Ans A. The space increases as matter changes from solid to gas

B. Solids and gases always have equal spacing
m
.co
C. The space remains unchanged during the change in states of matter

e
D. The space decreases as matter changes from solid to gas
m
las
Q.17
g
Which of the following symbols is used for the element phosphorus as per the rules for
atomic symbols?
a
Ans A. Pr

B. P

C. Ph

D. Ps

Q.18 What is the general name of the reaction between an acid and a base?

m
.co
Ans A. Oxidation

m
.co
B. Combustion

e m
e m C. Neutralisation

l as
l as D. Decomposition
ag
ag Q.19 The complex tissue that transports food in plants is called __________, and it consists
of living cells like sieve tubes and __________.
Ans A. Xylem, tracheids

B. Collenchyma, sclerenchyma

C. Phloem, companion cells

D. Xylem, xylem fibres

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 35 of 48

Q.20 Based on the reactivity series, which of the following metals is the least reactive?
Ans A. Au (gold)

B. Ca (calcium)

C. Fe (iron)

D. K (potassium)

Q.21 A real and inverted image is formed at a distance of 30 cm from a concave mirror when
the object is placed 40 cm from the mirror. What will be the magnification produced by
the mirror?
Ans A. - 4/3

B. - 3/4

C. + 3/4

D. + 4/3

Q.22 A student shows a concave lens forming a diminished real image on the screen. The
mistake is:
Ans A. Concave lens cannot form a real image

B. Concave lens cannot form a magnified image

C. Concave lens does not refract light

D. Concave lens always converges light

Q.23 Which connective tissue is known for supporting internal organs?
Ans A. Squamous epithelium

B. Ligament

C. Tendon

D. Areolar tissue

Q.24 The disease-causing pathogens in plants can be transmitted through______.
Ans A. Air

B. Soil

C. Both Soil and Air

D. Neither Soil nor Air

Q.25 A scientist observed a multicellular organism undergoing reproduction. Which of the
following methods would the plant NOT be using?
Ans A. Fragmentation

B. Binary Fission

C. Vegetative Propagation

D. Budding

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 A man receives ₹9475 per month as salary. He saves 88% of his salary every month. His
expenditure per month is:2163
Ans A. ₹1053

B. ₹1137

C. ₹1168

D. ₹1114

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 36 of 48

m
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Q.27 In an election with three candidates, M, N and R, candidate M secured 42% of the total
m
co
votes, while candidate R obtained 34%. If the total number of votes polled was 37,700

. and all were valid, how many votes did candidate N receive?
e m
m as
se
Ans A. 9048

g l
B. 9164

C. 9100
a
D. 9000

Q.28

Ans A. 51

B. 85

m
.co
C. 72
m
.co m
D. 95

m s e
s e l a
ag
Q.29 The speed of a train 200 m long is 50 km/hr. How much time will it take to pass a

l
platform 600 m long?
a
Ans
ag
A. 57.6 sec

B. 57 sec

C. 56 sec

D. 55 sec

Q.30

Ans A. 10 years
m
.co
B. 15 years

C. 18 years
e m
D. 20 years
las
Q.31 ag
A table is bought for ₹1,400 and sold at a loss of 6%. Find its selling price.
Ans A. ₹1,310

B. ₹1,312

C. ₹1,314

D. ₹1,316

Q.32 A and B started moving at the same time towards each other from points X and Y,
m
.co
respectively. After meeting on the way, A and B took 95.4 hours and p hours,

m
respectively, to reach Y and X, respectively. If the speed of B is 50% more than that of A,

.co m
then what is the value of p?3519
Ans
m A. 44.5
s e
s e g l a
g l a B. 40.4
a
a
C. 43.8

D. 42.4

Q.33 ₹9,975 is divided among A, B, C and D in such a way that the shares of A and B, B and
C, and C and D are in the ratios of 2 : 3, 4 : 5 and 6 : 7, respectively. The share of A (in ₹)
is:
Ans A. 1,520

B. 1,460

C. 1,490
m .
D. 1,560

m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 37 of 48

Q.34
Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.35

Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.36 The amount on a sum of ₹9,400 at 20% per annum compound interest, compounded
annually, in 2 years will be:
Ans A. ₹12,838

B. ₹13,536

C. ₹13,189

D. ₹14,133

Q.37 Pipe A can fill a tank in 33 minutes and Pipe B can fill it in 22 minutes. Pipe C empties it.
If all of the pipes are opened together, the tank will be full in 55 minutes. In how many
minutes will pipe C empty the full tank?3083
Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.38 A shopkeeper fixed the marked price of an article as ₹2,40,000. He gave 30% and 18%
successive discounts on one article and 48% discount on another article of the same
marked price. On which of the two articles did the shopkeeper get more benefit and
how much more was it?
Ans A. Second article; ₹10,960

B. Second article; ₹12,800

C. First article; ₹12,960

D. First article; ₹11,560

Q.39 An item is sold for ₹8,900 after two successive discounts of 20% and 11%. What is the
marked price (in ₹) of the item?
Ans A. 12,670

B. 12,495

C. 12,525

D. 12,500

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 38 of 48

m
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Q.40 The sum of the first pair of two-digit twin prime numbers is:
m
co m
Ans A. 22

m . s e
se
B. 26

g l a
a
C. 24

D. 28

Q.41 If 66 is the mean proportion between x and 99, what is the value of x?5182
Ans A. 43

B. 42

C. 44

D. 46
m
m .co
.co m
Q.42 What is the smallest natural number that should be added to 9054 such that a
remainder of 6 is left when the resulting number is divided by each of the numbers 28,
m s e
24, 56 and 29?
s e l a
Ans A. 696
l a ag
B. 678

C. 710
ag
D. 695

Q.43 The area of a rectangle gets reduced by 21 m2 if its length is reduced by 7 m and
breadth is increased by 5 m and if its length is increased by 4 m and breadth is
increased by 5 m, the area is increased by 67 m2. Find the original area of the rectangle.
Ans A. 21.8 m2

m
.co
B. 12.8 m2

C. 15.6 m2
e m
D. 21 m2
las
Q.44 ag
Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

m
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Q.45 What is the mode of the following data?

m
.co m
65, 86, 86, 85, 69, 90, 71, 60, 86, 71, 86, 65, 81, 82, 67, 72, 84, 66, 75, 85, 68, 78, 61, 64, 74,

m
90
s e
s e
Ans A. 69
g l a
g l a B. 86
a
a C. 65

D. 85

Q.46 The expenditure of Sudha is 100% more than her savings. If her expenditure decreases
by 4% and savings increase by 35%, then by what percent does her income increase?
4736
Ans A. 9%

B. 12%

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.co m
C. 11%

m s e
D. 14%

s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 39 of 48

Q.47

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.48 Rishi can do a piece of work in 12 days. Shan is 20% more efficient than Rishi. The
number of days taken by Shan to do the same piece of work is:2970
Ans A. 10

B. 20

C. 12

D. 15

Q.49 If the mode of a data exceeds its mean by 34.8, then the mode exceeds the median by
_____. (Use empirical formula to find the answer)4233
Ans A. 21.6

B. 26.9

C. 19.3

D. 23.2

Q.50 A rectangular water tank 5 m long and 3 m wide contains water up to a depth of 1.50 m.
The area of the wet surface is:
Ans A. 39 m2

B. 54 m2

C. 24 m2

D. 36 m2

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?
VZY 64 XBA 58 ZDC 52 BFE 46 ?2579
Ans A. DHG 40

B. DGF 39

C. DIF 40

D. DHM 39

Q.52 QOHY is related to WJLV in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
the same way, NRBT is related to TMFQ. To which of the following is JRUF related to
following the same logic?
Ans A. PNZD

B. PMYC

C. QMYD

D. QNZC

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 40 of 48

m
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Q.53 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
m
. co 16 31 46 61 76 ?

s e m
m a
se
Ans A. 81

g l
B. 99

C. 91
a
D. 89

Q.54 Each of the digits in the number 3652497 is arranged in descending order from left to
right. What will be the product of the digits that are second from the left and second
from the right in the number thus formed?
Ans A. 21

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B. 18

m
.co
C. 24

em
D. 14

e m l as
Q.55
l as
In a certain code language, ‘VOLT’ is coded as ‘6428’ and ‘LIFE’ is coded as ‘5761’. What
ag
ag
is the code for ‘L’ in the given code language?
Ans A. 7

B. 2

C. 6

D. 5

Q.56 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
m
.co
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)

e m
Ans A. WH - BD

las
B. GQ - LN

C. QK - VH ag
D. AE - FB

Q.57 KGLO is related to QMRU in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
the same way, NJOR is related to TPUX. To which of the following is EAFI related to,
following the same logic?
Ans A. KGLP

B. KHLO
m
m .co
C. KHLP

m .co D. KGLO

s e m
s e g l a
a
Q.58 JUNC is related to QBUJ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In

g l the same way, LWPE is related to SDWL. To which of the following options is GRKZ
a
a Ans
related, following the same logic?
A. NYRG

B. NRTU

C. BNHJ

D. NGTY

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 41 of 48

Q.59 What should come in place of (?) in the given series in order to make it logically
complete?
ED9 HF16 LI25 QM36 ?
Ans A. WR49

B. XT49

C. VR49

D. WR64

Q.60 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
to that group?
(Note: The odd man out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. DY - IC

B. SK - XP

C. JQ - OV

D. EZ - JE

Q.61 Refer to the following number, symbol series and answer the question. Counting to be
done from left to right only (all numbers are single digit numbers only).

(Left) / 8 & + ^ 1 + < # @ ^ \ 2 # $ 8 9 * 7 2 $ (Right)

How many such numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol
and also immediately followed by a symbol?
Ans A. Four

B. Two

C. Three

D. One

Q.62 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and
‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

154 ÷ 2 − 49 ÷ 7 + 10 × 5 + 28 × 7 − 25 ÷ 5 = ?
Ans A. 618

B. 770

C. 711

D. 662

Q.63 Refer to the following series and answer the question. (All numbers are single-digit
numbers only) (Counting to be done from left to right only).
(Left) 3 1 4 1 5 9 2 6 5 3 5 5 7 6 4 3 9 2 8 4 5 5 6 (Right)
How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
even number and immediately followed by an even number?
Ans A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. None

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 42 of 48

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Q.64 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
m
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are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

. e m
m
(Left) 2 9 6 2 7 9 4 5 2 6 9 3 4 4 8 9 7 3 6 1 5 6 6 3 1 6 5 (Right)
as
se How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number? ag l
Ans A. 2

B. 1

C. 3

D. 0

Q.65 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

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89 94 99 104 109 ?
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Ans A. 113

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B. 114

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C. 115
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D. 116
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Q.66 Andy ranked 11th from the top and 15th from the bottom in his class. How many
students are there in the class?
Ans A. 26

B. 24

C. 27

D. 25
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Q.67 In a certain code language,
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A + B means ‘A is the father of B’,
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A - B means ‘A is the brother of B’,

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A x B means ‘A is the sister of B’,
A ÷ B means ‘A is the wife of B’.
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Based on the above, how is M related to Q if ‘M + N x O - P ÷ Q’?
Ans A. Wife’s father

B. Father

C. Husband’s brother

D. Husband’s father

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Q.68 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’

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are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

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53 ÷ 13 + 391 × 17 − 289 = ?
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Ans A. 955

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g l a B. 972
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a C. 963

D. 915

Q.69 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.
(Left) 324 286 472 539 731 (Right)
(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
NOTE - All operations to be done from left to right.
If all the numbers are arranged in ascending order, the position of how many numbers
will remain unchanged?

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Ans A. Three

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B. One

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C. None

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D. Two
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 43 of 48

Q.70 What should come in place of ‘?’ in the given series?
119 136 155 172 191 ?
Ans A. 208

B. 206

C. 205

D. 210

Q.71 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(24, 11, 105)
(38, 42, 240)
Ans A. (34, 62, 286)

B. (46, 53, 287)

C. (74, 34, 324)

D. (93, 12, 318)

Q.72 City A is to the north of City B. City D is to the east of City A. City D is to the south of
City E. If City E is to the west of City C, what is the direction of City B with respect to
City E?294
Ans A. South West

B. East

C. West

D. North

Q.73 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All rods are hooks.
Some hooks are baits.

Conclusions:
(I): All rods are baits.
(II): Some baits are rods.
Ans A. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

B. Only conclusion (II) follows

C. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

D. Only conclusion (I) follows

Q.74 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. You have to take the given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts.
You have to decide which conclusion/s logically follow/s from the given statements.

Statements: All fans are bulbs. Some bulbs are heaters. Some heaters are geysers.

Conclusion (I) : Some fans are heaters.
Conclusion (II) : Some bulbs are geysers.
Ans A. Only conclusion (I) follows.

B. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

C. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

D. Only conclusion (II) follows.

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 44 of 48

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Q.75 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. D sits to the
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immediate right of B. E sits third to the right of B. G sits third to the left of D. C is the

. immediate neighbour of D and E. A is not an immediate neighbour of B.
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How many people sit between F and D when counted from the left of F?
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se Ans A. Five

B. Three ag l
C. Four

D. Two

Q.76 Seven people, S, Q, U, A, R, E and D are sitting in a row, facing north.
Only S sits to the left of Q. Only four people sit between S and U. Only A sits between E
and R, and E is not an immediate neighbor of U.
Who sits at the extreme right of the line?

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Ans A. S

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B. U

C. A
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D. D
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Q.77 ag
Aarav starts from Point A and drives 13 km towards the East. He then takes a left turn,
drives 8 km, turns left and drives 15 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 11 km. He
takes a final left turn, drives 2 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
90 degrees turns only unless specified).
Ans A. 4 km to the South

B. 4 km to the North

C. 3 km to the South

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D. 3 km to the North

Q.78
e m
In a certain code language, ‘she is lovely’ is coded as ‘kl pc cp’ and ‘lovely paint here’ is
s
coded as ‘lk cp no’. How is ‘lovely’ coded in the given language?

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Ans
(All codes are two-letter codes)
A. kl ag
B. pc

C. cp

D. no

Q.79 All 119 people are standing in a row facing north. Mr. Lkj is 7th from the right end while
Mr. Ihg is 29th from the left end. How many people are there between Mr. Lkj and Mr.
Ihg?
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Ans
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A. 80
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s e C. 83
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g l a D. 81 a
a Q.80 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. E sits third to
the left of B. D sits second to the right of B. C sits to the immediate right of F. G sits
second to the right of A.
How many people sit between G and C when counted from the left of C?
Ans A. Three

B. Two

C. Four

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D. One

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l as
Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

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ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 45 of 48

Q.81 Under the Viksit Bharat–G RAM G Act 2025, how many days of statutory wage
employment are guaranteed per rural household per financial year?
Ans A. 100 days

B. 150 days

C. 125 days

D. 110 days

Q.82 Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award 2024 winner, D Gukesh, is associated with which
sports?
Ans A. Hockey

B. Chess

C. Shooting

D. Badminton

Q.83 Which of the following countries hosted the 2025 FIFA U-17 World Cup under the new
48-team format?
Ans A. Russia

B. Qatar

C. Brazil

D. India

Q.84 To enhance capabilities in indigenous hydrography, where will the Indian Navy launch
INS ‘Ikshak’ in November 2025?
Ans A. Visakhapatnam

B. Chennai

C. Mumbai

D. Kochi

Q.85 Who set a world record in the men's javelin F42 category at the Nottwil World Para
Athletics Grand Prix in Switzerland, winning the gold medal?
Ans A. Mahendra Gurjar

B. Rinku Solanki

C. Devender Singh

D. Praveen Kumar

Q.86 Which British honours list, including overseas recognitions, was published on 13 June
2025?
Ans A. Queen’s Platinum Overseas & International List

B. UK Civil Service Honors List

C. King’s Birthday Honours Overseas & International List

D. New Year Honours 2025

Q.87 The inaugural plenary session of the Indian Conservation Conference–2025 was held at
which institution in June 2025?
Ans A. Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru

B. Wildlife Institute of India, Dehradun

C. Indian Council of Forestry Research, Jabalpur

D. Forest Research Institute, Dehradun

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 46 of 48

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Q.88 Which seat did Congress win in the Kerala by-elections in June 2025?
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Ans A. Ernakulam

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B. Wayanad

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C. Kottayam

D. Nilambur

Q.89 Which prestigious award was Dr. Anandharamakrishnan awarded in 2024 for his
contributions to Agricultural Sciences?
Ans A. Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize

B. Bharat Ratna

C. Vigyan Shri Award

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D. Padma Bhushan
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Q.90 .co
Which of the following administrative institutions of India completed 100 years of
m s em
service in 2025?
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Ans
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A. Election Commission of India (ECI)
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B. Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)

C. Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)

D. Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)

Q.91 In 2025, 36 people including government employees were arrested under “Operation
Spot Trap” by the Vigilance and Anti‑Corruption Bureau (VACB). Which state was this
operation conducted in?
Ans A. Maharashtra

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B. Kerala

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C. Uttar Pradesh

D. Rajasthan
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g la
Q.92 a
In May 2025, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) penalised the Union Bank of India and
which of the following companies?
Ans A. Broadridge Financial Solutions

B. Paytm

C. Razorpay

D. Transactree Technologies

Q.93 Which of the following former AIFF officials, who also held key positions in various
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sports associations in Nagaland, passed away in 2025?
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Ans A. Savio Medeira

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a
B. Bhaichung Bhutia

s e g l
g l a C. Atuo Mezhür
a
a D. Subrata Dutta

Q.94 Which athlete received the Laureus World Sportswoman of the Year in 2025?
Ans A. Serena Williams

B. Ellesse Andrews

C. Rebeca Andrade

D. Simone Biles

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s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 47 of 48

Q.95 Which state government implemented an environmental tax on out-of-state vehicles
starting December 2025?
Ans A. Sikkim

B. Himachal Pradesh

C. Uttarakhand

D. Assam

Q.96 Which of the following Indian states features the defence industrial corridor that
attracted investment proposals worth ₹33,896 crore in 2025?
Ans A. Tamil Nadu

B. Maharashtra

C. Gujarat

D. Uttar Pradesh

Q.97 According to the Economic Survey released in January 2025, India was identified as the
seventh most vulnerable country to climate change. What percentage of days in 2024
were marked by significant climate events such as heatwaves, cyclones and floods?
Ans A. 90%

B. 85%

C. 93%

D. 95%

Q.98 What change did the Banking Laws (Amendment) Act, notified in April 2025, make
regarding bank nominee rules?
Ans A. Allowed up to four nominees

B. Removed nomination option

C. Made nomination optional

D. Allowed only one nominee

Q.99 What is its primary objective of the GoIStats app, launched by the Ministry of Statistics
and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) in 2025?
Ans A. To offer real-time agricultural weather forecasts to farmers

B. To give a snapshot of key socio-economic data of the Ministry

C. To facilitate online shopping and digital payment services

D. To provide entertainment content and cultural heritage updates

Q.100 In February 2025, which Indian athlete broke the Asian short-track record in the 5000 m
with a time of 12:59.77?
Ans A. Jacob Kiplimo

B. Yared Nuguse

C. Avinash Sable

D. Gulveer Singh

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 48 of 48