RPF SI 2024 Question Paper 09 Dec All Shifts (in English)

FOR RPF SI EXAM PREPARATION

RPF SI 2024
Question Paper · All
Shifts English
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT DATE

RPF SI 2024 Question Paper All Shifts English 09 Dec

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Community SC
Test Center
iON Digital Zone iDZ Albert Road
Name
Test Date 09/12/2024
Test Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
Recruitment of Sub Inspector Executive in Railway
Subject
Protection Force and Railway Protection Special Force
* Note
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.

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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : Arithmetic .co s em
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Q.1 12 chefs can make 96 dishes in 4 hours. Find the average dishes that can be made by each chef in an hour.

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Ans
a 1. 8

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2. 4

3. 2

4. 6

Q.2 Find the surface area of a sphere whose diameter is equal to 8 cm.
Ans 1. 786 cm2

2. 64 cm2

3. 87 cm2

4. 543 cm2

Q.3 The smallest natural number which is divisible by 40, 16, 8 and 24 is:
Ans 1. 240
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2. 270

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3. 332

4. 226

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Q.4
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Chandu covers 245 km in a boat in 30 hours against the stream and he takes 21 hours with the stream then find the speed of

Ans
the stream?
1. 10.88 km/h

2. 5.75 km/h
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3. 1.75 km/h

4. 7.18 km/h

Q.5 A sum, when invested at 10% simple interest per annum, amounts to ₹9360 after 3 years. What is the simple interest (in ₹)
on the same sum at the same rate in 1 year?
Ans 1. 360

2. 2880

3. 720

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4. 1440

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Q.6 During sale, Raghav bought a notebook marked for ₹100 at 86% discount and a pen marked for ₹95 at 40% discount. How

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much (in ₹) did he save due to sale?

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Ans 1. 121

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2. 124

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4. 126

A man walks to a viewpoint and returns to the starting point by his car maintaining constant speed and thus takes a total
time of 7 hours 15 minutes. He would have gained 6 hours by driving both ways. How long would it have taken for him to
walk both ways with same walking speed?
Ans 1. 12 hours 15 minutes

2. 14 hours 30 minutes

3. 13 hours 15 minutes

4. 13 hours 45 minutes

Q.8 The expenditure of Sudha is 100% more than her savings. If her expenditure decreases by 2% and savings increase by 10%,
then by what percent does her income increase?

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Ans 1. 0.05

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2. 0.06

3. 0.01

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4. 0.02
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Q.9
If , where p/q is a simplest form, then find the sum of the digits of q.

Ans 1. 5

2. 8

3. 6

4. 7

Q.10 Two trains of equal length are running on parallel lines in the same direction at speeds of 97 km/h and 21 km/h. The faster
train passes the slower train in 45 seconds. The length of each train is:
Ans 1. 466 meters

2. 475 meters

3. 477 meters

4. 472 meters

Q.11 The area of a square plot is 29929 m 2 . The length of each side of the plot (in m) is:
Ans 1. 163

2. 173

3. 197

4. 177

Q.12

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.13 Shweta and Monika invest in a business in the ratio 2 : 1. If total profit is Rs. 1347, then what is difference between the profit
(in Rs.) of Shweta and Monika?
Ans 1. 549

2. 599

3. 399

4. 449

Q.1
4

Ans 1. 30%

2. 35%

3. 20%

4. 10%

Q.15 The sides of a triangle are 60 cm, 75 cm, and 45 cm. What is its area? (in cm2 )
Ans 1. 1390

2. 1307

3. 1385

4. 1350

Q.16 Simplify the following:

Ans 1. 155

2. 158

3. 155.76

4. 158.76

Q.17 The average of eight numbers is 20. The average of five of these numbers is 18. The average of the remaining three numbers
is
Ans 1. 24.33

2. 25.33

3. 22.33

4. 23.33

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 2 of 48

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Q.18

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Ans 1. 78 : 53

2. 45 : 34

3. 81 : 68

4. 38 : 29

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A 1. ₹120 per kg

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4. ₹135 per kg

Q.20 What time (in seconds) is required for a 188 m long train to cross a 472 m long tunnel, if the train travels at a speed of 27
km/h?
Ans 1. 98

2. 80

3. 79

4. 88

Q.21 The smallest natural number which is divisible by 13, 6, 24 and 39 is:
Ans 1. 340

2. 243

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3. 312

4. 359

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Q.22

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A bank offers 2.6% compound interest per annum calculated on a half-yearly basis. A customer deposits ₹8565 each on 1
January and 1 July of a year. At the end of the year, the amount he would have gained by way of interest is ________. [Give
your answer correct to 2 decimal places.]
Ans 1. ₹325.48

2. ₹335.48 ag
3. ₹343.66

4. ₹323.72

Q.23 A trader gives 5% discount on the marked price of an article and gives 4 articles free for buying 14 articles and gains 33% in
the entire transaction. Assuming a customer pays for 14 articles, the marked price of an article is what per cent more than
its cost price?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

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4.

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Q.24 Lalit's average earning per month in the first three months of a year was ₹4184. In April, his earning was 50% more than the

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average earning in the first three months. If his average earning per month for the whole year is ₹17553, then what will be

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Lalit's average earning (in ₹) per month from May to December?

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3. 23976

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4. 23979

If x varies inversely as y3 - 1 and is equal to 6 when y = 3, find x when y = 9.
Ans
1.

2.

3.

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4.

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Q
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2
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A 1. 8.545 inches
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2. 8.455 inches

3. 8.454 inches

4. 8.544 inches

Q.27 A number when increased by 50 %', gives 3780. The number is:
Ans 1. 5040

2. 2520

3. 1260

4. 7560

Q.28 The smallest 1-digit number to be added to the 6-digit number 777288 so that it is completely divisible by 11 is:
Ans 1. 9

2. 5

3. 7

4. 1

Q.29 The smallest 1-digit number to be added to the 6-digit number 489483 so that it is completely divisible by 11 is:
Ans 1. 3

2. 5

3. 4

4. 6

Q.30
Find the value of

Ans 1. 233

2. 234

3. 228

4. 232

Q.31 The average of 7 numbers is 55. If each number is increased by 6, what will the new average be?
Ans 1. 55

2. 67

3. 61

4. 7

Q.32 Ruchi and Sheetal invest in a business in the ratio 9 : 6. If total profit is Rs. 2775, then what is difference between the profit
(in Rs.) of Ruchi and Sheetal?
Ans 1. 405

2. 705

3. 605

4. 555

Q.33 The selling price of 32 books is equal to the cost price of 24 books. Find the loss or gain percentage.
Ans 1. 25 % loss

2.

3. 25 % gain

4.

Q.34 Which of the following fractions is the largest?

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 4 of 48

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Q.35 A bank offers 3.8% compound interest per annum calculated on a half-yearly basis. A customer deposits ₹2710 each on 1

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January and 1 July of a year. At the end of the year, the amount he would have gained by way of interest is ________. [Give

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your answer correct to 2 decimal places.]

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Ans 1. ₹155.44

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2. ₹170.5

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3. ₹174.88

4. ₹175.44
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Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.36 Each of the digits in the number 71248935 is arranged in descending order from left to right. Which of the following digits
will be fifth from the right?
Ans 1. 7

2. 3

3. 4

4. 5

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Q.37 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given below. Both pairs follow the same

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pattern.

QRL : TTM
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WVN : ZXO
Ans 1. SWV : WZX

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2. KUQ : MYS

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3. CZP : FBQ

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4. MBK : OGM

Q.38 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus
form a group. Which is the letter-cluster pair that DOES NOT belong to that group?

(Note: The odd man out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. FL-IO

2. BH-EK

3. NU-RX

4. JP-MS

Q.39 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the informa on given in the statements is true,
even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically

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follow(s) from the statements.

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Statements:
All peas are carrots.
All carrots are onions.

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Some onions are brinjals.

Conclusions:
(I): Some peas are brinjals.
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Ans
(II): Some carrots are brinjals.
1. Both conclusions I and II follow a
2. Only conclusion II follows

3. Only conclusion I follows

4. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Q.40 Refer to the following letter, number and symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left
to right only.
(Left) 7 J £ W € 2 Q £ K £ 6 1 D U & 1 4 M Y * V X (Right)
If all the numbers are dropped from the series, which of the following will be eighth from the left?
Ans 1. K

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2. €

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3. £

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4. D

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Q.41 This question is based on the following words.
WAR PIN AND FEW

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l as formed will have no vowel?

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If in each of the words, each letter is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical order, how many words thus

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Ans 1. 3

a 2. 4

3. 2

4. 1

Q.42 In a certain code language, ‘LIKE’ is coded as ‘5427’ and ‘EARS’ is coded as ‘6314’. What is the code for ‘E’ in the given code
language?
Ans 1. 1

2. 6

3. 4

4. 7

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Q.43 Refer to the following letter and symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right
only.

(Left) Y # E S * £ B K Ω G C & T % Q & R D A @ U $ (Right)

How many such symbols are there each of which is immediately preceded by another symbol and also immediately followed
by a letter?
Ans 1. 3

2. 0

3. 2

4. 1

Q.44 Select the triad that follows the same pattern as the one followed by the two triads given below. Both triads follow the same
pattern.

OK-RN-TW
MI-PL-RU
Ans 1. KG-NJ-PS

2. KG-NJ-PR

3. LG-NJ-PR

4. LG-NI-PR

Q.45 In a certain code language, ‘CROP’ is coded as ‘4317’ and ‘COIR’ is coded as ‘4237’. What is the code for ‘I’ in the given code
language?
Ans 1. 7

2. 4

3. 2

4. 3

Q.46 Which of the following letter-clusters should replace # and % so that the pattern and relationship followed between the
letter-cluster pair on the left side of :: is the same as that on the right side of ::?
# : LOU :: ADJ : %
Ans 1. # = HKQ; % = FHN

2. # = HKQ; % = EHM

3. # = HKO; % = EHN

4. # = HKQ; % = EHN

Q.47 Seven boxes K, L, M, N, O, P and T are kept one over the other, but not necessarily in the same order. Only M is kept above
O. Only P is kept between O and T. Only N is kept below K. How many boxes are kept between L and M?
Ans 1. Three

2. Four

3. One

4. Two

Q.48 If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number 5834671, which of the following digits
will be first from the right in the new number thus formed?
Ans 1. 5

2. 4

3. 2

4. 8

Q.49 G, H, I, J, M, N and O are si ng around a square table facing the centre of the table.
Only ve people sit between H and G. O sits to the immediate le of G. Only one person sits between O and I. J sits
at some place to the le of N but at some place to the right of M.
Who sits third from the le end of the line?
Ans 1. G

2. I

3. O

4. J
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For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 6 of 48

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Q.50 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

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Ans

1.

2.

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3.

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4.

Q.51 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

29 36 50 71 99 ?
Ans 1. 136

2. 132

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3. 138

4. 134

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Q.52 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a

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group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group?

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(Note: The odd man out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. FGE

2. QRP a
3. AZX

4. KLJ

Q.53 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, what will be come in place of question mark ‘?’ in
the following equation?
31 C 25 B 32 A 40 D 32 = ?
Ans 1. 21

2. 19

3. 20

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4. 17

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Q.54 Each of A, B, C, D, P, Q and R has an exam on a different day of a week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of the

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same week. Only two people have exam before R. Only one person has exam after A. Only three people have exam between
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R and Q. Only one person has exam between C and D. P has exam immediately before C. Who among the following has

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Ans 1. B

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4. P

Q.55 Yangden starts from Point A and drives 14 km towards south. He then takes a right turn, drives 13 km, turns right and drives
17 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 19 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 3 km and stops at Point P. How far
(shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90 degrees
turns only unless specified)
Ans 1. 2 km to the west

2. 5 km to the west

3. 6 km to the west

4. 4 km to the west

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Q.56 Two sets of numbers are given below. In each set of numbers, certain mathematical operation(s) on the first number
result(s) in the second number. Similarly, certain mathematical operation(s) on the second number result(s) in the third
number and so on. Which of the given options follows the same set of operations as in the given sets?
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
3 - 4 - 5 - 10 ; 1 - 2 - 3 - 6
Ans 1. 8 - 9 - 10 - 20

2. 7 - 8 - 9 - 10

3. 12 - 13 - 14 - 20

4. 17 - 18 - 19 - 20

Q.57 Mayank starts from Point A and drives 9 km towards the South. He then takes a left turn, drives 11 km, turns left and drives
15 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 12 km. He takes a final left turn, drives 6 km and stops at Point P. How far
(shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90 degrees
turns only unless specified)
Ans 1. 1 km to the east

2. 1 km to the west

3. 2 km to the west

4. 2 km to the east

Q.58 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.59 Refer to the following letter, number, symbol series and answer the question that follows.
(Left) R % C & E 2 S 4 # 5 K & 7 G Y @ 3 6 T * D (Right)

How many such symbols are there, which are immediately preceded by a letter and also immediately followed by a number?
Ans 1. None

2. One

3. Two

4. Three

Q.60 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Only two people sit between A and D, when
counted from the left of D. E sits third to the left of B. C sits to the immediate right of B. C sits second to the left of A. G is an
immediate neighbour of E. How many people sit between B and E, when counted from the left of B?
Ans 1. 3

2. 4

3. 2

4. 1

Q.61 Six people, named W, X, Y, Z, T and U, each are of different ages. The age of T is 24. The age of W is one-fourth times the age
of U. The age of Z is half times the age of X. The age of U is three times the age of Z. The age of T is two times the age of W.
If The age of X is four times the age of Y. What is the age of Y?
Ans 1. 12

2. 8

3. 13

4. 15

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Q.62 Four of the following five figures are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which figure DOES NOT belong to that

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group?

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Ans 1. D

2. E

3. A

4. C

Q.63 86 is related to 298 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 105 is related to 317. To which of the following is 48
related, following the same logic?
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13
– Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting /multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing

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mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

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Ans 1. 260

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2. 250

3. 280
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4. 270

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Q.64
as Each of P, Q, R, S, T, U and V has an exam on a different day of a week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of the
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same week. S has an exam on Friday. Only 2 people have an exam between S and R. Q has an exam immediately before T
and U has an exam immediately after V. Only 2 people have an exam between P and T. How many people have an exam
before T?
Ans 1. 2

2. 3

3. 4

4. 1

Q.65 S is the wife of D. D is the brother of F. F is the father of G. G is the mother of H. How is S related to H?
Ans 1. Mother's father's brother's wife

2. Father's mother's brother's wife

3. Mother's mother's brother's wife

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4. Father's father's brother's wife

Q.66 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a

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group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group?
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Ans
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(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
1. OQN

2. YAX

3. HKG ag
4. DFC

Q.67 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

IFM KHO MJQ OLS ?
Ans 1. QNU

2. QMU

3. QMV

4. QNV

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Q.68 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

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EGB, FHF, GIJ, HJN, ?

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Ans 1. IKR

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2. RIK

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a Q.69

Ans
Z is the mother of S. P is the daughter of Q. G is the husband of Z. Q is the son of R. S is the mother of P. How is G related to
Q?
1. Mother’s brother

2. Sister’s husband

3. Wife’s father

4. Brother’s son

Q.70 In a certain code language, ‘enjoy every moment’ is coded as ‘ut mb tk’ and ‘moment of clarity’ is coded as ‘tk mo mt’. How
is ‘moment’ coded in the given language?
Ans 1. mb

2. mo

3. tk
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4. ut

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Section : General Awareness

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Q.71 Where are the Lakshadweep Islands located?
Ans 1. Close to the Konkan coast of Maharashtra

2. Close to the Coromandel coast of Andhra Pradesh

3. Close to the Malabar coast of Kerala

4. Close to the Coromandel coast of Tamil Nadu

Q.72 Who among the following formed the Ghadr (Gadar) Party to organise a rebellion against the British government of India in
the USA?
Ans 1. Subhash Chandra Bose

2. Ram Prasad Bismil

3. Sachindra Nath Bakshi

4. Lala Hardayal

Q.73 Who is the Minister of State for Defence as of August 2024 in India?
Ans 1. Amrendra Tiwari

2. Vijay Bhatt

3. Alok Tiwari

4. Sanjay Seth

Q.74 Who among the following is an Indian-origin Satellite Industry Expert who was appointed as Director of United Nations
Office for Outer Space Affairs in June 2023?
Ans 1. Michael Rao

2. Behruz Sethna

3. Kaushik Basu

4. Aarti Holla-Maini

Q.75 Which of the following is NOT a class of sub phylum vertebrata?
Ans 1. Arachnida

2. Reptilia

3. Mammals

4. Aves

Q.76 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
Ans 1. The first phase of the green revolution was started around the mid-1950s.

2. The green revolution enabled the government to procure a sufficient amount of food grains to build a stock.

3. The spread of green revolution technology enabled India to achieve self-sufficiency in food grains.

4. The use of High yielding variety seeds was restricted to the more affluent states.

Q.77 In which of the following years was the battle of Bannihatti fought?
Ans 1. 1556

2. 1560

3. 1565

4. 1558

Q.78 The Chamoli, Pithoragarh and Almora districts are part of which biosphere reserve?
Ans 1. Similipal

2. Nokrek

3. Nanda Devi

4. Cold Desert

Q.79 Which former Indian shooter became the first Indian President of the Olympic Council of Asia (OCA) in 2024?
Ans 1. Joydeep Karmakar

2. Vijay Kumar

3. Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore

4. Raja Randhir Singh

Q.80 In which of the following Articles are there provisions related to establishment of the Election Commission?
Ans 1. Article 330

2. Article 324

3. Article 353

4. Article 343

Q.81 Field lines serve as a representation of a magnetic field. They represent a path along which:
Ans 1. a free electron would tend to move

2. a free proton would tend to move

3. a hypothetical free south pole would tend to move

4. a hypothetical free north pole would tend to move

Q.82 Who became the President of Mexico in June 2024 who was a climate scientist and former mayor of Mexico City?
Ans 1. Felipe Calderon

2. Claudia Sheinbaum

3. Andres Manuel Lopez Obrador

4. Enrique Pena Nieto

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Q.83 ‘The service of mankind is a means to salvation’. This slogan was propounded by Gangadhar Chattopadhyay. He was

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associated with __________

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Ans 1. Arya Samaj

m . 2. Brahmo Samaj

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3. Ramakrishna Mission

4. Prarthana Samaj
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Q.84 Who among the following is revered as 'Karnataka Sangita Pitamaha'? a
Ans 1. Muthuswami Dikshitar Dasa

2. Annamacharya Dasa

3. Tyagaraja Dasa

4. Purandara Dasa

Q.85 Who among the following Mughal Princes allied with Malik Ambar and revolted against his father?
Ans 1. Jahangir

2. Akbar

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3. Shah Jahan

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4. Aurangzeb

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Q.86 Which of the following bills was passed in Parliament to regulate the appointment, conditions of service and term of office

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of the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners, the procedure for transaction of business by the

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Election Commission and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto?

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Ans

l as 1. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners (Procedure for Transaction of Business) Bill, 2024

2. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners (Appointment Conditions of Service and Term of Office)
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Bill, 2023
3. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners (Procedure for Transaction of Business) Bill, 2023

4. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners (Appointment Conditions of Service and Term of Office)
Bill, 2024

Q.87 Who among the following wrote ‘The Palace of Illusions’?
Ans 1. Aravind Adiga

2. Chitra Banerjee Divakaruni

3. Gayatri Sinha

4. Rajiv Malhotra

Q.88 Which of the following rivers is NOT a part of the Deccan river system?
Ans 1. Krishna
m
.co
2. Godavari

3. Cauvery

e m
4. Sutlej

las
Q.89
Ans 1. Pandavani

2. Devara Nama
ag
Which of the following compositions reflects the devotional form of Carnatic music?

3. Hori

4. Alha

Q.90 Which of the following dams is not located in Uttarakhand?
Ans 1. Ramganga Dam

2. Lakhwar Dam

3. Tehri Dam

4. Nagi Dam

m
.co
Q.91 On which of the following scientific principles does a steam engine work?

m
.co
Ans 1. Superconductivity

2. Photoelectric effect
e m
e m 3. Laws of thermodynamics

l as
l as 4. Newton’s laws of motion

ag
ag Q.92
Ans
When is the Marginal Rate of Substitution (MRS) of Y for X relevant?
1. When the consumer is ready to give up X for an additional unit of Y

2. When the consumer acquires additional units of both X and Y

3. When the consumer ready to give up both X and Y

4. When the consumer is ready to give up Y for an additional unit of X

Q.93 The child sex ratio (females per 1000 males) in India from 1951 to 2011:
Ans 1. decreased

2. increased

3. increased and then decreased

4. was stable

m .
.co m
Q.94 What is the tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner of India?
Ans

m
1. At the pleasure of the President

s e
s e
2. Five years or till the age of 60 years, whichever is earlier
l a
l a ag
3. Six years

ag 4. Six years or till the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 11 of 48

Q.95 Onam festival is celebrated in which of the following states of India?
Ans 1. Kerela

2. Gujarat

3. Maharashtra

4. Arunachal Pradesh

Q.96 Who among the following former RAW Chiefs has written the book titled ‘A Life in the Shadows: A Memoir’?
Ans 1. Alok Joshi

2. Arvind Dave

3. AS Dulat

4. JS Bedi

Q.97 Where was the 0832 India Open Competition – Rifle and Pistol 2024 organised and conducted by the National Rifle
Association of India in August 2024?
Ans 1. Aligarh

2. Panipat

3. Delhi

4. Goa

Q.98 Which of the following committees recommended the use of Mixed Reference Period against Uniform Reference Period?
Ans 1. NITI Aayog

2. National Sample Survey Organisation

3. Tendulkar Expert Group

4. C Rangrajan Committee

Q.99 According to the Census of India 2011, from the given options, which state recorded the lowest literacy rate?
Ans 1. Uttarakhand

2. Arunachal Pradesh

3. Haryana

4. Meghalaya

Q.100 _____ is a form of government in which the rulers are elected by the people.
Ans 1. Oligopoly

2. Theocracy

3. Fascism

4. Democracy

Q.101 How does the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) enhance investor protection?
Ans 1. By providing insurance to investors

2. By regulating stock exchanges and securities to prevent fraud

3. By directly investing in the stock market

4. By setting monetary policies

Q.102 ISRO successfully tested a 100 W class Polymer Electrolyte Membrane Fuel Cell based Power System (FCPS) in its orbital
platform, POEM3, using which of the following two gases?
Ans 1. Hydrogen and helium

2. Nitrogen and oxygen

3. Nitrogen and argon

4. Hydrogen and oxygen

Q.103 What was the final bidding price of Tata Sons for Air India?
Ans 1. Rs.16,000 crores

2. Rs.18,000 crores

3. Rs.12,000 crores

4. Rs.22,000 crores

Q.104 Which of the following is NOT a criterion for the post of the Chief Justice of India?
Ans 1. In the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist

2. Has been for at least five years an advocate of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession

3. He/She is a citizen of India

4. Has been for at least five years a Judge of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession

Q.105 Who among the following religious and social reformers contributed in the abolition of Sati in 1929?
Ans 1. Radhakant Deb

2. Raja Rammohan Roy

3. Jyotirao Govindrao Phule

4. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

Q.106 Which Article of the Indian Constitution provided power to the Supreme Court of India to review its own judgements?
Ans 1. Article 140

2. Article 137

3. Article 138

4. Article 150

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 12 of 48

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Q.107 Which of the following is responsible for the conversion of stored fats into sugars in plant cell?

m Ans 1. Glyoxysome

. co 2. Golgi body

s e m
m 3. Ribosome

a
se Q.108
4. Oxysome

Which of the following pH values indicates neutrality in a solution? ag l
Ans 1. −14

2. 0

3. 7

4. 14

Q.109 The kings of which among the following dynasties defeated the kings of Malaya, Java and Sumatra?
Ans 1. Chola

2. Chera

m
3. Rashtrakuta

.co
4. Pandaya

m
.co em
Q.110 Which of the following conditions were NOT true for India’s first winter scientific arctic expedition flagged off by Kiren Rijiju

s
in 2023?
Ans

e m
1. The exploration was carried out for the months of November to March.

l a
l as 2. There was almost no sunlight for 24 hours.

ag
ag
3. The exploration was carried out for the months of November and December only.

4. Subzero temperatures.

Q.111 Which of the following Neolithic sites yielded the remains of three species of deer (the Barasingha, Gazelle, and Spotted
Deer)?
Ans 1. Bhimbetka

2. Kodekal

3. Didwana

4. Patne

Q.112 As of February 2024, which year marked the highest number of prisoners on death row in nearly 20 years in India?
Ans 1. 2023

2. 2019
m
.co
3. 2021

m
4. 2020

s e
la
Q.113 Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides for the Protection of ‘Life and Personal Liberty’?

g
Ans 1. Article 18

2. Article 25

3. Article 21
a
4. Article 22

Q.114 Which country officially became the 100th full member of the International Solar Alliance (ISA) in June 2024?
Ans 1. Paraguay

2. Nepal

3. Armenia

4. Spain

m
Q.115 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT with respect to Agri-Clinics and Agri-Business Centres (AC&ABC)

.co
Scheme in India?

m
Ans 1. NABARD is implementing subsidy component under the scheme on the behalf of Government of India.

.co m
2. National Institute of Agricultural Extension Management (MANAGE) is the implementing agency for training component under

m
the scheme.

s e
s e
3. The AC & ABC Scheme is under implementation since April 2008.

g l a
a
4. As of December 2022, about 83810 candidates have been trained under the scheme so far.

g l a
a
Q.116 What do you call the pattern of arrangement of leaves on a stem or branch?
Ans 1. Thallotaxy

2. Phyllotaxy

3. Geotaxis

4. Apotaxis

Q.117 Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution states that it is the duty of every citizen of India to safeguard
public property and to abjure violence?
Ans 1. Article 51A (k)

2. Article 51A (d)

3. Article 51A (f)

4. Article 51A (i)
m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 13 of 48

Q.118 Which government programme aims to provide employment to rural households through works related to water
conservation, land development, and rural infrastructure?
Ans 1. Pradhan Mantri Rozgar Yojana (PMRY)

2. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)

3. National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM)

4. Swachh Bharat Abhiyan

Q.119 Select the correct group of crops that are grown in the ‘Rabi’ season in India.
Ans 1. Urad and Groundnut

2. Gram and Mustard

3. Gram and Paddy

4. Barley and Jowar

Q.120 The Carriage of Goods by Sea Bill, 2024, introduced in Lok Sabha on 9 August 2024 seeks to replace the Indian Carriage of
Goods by Sea Act, _____.
Ans 1. 1925

2. 1921

3. 1915

4. 1906

2024/12/10-22:10:14

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 14 of 48

m
co
m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
a

Community SC
Test Center
iON Digital Zone iDZ Perecherla
Name
Test Date 09/12/2024
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.co
Test Time 12:30 PM - 2:00 PM
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.co
Recruitment of Sub Inspector Executive in Railway
Subject
em
Protection Force and Railway Protection Special Force
em l as
s
* Note

a ag
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.
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ag
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

Section : Arithmetic

Q.1 Given that 1370.42 = x, 1370.62= y and xz = y2 , then the value of z is close to:
Ans 1. 4.66

2. 2.95
m
3. 2.8
m .co
4. 4.37
s e
g la
Q.2
a
A sum, when invested at 20% simple interest per annum, amounts to ₹3120 after 3 years. What is the simple interest (in ₹)
on the same sum at the same rate in 1 year?
Ans 1. 195

2. 780

3. 390

4. 1560

Q.3 LCM and HCF of two numbers are 162 and 27 respectively. If one of the numbers is 54, then find the other number.
m
.co
Ans 1. 80

m
.co m
2. 81

m s e
s e
3. 82

g l a
g l a 4. 78
a
a Q.4 A man walks to a viewpoint and returns to the starting point by his car maintaining constant speed and thus takes a total
time of 8 hours 45 minutes. He would have gained 5 hours by driving both ways. How long would it have taken for him to
walk both ways with same walking speed?
Ans 1. 12 hours 45 minutes

2. 13 hours 30 minutes

3. 13 hours 45 minutes

4. 14 hours 15 minutes

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 15 of 48

Q.5 The smallest natural number which is divisible by 33, 6, 8 and 16 is:
Ans 1. 500

2. 550

3. 502

4. 528

Q.6 Three partners invested in a business in the ratio 7:2:5. They invested their capitals for 11 months, 7 months and 12 months,
respectively. What was the ratio of their profits?
Ans 1. 78:14:60

2. 79:14:60

3. 76:14:60

4. 77:14:60

Q.7 A can contains a mixture of two liquids P and Q in the ratio 8 : 7. When 5 Litre of the mixture are drawn off and the can is
filled with Q, the ratio of P and Q becomes 2 : 3. How many litres of liquid P was contained by the can initially?
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.8 The value of

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.9 A train runs at a speed of 92 kmph to cover a distance of 184 km and then at a speed of 102 kmph to cover a distance of 204
km. Find the average speed of the train for the entire distance.
Ans 1. 92 kmph

2. 98 kmph

3. 134 kmph

4. 97 kmph

Q.10 Yamini and Zareen together invested ₹37200 in a business. At the end of the year, out of a total profit of ₹5000, Yamini's
share was ₹1300. What was the investment of Zareen?
Ans 1. ₹26470

2. ₹26605

3. ₹27528

4. ₹28830
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 16 of 48

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Q.11 The average of 7 numbers is 45. If each number is decreased by 4, what will the new average be?
m
co
Ans 1. 41

. e m
m 2. 45
as
se 3. 7
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4. 37

Q.12 Express the following as a vulgar fraction.

Ans
1.

2.
m
m .co
3.

m .co s e m
s e l a
4.
l a ag
Q.13
ag
Vaishali and Vanya invest in a business in the ratio 35 : 8. If total profit is Rs. 3655, then what is difference between the profit
(in Rs.) of Vaishali and Vanya?
Ans 1. 2195

2. 2395

3. 2345

4. 2295

m
.co
Q.14 A milk vendor has 40 litres of a 40% milk solution. How many litres of pure water should be added so that the resulting
mixture is a 25% milk solution?
Ans 1. 25
e m
2. 23
las
3. 24
ag
4. 20

Q.15 Bhanu covers 790 km in a boat in 30 hours against the stream and he takes 12 hours with the stream then find the speed of
the stream?
Ans 1. 23.95 km/h

2. 15.59 km/h

3. 19.75 km/h
m
m .co
4. 28.05 km/h

Q.16
m.co
The smallest natural number which is divisible by 18, 5, 81 and 90 is:
s e m
s e
Ans 1. 810
g l a
g l a 2. 797 a
a 3. 751

4. 720

Q.17

Ans 1. 30

2. 36

m .
.co
3. 25

e m
4. 70

e m l as
l as ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 17 of 48

Q.18 If at same rate of interest, in 2 years, the simple interest is ₹60 and compound interest is ₹62, then what is the principal (in
₹)?
Ans 1. 454

2. 450

3. 445

4. 443

Q.19 The price (per litre) of petrol increases by 60%. By what percent should its consumption be reduced such that the
expenditure on it increases by 28% only?
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.20

Ans 1. 870 : 433

2. 430 : 613

3. 125 : 872

4. 209 : 525

Q.21 The average of 7 numbers is 57. If each number is increased by 6, what will the new average be?
Ans 1. 63

2. 69

3. 7

4. 57

Q.22 Amit sold 171 chairs and had a gain equal to the selling price of 71 chairs. What is his profit percentage?
Ans 1. 81%

2. 66%

3. 71%

4. 76%

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 18 of 48

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Q.23 Given that 260.89 = x, 260.31= y and xz = y2 , then the value of z is close to:
m
co m
Ans 1. 1.33

m . s e
a
2. 0.7

se 3. 2.47
ag l
4. -0.41

Q.24 If the average of three consecutive numbers is 42, find the second smallest of these numbers.
Ans 1. 41

2. 43

3. 44

4. 42
m
m .co
.co m
Q.25 A number when divided by 798 leaves 45 as remainder. If the same number is divided by 21, what will be the remainder?
Ans 1. 2
m s e
s e l a
ag
2. 3

l a
ag
3. 4

4. 5

Q.26 A sphere of radius 3 cm is put into water contained in a cylinder with a base radius of 12 cm. If the sphere is completely
immersed in the water, the water level in the cylinder rises by:
Ans
1.

2.

m
3.

m .co
s e
4.
g la
a
Q.27 A train runs at a speed of 114 kmph to cover a distance of 228 km and then at a speed of 93 kmph to cover a distance of 372
km. Find the average speed of the train for the entire distance.
Ans 1. 100 kmph

2. 60 kmph

3. 125 kmph

4. 113 kmph
m
m .co
.co
Q.28 During sale, Raghav bought a notebook marked for ₹35 at 20% discount and a pen marked for ₹100 at 79% discount. How
much (in ₹) did he save due to sale?
e m
e
Ans
m 1. 83
l as
l as 2. 89
ag
ag 3. 85

4. 86

Q.29 A shopkeeper sells an item for ₹960.4 after giving two successive discounts of 30% and 80% on its marked price. Had he not
given any discount, he would have earned a profit of 40%. What is the cost price (in ₹) of the item?
Ans 1. 4920

2. 4900

3. 4931
m .
.co m
4. 4908

m s e
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 19 of 48

Q.30 Evaluate 124 2
Ans 1. 15406

2. 15366

3. 15376

4. 15356

Q.31 The cost of painting a rectangular sheet at the rate of ₹1.5 per square cm is ₹945. If the length of the
rectangular sheet is 30 cm, then what is its breadth (in cm)?
Ans 1. 20

2. 21

3. 19

4. 22

Q.32

Ans 1. 687 m

2. 432 m

3. 568 m

4. 638 m

Q.33 The population of a village was 130000. It increased by 15% in the first year and increased by 30% in the second year. Its
population after two years is _______.
Ans 1. 149500

2. 169000

3. 194350

4. 188500

Q.34 If at same rate of interest, in 2 years, the simple interest is ₹60 and compound interest is ₹63, then what is the principal (in
₹)?
Ans 1. 293

2. 304

3. 300

4. 295

Q.35 A vendor claims to sell wheat at a loss of 25%. But he cheats by using weights that weigh 35% less than what is mentioned
on them. What is his profit percentage (rounded off to 2 decimal places)?
Ans 1. 20.31

2. 14.41

3. 19.85

4. 15.38

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.36 If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number 3647582, how many digits will appear
more than once in the new number thus formed?
Ans 1. 0

2. 2

3. 1

4. 3

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 20 of 48

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Q.37 A $ B means ‘A is the sister of B’,
m
A @ B means ‘A is the daughter of B’,

. co A - B means ‘A is the son of B’ and
A * B means ‘A is the father of B’.
s e m
m a
se l
Based on the above information, which of the following means that S is the sister's son of M?
Ans 1. S @ T - E $ A * M
ag
2. S $ T * E - A @ M

3. S - T $ E @ A * M

4. S * T - E $ A @ M

Q.38 Select the term from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

FLA 29 IJE 22 ? OFM 2 RDQ -11
Ans 1. LHI 13
m
2. GKJ 11
m .co
3. LVG 10
m.co s em
s e l a
ag
4. HGG 12

l a
Q.39
ag
The 3 figures given below are alike in a certain way as they share certain feature(s). Select the option that shares the same
features as the given figures.

m
.co
Ans

e m
1.

las
ag

2.

m
m .co
m.co 3.
s e m
s e g l a
g l a a
a
4.

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 21 of 48

Q.40 Each letter in the word BEHALF is changed to the letter immediately succeeding it in the English alphabetical order and then
all the letters thus formed are arranged in alphabetical order. Which of the following letters will be fourth from the left in the
new group of letters thus formed?
Ans 1. F

2. C

3. G

4. M

Q.41 Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster that
does NOT belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their positions in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. ROMG

2. VSQK

3. AXVP

4. BYVQ

Q.42 In a certain code language,

‘A + B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’,
‘A – B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’,
‘A x B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’ and
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the father of B’.

How is W related to Y if ‘W + E x R – T ÷ Y’?
Ans 1. Father's brother's daughter

2. Father's brother's wife

3. Mother's brother's wife

4. Mother's brother's daughter

Q.43 Refer to the following letter, symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) L U * P @ D £ A Ω F $ * N Q & R # Y % C K & M (Right)

If all the letters are dropped from the series, which of the following will be sixth from the right?
Ans 1. &

2. %

3. $

4. Ω

Q.44 This question is based on the following words.
YEN ARE FEW GOT
In each of the words, each vowel is changed to the letter following it in the English alphabetical order and each consonant is
changed to the letter preceding it in the English alphabetical order. In how many letter-clusters thus formed, will no vowel
appear?
Ans 1. 2

2. 3

3. 4

4. 1

Q.45 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(27, 46, 19)
(8, 17, 9)
Ans 1. (22, 40, 18)

2. (23, 39, 13)

3. (18, 43, 22)

4. (44, 70, 23)
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 22 of 48

m
.co
Q.46 Three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster
m
pair that does NOT belong to that group?

. co m
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their positions in the letter-cluster.)

s e
m Ans 1. QI - MR
a
se 2. KC - GM
ag l
3. OG - KP

4. ME - IN

Q.47 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

m
m .co
m .co s e m
s e l a
l a ag
ag
Ans
1.

2.

3.

m
.co
4.

e m
Q.48
s
Refer to the following letter, symbol series and answer the question. Counting to be done from left to right only.
(Left) @ 8 $ 7 & + 2 & % 4 6 * £ 5 3 Ω 9 # 1 (Right)
la
another number?
ag
How many such symbols are there each of which is immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by

Ans 1. 4

2. 2

3. 3

4. 1

Q.49 A, B, C, D, E, F and G sit around a circular table facing centre. Only two people sit between F and D when counted from the
right of F. Only three people sit between B and G when counted from the right of G. D sits to the immediate right of G. A sits
m
.co
to the immediate right of E. How many people sit between A and G when counted from the right of G?

m
.co
Ans 1. 4

e m
e m
2. 2

l as
l as 3. 3

ag
ag 4. 1

Q.50 Each of the digits in the number 8374516 is arranged in ascending order from left to right. What will be the sum of the digits
that are second from the left and second from the right in the new number thus formed?
Ans 1. 11

2. 14

3. 10

4. 12

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 23 of 48

Q.51 Seven boxes, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. G is kept immediately
above E. F is kept immediately above D. Only A is kept above B. Only two boxes are kept above G. F is not kept at third
position from the bottom. How many boxes are kept above F?
Ans 1. 3

2. 5

3. 4

4. 2

Q.52 UVW ranked 21st from the top and 64th from the bottom in his class. How many students are there in his class?
Ans 1. 88

2. 84

3. 78

4. 81

Q.53 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 24 of 48

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Q.54 Tushar starts from Point A and drives 15 km towards south. He then takes a right turn, drives 13 km, turns right and drives
m
19 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 18 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 4 km and stops at Point P. How far

. co m
(shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90 degrees
turns only unless specified)
s e
m a
se Ans 1. 3 km to the west

2. 6 km to the west ag l
3. 4 km to the west

4. 5 km to the west

Q.55 Which of the following letter-clusters should replace # and % so that the pattern and relationship followed between the
letter-cluster pair on the left side of :: is the same as that on the right side of ::?

# : JLO :: GIL : %
Ans 1. # = EGI; % = LNQ
m
2. # = FGJ; % = LNQ
m .co
3. # = EGJ; % = LNO
m.co s e m
s e l a
ag
4. # = EGJ; % = LNQ

l a
Q.56
ag
What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if '−' and '÷' are interchanged and '×' and '+'
are interchanged?

14 + 32 − 8 × 5 ÷ 2 = ?
Ans 1. 57

2. 56

3. 58

4. 59

m
.co
Q.57 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a

m
group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group?

s e
la
(Note: The odd man out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. PRU

2. LNQ ag
3. SUZ

4. CEH

Q.58 Which numbers should come in place of the question marks (?) in the same sequence to make the series logically
complete?
86 90 99 115 140 ? 225 ?
Ans 1. 176, 289
m
m .co
2. 192, 323

m.co 3. 168, 193
s e m
s e 4. 182, 293

g l a
g l a a
a
Q.59 In a certain code language, ‘love conquers all’ is coded as ‘lk mp jo’ and ‘all or nothing’ is coded as ‘ap tu mp’. How is ‘all’
coded in the given language?
Ans 1. jo

2. tu

3. mp

4. ap

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a ag
​

g l
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Q.60 In a certain code language, ‘learn from mistakes’ is coded as ‘lm tu bp’ and ‘from here on’ is coded as ‘mp tw bp’. How is
‘from’ coded in the given language?
Ans 1. lm

2. tw

3. tu

4. bp

Q.61 Rohit starts from Point A and drives 5 km towards East. He then takes a left turn, drives 2 km, turns right and drives 4 km.
He then takes a right turn and drives 2 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 1 km and stops at Point B. How far (shortest
distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90 degree turns only
unless specified.)
Ans 1. 5 km towards West

2. 5 km towards East

3. 8 km towards North

4. 8 km towards West

Q.62 Navin ranked 19th from the bottom and 18th from the top in his class. How many students are there in his class?
Ans 1. 36

2. 35

3. 34

4. 33

Q.63 Which of the following letter-clusters should replace # and % so that the pattern and relationship followed between the
letter-cluster pair on the left side of :: is the same as that on the right side of ::?
# : BDF :: GIK : %
Ans 1. # = WYB, % = LNP

2. # = XYA, % = LNP

3. # = WYA, % = LNP

4. # = WYA, % = LNO

Q.64 Two sets of numbers are given below. In each set of numbers, certain mathematical operation(s) on the first number
result(s) in the second number. Similarly, certain mathematical operation(s) on the second number result(s) in the third
number and so on. Which of the given options follows the same set of operations as in the given sets?
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting / multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
1 - 2 - 4 - 8 ; 9 - 10 - 20 - 40
Ans 1. 19 - 20 - 20 - 30

2. 6 - 7 - 14 - 30

3. 14 - 15 - 30 - 40

4. 4 - 5 - 10 - 20

Q.65 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All jeans are trousers.
All trousers are pants.
No pant is a tie.

Conclusions:
(I) No jeans is a tie.
(II) No trouser is a tie.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

3. Only conclusion (II) follows.

4. Only conclusion (I) follows.

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 26 of 48

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Q.66 Seven people, Q, R, S, T, U, V and Y, are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table. Only one person sits
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between U and Q when counted from the left of Q. S sits fourth to the left of T. V sits third to the left of R. V sits to the

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immediate left of S. Y is not an immediate neighbour of V. How many people sit between Y and Q when counted from the
right of Y?
s e
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se Ans 1. Three

2. Four ag l
3. Two

4. One

Q.67 Which of the following letter-clusters should replace # and % so that the pattern and relationship followed between the
letter-cluster pair on the left side of :: is the same as that on the right side of :: ?

# : PRW :: JLQ : %
Ans 1. # = LKY, % = HMJ
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2. # = RKJ, % = HMJ
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3. # = LPY, % = HJM
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4. # = RTY, % = HJO

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Q.68
ag
In a certain code language, ‘EARS’ is coded as ‘5273’ and ‘DIAL’ is coded as ‘4631’. What is the code for ‘A’ in the given code
language?
Ans 1. 6

2. 3

3. 2

4. 4

Q.69 G, L, O, F and S each has a different age. Only S is elder than G. Only two people is aged between G and O. F is younger
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than L. Who is the third youngest?
Ans 1. G

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2. O

3. F
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4. L a
Q.70 Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

IEU GHQ ? CNI AQE
Ans 1. EKM

2. ELN

3. EJL

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4. ELM
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Section : General Awareness
s e m
s e g l a
g l a Q.71 Which of the following statements is FALSE about the Deccan Plateau?
a
a
Ans 1. Mahendragiri is the highest peak in the Western Ghats.

2. The Eastern Ghats stretch from the Mahanadi Valley to the Nigiris in the south.

3. The Western Ghats are higher than the Eastern Ghats.

4. The height of the Western Ghats progressively increases from north to south.

Q.72 In which of the following ways can the utility be expressed in cardinal utility analysis?
Ans 1. In quality

2. In numbers
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3. In rank

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4. In order
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Q.73 Which of the following is NOT one of the new criminal laws introduced in 2024?
Ans 1. Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)

2. Indian Penal Code (IPC)

3. Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)

4. Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA)

Q.74 In June 2024, which of the following portfolios was allotted to Anitha Vangalapudi in the Andhra Pradesh Cabinet?
Ans 1. Minister of Panchayat Raj and Rural Development of Andhra Pradesh

2. Minister of Information Technology and Communication of Andhra Pradesh

3. Home Minister of Andhra Pradesh

4. Deputy Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh

Q.75 In which of the following years was the National Commission for Women established?
Ans 1. 1992

2. 1991

3. 1985

4. 2004

Q.76 Who among the following was a classical Hindustani singer?
Ans 1. Begum Akhtar

2. TK Iyengar

3. V Sheshanna

4. MS Subbulakshmi

Q.77 Which of the following was the original name of Sher Shah Suri, the founder of Suri dynasty?
Ans 1. Adham Khan

2. Ulugh khan

3. Murtaza Khan

4. Farid Khan

Q.78 Which of the following is the correct function of marketed surplus?
Ans 1. Marketed Surplus = Total farm produce - Previous years stock in the market

2. Marketed Surplus = Total supply of the market - Total demand

3. Marketed Surplus = Total demand in the market - Total supply

4. Marketed Surplus = Total farm output produced by the farmer - Own consumption of farm output

Q.79 Where was the joint bilateral training 'Exercise Harimau Shakti 2023' conducted?
Ans 1. New Delhi, India

2. Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia

3. Umroi Cantonment, India

4. Kota Kinabalu, Malaysia

Q.80 Who among the following reinterpreted verses from the Koran to argue for women’s education?
Ans 1. Begum Anis Kidwai

2. Mumtaz Ali

3. Baji Jamalunnisa

4. Bibi Amtus Salam

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 28 of 48

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Q.81 The Constitution ensures the security of the tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners. They
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are appointed for _______ years term or continue till the age of 65, whichever is earlier.

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Ans 1. 4
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2. 5

3. 6
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4. 10

Q.82 Which of the following ports is NOT correctly linked to its location?
Ans 1. Kochi Port - Kerala

2. Tuticorin Port - Tamil Nadu

3. Mormugao Port - Goa

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4. Visakhapatnam Port - Telangana

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Q.83
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Which of the following musical forms is intimately related to classical Carnatic music?

m s em
Ans 1. Firdost

s e l a
2. Gitam
l a ag
3. Wanvun
ag
4. Bhand Pather

Q.84 In February 2024, Genome India Project was completed. Which of the following statements is NOT true about Genome India
Project?
Ans 1. It was initiated in 2020.

2. The aim was to build a reference genome and study genetic diversity among Indians.

3. 1 million genome samples were to be collected across the country from citizens of India.
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4. The project was funded and coordinated by the Department of Biotechnology, Govt. of India.

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Q.85

las
ag

Ans 1. a - 4; b - 3; c - 2; d - 1

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2. a - 2; b - 3; c - 4; d - 1

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3. a - 3; b - 4; c - 2; d - 1

m s e
a
4. a - 3; b - 4; c - 1; d - 2

s e g l
g l a Q.86 a
In January 2024, India had decided to formally join the Square Kilometer Array (SKA) project, an international scientific

a Ans
collaboration working to build the world’s largest __________.
1. radio telescope

2. space station

3. particle accelerator

4. optical telescope

Q.87 Who were India’s flag-bearers at the Paris 2024 Paralympics closing ceremony?
Ans 1. Avani Lekhara and Nishad Kumar
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2. Manish Narwal and Yogesh Kathuniya

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3. Bhagyashree Jadhav and Sumit Antil
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4. Harvinder Singh and Preethi Pal
g ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 29 of 48

Q.88 An optical instrument used in a system of prisms, lenses or mirrors to reflect images through a tube is called:
Ans 1. kaleidoscope

2. telescope

3. periscope

4. binocular

Q.89 Joint military exercise ‘Harimau Shakti-2022’ commenced on 28th November, which is an annual training event between the
Indian Army and which of the following armies?
Ans 1. Indonesia

2. Malaysia

3. Japan

4. Singapore

Q.90 What significant change was implemented in India's New Economic Policy of 1991 to expand privatisation?
Ans 1. Centralising government control over key industries

2. Increasing the number of industries reserved for public sector control

3. Reducing the list of industries reserved for public sector control

4. Establishing more Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) across various sectors

Q.91 A nutrient which acts as a cushion to the vital organs and protects them from shocks and external injuries is:
Ans 1. protein

2. vitamin

3. fat

4. carbohydrate

Q.92 In which of the following years was the Ethics Committee in the Rajya Sabha constituted?
Ans 1. 1999

2. 2000

3. 1997

4. 1995

Q.93 Which of the following has built the Atal Tunnel?
Ans 1. Indian Railways

2. Border Roads Organisation

3. Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana

4. National Highways Authority of India (NHAI)

Q.94 The stone used for the construction of the Basilica of Bom Jesus in Goa was brought from which of the following places?
Ans 1. Bassein

2. Hamirpur

3. Gaya

4. Jaipur

Q.95 Name the main method used for thickening sauces and in the production of bread and pastries.
Ans 1. Gelatinisation

2. Retrogradation

3. Caramelisation

4. Dextrinisation

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 30 of 48

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Q.96 The KAZA 2024, Heads of State inaugural Summit by Members of the five-nation Kavango-Zambezi Trans-Frontier
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Conservation Area (KAZA-TFCA) was held in which month at Livingstone, Zambia?

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Ans 1. July 2024
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2. April 2024

3. May 2024
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4. August 2024

Q.97 Which of the following is the correct definition of jobless growth?
Ans 1. It is an economic phenomenon in which an economy experiences decreasing level of growth.

2. It is an economic phenomenon in which an economy experiences decreasing level of employment.

3. It is an economic phenomenon in which an economy experiences low level of employment in a relative term.

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4. It is an economic phenomenon in which an economy experiences growth while maintaining or decreasing its level of
employment.
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Q.98
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Which of the following types of forests has trees that are mainly scattered with long roots and succulent stems?
s e m
Ans
s
1. Montane Forestse l a
l a ag
ag
2. Mangrove Forests

3. Tropical Deciduous Forests

4. Tropical Thorn Forests and Scrubs

Q.99 In which of the following years was the Satya Shodhak Samaj founded?
Ans 1. 1873

2. 1885

3. 1794

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4. 1776

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Q.100 ____________ is a natural source of acetic acid.
Ans 1. Orange
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2. Tamarind
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3. Vinegar

4. Tomato

Q.101 Which of the following census years reported the highest sex ratio in India?
Ans 1. 2011

2. 1991

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3. 1951

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4. 1901

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Q.102 Which of the following river systems is responsible for the formation of the Sundarbans delta?
l as
l asAns 1. Cauvery
ag
ag 2. Godavari

3. Ganga-Brahmaputra-Meghna

4. Sindhu

Q.103 The 130th birth anniversary of Satyendra Nath Bose was observed on 1 January 2024. He was a renowned __________.
Ans 1. physicist

2. botanist

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3. zoologist

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4. literary

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ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 31 of 48

Q.104 The right-hand rule of induced current was given by:
Ans 1. Fleming

2. Faraday

3. Oersted

4. Ampere

Q.105 Which of the following methods is most commonly used nowadays to determine nitrogen and protein content in foods?
Ans 1. Nessler’s method

2. Paradkar method

3. Barfoed method

4. Kjeldahl method

Q.106 Who among the following wrote the autobiography ‘Ardhakathanak’?
Ans 1. Narmad

2. Rassundari Devi

3. Valmiki

4. Banarasidas

Q.107 Who among the following was NOT associated with the Hindustan Republican Association (H.R.A.)?
Ans 1. Subhash Chandra Bose

2. Sachindra Nath Bakshi

3. Ashfaqulla Khan

4. Ram Prasad Bismil

Q.108 How many subjects are there in the 'Union List' as of May 2024?
Ans 1. 97 subjects

2. 100 subjects

3. 66 subjects

4. 98 subjects

Q.109 Which of the following Acts regulates the acquisition of Indian Citizenship?
Ans 1. Indian Citizenship Act, 1955

2. Indian Citizenship Act, 1960

3. Indian Citizenship Act, 1948

4. Indian Citizenship Act, 1947

Q.110 How do rural development programmes like the Self-Help Group (SHG) initiative contribute to gender equality in rural India?
Ans 1. Solely by improving agricultural productivity

2. Primarily through educational programmes

3. By enhancing women's access to finance, leadership roles and decision-making

4. By providing women with employment opportunities only

Q.111 Who became the first Indian woman to win two gold medals at the Paralympic Games after winning a gold medal at Paris
Paralympic Games 2024?
Ans 1. Rubina Francis

2. Simran Sharma

3. Avani Lekhara

4. Deepthi Jeevanji

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 32 of 48

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Q.112 Which of the following was the strength of the Judges of Supreme Court of India after the commencement of the
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Constitution in 1950?

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Ans 1. 6
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2. 12

3. 10
ag
4. 8

Q.113 Which of the following issues has been faced by India since independence?
Ans 1. Poverty

2. Globalisation

3. Literacy

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4. Agriculture productivity

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Q.114 Which of the following kings of the Vijayanagara Empire assumed the title of Yavanarajya Sthapanacharya?

m s em
Ans
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1. Achyuta Deva Raya

s l a
l a
2. Krishnadevaraya
ag
ag
3. Sadasiva Raya

4. Rama Raya

Q.115 Which of the following is NOT provided in Part IV A (Fundamental Duties) of the Indian Constitution?
Ans 1. To respect our parents and teachers

2. To respect the National Flag

3. To promote spirit of brotherhood amongst all people of India

4. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
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Q.116 Which of the following Union Territories of India is having the highest decadal growth rate of population as per 2011
census?
s e
Ans 1. Chandigarh
g la
2. Puducherry a
3. Lakshadweep

4. Dadar and Nagar Haveli

Q.117 Arrange the following rulers of the Pala dynasty in the chronological order.
Ans 1. Dharampal < Devpal < Mahipal < Naypal

2. Mahipal < Dharampal < Naypal < Devpal

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3. Devpal < Dharampal < Mahipal < Naypal

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4. Mahipal < Dharampal < Devpal < Naypal

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s e l a
Q.118 N Chandrababu Naidu, who took oath as Andhra Pradesh Chief Minister on 12 June 2024, belongs to which of the following
g
g l a Ans
political parties?
a
a
1. Bhartiya Janata Party (BJP)

2. Jana Sena Party (JSP)

3. Telugu Desam Party (TDP)

4. YSR Congress Party (YSRCP)

Q.119 The group of North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) has how many member countries, as on 30 September 2024?
Ans 1. 32

2. 12
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3. 21

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4. 39
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Q.120 In which of the following years did the government sell its stake in IRCON International Limited?
Ans 1. 2015

2. 2018

3. 2021

4. 2023

2024/12/10-23:26:24

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 34 of 48

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m . s e
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a
Community OBC NCL
Test Center
iON Digital Zone iDZ Kollam
Name
Test Date 09/12/2024
Test Time 4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
Recruitment of Sub Inspector Executive in Railway
Subject
Protection Force and Railway Protection Special Force
* Note
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.

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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

Section : Arithmetic

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ag
Q.1 The average of 7 numbers is 51. If each number is increased by 6, what will the new average be?

l
Ans
a 1. 63

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2. 57

3. 51

4. 7

Q.2 If x varies inversely as y3 - 1 and is equal to 3 when y = 4, find x when y = 6.
Ans
1.

2.

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3.

4.
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s e
Q.3
la
Three partners invested in a business in the ratio 6:7:3. They invested their capitals for 8 months, 3 months and 10 months,

g
respectively. What was the ratio of their profits?
Ans 1. 17:7:10

2. 14:7:10
a
3. 13:7:10

4. 16:7:10

Q.4
Find the value of

Ans 1. 442

2. 429

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3. 422

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4. 432

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Q.5 The selling price of 50 books is equal to the cost price of 25 books. Find the loss or gain percentage.

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Ans 1. 50 % loss

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l as 2.

ag
ag 3. 50 % gain

4.

Q.6 The population of a village was 130000. It increased by 10% in the first year and increased by 20% in the second year. Its
population after two years is _______.
Ans 1. 156000

2. 169000

3. 143000

4. 171600

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 35 of 48

Q.7

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.8 The LCM of 24, 38, 336 and 152 is:
Ans 1. 6384

2. 6353

3. 6410

4. 6362

Q.9 Manav's average earning per month in the first three months of a year was ₹7520. In April, his earning was 75% more than
the average earning in the first three months. If his average earning per month for the whole year is ₹62334, then what will
be Manav's average earning (in ₹) per month from May to December?
Ans 1. 89034

2. 89036

3. 89039

4. 89031

Q.10 A man walks to a viewpoint and returns to the starting point by his car maintaining constant speed and thus takes a total
time of 8 hours 30 minutes. He would have gained 5 hours by driving both ways. How long would it have taken for him to
walk both ways with same walking speed?
Ans 1. 13 hours 15 minutes

2. 13 hours 45 minutes

3. 14 hours 30 minutes

4. 12 hours 15 minutes

Q
.
1
1

A 1. 440 cm2
n
s
2. 880 cm2

3. 220 cm2

4. 1280 cm2

Q.12 A train runs at a speed of 147 kmph to cover a distance of 294 km and then at a speed of 133 kmph to cover a distance of
266 km. Find the average speed of the train for the entire distance.
Ans 1. 187 kmph

2. 152 kmph

3. 132 kmph

4. 140 kmph

Q.13 Pranjal's average earning per month in the first three months of a year was ₹28744. In April, his earning was 50% more than
the average earning in the first three months. If his average earning per month for the whole year is ₹94411, then what will
be Pranjal's average earning (in ₹) per month from May to December?
Ans 1. 125453

2. 125448

3. 125447

4. 125446

Q.14 The average of 7 numbers is 53. If each number is increased by 7, what will the new average be?
Ans 1. 7

2. 53

3. 67

4. 60

Q.15 A bank offers 5.6% compound interest per annum calculated on a half-yearly basis. A customer deposits ₹7346 each on 1
January and 1 July of a year. At the end of the year, the amount he would have gained by way of interest is ________. [Give
your answer correct to 2 decimal places.]
Ans 1. ₹616.68

2. ₹626.14

3. ₹612.82

4. ₹622.82

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 36 of 48

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Q.16 A person covers certain distance in 6 hours at a speed of 5 km/h and some more distance in 7 hours at a speed of 9 km/h.

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Find his average speed for the entire distance covered.

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Ans

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1.

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se 2.

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3.

4.

Q.17 Simplify the following:

Ans
1.

m
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2.

3.

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s e l a
ag
4.

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Q.18 Given that 170.63 = x, 170.04= y and xz = y4 , then the value of z is close to:
Ans 1. 0.25

2. -0.45

3. -0.79

4. 2.08

Q.19 The smallest 1-digit number to be added to the 6-digit number 950473 so that it is completely divisible by 11 is:
Ans 1. 6

2. 2

3. 1

m
4. 4

Q.20
Ans .co
If the volume of cube is 1728 m3, then find the total surface area of cube in m2.

m
e
1. 901

2. 910

3. 864
las
4. 861
ag
Q.21 A man sold an article for ₹420 by first giving a d% discount on its marked price, and then another discount having the same
nominal value (in ₹). If the marked price of the article is ₹560, then what is the value of d?
Ans 1. 16.9

2. 12.5

3. 18.4

4. 14.5

Q.22 The average weight of 6 men is increased by 2 kg when one of them whose weight is 48 kg is replaced by a new man. What
is the weight of the new man?
Ans 1. 54 kg

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2. 58 kg

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3. 60 kg

4. 56 kg

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s
Q

a g
.

l a
2

g
3

a A
n
s
1. 10%

2. 20%

3. 5%

4. 35%

Q.24 Parvati and Pari invest in a business in the ratio 5 : 26. If total profit is Rs. 3038, then what is difference between the profit (in
Rs.) of Parvati and Pari?
Ans 1. 2208

2. 1958

3. 2008

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4. 2058

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 37 of 48

Q.25 A wholesaler purchases goods worth ₹45,000. The manufacturer offers a trade discount of 15% and an additional scheme
discount of 10%. Calculate the net price after both discounts.
Ans 1. ₹34,225

2. ₹34,255

3. ₹34,455

4. ₹34,425

Q.26 What will be the remainder when is divisible by 100?
Ans 1. 99

2. 98

3. 97

4. 96

Q.27 The pie-chart shows the sales of an item on different days of a week.
Study the given pie-chart and answer the question that follows.

The difference in angles made at the centre by the sales on Tuesday and Saturday is (in degrees):
Ans 1. 10

2. 0

3. 20

4. 5

Q.28 Sakshi invested a sum of ₹2500 at 20% per annum compound interest, componded annually. If she received an amount of
₹4320 after n years, the value of n is:
Ans 1. 4

2. 3

3. 3.5

4. 2

Q
.
2
9
A 1. 42 cm
n
s
2. 46 cm

3. 44 cm

4. 40 cm

Q.30 Given that 420.66 = x, 420.65= y and xz = y4 , then the value of z is close to:
Ans 1. 4.81

2. 2.04

3. 3.94

4. 4.92

Q.31

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 38 of 48

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Q.32 Express the following into vulgar fraction.

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Ans

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1.

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2.

3.
ag
4.

Q.33 A sum, when invested at 20% simple interest per annum, amounts to ₹2880 after 4 years. What is the simple interest (in ₹)
on the same sum at the same rate in 2 year?
Ans 1. 1280

2. 320

3. 640

4. 2560

m
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Q.34 The price of fuel decreases by 20%, 45% and 55% in three successive months, but increases by 50% in the fourth month.

m
What is the percentage increase/decrease in the price of fuel in the fourth month as compared to its original price?

.co m
Ans 1. Decreases by 70.3%

m
2. Increases by 67.55%

s e
s e 3. Increases by 72.35%
l a
l a ag
4. Decreases by 68.29%

ag
Q.35

Ans
Two trains of equal length are running on parallel lines in the same direction at speeds of 66 km/h and 39 km/h. The faster
train passes the slower train in 24 seconds. The length of each train is:
1. 90 meters

2. 72 meters

3. 110 meters

4. 89 meters

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.36 There are three problem figures, which are alike in a certain way as they share some common feature/s. Select the figure
from the answer options, which shares the same features as shared by the three problem figures.

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m .co
s e
Ans

g la
1. a

2.

m
m 3.
.co
m .co s e m
s e g l a
g l a a
a
4.

Q.37 A, B, C, D, E, F and G sit around a circular table facing centre. Only E sits between G and C. C sits third to the left of B. A sits
to the immediate left of B. D is not an immediate neighbour of C. How many people sit between D and E when counted from
the right of E?
Ans 1. 4

2. 2

3. 3

4. 1

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Q.38 Which numbers should come in place of the question mark (?) in the same sequence to make the series logically complete?

73 82 100 127 ? 208
e m
Ans 1. 138

e m l as
l as
2. 152

3. 163
ag
ag 4. 143
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 39 of 48

Q.39 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

DCA EDB FEC GFD ?
Ans 1. MOL

2. KLJ

3. HGE

4. MNL

Q.40 EHSM is related to AMOR in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, WRKW is related to
SWGB. To which of the given options is OBCG related to, following the same logic?
Ans 1. LGZN

2. JFXK

3. KGYL

4. LHYM

Q.41 Three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster
pair that does NOT belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their positions in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. VR - PS

2. NJ - HK

3. FB - ZE

4. PL - JM

Q.42 Each of the digits in the number 8213459 is arranged in ascending order from left to right. The position(s) of how many
digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in the original number?
Ans 1. Two

2. Four

3. One

4. Three

Q.43 Each of P, Q, R, S, T, U and V has an exam on a different day of a week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of the
same week.
Only two people have exam between R and V. U has an exam on Tuesday. P has an exam on the day immediately before V
and immediately after U. S has an exam on Monday. T has an exam on the day before R and the day after Q. Q has an exam
on Friday.
Who amongst the following has exam on Wednesday?
Ans 1. V

2. T

3. P

4. R

Q.44 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(31, 951, 10)
(29, 837, 4)
Ans 1. (4, 8, 7)

2. (40, 1593, 6)

3. (33, 1069, 20)

4. (27, 717, 11)

Q.45 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All fans are lights.
All lights are clocks.
Some clocks are bulbs.
Conclusions:
(I): Some fans are bulbs.
(II): Some lights are bulbs.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

2. Only conclusion (II) follows.

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

4. Only conclusion (I) follows.

Q.46 Seven boxes, G, H, I, J, K, L and V, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. H is kept immediately
above G. L is kept immediately above J. Only K is kept above V. Only two boxes are kept between G and K. L is not kept at
third position from the bottom. How many boxes are kept between I and K?
Ans 1. Two

2. Three

3. Four

4. One

Q.47 Which of the following letter-clusters should replace # and % so that the pattern and relationship followed between the
letter-cluster pair on the left side of :: is the same as that on the right side of ::?

# : XBE :: HLO : %
Ans 1. # = TXA; % = LBS

2. # = TXA; % = LPS

3. # = UXA; % = LPS

4. # = TXA; % = LPO

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 40 of 48

m
.co
Q.48 In a certain code language,

m
A < B means ‘A is the son of B’,

co
A + B means ‘A is the father of B’,

m
A ; B means ‘ A is the sister of B’,

m . and A = B means ‘A is the daughter of B’.

s e
se Ans
How is P related to E if 'P + O < S ; T = E’?
1. Sister's son

g l a
2. Mother's sister

3. Father's sister
a
4. Daughter's husband

Q.49 In a certain code language, ‘AWED’ is coded as ‘2764’ and ‘DATE’ is coded as ‘7625’. What is the code for ‘T’ in that
language?
Ans 1. 2

2. 6

3. 7

4. 5

m
.co
Q.50 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as shown below.

m
m .co s em
s e l a
l a ag
ag
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

m
Q.51 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

.co
HEC JGE LIG NKI ?

m
Ans 1. PNK

2. PNL

s e
la
3. PML

Q.52
4. PMK

ag
What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’
are interchanged?
38 − 8 ÷ 2 + 9 − 12 ÷ 3 − 16 × 2 = ?
Ans 1. 89

2. 73

3. 99

4. 107

Q.53 Refer to the following letter, symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) L T # K % & D R @ $ F $ P Q * ! A Ω E Y % U £ K (Right)

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How many such symbols are there each of which are immediately preceded by a letter and also immediately followed by

m
another symbol?

.co m
Ans 1. Three

m
2. None

s e
s e 3. One

g l a
g l a 4. Two

a
a Q.54 Which of the following letter-clusters should replace # and % so that the pattern and relationship followed between the
letter-cluster pair on the left side of :: is the same as that on the right side of :: ?

# : GEJ :: RPU : %
Ans 1. # = POO, % = MLK

2. # = LJO, % = MKP

3. # = JHF, % = MKJ

4. # = PIO, % = MIU

Q.55 Manish starts from Point A and drives 13 km towards South. He then takes a left turn, drives 11 km, turns left and drives 15
km. He then takes a left turn and drives 12 km. He takes a final left turn, drives 2 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest
distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90 degree turns only
unless specified.)

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Ans 1. 2 km to the west

2. 2 km to the east

e m
m
3. 1 km to the east

e l as
s
4. 1 km to the west

l a ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 41 of 48

Q.56 In a certain code language, ‘he is late’ is coded as ‘ab bc cd’ and ‘is she alive’ is coded as ‘kj cd mo’. How is ‘is’ coded in the
given language?
Ans 1. de

2. cd

3. mo

4. ab

Q.57 Refer to the following letter, symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) = S Y # G F & A % K E * D C & £ U @ N > B + L M (Right)

How many such symbols are there each of which are immediately preceded by a letter and also immediately followed by
another symbol?
Ans 1. Three

2. Four

3. One

4. Two

Q.58 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a
group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group?

(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. BCE

2. MOR

3. STV

4. PQS

Q.59 If 2 is added to each even digit and 1 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number 9361457, what will be the sum of the
second digit from the left and the third digit from the right in the new number thus formed?
Ans 1. 12

2. 6

3. 8

4. 10

Q.60 Seven people, E, F, G, H, I, J and U, are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table. Only one person sits
between H and E when counted from the right of H. Only one person sits between E and U. Only one person sits between H
and I. J sits third to the right of I. Only one person sits between F and I. Who sits second to the right of G?
Ans 1. I

2. E

3. U

4. J

Q.61 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus
form a group. Which is the one that DOES NOT belong to that group?
Ans 1. JE : HC

2. HC : FA

3. NI : LG

4. OJ : NH

Q.62 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(1, −2, 2)
(24, 24, 12)
Ans 1. (18, 26, 5)

2. (24, 6, 22)

3. (34, 22, 24)

4. (15, 10, 11)

Q.63 A is the sister of B's daughter C. K is the father of C, and L is the father of K. How is A related to L?
Ans 1. Son's son

2. Son's wife

3. Daughter's daughter

4. Son's daughter

Q.64 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 431 649 324 163 719 (Right)

(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)

NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.

What will be the resultant if the third digit of the lowest number is added to the second digit of the highest number?
Ans 1. 7

2. 4

3. 6

4. 5
​

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 42 of 48

m
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Q.65 In a certain code language, ‘CUTE’ is coded as ‘8479’ and ‘TRIP’ is coded as ‘4351’. What is the code for ‘T’ in that language?

m
Ans 1. 5

. co 2. 4

s e m
m
3. 3

se
4. 7

g l a
Q.66
a
P, Q, R, S and T are all different ages. Q is older than R. R is younger than T but older than P. S is the oldest. Who among
them is the youngest?
Ans 1. P

2. R

3. T

4. S

Q.67 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 342 781 619 457 243 (Right)

(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)
m
m
If 2 is added to first digit of every number, in how many numbers will the first digit be exactly divisible by
.co
.co m
the second digit?
Ans 1. 3

m s e
s e 2. 4

l a
a ag
3. 2

l
ag
4. 1

Q.68 Mr. NOP starts from point A and drives 11 km towards West. He then takes a left turn, drives 12 km, turns left and drives 31
km. He then takes a left turn and drives 27 km. He takes a final left turn, drives 20 km and stops at point P. How far (shortest
distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach point A again? (All turns are 90 degrees turns only
unless specified.)
Ans 1. 13 km to the West

2. 11 km to the East

3. 9 km to the North

4. 15 km to the South

Q.69 TUV ranked 16th from the top and 19th from the bottom in his class. How many students are there in his class?
Ans 1. 32

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2. 34

3. 23

4. 43

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Q.70
las
Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

ag

Ans

1.

m
m .co
m .co s e m
s e
2.

g l a
g l a a
a
3.

4.

m .
m .co s e m
e a
Section : General Awareness

s l
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 43 of 48

Q.71 Which of the following is NOT one of Kepler's laws of planetary motion?

A. The orbit of each planet around the Sun is an ellipse with the Sun at one of the two foci.
B. The orbits of all planets around the Sun are coplanar.
C. A line segment joining a planet and the Sun sweeps out equal areas during equal intervals of time.
D. The square of the orbital period of a planet is directly proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis of its orbit.
Ans 1. C

2. B

3. A

4. D

Q.72 Which scheme is focussed on promoting entrepreneurship among SC/STs and women by providing loans at concessional
rates?
Ans 1. Startup India

2. MUDRA Yojana

3. Stand-Up India Scheme

4. Pradhan Mantri Rozgar Yojana (PMRY)

Q.73 Which Indian table tennis player won her maiden international title in the women’s singles event at the WTT Feeder Corpus
Christi 2024 in Texas, USA, in January 2024?
Ans 1. Sreeja Akula

2. Ankita Das

3. Sutirtha Mukherjee

4. Manika Batra

Q.74 Who among the following wrote the book ‘Significance of Vimanam and Gopuram’?
Ans 1. Niketan Anand Gaur

2. Sashi Tharoor

3. Dr. V Ganapati Sthapati

4. Romila Thapar

Q.75 In which year did King George V and Queen Mary of Britain visit India, and the announcement regarding the transfer of
India's capital from Calcutta (Kolkata) to Delhi take place?
Ans 1. 1911

2. 1908

3. 1858

4. 1901

Q.76 Delhi Sultanate signifies the rule over India with capital as Delhi, of which community?
Ans 1. Persian

2. Arabian

3. African

4. Turkish

Q.77 Which of the following articles deals with the power of the President to make regulations for certain Union territories?
Ans 1. Article 248

2. Article 235

3. Article 240

4. Article 244

Q.78 How many amino acids out of the 22 needed by the human body, are NOT produced in the human body?
Ans 1. 8

2. 16

3. 12

4. 14

Q.79 Which equation demonstrates that electricity, magnetism and light are all manifestations of the electromagnetic field?
Ans 1. Laplace equation

2. Maxwell's equation

3. Kirchhoff's equation

4. Ohm's equation

Q.80 The synthe c auxin 2,4-D is commonly used as a ___________.
Ans 1. signalling hormone

2. defense hormone

3. herbicide

4. stress hormone

Q.81 According to Census of India 2011, how many states recorded less than 10 lakhs population?
Ans 1. Two

2. Zero

3. One

4. Three
ti

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 44 of 48

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Q.82 Which musical instrument is commonly associated with Rajasthani folk music?

m
Ans 1. Tabla

. co 2. Morchang

s e m
m
3. Shehnai

se
4. Dholak

g l a
Q.83
Ans
a
According to the Indian Meteorological Department (IMD), how many seasons are there in India?
1. 7

2. 3

3. 6

4. 4

Q.84 Who among the following renowned musicians is celebrated for popularising the unique instrument known as the 'Sarod'
and is considered one of the most famous maestros of the Senia Shahjahanpur gharana?
Ans 1. Ustad Amjad Ali Khan

2. Ustad Bismillah Khan

m
3. Ustad Ali Akbar Khan

m .co
4. Pandit Ravi Shankar

.co em
Q.85 Which initiative has been introduced in DISC 12 to foster the development of medical technologies for the Armed Forces in

s
2024?
Ans

e m
1. AIM

l a
l as 2. MIRA

ag
ag
3. iDEX

4. ADITI

Q.86 What is the name of the half humanoid robot that India is planning to launch in space before the actual human mission
Gaganyaan to test flight criticalities?
Ans 1. Vyommitra

2. Nabhmitra

3. Gaganmaitri

4. Antariksha vicharak

Q.87 El Nino is a narrow warm current which occasionally appears off the coast of ___________.
Ans 1. Uganda

m
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2. Australia

3. Brazil

4. Peru

e m
Q.88

las
ag
Ans 1. 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c

2. 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c

3. 1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-a

4. 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c

Q.89 Which of the following is NOT one of the recent initiatives of the Government of India to generate opportunities of

m
employment?

.co
Ans 1. Start Up India

m
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2. Skill India

3. Make in India
e m
e m 4. Unicorn India

l as
l as Q.90
ag
The Hindustan Aeronautics Limited handed over the first twin-seater Light Combat Aircraft ‘Tejas’ to the Indian Air Force in

g
the year _________.

a Ans 1. 2018

2. 2023

3. 2014

4. 2024

Q.91 Mopin Festival is celebrated in which state of India?
Ans 1. Arunachal Pradesh

2. Uttar Pradesh

3. Haryana

4. Rajasthan

m .
.co m
Q.92 Which government programme in India aims at eradicating poverty through employment generation in rural areas?
Ans 1. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)

m s e
e
2. National Rural Health Mission (NRHM)

s l a
a ag
3. National Food Security Act (NFSA)

g l
4. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY)

a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 45 of 48

Q.93 What is the name of the United Nations specialised agency for Information and Communication Technologies (ICTs), which
has released the 5th edition of Global Cybersecurity Index (GCI) in 2024?
Ans 1. World Telecommunication Union

2. Global Telecommunication Union

3. United Nations World Communication Union

4. International Telecommunication Union

Q.94 Arrange the following rivers in the ascending order based on the size of their basins:

Godavari,
Krishna,
Mahanadi,
Ganga.
Ans 1. Ganga > Mahanadi > Godavari > Krishna

2. Ganga > Krishna > Mahanadi > Godavari

3. Ganga > Godavari > Krishna > Mahanadi

4. Ganga > Mahanadi > Krishna > Godaveri

Q.95 Which of the following countries rejoined the UNESCO in July 2023 and became its 194th member?
Ans 1. India

2. United Kingdom

3. United States of America

4. Iran

Q.96 Which of the following is the first stage of karyokinesis of mitosis that follows the S and G2 phases of interphase?
Ans 1. Prophase

2. Anaphase

3. Telophase

4. Metaphase

Q.97 Which house of the parliament has the most powers in matters of Money bills?
Ans 1. Lok Sabha

2. Rajya Sabha

3. Vidhan Parishad

4. Vidhan Sabha

Q.98 The Vande Bharat Express is made in which country?
Ans 1. Korea

2. India

3. England

4. Japan

Q.99 _______ has won the National Award for the best implementation of Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY), which is a
crop subsidy insurance scheme, for the year 2022-23?
Ans 1. Punjab

2. Uttar Pradesh

3. Karnataka

4. Tamil Nadu

Q.100 The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the _______________________ and works in collaboration with the Election
Commission of India.
Ans 1. Lok Sabha Speaker

2. Chief Justice of India

3. Prime Minister of India

4. President of India

Q.101 In which sport did Indian player Nitesh Kumar win a gold medal at the Paris Paralympic Games 2024?
Ans 1. Athletics

2. Shooting

3. Archery

4. Badminton

Q.102 Who among the following was the first Indian woman to become the President of Indian National Congress?
Ans 1. Annie Besant

2. Sarojini Naidu

3. Nelli Sengupta

4. Madam Bhikaji Cama

Q.103 Who is the Chairperson of NITI Aayog?
Ans 1. Vice-President

2. President

3. Home Minister

4. Prime Minister

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 46 of 48

m
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Q.104 Which of the following statements regarding Fundamental Rights is/are NOT CORRECT?

m
co
1. Fundamental Rights are described in Articles 12 to 36 in Part-3 of the Constitution.

m
2. This part is called the Magna Carta of India.

m . 3. Their objective is to create a government of law in the country and not of individuals.
4. These are not absolute; the state can impose reasonable restrictions on them.
s e
se
Ans 1. Only 1 and 3

g l a
a
2. Only 3 and 4

3. Only 1

4. Only 1 and 4

Q.105 Who among the following was appointed as the Governor of Chitor after Akbar invaded it in 1567?
Ans 1. Asaf Khan

2. Bairam Khan

3. Adham Khan

4. Maan Singh

Q.106 Which of the following is/are food as well as fodder crops grown under semi-arid climatic conditions sown all over India

m
except in eastern and northeastern regions?

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Ans 1. Areca nut

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2. Cotton

3. Maize
em
e m
4. Pulses

l as
l as
Q.107 How many members of Rajya Sabha are nominated by the President of India?
ag
ag
Ans 1. 12

2. 10

3. 14

4. 08

Q.108 What is the role of the Experts Advisory Committee (EAC) in the implementation of the Startup India Seed Fund Scheme
(SISFS)?
Ans 1. Approving individual startup funding requests

2. Monitoring the performance of startups receiving funding

3. Disbursing funds directly to startups

4. Evaluating and selecting incubators for fund allocation

m
.co
Q.109 In September 2024, who among the following launched the Jan Sunwai Portal of the Department of Commerce, designed to
streamline communication between stakeholders and authorities?

m
Ans 1. Piyush Goyal

2. Bimal Borah

s e
3. Krishna Kumar Vishnoi

g la
a
4. Chetanya Kasyap

Q.110 Which of the following Fundamental Duties was added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment, 1976?
Ans 1. To work for the country

2. To safeguard private property

3. Amend the Constitution and its ideals

4. To uphold and protect the harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India

Q.111 The acid present in the cells of our body is _______________.
Ans 1. deoxyribonucleic acid

2. ribonucleic acid

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.co
3. sulphuric acid

m 4. oxalic acid

m .co Q.112 What was the role of Nayakas under the Amara-Nayaka system of Vijayanagar administration?

s e m
e a
Ans 1. Revenue Collector

as 2. Village Head
g l
g l 3. Army Commander
a
a 4. Head of the Spies

Q.113 The Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC) issued a drug safety alert in December 2023 advising healthcare professionals
and patients to monitor adverse reactions to ‘Meftal’, which has _______ properties
Ans 1. antipruritic

2. antipyretic

3. antacid

4. antihistamine

Q.114 In August 2023, the Defence Ministry of India decided to switch its operating system from Windows to a locally built OS
amid rising trends in cyberthreats. The name of the new OS is _________.
Ans

m
1. Surakshakavach

.
.co m
2. Survekshan

3. Maya

m s e
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4. Megh

s l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 47 of 48

Q.115 Which of the following universities is acclaimed as the 'Oxford of Mahayanism'?
Ans 1. Taxila

2. Vikramshila

3. Nalanda

4. Vallabhi

Q.116 The signatories of the Poona Pact were the Mahatma Gandhi Group and the _________.
Ans 1. Dr. BR Ambedkar Group

2. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel Group

3. Subhas Chandra Bose Group

4. Jawaharlal Nehru Group

Q.117 The efficient market hypothesis (EMH) is foundational to the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM). To test the validity of the
EMH, one can examine whether historical data contradicts CAPM. If historical data were to contradict CAPM, which of the
following would this imply about the efficient market hypothesis?
Ans 1. It would imply that the market is always efficient.

2. It would imply that the market is inefficient.

3. It would imply that the historical data is irrelevant to market efficiency.

4. It would imply that CAPM is infallible.

Q.118 In December 2023, Revanth Reddy became the Chief Minister of which state?
Ans 1. Karnataka

2. Chhattisgarh

3. Telangana

4. Madhya Pradesh

Q.119 As per the Indian Constitution, who among the following is considered as the chief aid and
advisor of the Governor of a State?
Ans 1. Advocate General

2. Chief Secretary

3. Chief Justice of the High Court

4. Chief Minister of the State

Q.120 Which of the following statements is NOT correct about ‘Globalisation’?
Ans 1. It helps to create borderless world

2. It encourages flows of investment, people and information

3. It helps in alleviating problems and increased sustainable development benefits

4. It is the process of interaction and integration among people

2024/12/10-22:28:50
​

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