RRB Group D 2026 Question Paper 09 Jan All Shifts (in English)

FOR RRB GROUP D EXAM PREPARATION

RRB Group D 2026
Question Paper · All
Shifts (in English)
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT DATE

RRB Group D 2026 Question Paper All Shifts (in English) 09 Jan

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Test Date 09/01/2026
Test Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Science

Q.1 Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion
(A) and Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Sexual reproduction is essential in plants for maintaining the continuity
of the species for many generations.
Reason (R): Sexual reproduction leads to genetic variation that enhances adaptability
and evolutionary fitness.
Ans A. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

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B. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.

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C. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
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D. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true. s
Q.2 The Law of Constant Proportions applies to the: ag
Ans A. Pure chemical compounds

B. Mixtures of substances

C. Elements

D. Both mixtures and compounds

Q.3 The forces of attraction between particles are _________ in solids, __________ in
liquids, and _________ in gases.
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Ans
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A. maximum, minimum, minimum
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a Q.4 Which alcohol is commonly used as fuel?
Ans A. Butanol

B. Propanol

C. Methanol

D. Ethanol

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 1 of 48

Q.5 Which of the following is NOT a correct expression for electric power (P)?
Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.6 Match Column A with Column B.
Column A Column B

A. Acids 1. Produce OH⁻ ions in water

B. Bases 2. Produce H⁺ (or H₃O⁺) ions in water

C. Acid + Base 3. Form salt and water (neutralisation)

D. Both conduct electricity 4. Due to presence of ions in solution
Ans A. A-4; B-3; C-2; D-1

B. A-3; B-4; C-1; D-2

C. A-2; B-1; C-4; D-3

D. A-2; B-1; C-3; D-4

Q.7 Which phenomenon shows the role of the cell wall in osmosis?
Ans A. Plasmolysis observed when living plant cells lose water

B. Exchange of gases through stomata of leaves

C. Diffusion of gases through cell membrane

D. Absorption of light by chlorophyll during photosynthesis

Q.8 A rainbow is formed in the sky after rain, which is due to _______________.
Ans A. scattering of light by air

B. reflection only

C. refraction and dispersion of light by raindrops

D. absorption of light by water

Q.9 Which of the following best explains the origin of coal and petroleum?
Ans A. Fossilisation of plants and animals under high temperature and pressure over millions of years

B. Decomposition of volcanic rocks under high pressure

C. Compaction of forest wood under sunlight

D. Crystallisation of minerals under the seabed

Q.10 Which of the following statements about momentum is true?
Ans A. Momentum has magnitude only and no direction.

B. Momentum has both magnitude and direction.

C. The SI unit of momentum is kilogram per second.

D. Momentum is the sum of mass and velocity.

Q.11 Select the correct example of a functional group that DOES NOT represent any double
bond in their structure.
Ans A. Propanol

B. Propanone

C. Propanoic acid

D. Propanal

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 2 of 48

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Q.12 The alveoli are surrounded by an extensive network of __________, where the exchange
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of __________ takes place.

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Ans A. nerves; impulses
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B. capillaries; gases

C. muscles; pressure
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D. bronchi; air

Q.13 Which of the following methods is used to separate particles from a suspension?
Ans A. Crystallization

B. Evaporation

C. Distillation

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D. Filtration

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Q.14
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Plastids are absent in which of the following cells?

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Ans A. Stem cells

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B. Muscle cells
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C. Root cells

D. Leaf cells

Q.15 A food chain starts from grass → grasshopper → frog → snake → hawk. How much
concentration of non-biodegradable pesticides is expected in hawk?
Ans A. The lowest amount of pesticide residue

B. The highest concentration of pesticides

C. Equal concentration of pesticide as in the frog
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D. No pesticide residue at all

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Q.16
Ans A. It is total distance divided by total time.
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Which of the following statements about average speed is INCORRECT?

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B. It is change in distance divided by change in velocity.

C. It is measured in m/s.

D. It does not depend on the direction of motion.

Q.17 When an object is placed in a fluid, it feels an upward force called buoyancy. On which
factor does the magnitude of this buoyant force depend?
Ans A. The shape of the object

B. The weight of the object only
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C. The density of the fluid
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s e g l a
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Ans
Which part of a flower encloses and shields the developing bud?
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A. Petal

B. Stamen

C. Sepal

D. Pistil

Q.19 What does a lens with a power of 1 dioptre indicate?
Ans A. It has a focal length of 100 m.

B. It has a magnification of 1.
m .
C. It has a focal length of 1 metre.

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D. It has a focal length of 1 cm.
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Q.20 A current I ampere flows through a metallic wire of resistance X Ω when
a potential difference V volt is applied across its ends. Which of the
following is the correct relation between X, I and V?
Ans A. X = I + V

B. X = I – V

C. X = I/V

D. X = V/I

Q.21 Which of the following crosses will produce all heterozygous offspring in the F1
generation?
Ans A. Tt × Tt

B. tt × tt

C. TT × tt

D. TT × TT

Q.22 The work done by friction on a moving object is usually ___________.
Ans A. zero

B. both positive and negative

C. negative

D. positive

Q.23 What is the gap between two neurons called?
Ans A. Intermembrane space

B. Lumen

C. Synapse

D. Stroma

Q.24 Which method is used to extract metals such as sodium and aluminium, which are at
the top of the reactivity series?
Ans A. Reduction with carbon

B. Roasting of their sulphide ores

C. Electrolytic reduction of their molten chlorides or oxides

D. Calcination of their carbonate ores

Q.25 Why do we see the flash of lightning before we hear the sound of thunder?
Ans A. Sound travels slower than light

B. Light and sound travel at the same speed

C. Light is brighter than sound

D. Light travels slower than sound

Section : Mathematics

Q.26

Ans A. 311

B. 301

C. 271

D. 281

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 4 of 48

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Q.27 The arithmetic mean of the observations 95, 45, 85, 45, 51, 85, 84, 66 and 47 is:
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Ans A. 67

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D. 59

Q.28
Ans A.

B.

C.

D.
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Q.29

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Ans
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A.

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B.

C.
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D.

Q.30 Simplify:
Ans A. 306

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B. 306.04

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C. 306.3

D. 305
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Q.31
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If the mode of the given data is 22.75, find the cumulative frequency (x<9).
Class 0- 7-14 14-21 35-42
Interval 7
Frequency 1 7 9 11 X 3
Ans A. 28

B. 50

C. 36

D. 42
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Q.32

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Find the ratio between the fourth proportional of 1, 3 and 6 to the mean proportional of
12 and 3.
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Ans A. 3 : 2
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a C. 1 : 6

D. 2 : 2

Q.33 In a test, B got 50 marks while A got 75 marks, out of 95 maximum marks. What
percentage of A's marks was B's marks? (Round off the answer to two decimal places.)
Ans A. 78.95%

B. 66.67%

C. 150.46%
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D. 95.27%
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Q.34 A trader buys some goods for ₹200. If the overhead expenses be 10% of the cost price,
then at what price should it be sold to earn 25%?
Ans A. ₹275

B. ₹285

C. ₹270

D. ₹280

Q.35 Ten years ago, a father was three times as old as his son. Ten years from now, he will be
twice as old as his son. What is the son’s present age?
Ans A. 40 years

B. 30 years

C. 45 years

D. 25 years

Q.36

Ans A. 3580

B. 5640

C. 5610

D. 5110

Q.37 Dileep has some hens and some goats. If the total number of animal heads is 33 and the
total number of animal feet is 82, how many goats does Dileep have?
Ans A. 5

B. 8

C. 6

D. 7

Q.38 Find the number of all possible distinct pairs of two coprime integers such that their
product is 180.1341
Ans A. 3

B. 5

C. 2

D. 4

Q.39 A retailer offers the following discount schemes for buyers on an article. Which scheme
will be the LEAST beneficial to the customer?
i. A discount of 37%.
ii. A discount of 33% followed by a discount of 43%.
iii. Successive discounts of 46% and 22%.
Ans A. Scheme ii

B. Scheme iii

C. Scheme i and Scheme iii

D. Scheme i

Q.40
3193
Ans A. 65

B. 62.5

C. 57.5

D. 45

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 6 of 48

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Q.41 A cyclist travels 60 km to a town at a speed of 12 km/hr. Find the time taken by the
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cyclist.

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Ans A. 4 hours
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B. 4.5 hours

C. 5 hours
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D. 5.5 hours

Q.42 Two banks, A and B, offered loans at 3.5% and 7% per annum, respectively. Salil
borrowed an amount of ₹4,80,000 from each bank. Find the positive difference (in ₹)
between the amounts of simple interest paid to the two banks by Salil after 4 years.
Ans A. 66,700

B. 67,200

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C. 68,700

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D. 68,200

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Q.43
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In a quadrilateral WXYZ, ∠ W = 74° and ∠ X = 58°. The bisectors of ∠ Y and ∠ Z meet at O.
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What is the measure of ∠ ZOY?
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Ans A. 66°

B. 59°

C. 60°

D. 68°

Q.44 The price of fuel decreases by 45%, 60% and 55% in three successive months, but
increases by 50% in the fourth month. What is the percentage increase/decrease in the
price of fuel in the fourth month as compared to its original price?
Ans A. Decreases by 80.63%
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B. Increases by 91.17%

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C. Increases by 82.11%
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D. Decreases by 85.15%
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Q.45
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Pipe A can fill a cistern in 18 hours, and Pipe B can fill it in 12 hours. However, there is a
leakage in the cistern that can empty it in 36 hours. If both pipes and the leakage are
active, how long will it take to fill rd part of the cistern?
Ans A. 1 hours

B. 4 hours

C. 2 hours

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D. 3 hours

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Q.46

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P and Q together can fill a cistern with water in 12 hours. If P alone can fill the cistern
with water in 14 hours, then in how many hours will Q alone fill one-fourth of the same
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a B. 21

C. 22

D. 42

Q.47 The sides of a triangle ABC are AB = 5 cm, BC = 6 cm and CA = 7 cm, respectively.
Another triangle is formed by joining the mid-points of the sides of the triangle ABC.
Find the perimeter of the second triangle in cm.
Ans A. 15

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B. 12

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C. 18

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D. 9

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Q.48 Successive discounts of 16% and 7% are equivalent to a single discount of:
Ans A. 20.42%

B. 20.45%

C. 21.88%

D. 25.42%

Q.49 The volume (in m3) of a cuboidal tank with dimensions 34 m × 10 m × 26 m is:
Ans A. 8886

B. 8840

C. 8868

D. 8835

Q.50

Ans
A.

B.

C.

D.

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(8, 25, 16)
(13, 35, 26)
Ans A. (9, 9, 18)

B. (15, 39, 30)

C. (7, 23, 32)

D. (17, 43, 52)

Q.52 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows. Counting to
be done from left to right only. (All numbers are single-digit numbers only.)

(Left) 4 3 8 6 5 2 6 9 8 3 4 2 3 5 8 7 2 3 9 7 9 3 2 8 7 6 (Right)

How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
even number and also immediately followed by a prime number?
Ans A. Three

B. One

C. More than three

D. Two

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 8 of 48

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Q.53 If 2 is added to each odd digit and 3 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
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5718436, then what will be the difference between the greatest and smallest digit in the

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C. 8

D. 9

Q.54 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only).

(Left) 4 3 5 1 2 9 8 9 4 7 7 4 5 4 8 5 6 2 4 7 3 3 4 6 3 7 5 (Right)

How many such odd numbers are there (from left to right), each of which is immediately
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preceded by an odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?

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Ans A. 3

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B. 4

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C. 2

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D. 5

Q.55 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’
are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

59 – 72 × 8 + (64 ÷ 4) × 8 – 16 ÷ 3 = ?
Ans A. 84

B. 96

C. 68

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D. 110

Q.56
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In a certain code language, ‘rat able run’ is coded as ' ei bm wx' and ‘cap rat ant’ is

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coded as ‘bm iy ve’. How is ‘rat’ coded in the given language?
Ans A. wx

B. bm ag
C. iy

D. ei

Q.57 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

3 9 ? 81 243 729
Ans A. 25
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B. 27

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Q.58 All 62 people are standing in a row facing north. Shlok is 20th from the right end, while
Biplov is 45th from the left end. How many people are there between Shlok and Biplov?
Ans A. 2

B. 4

C. 1

D. 3

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Q.59 Refer to the following number, symbol series and answer the question. Counting to be
done from left to right only.

(Left) 7 7 & & # 3 3 # 9 1 4 € 4 # # 7 £ $ 4 © 9 6 (Right)

How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol
and also immediately followed by a symbol?
Ans A. 4

B. 3

C. 2

D. 5

Q.60 Nishant starts from point A and drives 45 km towards the north. He then takes a right
turn, drives 44 km, turns right and drives 60 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 56
km. He takes a final right turn, drives 15 km and stops at point P. How far (shortest
distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach point A again?
(All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. 10 km to the east

B. 13 km to the north

C. 12 km to the east

D. 11 km to the west

Q.61 If 1 is added to each even digit and 1 is added to each odd digit in the number 612374,
what will be the sum of all the odd digits in the new number thus formed?
Ans A. 13

B. 19

C. 17

D. 15

Q.62 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster pair that
DOES NOT belong to that group?

(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. DG−HK

B. TW−XA

C. HK−KQ

D. GJ−KN

Q.63 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

8 12 21 37 ? 981104
Ans A. 62

B. 68

C. 65

D. 66

Q.64 Select the triad which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two triads given
below. Both triads follow the same pattern.

FO-HQ-KM
HQ-JS-MO
Ans A. JS-LU-OR

B. IS-LV-OR

C. IS-LU-OR

D. JS-LU-OQ

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 10 of 48

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Q.65 Seven friends, L, M, N, O, Q, R and S, are sitting in a straight line, facing north. Only
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three people sit between L and O. No one sits to the right of N. Only one person sits

. co between N and O. M is an immediate neighbour of both Q and L. R sits to the immediate
left of O. How many people sit between S and L?
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C. One

D. Three

Q.66 Six people, A, B, C, D, E and F, are sitting in a row, facing north. D sits to the immediate
left of F. C sits third to the left of B. F is an immediate neighbour of C. E sits second to
the right of C. A sits to the immediate left of E. Who sits at the extreme right end of the
line?
Ans A. A
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B. F
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C. E
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D. B

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Q.67
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IB 16 is related to ME 13 in a certain way. In the same way, OH 25 is related to SK 22. To
which of the following is UN 28 related, following the same logic?
Ans A. ZP 25

B. YQ 25

C. ZP 26

D. YQ 26

Q.68 NETI is related to XODS in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
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same way, BSHW is related to LCRG. To which of the following options is FWLA related,
following the same logic?
Ans A. PVHY
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B. PGBN
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C. PKLO
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D. PGVK

Q.69 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 687 652 691 287 286 (Right)

(Example: 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

What will be the resultant if the second digit of the highest number is added to the third
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digit of the lowest number?2425
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Ans A. 16

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B. 15

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a D. 19

Q.70 Town G is to the north of Town F. Town H is to the east of Town F. Town I is to the north
of Town H. Town J is to the east of Town I. Town K is to the east of Town J. What is the
position of Town K with respect to Town F?
Ans A. North

B. Southeast

C. South

D. Northeast
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Q.71 Seven boxes, D, E, F, U, V, W and X, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in
the same order. Only U is kept above D. Only V is kept between D and F. No box is kept
below E. Only three boxes are kept between D and W. How many boxes are kept
between X and E?
Ans A. Two

B. Three

C. One

D. Four

Q.72 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some watches are figs.
All ships are kings.
No figs are ships.

Conclusions:
(I): Some kings are not figs.
(II): Some watches are ships.
Ans A. Only conclusion (II) follows

B. Only conclusion (I) follows

C. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

D. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

Q.73 In a certain code language, ‘how are you’ is coded as ‘pl mk jt’ and ‘where you are’ is
coded as ‘jt mk sq’. How is ‘where' coded in that language?
Ans A. jt

B. sq

C. mk

D. pl

Q.74 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some rails are cars.
No car is a bus.

Conclusions:
(I) Some rails are bus.
(II) Some cars are rails.
Ans A. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

B. Only conclusion (I) follows.

C. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

D. Only conclusion (II) follows.

Q.75 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster pair that
DOES NOT belong to that group?

(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. VQ - PK

B. QL - KF

C. TO - NI

D. UP - OI

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 12 of 48

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Q.76 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
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. co 157 134 111 88 65 ?

s e m
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a
se B. 40
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C. 46

D. 44

Q.77 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

NEU RHW VKY ZNA ?
Ans A. DQC

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B. CRB
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C. EPD

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D. CQD

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Q.78 Six people P,la
g Q, R, S, T and U are sitting around a circular table ag
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facing towards the centre of the table.
Exactly two people sit between S and T.
U sits to the immediate left of T.
R is immediate neighbour of S and Q both.
Who is an immediate neighbour of both S and U?

Ans A. R

B. T

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C. P

D. Q
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Q.79
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Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?
ag
HO22 JQ31 LS40 NU49 ?
Ans A. PW58

B. PX58

C. PW59

D. PX59

Q.80 In a certain code language,
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‘A + B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’,
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‘A – B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’,
‘A × B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’,
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e m‘A % B’ means ‘A is the father of B’ and
‘A # B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’.
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How is K related to G if ‘G # E # C + K # P’?

a Ans A. Sister’s daughter

B. Mother’s father

C. Mother’s mother

D. Mother’s sister

Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs

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Q.81 Which individual, celebrated as India's first Paralympic gold medalist, was honoured
with the Arjuna Lifetime Achievement Award in January 2025?
Ans A. Deepa Malik

B. Murlikant Petkar

C. Devendra Jhajharia

D. Mariyappan Thangavelu

Q.82 Who was appointed as the Chairman of the Economic Advisory Council to the PM in
June 2025?
Ans A. Mahendra Dev

B. Vijay Kelkar

C. Arvind Subramanian

D. Poonam Gupta

Q.83 Which of the following states has become the third state in India to achieve 'Full
Functional Literacy' under the ULLAS scheme, in June 2025?
Ans A. Mizoram

B. Kerala

C. Goa

D. Tripura

Q.84 Which of the following states launched Artificial Intelligence powered cybercrime
protection for women and children in June 2025?
Ans A. Gujarat

B. Maharashtra

C. Kerala

D. Odisha

Q.85 How many Padma Vibhushan awards were given in 2025?
Ans A. 7

B. 5

C. 12

D. 10

Q.86 According to the data compiled by the Tea Board of India and reported in March 2025,
which country did India surpass to become the second-largest tea exporter in 2024?
Ans A. Vietnam

B. China

C. Kenya

D. Sri Lanka

Q.87 According to the Finland-based Centre for Research on Energy and Clean Air (CREA),
which city in India recorded the highest pollution levels in October 2025, with a monthly
PM2.5 average of 123 µg/m³?
Ans A. Gurugram

B. Noida

C. Dharuhera

D. Delhi

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 14 of 48

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Q.88 Who defeated Tanushree Pandey in the final of the World Soft Tennis Championship,
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2024, held at Jingshan, China, in November 2024?

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Ans A. Liu Wei
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B. Chiang Min Yu

C. Kim Soo Jin
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D. Yuki Tanaka

Q.89 The Constitution (One Hundred and Thirtieth Amendment) Bill introduced in the Lok
Sabha on 20 August 2025 allows the removal of a Central or State Minister if detained
for how many consecutive days on corruption or serious charges?
Ans A. 20 days

B. 30 days

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C. 45 days

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D. 15 days

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Q.90
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International Women’s Day, a global day celebrating the social, economic, cultural and
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political achievements of women, is celebrated on which of the following dates?
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Ans A. 16 June

B. 21 September

C. 8 March

D. 20 November

Q.91 Against which team did Australia set the highest successful chase of 356/5 in the 2025
Champions Trophy?
Ans A. Afganistan

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B. England

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C. South Africa

D. India
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Q.92
a
Which of the following sports is NOT represented among the 2025 Laureus individual
award winners?
Ans A. Surfing

B. Cricket

C. Tennis

D. Gymnastics

Q.93 Which of the following was rated as 'Good' by the International Union for Conservation
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of Nature (IUCN) in its global review of Natural World Heritage Sites in November 2025?

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Ans A. Great Himalayan National Park Conservation Area

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B. Sundarbans National Park

l as
l as C. Nanda Devi and Valley of Flowers National Parks
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ag D. Khangchendzonga National Park

Q.94 According to a June 2025 news update, on which date is Dan Brown's new Robert
Langdon thriller The Secret of Secrets scheduled for publication?
Ans A. 25 March 2025

B. 18 November 2025

C. 9 September 2025

D. 13 May 2025

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 15 of 48

Q.95 Who was the Guest of Honour at the 18th Pravasi Bharatiya Convention held in
Bhubaneswar on 8 January 2025?
Ans A. H E Pravind Jugnauth

B. Sundar Pichai

C. Meenakshi Lekhi

D. Dr Dev Pragad

Q.96 Which of these ISRO-led national initiatives, launched in July 2025, exemplifies
international scientific collaboration while strengthening India’s Earth-observation and
monitoring capabilities?
Ans A. GSAT-12

B. Aditya-L2

C. NISAR

D. Gaganyaan

Q.97 In which month was the Economic Survey 2024–25 presented?
Ans A. April 2025

B. February 2025

C. January 2025

D. March 2025

Q.98 In 2025, under which project did Guntur, Andhra Pradesh, deploy over 200 electric autos
for door-to-door garbage collection?
Ans A. Sustainable Cities Integrated Pilot Approach

B. Clean Cities Mission

C. National Urban Livelihoods Mission

D. Smart Cities Mission

Q.99 Which of the following legislations was approved by the Rajya Sabha on 12 August
2025, aiming to recognise national sports organisations and oversee their operations?
Ans A. Sports Regulation and Management Bill, 2025

B. National Sports Governance Bill, 2025

C. National Sports Promotion Bill, 2025

D. Olympic and Sports Administration Bill, 2025

Q.100 What was the cause of the warehouse explosion in Gujarat in April 2025?
Ans A. Aluminium powder explosion

B. Gas leak

C. Chemical fire

D. Short circuit from power gird

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 16 of 48

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a

Test Date 09/01/2026
Test Time 12:45 PM - 2:15 PM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : General Science

Q.1 Some organisms take in whole food material and break it down inside their bodies. This
is called ________ nutrition.
Ans A. autotrophic

B. saprophytic

C. parasitic

D. holozoic
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What does the velocity-time graph look like for an object moving with uniform velocity?
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Ans A. A curved line rising gradually
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B. A straight line sloping downwards
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C. A straight line parallel to the time axis a
D. A straight line sloping upwards

Q.3 What happens when a solid is heated continuously?
Ans A. It shrinks

B. It evaporates directly

C. It melts and may later evaporate
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D. It expands and turns into a gas
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Q.4
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Sodium hydroxide is formed by:
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Ans A. Passing electricity through brine
g l a
g l a B. Passing chlorine through water a
a C. Dissolving sodium in ethanol

D. Reacting sodium with carbon dioxide

Q.5 What will happen to a Hydra if it is cut into multiple pieces?
Ans A. Each piece will reproduce by budding.

B. Only the head part will grow into a complete individual.

C. Each piece will regenerate to form new individuals.
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D. All pieces will die immediately.

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 17 of 48

Q.6 Select the correct option regarding the following two statements labelled Assertion (A)
and Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Calcium oxide reacts vigorously with water to form calcium hydroxide.
Reason (R): In a combination reaction, two or more substances combine to form one
product.
Ans A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.

C. A is true, but R is false.

D. A is false, but R is true.

Q.7 In galvanisation, which metal is used to coat iron?
Ans A. Lead

B. Aluminum

C. Copper

D. Zinc

Q.8 Which of the following contributes directly to forest conservation?
Ans A. Social Forestry

B. Logging

C. Urbanization

D. Mining

Q.9 Select the INCORRECT statement regarding variation in plants.
Ans A. Individuals within a population are unique due to the variations.

B. They are produced due to inaccuracy in the copying of DNA.

C. Asexual reproduction is a regular source of variations in a population.

D. They are produced during sexual reproduction.

Q.10 Which of the following metals does NOT react with dilute hydrochloric acid under
normal conditions?
Ans A. Iron

B. Aluminium

C. Copper

D. Zinc

Q.11 Which of the following relations is correct for expressing power in terms of voltage and
resistance?
Ans A. P=R/V2

B. P=I/VR

C. P=VR/I

D. P=V2/R

Q.12 The total resistance of 5 resistors of equal resistance R arranged in a parallel
arrangement is __________.
Ans A. R/5

B. 5/R

C. 5R

D. R5

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 18 of 48

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Q.13 In the case of a convex lens, under what specific object position is the image formed at
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2F (F is the focal length) and has the same size as the object?

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Ans A. At focus F
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C. Beyond 2F ag l
D. At infinity

Q.14 When the temperature of air increases, the speed of sound waves:
Ans A. remains constant

B. increases

C. decreases

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D. becomes zero
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Q.15 .co
Which of the following is a non-metal?
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Ans A. Copper
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B. Chlorine

C. Zinc

D. Mercury

Q.16 Which of the following statements explains why insectivorous plants evolved to trap
insects?
Ans A. To take cellulose from plant tissues

B. To compete with herbivores for space

C. To supplement nitrogen and other nutrients
m
D. To survive in habitats with low sunlight
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s e
Q.17 In a neutral solution, red and blue litmus paper will:

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Ans A. both turn green

B. both turn blue
a
C. both turn red

D. both remain unchanged

Q.18 The number of mitochondria in a cell varies depending on which of the following?
Ans A. The age of the organism

B. The amount of DNA present in the cell
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C. The size of the nucleus

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D. The physiological activity of the cell

l as
l asQ.19 A constant force of ‘X’ N acts on a body such that the body undergoes a displacement
ag
ag of 5 m in the same direction as the force. If the work done due to the force is 500 J, then
what is the value of X?
Ans A. 100 N

B. 1/100 N

C. 2500 N

D. 250 N

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 19 of 48

Q.20 A sealed packet has a mass of 500 g and a volume of 350 cm3. Given the density of
water is 1 g cm⁻³, will the packet float or sink in water, and why?
Ans A. Float, because its density is less than water.

B. Sink, because the total volume is high.

C. Sink, because its density is greater than water's density.

D. Float, because its mass is low.

Q.21 Which of the following processes is a physical change?
Ans A. Fermentation

B. Combustion

C. Crystallisation

D. Rusting

Q.22 Which of the following situations demonstrates Newton’s Second Law of Motion?
Ans A. A man standing inside a lift

B. A satellite moving around Earth

C. A book lying still on the table

D. A car speeding up on the road

Q.23 Which of the following is a common category of agents that can cause diseases in
poultry fowl?
Ans A. Viruses, bacteria, and fungi

B. Sunlight exposure

C. Vitamins and minerals only

D. Purely genetic factors

Q.24 Which of the following phenomena CANNOT be explained without dispersion of light?
Ans A. Rainbow formation.

B. Twinkling of stars.

C. Mirages.

D. Advanced sunrise.

Q.25 Which contraceptive method provides dual protection against pregnancy and most
sexually transmitted diseases?
Ans A. Male condom

B. Surgical methods

C. Copper -T

D. Oral contraceptive pills

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 The present age of Ramesh is 3 times that of Mahesh. Five years ago, the ratio of their
ages was 4 : 1. What is the present age of Ramesh?
Ans A. 40 years

B. 30 years

C. 45 years

D. 15 years

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 20 of 48

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Q.27 The sum of two numbers P and Q is 17 and their product is 56. Find the value of P2 +
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Q 2.
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Ans A. 146
as
se B. 162
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C. 177

D. 158

Q.28 A cyclist covers a distance of 800 m in 2 minutes. Find the speed (in km/hr) of the
cyclist.
Ans A. 16

B. 24

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C. 25

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D. 20

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Q.29
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The amount on a sum of ₹4,900 at 10% per annum compound interest, compounded
l a
a ag
annually, in 2 years will be:
l
ag
Ans A. ₹6,684

B. ₹6,509

C. ₹5,988

D. ₹5,929

Q.30

11129
m
Ans A. 120 minutes

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B. 117 minutes
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C. 121 minutes
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D. 129 minutes
a
Q.31 An item with a marked price of ₹606 was sold for ₹304. What was the percentage of
discount given? (Round off your answer to two decimal places.)
Ans A. 47.63%

B. 49.83%

C. 51.58%

D. 50.65%
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Q.32 ₹6,874 is to be divided among three persons X, Y and Z. If the shares of X and Y are in

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the ratio 5 : 9 and that of Y and Z are in the ratio 9 : 7, what is the share (in ₹) of Y?
s e
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Ans A. 2,945
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g l a B. 2,946 a
a C. 2,947

D. 2,948

Q.33 Find the single equivalent discount (rounded off to two decimal places) for successive
discounts of 23%, 11%, and 29%.
Ans A. 50.12%

B. 53.72%

C. 51.34%
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D. 51.85%
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 21 of 48

Q.34 Find the value of 5sec2θ – 5tan2θ.
Ans A. 0

B. −5

C. 5

D. 1

Q.35 In quadrilateral PQRS, the bisectors of ∠ R and ∠ S meet at the point T (inside the
quadrilateral) and ∠ STR = 48°. If the ratio of ∠ P to ∠ Q is 3 : 5, then what is the
difference between the measures of ∠ Q and ∠ P?
Ans A. 22°

B. 27°

C. 29°

D. 24°

Q.36 The sum of twin prime numbers is 36. Find the product of the twin prime numbers.778
Ans A. 155

B. 299

C. 203

D. 323

Q.37 The expenditure of Sudha is 150% more than her savings. If her expenditure decreases
by 7% and savings increase by 21%, then by what percentage does her income
increase?
Ans A. 0.03%

B. 5%

C. 1%

D. 6%

Q.38 What is the Highest Common Factor (HCF) of 252 and 378?
Ans A.

B.

C.

D.

Q.39 The mode of a distribution is 21 and the mean is 60. The value of its median is:
Ans A. 47

B. 49

C. 45

D. 51

Q.40 Keshav spends 70% of his income. If he saves ₹18,000, then his income (in ₹) is:
Ans A. 61,000

B. 12,600

C. 60,000

D. 59,000

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 22 of 48

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Q.41 A wholesaler bought goods for ₹15,000 and sold them to a retailer at 20% profit. The
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retailer then sold the goods to customers at 25% profit. What is the final selling price to

. customers?
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Ans A. ₹23,000

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B. ₹22,500

C. ₹22,000
a
D. ₹23,500

Q.42 P and Q together can fill a cistern with water in 7 hours. If P alone can fill the cistern
with water in 56 hours, then in how many hours will Q alone fill one-fourth of the same
cistern with water?
Ans A. 5

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B. 3

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C. 2

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D. 4

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Q.43
l as ag
Ans A.
ag
B.

C.

D.

Q.44

Ans A. 6

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B. 7

C. 16
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D. 17
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Q.45 What is the mode of the following data? ag
53, 47, 53, 48, 53, 53, 40, 41, 50, 50, 55, 48, 54, 49, 49, 51, 46, 45
Ans A. 48

B. 40

C. 53

D. 47

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Q.46 The monthly incomes of two friends Vipul and Vijay, are in the ratio 5 : 8, respectively,
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and each of them saves ₹84,000 every month. If the ratio of their monthly expenditure is
1 : 4, find the monthly income of Vipul (in ₹).
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Ans
m A. 1,06,000
l as
l as B. 1,04,000
ag
ag C. 1,47,000

D. 1,05,000

Q.47 A father’s current age is three times the age of his son. Five years ago from now, the
father’s age was four times the age of his son at that time. What are their present ages?
Ans A. 45 years and 15 years

B. 42 years and 14 years

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C. 40 years and 13 years

D. 50 years and 17 years

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 23 of 48

Q.48 'X' can complete the work order in 15 days and 'Y' can complete the same work order in
12 days. With the help of 'F', the three of them finished the work in 5 days. How many
days would 'F' take to complete the work alone?
Ans A. 20 days

B. 5 days

C. 15 days

D. 10 days

Q.49 A solid metallic sphere of radius 9 cm is melted and recast into 27 smaller solid
spheres of equal size. Find the surface area of one small sphere.
Ans A. 42π cm2

B. 48π cm2

C. 36π cm2

D. 24π cm2

Q.50 The market prices of paddy and jowar are in the ratio 1 : 3, and a family consumes them
in the ratio 5 : 7 by quantity. Find the ratio of expenditure on paddy to that on jowar.
Ans A. 9 : 25

B. 6 : 22

C. 5 : 21

D. 7 : 23

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 Six friends — John, Alex, Priyanka, Sameer, Rohit and Neil — are sitting around a
circular table facing the centre. John is an immediate neighbour of both Alex and
Priyanka. Sameer is sitting second to the left of Priyanka. Neil is sitting to the
immediate left of Sameer.
Who is sitting to the immediate left of Neil?
Ans A. Alex

B. Priyanka

C. Rohit

D. John

Q.52 Aarav starts from Point A and drives 13 km towards east. He then takes a left turn,
drives 8 km, turns left and drives 15 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 11 km. He
takes a final left turn, drives 2 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again?

(Note: All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. 3 km to the south

B. 4 km to the south

C. 3 km to the north

D. 4 km to the north

Q.53 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

PRT 28 VXZ 21 BDF 14 HJL 7 ?
Ans A. NRW -1

B. NQQ 0

C. NOQ -1

D. NPR 0

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 24 of 48

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Q.54 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
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English alphabetical order?

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SWE `QUC `OSA `MQY `?
as
se Ans A. KOI

B. KWO ag l
C. KOW

D. KIO

Q.55 PSOK is related to VYUQ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
the same way, EILJ is related to KORP. To which of the following is MPQT related,
following the same logic?
Ans A. SVWY
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B. TUVZ

C. SVWZ

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D. TUWY
s e l a
l a ag
ag
Q.56 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. RT - PV

B. DF - BH

C. MO - KQ

D. IK - HJ
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Q.57 .co
If ‘P’ stands for ‘×’, ‘Q’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘R’ stands for ‘−’ and ‘S’ stands for ‘+’, what will
m
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come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?
s
17 P 3 S (16 Q 4) P 2 R 13 P 4 S 15 = ?
g la
Ans A. 22
a
B. 18

C. 40

D. 36

Q.58 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
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to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
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3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

e m
e m (32, 16, 8)

l as
s
(48, 24, 12)

l a Ans A. (156, 78, 39)
ag
ag B. (188, 124, 48)

C. (128, 64, 42)

D. (196, 98, 46)

Q.59 STPT is related to RSOS in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, RSOS is related to QRNR. To which of the following is BCYC related,
following the same logic?
Ans A. ABXB

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B. ABWB

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a
C. AAWB

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D. ACWD

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 25 of 48

Q.60 Refer to the following series and answer the question (all numbers are single digit
numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 8 4 6 4 6 1 9 6 7 2 2 2 2 1 5 5 1 6 6 7 2 5 5 (Right)

How many such odd digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd
digit and also immediately followed by an even digit?
Ans A. None

B. Three

C. One

D. Two

Q.61 Eight people (A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H) are sitting around a circular table, facing
towards the centre.
Exactly three people sit between D and C. Exactly three people sit between F and H. A
sits second to the right of D. E sits to the immediate right of A. D is an immediate
neighbour of both H and G. B sits to the immediate left of G.
How many people sit between B and H, when counted from the left of H?
Ans A. 4

B. 2

C. 3

D. 1

Q.62 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 7 6 6 2 6 3 3 2 3 6 6 3 3 4 2 4 4 5 1 5 4 7 5 4 6 9 8 (Right)

How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
even number and also immediately followed by an even number?
Ans A. 2

B. 4

C. 3

D. 1

Q.63 Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

DFC−ACZ
UWT−RTQ
Ans A. EFB−BDA

B. EGD−ADZ

C. EFB−ACZ

D. EGD−BDA

Q.64 In a certain code language,

A + B means ‘A is the mother of B’,
A – B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
A x B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
A % B means ‘A is the father of B’ and
A # B means ‘A is the daughter of B’.

How is Q related to R if ‘R – E % C # Q + V’?
Ans A. Brother’s son

B. Brother’s wife

C. Father’s brother

D. Brother’s daughter

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 26 of 48

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Q.65 In a shopping mall, Shop A is to the north of Shop B. Shop F is to the east of Shop A.
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Shop E is to the west of Shop F and Shop A is to the east of Shop E. Shop D is to the

. north of Shop E. What is the position of Shop D with respect to Shop B?
e m
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Ans A. North

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B. West

C. South-west
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D. North-west

Q.66 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

45 58 63 76 81 94 ?
Ans A. 101

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B. 93

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C. 99

em
D. 96

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Q.67
l as
What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
ag
ag
112 92 74 58 44 ?
Ans A. 34

B. 30

C. 28

D. 32

Q.68 John ranked 20th from the bottom and 33rd from the top in his class. How many
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students are there in his class?
Ans A. 50

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B. 51

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C. 52

D. 53 ag
Q.69 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’
are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?

76 × 4 – (80 ÷ 10) × 4 + 50 ÷ 2 = ?
Ans A. 95

B. 146

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C. 119

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D. 128

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s
Q.70 Seven boxes, B, D, E, P, S, T and W, are kept one over the other, but not necessarily in

l a the same order.
ag
ag No box is kept above P. Only three boxes are kept between P and B. Only one box is
kept between D and S. S is kept immediately above B. Only four boxes are kept
between D and T. E is kept at some place above W.
Which box is kept second below E?
Ans A. D

B. B

C. T

D. S

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 27 of 48

Q.71 In a certain code language, ‘obey the lights’ is coded as ‘ro hm jw’ and ‘lights flash red’
is coded as ‘ld yc hm’. How is ‘lights’ coded in the given language?
Ans A. jw

B. hm

C. ro

D. ld

Q.72 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, what will
come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

80 A 4 C 15 B 6 D 9 B 3 C (18 A 6) B 10 = ?
Ans A. 113

B. 129

C. 150

D. 138

Q.73 In a certain code language, ‘TOUR’ is coded as ‘4139’ and ‘BRUT’ is coded as ‘4318’.
What is the code for ‘B’ in that language?
Ans A. 3

B. 4

C. 1

D. 8

Q.74 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 7 4 1 2 4 9 8 5 3 6 1 5 4 6 7 4 8 3 9 6 5 2 3 9 1 4 2 (Right)

How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a
perfect square and immediately followed by an even number?
(NOTE: 1 is also a perfect square.)
Ans A. One

B. More than three

C. Three

D. Two

Q.75 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All Reds are Blues.
All Blues are Greens.
Some Greens are Yellows.

Conclusions:
(I): All Blues are Yellows.
(II): Some Greens are Reds.
Ans A. Both conclusions (I) and (II) are true

B. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) is true

C. Only conclusion (I) is true

D. Only conclusion (II) is true

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 28 of 48

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Q.76 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
m
co
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to

. that group?
e m
m as
se l
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their

Ans
position in the letter-cluster.)
A. GJLP ag
B. ILMR

C. TWYC

D. HKMQ

Q.77 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
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statements.
m
Statements:
All cakes are hearts.
m .co s em
s
Some seats are hearts.
e l a
No bats are hearts.
l a ag
Conclusions:
ag
(I): Some seats are not bats.
(II): No cakes are seats.
Ans A. Only conclusion (II) follows

B. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

C. Only conclusion (I) follows

D. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

m
.co
Q.78 Six people, A, B, C, D, E and F, are sitting in a row, facing north. A sits to the immediate
right of E. F sits fourth to the left of E. Only one person sits between B and E. C sits to

m
the immediate left of B. D sits second to the left of A. Three of the following four are
e
the one that does not belong to that group?
las
alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which is

Ans A. FA
ag
B. DE

C. BD

D. CB

Q.79 Refer to the given series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single
digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 6 6 2 7 2 9 3 2 2 3 7 6 5 8 4 6 1 9 7 9 4 8 3 6 1 2 3 (Right)
m
m
How many such even numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
.co
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odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?

m s e
s
Ans
e
A. 4

g l a
g l a B. 3
a
a C. 2

D. 5

Q.80 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

9012 9013 9011 9014 9010 ?
Ans A. 9015

B. 9016

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C. 9014

e m
D. 9013

e m l as
l as ag
g
Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 29 of 48

Q.81 _________ is the massive sports talent hunt introduced by Bihar CM Nitish Kumar in
May 2025, designed for secondary and higher secondary school students.
Ans A. Mashal

B. Lakshya

C. Bihar Sports Samarthan Yojana

D. Khel Pratibha Khoj Abhiyan

Q.82 Which of the following countries hosted the Kabaddi World Cup, 2025, first time outside
Asia?
Ans A. Qatar

B. Italy

C. Tajikistan

D. England

Q.83 In June 2025, which Indian state launched a state-level Clean Air Plan based on airshed
scientific analysis?
Ans A. Bihar

B. Uttar Pradesh

C. Rajasthan

D. Assam

Q.84 Which of the following best characterises the India-Singapore Ministerial Roundtable
(ISMR) framework?
Ans A. A high-level mechanism to deepen bilateral cooperation across strategic, economic, technological, and people-to-people
sectors
B. A cultural-exchange mechanism involving arts and heritage institutions only

C. A platform limited to trade dispute settlement between the two countries

D. A forum exclusively for defence procurement negotiations

Q.85 The 2025 Wimbledon Championships took place in which city?
Ans A. Melbourne, Australia

B. Paris, France

C. New York, USA

D. London, UK

Q.86 Which of the following was launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development
during the National Consultation on Gender Budgeting in June 2025?
Ans A. National Resource Centre for Women

B. Gender Budgeting Knowledge Hub portal

C. One-Stop Centre scheme for women affected by violence

D. Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Annual Report 2024

Q.87 Which organisations jointly launched multi-agency rescue operations after the
Uttarkashi floods in August 2025?
Ans A. ISRO, DRDO, BARC

B. NSG, Coast Guard, NCC

C. Railways, Navy, CBI

D. Army, BRO, ITBP, NDRF, SDRF

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 30 of 48

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Q.88 Under the proposed Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill 2025, which seeks to include
m
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Chandigarh under Article 240, the Union Territory will be aligned with which category of

. regions?
e m
m as
se l
Ans A. Union Territories without legislatures

B. Union Territories with legislatures
ag
C. Union Territories with partial state powers

D. Union Territories governed under special provisions

Q.89 What is the 2025 Guinness World Record recently set by Nigerian chess master Tunde
Onakoya?
Ans A. Most simultaneous chess games

B. Longest blitz chess game
m
m .co
C. Longest chess marathon

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D. Longest single chess move

m s em
s e l a
a ag
Q.90 By how many basis points did the Reserve Bank of India reduce the repo rate in April
l
ag
2025?
Ans A. 75 basis points

B. 10 basis points

C. 25 basis points

D. 50 basis points

Q.91 A 24-hour wildlife census using the waterhole method, which recorded the sighting of
73 Great Indian Bustards, was conducted in June 2025 in which of the following
national parks?
m
.co
Ans A. Ranthambore National Park

B. Kanha National Park
e m
C. Bandhavgarh National Park
las
D. Desert National Park
ag
Q.92 What was the approximate monetary loss alleged by the State Bank of India (SBI) in its
complaint against Anil Ambani and his company Reliance Communications Ltd, that
triggered the Central Bureau of Investigation's (CBI) investigation in August 2025?
Ans A. ₹1,000 crore

B. ₹10,000 crore

C. ₹3,000 crore

D. ₹1,900 crore
m
m .co
Q.93

m .co
Lala Lajpat Rai, whose 160th birth anniversary was observed on 28 January 2025, was
popularly known by which title?
s e m
s e
Ans A. Punjab Kesari
g l a
g l a B. Deshbandhu a
a C. Lokmanya Tilak

D. Netaji

Q.94 Which Ministry is responsible for the grant increase in national championships for
high-priority sports?
Ans A. Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship

B. Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports

m .
.co
C. Ministry of Human Resource Development

e m
D. Ministry of Education

e m l as
l as ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 31 of 48

Q.95 According to Tamil Nadu’s transgender policy (2025), what significant right is explicitly
assured?
Ans A. Compulsory housing allotments for transgender households

B. Horizontal reservation in government jobs

C. Exclusive pension scheme for all transgender persons

D. Inheritance rights and access to education and employment

Q.96 What is the name given to the mobile application launched by the Government of India
in October 2024 for registration of births and deaths, aimed to streamline and reduce
the time required for these registrations?
Ans A. Central Registration System

B. Civil Registration App

C. Civil Registration System

D. Birth and Death Registration System

Q.97 What key capability of the Vertically-Launched Short-Range Surface-to-Air Missile
(VLSRSAM) was established during its March 2025 flight-test?
Ans A. Underwater deployment capability

B. Long-range high-altitude interception

C. Near-boundary low-altitude engagement

D. Mid-course ballistic target destruction

Q.98 The Supreme Court declared in October 2025 that the principle of public trust extends
to artificial lakes this ruling affirmed the directive of which of the following High Court
benches?
Ans A. Jaipur Bench of the Rajasthan High Court

B. Lucknow Bench of the Allahabad High Court

C. Nagpur Bench of the Bombay High Court

D. Madurai Bench of the Madras High Court

Q.99 Prof. Syed Wajih Ahmad Naqvi, an outstanding Biogeochemical Oceanographer with
national and international recognition, received the 2024 Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar in
which of the following categories?
Ans A. Vigyan Shri (VS) Award

B. Vigyan Ratna (VR) Award

C. Vigyan Yuva-Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar (VY-SSB) Award

D. Vigyan Team (VT) Award

Q.100 Who received the Padma Vibhushan in 2025 for their contributions to the dance form,
Kathak?
Ans A. Birju Maharaj

B. Shobana Chandrakumar

C. Kumudhini Lakhia

D. Kelucharan Mohapatra

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 32 of 48

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m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
a

Test Date 09/01/2026
Test Time 4:30 PM - 6:00 PM
Subject RRB Level 01 Stage I
* Note
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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

s l a
l a ag
Section : General Scienceag
Q.1 An object is moving along a straight line with a velocity that is initially positive (+u) and
non-zero, but the acceleration is non-uniform and negative, such that the velocity
eventually becomes negative (−v). What does the negative final velocity signify?
Ans A. The object has constant but negative acceleration.

B. The object is moving backward relative to its initial direction.

C. The acceleration became positive at some point.

m
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D. The object is at rest.

Q.2
e m
Which part of the eye is responsible for converting light into electrical signals?
Ans A. Cornea
las
B. Iris
ag
C. Retina

D. Lens

Q.3 What do we call the low-pressure area created when a vibrating object moves
backward?
Ans A. Reflection

B. Compression
m
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C. Wavelength

m.co D. Rarefaction

s e m
s e g l a
a
Q.4 What is the chemical formula of aluminium oxide?

g l Ans A. Al2O3 a
a B. Al2O

C. AlO

D. AlO3

Q.5 Which of the following is the phase during which reproductive tissues in humans start
maturing?
Ans A. Menstruation

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B. Fertilization

e m
C. Puberty

e m l as
D. Childhood
l as ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 33 of 48

Q.6 Which of the following statements is correct about Ohm’s Law?
Ans A. It states that resistance decreases with voltage.

B. It is valid for semiconductors and electrolytes.

C. It is valid only for metallic conductors at constant temperature.

D. It is valid for all conductors at all temperatures.

Q.7 Which of the following is NOT true about kinetic energy?
Ans A. It depends on motion.

B. It is a scalar quantity.

C. It depends on direction of motion.

D. It can never be negative.

Q.8 What is the SI unit of universal gravitational constant (G)?
Ans A. kg/N

B. Nm2/kg2

C. Nm/kg

D. N/kg2

Q.9 Refer to the two statements given below and choose the correct option.

Statement A: Sodium hydroxide is used in the manufacture of soaps and paper.

Statement B: It is a weak base and neutral in nature.
Ans A. Statement A is incorrect but B is correct.

B. Statement A is correct but B is incorrect.

C. Both statements A and B are incorrect.

D. Both statements A and B are correct.

Q.10 Which of the following is a property of liquids?
Ans A. Fixed shape and fixed volume

B. Fixed shape but no fixed volume

C. No fixed shape and no fixed volume

D. No fixed shape but fixed volume

Q.11 When onion bulbs of different sizes are viewed under a microscope, all show similar
rectangular structures. This proves that _________.
Ans A. all living things are made of cells

B. only big onions have cells

C. cells differ in a onion

D. cork cells are living

Q.12 What type of image is formed by a convex mirror when the object is placed at infinity?
Ans A. Highly diminished, virtual, erect and point-sized

B. Enlarged, virtual and erect

C. Same size, real and inverted

D. Enlarged, real and inverted

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 34 of 48

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Q.13 Which flower parts usually shrivel and fall off after fertilisation?
m
co m
Ans A. Petals, sepals, stamens, style and stigma

m . s e
se
B. Embryo and cotyledon

g l a
a
C. Roots and leaves

D. Ovule and ovary

Q.14 How are ionic compounds formed between metals and non-metals?
Ans A. By sharing of electrons between atoms.

B. By the formation of a sea of delocalised electrons.

C. By transfer of electrons from metal atoms to non-metal atoms.

D. By mutual attraction between positively charged nuclei
m
m .co
.co m
Q.15 In a compound, the elements are combined:

m s e
a
Ans A. chemically

s e l
a ag
B. by evaporation
l
ag
C. physically

D. by filtration

Q.16 What is the primary objective of implementing nutrient management practices in
agriculture?
Ans A. Enhancing soil erosion

B. Improving crop productivity and quality

C. Pouring polluted water on crops
m
.co
D. Mixing plastic residues into the field

e m
Q.17
s
Which of the following modifications of seeds help in wind dispersal?

la
g
Ans A. Wing-like or hairy outgrowths

B. Spiny or hook-like outgrowths a
C. Thick and fibrous coat

D. Large size

Q.18 In multicellular organisms, a lot of variation in the shape and size of cells makes an
organism _______.
Ans A. perform poorly in adverse conditions

B. less efficient with no division of labour among the cells
m
m .co
.co
C. more efficient with different cells performing different functions

e m
e m
D. prone to infection and death

l as
l asQ.19 Which of the following statements about neutrons is correct?
ag
ag Ans A. They are found in the nucleus of an atom.

B. They revolve around the nucleus in fixed orbits.

C. They determine the chemical properties of an atom.

D. They have a positive charge.

Q.20 Non-metallic oxides are considered acidic in nature. What is the approximate pH nature
of the salt formed when a non-metallic oxide reacts with a strong base?
Ans A. Acidic
m .
B. Amphoteric

m .co s e m
C. Neutral
s e l a
D. Basic
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 35 of 48

Q.21 In a lab, a student sees a large transparent sac filling most of a plant cell. What
percentage of the cell’s volume does the vacuole occupy?
Ans A. 5–15%

B. 20–30%

C. 50–90%

D. 100%

Q.22 Which of the following statements is correct?
Ans A. Mass and inertia are unrelated.

B. A lighter body resists change in motion more strongly.

C. A body with larger mass has less inertia.

D. Inertia of an object increases with its mass.

Q.23 Which of the following is a non-biodegradable material?
Ans A. Paper

B. Cotton cloth

C. Vegetable peel

D. Plastic bag

Q.24 When an acid reacts with a non-carbonated base, what are the typical products formed
in a neutralisation reaction?
Ans A. Salt and water

B. Only a salt

C. Carbon dioxide and water

D. Only water

Q.25 If the potential difference between two points is V and charge q moves between them,
the work done is _________.
Ans A. W = V²/q

B. W = q/V

C. W = V/q

D. W = V × q

Section : Mathematics

Q.26 The arithmetic mean of the observations 85, 73, 89, 29, 20, 52, 22, 25 and 55 is:
Ans A. 54

B. 57

C. 56

D. 50

Q.27 The mode and median of a data are 27.5 and 23, respectively. What is the mean of the
data? (Use empirical formula.)
Ans A. 30.7

B. 11.95

C. 26.8

D. 20.75

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 36 of 48

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Q.28 A car covers 100 km in the first hour, 150 km in the second hour, and 50 km in the third
m
co
hour. If it continues at a speed of 60 km/hr for the next 2 hours, what is the average

. speed for the entire journey?
e m
m as
se
Ans A. 84 hm/hr

g l
B. 82 km/hr

C. 86 km/hr
a
D. 80 km/hr

Q.29

Ans A. 36

B. 25

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C. 16

m
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D. 49

em
Q.30
e m
The salaries of P, Q and R are in the ratio 10:8:2. If the increments of 11%, 20% and 35%
l as
as
are allowed, respectively, in their salaries, then what will be the new ratio of their
l ag
ag
salaries?
Ans A. 34:34:15

B. 40:39:14

C. 37:32:9

D. 37:23:19

Q.31 By selling a bicycle for ₹1,425, a shopkeeper gains 14%. If the profit is reduced to 8%,
then the selling price will be:
Ans A.
m
B.

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C.
s e
D.
g la
Q.32
a
A person who spends 60% of his monthly income is able to save ₹8,242 per month. His
monthly expenses (in ₹) are:
Ans A. 12,268

B. 12,285

C. 12,363

D. 12,379

m
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Q.33 What is the fractional value of 3. 627272727….?783
m
.co m
Ans

m
A.
s e
s e g l a
g l a B.
a
a C.

D.

Q.34

m .
.co m
Ans A.

m s e
B.

s e l a
a ag
C.

g l

D.
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 37 of 48

Q.35 A room is one and a half times as long as it is wide. The cost of carpeting the floor at
₹18 per square metre is ₹3,888, and the cost of whitewashing the four walls at ₹9 per
square metre is ₹4,320. Find the volume of the room in cubic metres.
Ans A. 1782

B. 1728

C. 1696

D. 1654

Q.36 The fourth proportional to 12, a, and 2a is 54. What is the positive value of a?
Ans A. 18

B. 17

C. 19

D. 20

Q.37 Each exterior angle of a regular polygon is 24°. Find the number of diagonals in this
polygon.
Ans A. 70

B. 90

C. 80

D. 60

Q.38 Two trains, A and B, of lengths 402 m and 286 m are running at speeds of 6 m/s and 37
m/s, respectively, towards each other on parallel tracks. In how much time will they
cross each other?
Ans A. 8 seconds

B. 16 seconds

C. 14 seconds

D. 21 seconds

Q.39

Ans A. 3

B. 4

C. 2

D. 1

Q.40 There are some rabbits and parrots in a farmhouse. The total number of animal heads
is 180 and the total number of legs is 520. Find the number of rabbits in the farmhouse.
Ans A. 120

B. 100

C. 80

D. 60

Q.41 Rohit goes to a shop to purchase a truck priced at ₹6,900. He is offered 4 discount
options by the shopkeeper. Which of these options should he opt for to gain maximum
advantage of the discount offered?
Ans A. Single discount of 14%

B. Two successive discounts of 14% each

C. Two successive discounts of 38% and 46%

D. Two successive discounts of 14% and 8%

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 38 of 48

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Q.42
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Ans A.

s e m
m a
se l
B.

C.
ag
D.

Q.43 Pipes A and B can fill an empty cistern in 46 minutes and 32 minutes, respectively. Both
Pipe A and Pipe B are opened together. After how much time should Pipe B be turned
off so that the empty cistern is completely filled in a total of 23 minutes?
Ans A. 10 minutes

B. 12 minutes

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C. 16 minutes

m
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D. 20 minutes

em
Q.44
e m
Two banks, A and B, offered loans at 3.5% and 7% per annum, respectively. Gopal
l as
as
borrowed an amount of ₹5,00,000 from each bank. Find the positive difference (in ₹)
l ag
ag
between the amounts of simple interest paid to the two banks by Gopal after 3 years.
Ans A. 54,000

B. 52,500

C. 53,500

D. 52,000

Q.45 A circle of radius 3 cm is drawn with its centre at one of the vertices of a regular
hexagon of side 6 cm. What is the area (in cm2) of the hexagon which is NOT

m
overlapping with the circle?

.co
Ans A.

e m
B.

las
C.
ag
D.

Q.46 A, B and C can do a piece of work in 3, 4 and 12 days, respectively. How long (in days)
will they take to do twice the same work, working together?
Ans A. 6

B. 4

C. 3
m
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D. 9
m
Q.47
m .co
The price of fuel decreases by 55%, 40% and 15% in three successive months, but
s e m
s e increases by 60% in the fourth month. What is the percentage increase/decrease in the

g l a
a
price of fuel in the fourth month as compared to its original price?

g l Ans A. Decreases by 63.28% a
a B. Increases by 60.37%

C. Decreases by 68.69%

D. Increases by 67.93%

Q.48 If 20% of a number is added to 66, then the result is the same number. 80% of the same
number is:
Ans A. 66

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B. 86

e m
C. 76

e m l as
D. 96
l as ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 39 of 48

Q.49 The marked price of a painting was ₹6,400, but the shopkeeper offered a double
discount in a successive manner of 25% and 12%. Ultimately for how much did he sell
the item?608
Ans A. ₹4,291

B. ₹4,320

C. ₹4,161

D. ₹4,224

Q.50 The age of Ajay is 16 years more than that of Vijay. The sum of their ages 6 years ago
was 56 years. Find Vijay's present age.
Ans A. 56 years

B. 42 years

C. 26 years

D. 18 years

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.51 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All tables are golds.
No table is a helmet.

Conclusions:
(I): Some helmets are golds.
(II): All golds are helmets.
Ans A. Only conclusion (II) follows

B. Only conclusion (I) follows

C. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

D. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

Q.52 Six people, A, B, C, D, E and F, are sitting in a row, facing north. D sits to the immediate
left of F. C sits third to the left of B. F is an immediate neighbour of C. E sits second to
the right of C. A sits to the immediate left of E. Who sits at the extreme right end of the
row?
Ans A. A

B. B

C. E

D. F

Q.53 Six people, A, B, C, D, E and F, are sitting in a row, facing north. A sits to the immediate
right of E. B sits fourth to the left of E. Only one person sits between B and F. C sits to
the immediate left of F. D sits second to the left of A. Three of the following four are
alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which is
the one that does NOT belong to that group?
Ans A. CF

B. FD

C. DE

D. BA

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 40 of 48

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Q.54 Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to
m
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make it logically complete?

. e m
m
EQL 2 GMN 6 IIP 18 KER 54 ?
as
se Ans A. MBS 158

B. MBT 158 ag l
C. MAS 168

D. MAT 162

Q.55 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 9 9 3 9 2 4 4 1 9 1 6 9 4 9 9 6 3 2 6 1 7 9 8 3 9 8 7 (Right)

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How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
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odd number and also immediately followed by an odd number?4682

em
s
Ans A. 5

e m l a
B. 6

l as ag
ag
C. 4

D. 3

Q.56 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

3 6 ? 144 1152 11520
Ans A. 20

B. 24

C. 28
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D. 22

e m
Q.57
s
Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows. Counting to

la
be done from left to right only. (All numbers are single-digit numbers only.)

ag
(Left) 2 4 8 4 7 1 5 7 4 3 4 2 8 7 4 3 6 8 5 4 9 1 6 9 3 5 2 4 8 (Right)

How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?
Ans A. Two

B. More than three

C. Three

D. One
m
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.co
Q.58 If 1 is added to each even digit and 1 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number
542816379, how many digits will appear more than once in the new number thus
e m
e m formed?

l as
l asAns A. None
ag
ag B. One

C. Two

D. Three

Q.59 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. HLNR
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B. NRTX
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C. QUWA
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D. PTWZ
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 41 of 48

Q.60 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and
3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(5, 18, 11)
(9, 26, 19)
Ans A. (25, 58, 50)

B. (7, 22, 15)

C. (10, 12, 5)

D. (8 , 24, 31)

Q.61 Rohit starts from Point A and drives 15 km towards west. He then takes a left turn,
drives 11 km, turns left and drives 18 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 14 km. He
takes a final left turn, drives 3 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again?

(Note: All turns are 90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. 4 km to the north

B. 3 km to the north

C. 4 km to the south

D. 3 km to the south

Q.62 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans A. FE−DC

B. YX−WV

C. UT−RT

D. BA−ZY

Q.63 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

48 66 83 99 114 ?
Ans A. 128

B. 123

C. 127

D. 126

Q.64 In a certain code language, ‘SKATE’ is coded as ‘51324’ and ‘ASKEW’ is coded as
‘47315’. How is ‘W’ coded in that language?
Ans A. 4

B. 7

C. 5

D. 3

Q.65 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

210 212 209 213 208 ?
Ans A. 209

B. 210

C. 214

D. 213

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 42 of 48

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Q.66 Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a straight line, facing the north.
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A sits third from the left end of the line. Only one person sits between A and B. Only

. three people sit between C and B. E sits to the immediate right of C. D sits to the
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immediate right of G.
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How many people sit to the right of F?
Ans A. One
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B. None

C. Three

D. Two

Q.67 In a certain code language, ‘LEMA’ is coded as ‘4753’ and ‘MALT’ is coded as ‘3479’.
What is the code for ‘T’ in the given code language?
Ans A. 4
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B. 7

C. 9

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D. 3
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Q.68 MKBZ is related to SQHF in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
the same way, PDRW is related to VJXC. To which of the given options is UFLQ related,
following the same logic?
Ans A. WHNS

B. ALRW

C. XIOT

D. YZPU

Q.69
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Seven boxes, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are kept one over the other, but not necessarily in

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the same order.
Only three boxes are kept above G. Only one box is kept between B and G. Only three

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boxes are kept between B and C. C is kept at some place above G. F is kept

above or below B.
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immediately below C. E is kept at one of the places above D. A is not kept immediately

Ans
How many boxes are kept below E?
A. 1 ag
B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q.70 Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

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DHL : FKN
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QJM : SMO

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Ans

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A. VTS:SDR

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ag C. MPS:ASY

D. AWN:CZP

Q.71 If 1 is added to each even digit and 1 is added to each odd digit in the number 321854,
what will be the sum of the first and last digits in the new number thus formed?
Ans A. 10

B. 8

C. 12

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D. 9

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Q.72 Nayan starts from Point A and drives 45 km towards the north. He then takes a right
turn, drives 37 km, turns right and drives 60 km. He then takes a right turn and drives
56 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 15 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest
distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again?
(All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. 20 km to the east

B. 19 km to the east

C. 22 km to the west

D. 21 km to the west

Q.73 In a certain code language,
A + B means ‘A is the son of B’,
A - B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
A x B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
and A & B means ‘A is the father of B’.

How is K related to V if ‘K-T+R&ZxV’?
Ans A. Brother

B. Father

C. Wife's father

D. Wife's brother

Q.74 Refer to the following series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are
single digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 1 8 9 1 3 8 3 8 9 9 5 9 6 5 5 1 7 7 4 2 3 1 6 (Right)

How many such even digits are there each of which is immediately preceded by an
even digit and also immediately followed by an even digit?1749
Ans A. None

B. Two

C. Three

D. One

Q.75 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

ARJ KBT ULD EVN ?
Ans A. OOX

B. OXD

C. OXS

D. OFX

Q.76 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All soaps are oils.
All oils are dispensers.
Some dispensers are towels.

Conclusions:
(I) Some soaps are towels.
(II) Some oils are towels.
Ans A. Only conclusion (I) follows

B. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

C. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

D. Only conclusion (II) follows

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 44 of 48

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Q.77 Seven boxes, D, E, F, U, V, W and X, are kept one over the other, but not necessarily in
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the same order. D is kept immediately above V. W is kept immediately above F. Only U is

. kept above E. Only one box is kept between U and D. W is not kept at the third position
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from the bottom. How many boxes are kept between X and U?
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B. Two ag l
C. Three

D. One

Q.78 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 5 5 7 8 2 3 3 2 3 3 9 5 5 7 9 8 5 6 3 5 3 8 3 5 5 8 9 (Right)

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How many such odd numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an
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odd number and also immediately followed by an even number?

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Ans A. 5

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B. 4

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C. 7

D. 6

Q.79 GWCL is related to PFLU in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
the same way, QGMV is related to ZPVE. To which of the given options is RHNW related,
following the same logic?
Ans A. QAWE

B. AQDF

C. AQWF
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D. AQWE

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Q.80
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What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if ‘+’ and
‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
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89 ÷ 8 + 684 × 6 − 87 = ? ag
Ans A. 615

B. 685

C. 692

D. 634

Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs
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Q.81
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According to the UNDP Human Development Report 2025 (based on 2023 data), what is
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India’s rank in the Human Development Index (HDI)?

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Ans A. 141

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g l a B. 130
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a C. 138

D. 125

Q.82 Which retired Chief Justice of India was awarded the Padma Vibhushan in 2025 for
Public Affairs?
Ans A. Ranjan Gogoi

B. Dipak Misra

C. HL Dattu
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D. Jagdish Singh Khehar

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g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 45 of 48

Q.83 Where was the 71st Senior National Men's Kabaddi Championship 2025 held?
Ans A. Gachibowli Indoor Stadium, Hyderabad

B. Jawaharlal Nehru Indoor Stadium, Cuttack

C. Kalinga Stadium, Bhubaneswar

D. Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium, Delhi

Q.84 In May 2025, Union Sports Minister Mansukh Mandaviya opened a new multi-purpose
Khelo India Hall in Kamle district. In which state is Kamle district located?
Ans A. Nagaland

B. Arunachal Pradesh

C. Assam

D. Manipur

Q.85 What did the Supreme Court say about Group A CAPF (Central Armed Police Forces)
officers in May 2025?
Ans A. They are not important.

B. They cannot get promotions.

C. They are part of “Unorganised Services”.

D. They are part of “Organised Services”.

Q.86 Where was India’s first-ever Astro Tourism Festival successfully held in 2025?
Ans A. Spiti Valley

B. Gulmarg

C. Leh, Ladakh

D. Kargil

Q.87 Which agency is investigating the Mithi River Desilting Scam?
Ans A. Enforcement Directorate

B. Mumbai Police

C. Central Bureau of Investigation

D. Delhi Police

Q.88 The Sachet App, promoted in April 2025, was launched by _______________.
Ans A. Indian Meteorological Department

B. National Institution for Transforming India (NITI) Aayog

C. National Disaster Management Authority

D. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology

Q.89 Which of the following agencies operates the Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC),
from where the NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar (NISAR) mission was launched in
July 2025?
Ans A. Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)

B. National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC)

C. Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)

D. North-Eastern Space Applications Centre (NESAC)

Q.90 Who received the P C Chandra Puraskaar 2025 in Kolkata?
Ans A. Amjad Ali Khan

B. Kapil Dev

C. Leander Paes

D. Mary Kom
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 46 of 48

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Q.91 The Wisden Cricketers' Almanack 2025 named Jasprit Bumrah as the Leading Cricketer
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of the Year along with:

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Ans A. Smriti Mandhana
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D. Harmanpreet Kaur

Q.92 In January 2025, which of the following Indian institutes/universities was selected as
SDG Hub 6 (Clean Water & Sanitation) Co-Chair for the 2025–2027 term?
Ans A. Shiv Nadar University, Delhi NCR

B. Indian Institute of Technology, Madras

C. Jawaharlal Nehru University, New Delhi
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D. Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore

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Q.93
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Which of the following cities served as the venue for the two-day FIBAC banking
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l as
conference on ‘Charting New Frontiers’, co-hosted by FICCI and the Indian Banks’
Association (IBA) on 25 and 26 August 2025?
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Ans
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A. Mumbai

B. Chennai

C. New Delhi

D. Kolkata

Q.94 Where was the 2025 NATO Summit held on 24–25 June?
Ans A. Paris, France

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B. The Hague, Netherlands

C. Brussels, Belgium

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D. Berlin, Germany

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Q.95
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What was India's unemployment rate in May 2025, according to the Periodic Labour
Force Survey (PLFS)?
Ans A. 5.1%

B. 5.6%

C. 7.0%

D. 6.0%

Q.96 Which of the following agreements did India sign in March 2024 with the European Free
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Trade Association (EFTA) countries (Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway, Switzerland) that
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includes a commitment of US $100 billion investment over 15 years?
Ans

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g l a C. India-EFTA Defence Cooperation Treaty a
a D. India-EFTA Financial Services Pact

Q.97 In August 2025, who among the following was appointed as the Executive Director at
the International Monetary Fund (IMF) for a period of three years?
Ans A. Urjit Patel

B. Krishnamurthy Subramanian

C. Raghuram Rajan

D. Shaktikanta Das
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Q.98 Who won the 'Best FIFA Men's Player' award for the 2024 season at the Best FIFA
Football Awards in December 2024?
Ans A. Erling Haaland

B. Rodri

C. Jude Bellingham

D. Vinícius Jr.

Q.99 According to the second edition of the North Eastern Region District SDG Index (2023-
24) released in July 2025, which district recorded the highest SDG score in North East
India, with a score of 81.43?
Ans A. Gomati

B. Kohima

C. Hnahthial

D. Aizawl

Q.100 In June 2025, which of the following organisations launched NACH 3.0 to enable faster
salary and EMI processing?
Ans A. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)

B. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)

C. State Bank of India (SBI)

D. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

"

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 48 of 48