Odisha CPET 2020 Question Paper Geology

COMMON P. G. ENTRANCE TEST – 2020

Test Booklet No. :

DEPT. OF HIGHER EDUCATION, GOVT. OF ODISHA
TEST BOOKLET

Subject Code 22 Subject GEOLOGY

Time Allowed : 90 Minutes Full Marks : 70
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XL – 37/10 ( Turn over )

XL – 37/10 (2) ( Continued )

1. The normal magnetic polarity epoch younger to Gilbert Reverse and older to Matuyama
Reverse is known as —————.
(A) Gauss Normal
(B) Brunhes Normal
(C) Hutton Normal
(D) Gilbert Normal

2. Which supercontinent of the following existed during the Late Palaeozoic Era ?
(A) Rodinia
(B) Gondwana
(C) Panthalassa
(D) Pangea
3. Compared to Delhi, Earth’s normal gravity field at Colombo is —————.
(A) Smaller as Sri Lanka is surrounded by water
(B) Larger as the Oceanic crust below Sri Lanka is shallower
(C) Smaller because of Colombo’s geographic location
(D) Larger as Sri Lanka is isostatically compensated

4. Guyots are formed in —————.
(A) Oceans
(B) Mountains
(C) Deserts
(D) Riverbeds

5. The East- African rift valley is a good example of —————.
(A) Oceanic- oceanic convergent boundary
(B) Oceanic- continental convergent boundary
(C) Continent- continent divergent boundary
(D) Continent- continent transform boundary

6. Which of the following is the gem variety of olivine ?
(A) Amethyst
(B) Sapphire
(C) Aquamarine
(D) Peridot
XL – 37/10 (3) ( Turn over )

7. The difference in number of faces in forms {hk1} and {111} in the holosymmetric
class of the isometric system is ——————. .
(A) 40
(B) 43
(C) 48
(D) 20

8. Two minerals P and Q were studied under the microscope. Mineral P is characterised
by two orthogonal cleavages. Mineral Q has more than one set of cleavage, but not
at right angles. Q also changes relief on the rotation of the stage. Identify P and Q
from the following alternatives :
(A) P- diopside, Q- calcite
(B) P- diopside, Q- hornblende
(C) P- hornblende, Q- calcite
(D) P- calcite, Q- diopside

9. Which is sodium rich mica ?
(A) Biotite
(B) Muscovite
(C) Paragonite
(D) Lepidolite

10. Dodecahedron and trapezohedron are the common forms of —————.
(A) Feldspar group
(B) Garnet group
(C) Mica group
(D) Amphibole group

11. Chemical composition of Earth’s core is similar to that of —————.
(A) Chondritic meteorite
(B) Achondritic meteorites
(C) Stony meteorite
(D) Iron meteorites

XL – 37/10 (4) ( Continued )

12. The most abundant element in the Earth’s crust is —————.
(A) Aluminium
(B) Oxygen
(C) Iron
(D) Carbon

13. Which phenomenon is responsible for the production of about 80% of the Earth’s
internal heat ?
(A) Radioactive decay
(B) Magnetic decay
(C) Friction between tectonic plates
(D) The accelerated spin of the inner core

14. What is the third most abundant element (after H and He) in the solar system ?
(A) O
(B) Fe
(C) Si
(D) Ni

15. What is the average geothermal gradient in the top 15 km of a continental crust ?
(A) 30C/km
(B) 300C/km
(C) 500C/km
(D) 1000C/km

16. An ore body is dipping 30 degree towards west on a flat topography. At what distance
in metres should a bore hole be placed so that it intersects the ore body perpendicularly
at a vertical depth of 70 metre ?
(A) 121.2
(B) 161.63
(C) 140.4
(D) 70.63

17. An outcrop in which younger rocks surround older rocks is known as —————.
(A) Overlap
(B) Offlap
(C) Outlier
(D) Inlier

XL – 37/10 (5) ( Turn over )

18. If the heave of a fault is zero, then the fault is —————.
(A) High angle fault
(B) Low angle fault
(C) Horizontal fault
(D) Vertical fault

19. Structure contours of a bedding plane at 150m interval are spaced in such a
manner that the horizontal equivalent is also 150m. The dip of the bedding plane is
—————.
(A) 300
(B) 450
(C) 600
(D) 900

20. A ‘culmination’ may be described as a combination of —————.
(A) Two anticlines of different sets of folding
(B) Two synclines of different sets of folding
(C) An anticline and a syncline of same set of folding
(D) An anticline and a syncline of different sets of folding

21. Quartz is a diagnostic mineral in —————.
(A) Oversaturated rock
(B) Saturated rock
(C) Under saturated rock
(D) Unsaturated rock

22. The degree of freedom on the liquidus curve of a binary system is —————.
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3

23. Which one of the following igneous rocks has the composition of granite and a
predominance of large mineral crystal ?
(A) Basalt
(B) Rhyolite
(C) Gabbro
(D) Pegmatite

XL – 37/10 (6) ( Continued )

24. Plagioclase occurs in anorthosite as well as in granodiorite. The plagioclase
composition in granodiorite is —————.
(A) More or less similar to that in anorthosite
(B) More potassic
(C) More calcic
(D) More sodic

25. The igneous rock comprising mainly of olivine and orthopyroxene is called as
—————.
(A) Wherlite
(B) Gabbro
(C) Harzburgite
(D) Websterite

26. In a flow regime, the bedforms formed with increasing current velocity are
—————.
(A) Dunes - ripples - plane beds - antidunes
(B) Ripples - plane beds - dunes - antidunes
(C) Antidunes - dunes - ripples - plane beds
(D) Plane beds - ripples - dunes - antidunes

27. A turbidite deposit contains the following in a sequence of —————.
(a) Massive beds
(b) Upper parallel lamination
(c) Lower parallel lamination
(d) Structureless mud
(e) Ripple cross lamination
(A) a–e–b–c–d
(B) b–a–e–d–c
(C) a – c – e – b – d
(D) d – c – e – b – a

28. In rock records, extreme floods and rainfall events are likely to be represented by
thick bedded units of —————.
(A) Poorly sorted sediments
(B) Large scale cross beds
(C) Parallel laminated fine sand
(D) Imbricated gravels
XL – 37/10 (7) ( Turn over )

29. Mud supported limestone containing greater than 10% allochem is called
—————.
(A) Packstone
(B) Wackestone
(C) Grainstone
(D) Mudstone

30. Which of the following structures are developed in upper flow regime (F > 1) ?
(A) Ripples
(B) Dunes
(C) Antidunes
(D) All of these

31. In ACF diagram, “F” stands for —————.
(A) F = FeO
(B) F = FeO + MgO + (Na2O + K2O)
(C) F = FeO + MgO + MnO
(D) F= FeO – (MgO + MnO)

32. Which pair of rock types best describes the products of metamorphism in the contact
aureole ?
(A) Slate and schist
(B) Schist and hornfels
(C) Schist and skarn
(D) Hornfels and skarn

33. The metamorphic facies diagnostic of subduction zone is —————.
(A) Hornblende facies
(B) Pyroxene hornfels
(C) Blue schist
(D) Granulite

34. A metamorphic rock consisting of pyroxene, plagioclase and quartz and exhibiting
hornfelsic texture has undergone ————— metamorphism.
(A) Regional
(B) Contact
(C) Cataclastic
(D) Impact

XL – 37/10 (8) ( Continued )

35. Greisenisation associated with Sn- W mineralisation involves the replacement of the
original mineral assemblage by —————.
(A) Quartz + calcite
(B) Muscovite + chlorite
(C) Quartz + chlorite
(D) Quartz + muscovite

36. Venus belongs to phylum —————.
(A) Brachiopoda
(B) Pelecypoda
(C) Gastropoda
(D) Cephalopoda

37. Which one of the following plant fossils indicates Triassic age of the sediments ?
(A) Ptillophylum
(B) Trizygia
(C) Dicroidium
(D) Cordaites

38. Suture line with rounded saddles and angular lobes is called as —————.
(A) Orthoceratite type
(B) Ceratite type
(C) Goniatite type
(D) Nautiloid type

39. Which one among the following is a phosphatic micro-fossil ?
(A) Foraminifera
(B) Cocolithophore
(C) Radiolaria
(D) Conodont

40. “Ediacaran fossils” have significance in determining the —————.
(A) Archean / Proterozoic boundary
(B) Cretaceous / Tertiary boundary
(C) Precambrian / Cambrian boundary
(D) Permian / Triassic boundary

XL – 37/10 (9) ( Turn over )

41. Which one of the following represent the longest time period ?
(A) Precambrian
(B) Mesozoic
(C) Palaeozoic
(D) Cenozoic

42. Kaladgi Group belongs to —————.
(A) Archaean
(B) Proterozoic
(C) Palaeozoic
(D) Mesozoic

43. Dhokpathan Formation is overlain by —————.
(A) Pinjor Formation
(B) Tatrot Formation
(C) Nagri Formation
(D) Chinji Formation

44. Deccan flood basalts are considered to be related to —————.
(A) Hawaii hotspot
(B) Iceland hotspot
(C) Reunion hotspot
(D) Easter hotspot

45. Which among the following microscopic bands of coal is the brightest ?
(A) Vitrain
(B) Clarain
(C) Durain
(D) Fusain

46. The volume of water that an aquifer releases from or takes into storage per unit
surface area of aquifer per unit drop of water table or piezometric surface is called
—————.
(A) Storage coefficient or storativity
(B) Transmissivity
(C) Specific yield
(D) Safe yield

XL – 37/10 ( 10 ) ( Continued )

47. Zone of saturation is also known as —————.
(A) Vadose zone
(B) Capillary zone
(C) Phreatic zone
(D) Aeration zone

48. When an artesian condition is developed ?
(A) Piezometric surface falls below the bottom of upper confining bed
(B) Water table is perched
(C) Aquifer is unconfined
(D) Piezometric surface is above the groundwater table

49. Maximum porosity is seen in which soil —————.
(A) Sandy soil
(B) Silty soil
(C) Clayey soil
(D) Loam soil

50. A unit which is semi-permeable and does not yield any significant quantity of
groundwater is called —————.
(A) Aquiclude
(B) Aquifer
(C) Aquitard
(D) Artesian aquifer

51. Chalk Hill of Salem, Tamil Nadu is famous for —————.
(A) Limestone
(B) Barite
(C) China clay
(D) Magnesite

52. Commercial magnesite deposit can be hosted in —————.
(A) Serpentinite
(B) Potassic granite
(C) Gabbro
(D) Nepheline syenite

XL – 37/10 ( 11 ) ( Turn over )

53. Match the following :
Group – I Group – II
(a) Lead (i) Magmatic
(b) Aluminium (ii) Pegmatitic
(c) Chromite (iii) Residual
(d) Muscovite (iv) Hydrothermal
(A) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(B) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(D) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

54. ‘Comb structure’ with ‘symmetrical banding’ is formed by —————.
(A) Early magmatic process
(B) Hydrothermal process
(C) Chemical sedimentary process
(D) Residual concentration process

55. Blue asbestos is another name of —————.
(A) Amosite
(B) Tremolite
(C) Actinolite
(D) Crocidolite

56. If a stream maintains the same course after upliftment in an area, it is known
as —————.
(A) Consequent (B) Subsequent
(C) Resequent (D) Antecedent

57. Which of the following is a wind-blown deposit ?
(A) Till (B) Bajada
(C) Varve (D) Loess

58. Point bar deposit is associated with —————.
(A) Braided river (B) Estuary
(C) Meandering river (D) Beach

XL – 37/10 ( 12 ) ( Continued )

59. The geomorphic feature horns are formed by —————.
(A) Wind erosion (B) River erosion
(C) Wind deposition (D) Glacial erosion

60. Which glacial feature can not be used to predict the glacial movements ?
(A) Eskers (B) Crescentic gouges
(C) Horn (D) Drumlin

61. Brazilian test is used for the —————.
(A) Determination of tensile strength of rocks
(B) Determination of indirect compressive strength of rocks
(C) Determination of coefficient of compressibility of soils
(D) Determination of in situ stress

62. Match the following :
Group – I Group – II
(a) Creep (i) Tongue- shaped mass movement
(b) Earth flow (ii) Curved tree trunks
(c) Slump (iii) Scree formation at the base
(iv) Curved surface of rupture
(A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv)
(B) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii)
(C) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i)
(D) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii)

63. The most sluggish process of mass wasting is —————.
(A) Creep (B) Flow
(C) Slide (D) Fall

64. An adit is an underground excavation, which is —————.
(A) A horizontal opening giving access to main tunnel
(B) A horizontal opening used for transporting water to powerhouse
(C) A vertical opening used for multipurpose
(D) An inclined opening providing access to main tunnel

XL – 37/10 ( 13 ) ( Turn over )

65. Which of the following is the most favourable geological condition for the construction
of a gravity dam ?
(A) Strata dipping downstream in narrow valley
(B) Strata dipping upstream in wide valley
(C) Strata dipping downstream in wide valley
(D) Strata dipping towards abetment in narrow valley

66. How a large city generally appears on a 1 : 25000 scale map ?
(A) As a single point
(B) As a cluster of points, lines and polygons
(C) As a polygon
(D) As a cluster of points

67. The RF of the geological map prepared on a scale of 5cm = 1km is —————.
(A) 1 : 20000 (B) 1 : 2000
(C) 1 : 10000 (D) 1 : 1000

68. In a truly vertical aerial photograph, ———————————————.
(A) The principal point and nadir point only coincide
(B) The principal point and isocentre only coincide
(C) The nadir point and isocentre only coincide
(D) The principal point, nadir point and isocentre must all coincide

69. During refination of bauxite the waste generated is —————.
(A) Red mud (B) Fly ash
(C) Bottom ash (D) Char

70. A flash flood is a flood that —————.
(A) Occurs in rural areas for a longer duration due to drizzle
(B) Occurs in urban areas
(C) Occurs suddenly and unexpectedly for a short duration
(D) Is caused by drying of drains

XL – 37/10 ( 14 ) ( Continued )

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

XL – 37/10 (1,310) ( 15 ) Geology