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FOR KUET EXAM PREPARATION
KUET 2023
Question Paper · M.Sc.
Physics
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT
KUET 2023 Question Paper M.Sc. Physics
Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests
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Sr. No. .............................
ENTRANCE TEST-2023
SCHOOL OF PHYSICAL AND MATHEMATICAL SCIENCE
A .com
PHYSICS
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Question Booklet Series
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Total Questions : 60
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Time Allowed : 70 Minutes Roll No. :
a s g l
g l Instructions for Candidates :
a
a Entrance Test Roll Number in the space provided at the top of this page of Question Booklet
1. Write your
and fill up the necessary information in the spaces provided on the OMR Answer Sheet.
2. OMR Answer Sheet has an Original Copy and a Candidate’s Copy glued beneath it at the top. While
making entries in the Original Copy, candidate should ensure that the two copies are aligned properly
so that the entries made in the Original Copy against each item are exactly copied in the Candidate’s
Copy.
3. All entries in the OMR Answer Sheet, including answers to questions, are to be recorded in the Original
m
Copy only.
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4. Choose the correct / most appropriate response for each question among the options A, B, C and D and
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darken the circle of the appropriate response completely. The incomplete darkened circle is not correctly
a s
read by the OMR Scanner and no complaint to this effect shall be entertained.
g l
a
5. Use only blue/black ball point pen to darken the circle of correct/most appropriate response. In no case
gel/ink pen or pencil should be used.
6. Do not darken more than one circle of options for any question. A question with more than one darkened
response shall be considered wrong.
7. There will be ‘Negative Marking’ for wrong answers. Each wrong answer will lead to the deduction
of 0.25 marks from the total score of the candidate.
8. Only those candidates who would obtain positive score in Entrance Test Examination shall be eligible
for admission.
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9. Do not make any stray mark on the OMR sheet.
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10. Calculators and mobiles shall not be permitted inside the examination hall.
s e
em12. OMR aor mutilated in which case it
11. Rough work, if any, should be done on the blank sheets provided with the question booklet.
s g l
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Answer Sheet must be handled carefully and it should not be folded
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will not be evaluated.
13. Ensure that your OMR Answer Sheet has been signed by the Invigilator and the candidate himself/
herself.
14. At the end of the examination, hand over the OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator who will first tear off
the original OMR sheet in presence of the Candidate and hand over the Candidate’s Copy to the candidate.
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1. Two bodies of masses 3 × 10–24 kg and 6 × 10–25 kg 5. If we assume that the earth has exact spherical
are moving with velocities 0.002c m/s and symmetry, then, g at a height h above the surface
0.01c m/s respectively towards each other under can be approximately expressed as :
a mutually attractive force. The velocity of their GMe 2h
centre of mass is (where ‘c’ is the velocity of (A) 2 1
Re R e
light) :
(A) 0.015c m/s GMe 2h
(B) R 1 R
(B) 0.003c m/s e e
(C) 0 m/s
GMe h
(D) c m/s (C) R 2 1 2 R
e e
2. A spaceship has a length of 100 m in its rest frame
and appears to be 80.0 m to an observer in an GMe 2h
earth frame. The relative velocity of the reference (D) R 2 1 R
e e
frames is :
6. A uniform disk of mass M and radius R rolls,
(A) 0.600c without slipping, down a fixed plane inclined at
(B) 0.500c an angle of 45º to the horizontal. The linear
(C) 0.300c acceleration of the disk (in ms–2) is closest to :
(D) 0.900c (A) 4.6
3. Two relativistic particles with opposite velocities (B) 4.2
collide head-on and come to rest by sticking with (C) 9.8
each other. Which of the following quantity is not (D) 4.9
conserved ? 7. The time period of revolution of an artificial
(A) Total linear momentum satellite moving around Jupiter in a circular orbit
at a distance ‘R’ from its centre is T. If the same
(B) Total energy
satellite is taken to an orbit of radius 9R around
(C) Total rest mass
the same planet, the time period would be :
(D) None of the above quantities is conserved (A) 9T
4. Observes in relative motion with speed ‘v’ are (B) 27T
connected by a Lorentz transformation : (C) T/9
(A) x = (x – vt), y = y, z = z, t = t (D) 3T
(B) x = (x – vt), y = y, z = z, t = t 8. The ratio of the moment of inertia of a spherical
x shell about a tangent axis to the moment of inertia
(C) x = (x – vt), y = y, z = z, t = t about its centroidal axis is :
c
(A) 5/3
x
(D) x = (x – vt), y = y, z = z, t = t 2 (B) 5/2
c (C) 7/2
(D) 7/3
SM-29574–A 2
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Which of the following identity is NOT correct ? 13. A parallel-plate capacitor is filled with an
(A) (fg) = f g + gf insulating material of dielectric constant K. Then,
(B) · (f A) = f (· A) + A · (f ) which of the following statement is NOT true ?
(C) ×(f A) = f (×A) + A × (f ) (A) The dielectric material will reduce the
(D) ×(f A) = f (×A) – A × (f ) electric field inside the capacitor by a factor
m
of 1/K
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10. Which of the following is a possible electrostatic
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(B) The dielectric material will increase the
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field ?
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electric potential inside the capacitor by a
m la
(A) E A[xyî 2 yzˆj 3xzk̂ ]
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factor of 1/K
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(B) E A[ y 2 î ( 2xy z 2 )ˆj 2 yz k̂ ]
a g
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(C) The capacitance of the parallel-plate
capacitor is increased by a factor of K
(C) E A[x 2 î ( 2z 2 xy) ĵ yzk̂ ]
(D) The electric field is confined to the spaces
(D) E A[z 2 î ( 2 y 3xz )ˆj yzk̂ ] between the plates
11. A thick spherical shell carries charge density 14. Ampere’s law cannot be used for :
k (A) Calculating magnetic field due to infinite
2 (a r b) , the electric field in the region
r planes carrying steady currents
m
co
(a < r < b) is :
.
(B) Calculating magnetic field due to infinite
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k r a solenoids carrying steady currents
s
(A) r 2 r̂
l a
0 (C) Calculating magnetic field due to infinite
k a r a g straight wires carrying steady as well as non-
steady currents
(B) r 2 r̂
0
(D) Calculating magnetic field due to toroid
k b a carrying steady currents
(C) r 2 r̂ 15. Choose the correct statement :
0
(D) 0 (A) The magnetic susceptibility of paramagnetic
m
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materials is temperature independent
12. The amplitude of a lightly damped harmonic
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oscillator decreases at the rate of 5% per minute. (B) The magnetic susceptibility of diamagnetic
s e
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The loss of energy of the oscillator per minute mat erials is nearly independent of
s l
la ag
will be closest to : temperature
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(C) The magnetic susceptibility of ferromagnetic
(B) 10% materials increases with temperature
(C) 15% (D) The magnetic susceptibility of paramagnetic
(D) 20% materials increases with temperature
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16. Which of the following does not represent the 20. Which of the following statement is correct ?
basic equation of Magnetostatics ?
(A) Galilean transformation equations can be
(A) × A = B
applied to Maxwell’s equations in free space
(B) × H = J
(C) · B = 0 (B) Maxwell’s equat ions show that
(D) · B = |J| electromagnetic waves travel at different
17. A short cylindrical bar magnet and an identical speeds in different inertial frames
unmagnetized iron piece are both dropped
(C) Maxwell’s equations in free space are
simultaneously from the tops of two identical,
vertical aluminium pipes (of slightly larger invariant under Lorentz transformation
diameter and 2 meters long), then : (D) Maxwell’s equations were able to unify the
(A) It takes a fraction of a second for the theories of electromagnetism and
unmagnetized iron to emerge at the bottom
thermodynamics
(B) It takes a fraction of a second for the bar
magnet to emerge at the bottom 21. The relation between Cp and Cv is given by :
(C) It takes several seconds for the unmagnetized 2
iron to emerge at the bottom S V
(A) C p C v T
(D) The bar magnet just hangs near the middle V T T P
of the aluminium pipe
18. The self-inductance per unit length of a long S V
(B) Cp C v T
solenoid, of radius R, carrying n turns per unit V T T P
length is given by :
2
0 R p S
(C) Cp C v T
(A) L n V T T P
(B) L 0 R 2 n 2
p V
(D) Cp C v T
(C) L 0R 2 n 2 V T T P
0 R 2 22. If 1 mole of an ideal gas is allowed to expand
(D) L
n isothermally to 8 times its initial volume, the
19. The electric field associat ed with an entropy change in terms of the gas constant R is
electromagnetic wave is given by closest to :
ˆ
E (3k̂ j) sin (8x + 4y + z – t) (A) 2
The value of is (c is the speed of light) :
(B) 1
(A) c
(B) 3c (C) 3
(C) 6c
(D) 4
(D) 9c
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23. The volume expansion coefficient at constant 25. Which of the following set of differential equations
pressure is given by : characterises a given hydrostatic system, where
dU, dH, dF and dG are changes in internal energy,
1 V enthalpy, Helmholtz energy and Gibbs energy
(A)
v T p respectively ?
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(A) dU = TdS – pdV
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V
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(B) V dH = TdS + Vdp
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T p
e m la s
dF = SdT – pdV
l a s dG = –SdT + Vdp
a g
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1 V
(C)
v S p (B) dU = TdS – pdV
dH = TdS + Vdp
1 S dF = –SdT – pdV
(D)
v T p
dG = SdT + Vdp
24. Which of the following statement is incorrect (C) dU = TdS – pdV
o m dF = –SdT + pdV
according to the 3rd law of thermodynamics ? dH = TdS + Vdp
(A) All expansion coefficients tend to be zero m
. c
s e
la
dG = –SdT + Vdp
a g
as the temperature approaches absolute zero
(D) dU = TdS – pdV
(B) As the temperature approaches absolute zero, dH = TdS + Vdp
the susceptibility of a paramagnetic salt dF = –SdT – pdV
increases rapidly dG = –SdT + Vdp
26. The mean translational energy per degree of
(C) The entropy changes in all reversible
freedom for the molecules of a gas obeying
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isothermal processes tend to zero as the
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Maxwell’s distribution is :
c. o m
temperature approaches absolute zero
e
(A) kBT
em (D) It is not possible to reduce any assembly to l a s
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1
(B) k BT
g
2
a
the absolute zero of temperature by any
process however idealized in a finite 3
(C) k BT
number of operations 2
(D) 2kBT
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27. The mean free path of an atomic gas obeying 30. The total number of microstates for a system of 5
Maxwell’s distribution of velocities is : indistinguishable particles distributed over four
non-degenerate levels of energies 0, , 2, 3 is :
(A) Directly proportional to temperature
(B) Inversely proportional to temperature (A) 120
(C) Directly proportional to the size of the atoms (B) 625
(D) Directly proportional to the density of the (C) 1024
gas (D) 24
28. The coefficients of viscosity and diffusion for a 31. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
gas are 2.31 × 10–6 Nsm–2 and 1.78 × 10–6 m2 s–1,
(A) According to Planck’s law exchange of
respectively. Given the average molecular speed
energy between matter and radiation can
is 330 ms–1, the density and mean free path only take place in bundles of a certain size
respectively are :
(B) According to Planck’s law the quantum of
(A) 1.61 kg m–3 and 8.32 × 10–8 m energy is directly proportional to its
–3 –8
(B) 1.72 kg m and 6.32 × 10 m frequency
(C) 1.29 kg m–3 and 1.61 × 10–8 m (C) Radiation pressure is independent of the
–3
(D) 1.56 kg m and 8.32 × 10 m –8 volume of an enclosure and varies as the
fourth power of temperature is direct result
29. At absolute zero, the Fermi-Dirac distribution
of Wien’s law
function n() is given by :
(D) Planck’s law explains all the observed
(Where kB is the Boltzmann constant, T is the
results in the entire spectral range for
temperature and f is the Fermi energy)
blackbody radiation
1 32. A blackbody at temperature T emits radiation at
(A) n()
f a peak wavelength . If the temperature of the
k T
1
eB blackbody becomes 6T, the new peak wavelength
is :
1
(B) n()
f
k T
1 (A)
eB 6
1
(C) n() (B)
f 36
1
e BT
k
(C)
1 12
(D) n( )
f
1
ek B (D)
18
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37. If the intensity distribution produced by a single
33. Two harmonic waves represented by :
Y1 = 5 cos (12t – 13x)m and slit is represented as Isingle, then the distribution
Y2 = 5 cos (8t – 11x)m produced by a double slit in Fraunhofer
are superposed to form a wave group. The group diffraction is given by :
velocity of the wave group is : (A) Idouble = Isingle cos2
(A) 1 m/s (B) Idouble = 2Isingle cos2
m
.co
(B) 2 m/s (C) Idouble = 4Isingle cos2
m
co
(C) 3 m/s
m
(D) Idouble = Isingle cos
. s e
(D) 4 m/s
em la
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34. One-dimensional wave equation is represented
g
where d sin , and ‘d’ is the distance
l a a
ag
by :
between the two slits.
2 1 2
(A) 38. For = 10 × 10–5 cm, the most intense focal point
x 2 v 2 2 t of a zone-plate with raddi, r = 0.2n cm will be n
2 1 2 at a distance of :
(B)
x 2 v 2 t (A) 200 cm
1 2 (B) 400 cm
(C) 2 2 (C) 600 cm
x v t
m
co
(D) 800 cm
.
2
1 2
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(D) 2 2 39. The displacement y of a travelling wave in the
s
x v t x-direction is given by :
35. In the Newton’s Rings experiment if the incident
g l a
a
light consists of two wavelengths 4000 Å and y 10 5 sin 450 t 3x m
4002 Å then the distance (from the point of contact) 5
at which the rings will disappear is given by where x is in meters and t is in seconds, then the
(assume that the radius of curvature of the curved speed of the wave motion is :
surface is 400 cm) : (A) 450 m/s
(A) 8 cm (B) 100 m/s
(B) 4 cm (C) 150 m/s
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(C) 2 cm
(D) 300 m/s
m
c. o
(D) 1 cm
e m
40. The ratio of potential energy to the kinetic energy
s
36. In the Michelson interferometer arrangement, if
em a
of a body executing SHM when the displacement
s l
one of the mirrors is moved by a distance of
la ag
is equal to one-fourth of the amplitude is :
0.08 mm, 250 fringes cross the field of view. The
ag wavelength of monochromatic light used is : (A) 1 : 4
(A) 5400 Å (B) 1 : 16
(B) 6400 Å (C) 1 : 32
(C) 6800 Å (D) 1 : 15
(D) 5800 Å
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41. The photoelectric threshold wavelength for Nickel 45. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(work function of Ni = 5 eV) is : (A) In j–j coupling the spin and orbital angular
(A) 248 nm momentum of each particle add to give a
(B) 210 nm total angular momentum j for that particle,
(C) 560 nm and then J equals the sum of the individual
(D) 380 nm j vectors
42. The de Broglie wavelength of a tennis ball of mass (B) In L–S coupling the spins of all the particles
140 g after it is slammed across a wall with a and the orbital angular momenta of all the
speed of 15 m/s is approximately :
particles add to yield total S and total L,
(A) 2.7 × 10–33 m
which then add to yield J
(B) 2.7 × 10–34 m
(C) In presence of a magnetic field the splitting
(C) 3.4 × 10–33 m
of the energy levels in the atom gives rise to
(D) 3.1 × 10–34 m
a splitting of the spectral lines emitted by
43. The quantum mechanical operator for the
the atom
momentum of a particle moving in one dimension
is given by : (D) Atomic states with different n values but the
same j values have slightly different energies
d
(A) i because of the interaction of the spin of the
dx
electron with its orbital motion
d
(B) i 46. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
dx
(A) There are three generations of leptons, each
d consisting of a charged lepton and its related
(C) i
dt
neutrino
2 d (B) The photon is the most familiar lepton and
(D) i
dx is the only one that is stable
44. The ground state radial probability density for
(C) Muon is the second-generation lepton with
the Hydrogen atom is proportional to (where a0 is
a lifetime of 2.197 × 10–6 s
the Bohr Radius) :
r
(D) The tau neutrino is stable and has a weak
(A) r e
a0 isospin of 1/2
r 47. Which of the following set of -decay chains is
2 a0
(B) r e possible ?
2 r (A) 4n, (4n – 1), (4n – 2), (4n – 3)
(C) r 2 e a 0
(B) 4n, (4n + 1), (4n + 2), (4n + 3)
2r
(C) 4n, (4n + 2), (4n + 4), (4n + 8)
(D) r 2 e a 0
(D) 4n, (4n – 2), (4n – 4), (4n – 8)
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48. The colour charge of a quark has which of the 52. Identify the incorrect statement about the tunnel
following possible values ? diodes :
(A) Red, blue and green (A) Tunnel diodes are capable of very fast
(B) Yellow, blue and green operation by using quantum mechanical
(C) Yellow, blue and white effects
(D) Yellow, white and green
(B) The positive differential resistance in their
m
49. The reciprocal lattice corresponding to a direct
.co
operation, allows them to be used as
m
face-centred cubic lattice is a :
co
oscillators
. e m
(A) Face-centred lattice
m s
(C) In forward-biased tunnel diodes, there is a
e la
(B) Simple cubic lattice
s g
region in the V-I characteristics where an
a a
(C) Body-centred cubic lattice
l
ag
(D) Hexagonal lattice increase in forward voltage is accompanied
50. Choose the incorrect statement : by a decrease in forward current
(A) The heat capacity of most insulators at low (D) Tunnel diodes are p-n-junctions, where
temperatures is proportional to the cube of conduction band electron states on the n-side
the temperature are more or less aligned with valence band
(B) The heat capacity of most conductors at low hole states on the p-side
temperatures is proportional to the first 53. Which of the following semiconductor parameter
power of the temperature
m
can be determined from the knowledge of the Hall
co
(C) According to the Debye model, the heat
.
Coefficient ?
capacity of a solid at high temperatures is
em
(A) Fermi level and band gap
s
equal to 3 NkB, where N is the number of
l a
unit cells in the solid (B) Temperature coefficient of resistivity
a g
(D) According to the Einstein’s model, the heat (C) Mobility and concentration of charge
capacity of a solid at high temperatures is carriers
equal to 3NkB, where N is the number of (D) All the above parameters can be determined
unit cells in the solid 54. In a p-n junction diode, the current due to the
51. In winter, a metal block is cold to touch than a
majority electron carriers in the n region is given
wooden block, although both are at the same
temperature. The most appropriate reason is by (where I o is the current with no bias and V is
m
that : the forward bias applied) :
m c. o
(A) In metals, the heat energy is carried away
c. o
eV
m
by phonons only
e
(A) I o e kT
em a s
(B) In metals, the thermal conductivity is only
s l
eV
la ag
determined by free electrons (B) Io e kT
g
(C) In metals, the thermal conductivity is
a
eV 2
determined by both phonons and free
electrons, thereby making the coefficient of (C) I o e kT
thermal conductivity ‘K’ large eV 2
(D) It is because meals have small values of ‘K’ (D) I o e kT
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55. The ratio of conduction electron concentration 58. Which of the following statements is NOT true ?
(per cm3) at room temperature of a typical metal (A) For an ideal MOSFET biased in saturation,
(copper) t o that of a typical int rinsic the magnitude of the small signal current gain
semiconductor (germanium) is approximately for a common drain amplifier is infinite
equal to : (B) MOSFET is a voltage-controlled device
(A) 1022 (C) When the drain voltage in an n-MOSFET is
(B) 1018 negative, it operates in inactive region
(C) 1010 (D) MOSFET can be used as a voltage-
controlled inductor
(D) 1014
59. Which of the following statements is correct ?
56. The application of a magnetic field on a
(A) RC coupling is used for power amplification
semiconductor :
(B) The frequency response of transformer
(A) Decreases the resistivity of a semiconductor
coupling is excellent
and produces a decrease in the magnitude
(C) The voltage gain is practically expressed in
of the Hall coefficient
dB
(B) Increase the resistivity of a semiconductor
(D) The final stage of a multistage amplifier uses
and produces an increase in the magnitude
RC coupling
of the Hall coefficient
60. The output voltage of the circuit below is :
(C) Decreases the resistivity of a semiconductor
and produces an increase in the magnitude
of the Hall coefficient
10
(D) Increases the resistivity of a semiconductor
and produces a decrease in the magnitude +5 V
of the Hall coefficient
15 Vout
57. For using a transistor as an amplifier, the correct
option regarding the resistances of base-emitter
(RBE) and base-collector (RBC) junctions is :
(A) 3V
(A) Very high RBE and very low RBC
(B) 6V
(B) Very low RBE and very high RBC
(C) 9V
(C) Both RBE and RBC are very low
(D) 12V
(D) Both RBE and RBC are very high
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m
co
m m .co
m . s e
a s e g la
l a
ag
m
. co
s em
g l a
a
m
m c. o
c. o s e m
s em l a
gla ag
a
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ROUGH WORK
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