RPF SI 2024 Question Paper 12 Dec All Shifts (in English)

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RPF SI 2024
Question Paper · All
Shifts English
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT DATE

RPF SI 2024 Question Paper All Shifts English 12 Dec

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Community OBC NCL
Test Center
iON Digital Zone iDZ 1 Mathura Road
Name
Test Date 12/12/2024
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Test Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
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Recruitment of Sub Inspector Executive in Railway
Subject
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Protection Force and Railway Protection Special Force
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* Note

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Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.
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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

Section : Arithmetic

Q.1 A conical tent has to accommodate 40 persons. Each person requires 5 m2 space on the ground and 70 m3 of air to breathe.
Find the height (in m) of the tent (use π = 22/7).
Ans 1. 38
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2. 45

3. 42
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4. 40
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Q.2 ag
If a 1092 m long train crosses a pole in 52 seconds, then find the time (in seconds) taken by the train to cross a 294 m long
platform.
Ans 1. 60

2. 66

3. 63

4. 61

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Q.3 If the average of the four consecutive odd numbers is 42, find the sum of the digits of the largest of these numbers.
Ans
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1. 5

m.co 2. 8
s e m
s e 3. 7
g l a
g l a 4. 9 a
a Q.4

Ans 1. 35

2. 36

3. 28

4. 26

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Q.5 The smallest natural number which is divisible by 14, 42, 54 and 6 is:
Ans 1. 384

2. 458

3. 378

4. 298

Q.6 120 l of a mixture of milk and water contains 15% of water. How much water (in litres) should be added to the mixture to
make the water content 25%?
Ans 1. 24

2. 16

3. 12

4. 20

Q.7

Ans 1. 489

2. 498

3. 488

4. 499

Q.8 The area of a square plot is 961 m 2 . The length of each side of the plot (in m) is:
Ans 1. 29

2. 31

3. 39

4. 41

Q.9 Pramod sold 171 chairs and had a gain equal to the selling price of 57 chairs. What is his profit percentage?
Ans 1. 60%

2. 55%

3. 45%

4. 50%

Q.10 The average of eight numbers is 20. The average of five of these numbers is 21. The average of the remaining three numbers
is
Ans 1. 19.33

2. 18.33

3. 20.33

4. 17.33

Q.11 Two trains of equal length are running on parallel lines in the same direction at speeds of 40 km/h and 22 km/h. The faster
train passes the slower train in 40 seconds. The length of each train is:
Ans 1. 100 meters

2. 90 meters

3. 82 meters

4. 114 meters

Q.12 The smallest 1-digit number to be added to the 6-digit number 547363 so that it is completely divisible by 11 is:
Ans 1. 5

2. 4

3. 6

4. 8

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 2 of 49

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Q.13 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2000 at 6.25% per annum rate of interest for the period from 12 February 2023 to 26 April
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2023

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Ans 1. 24
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2. 25

3. 26
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4. 23

Q.14 The smallest 1-digit number to be added to the 6-digit number 497094 so that it is completely divisible by 11 is:
Ans 1. 4

2. 8

3. 7

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4. 6

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Q.15
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The ratio of numbers of girls and boys participating in sports of a school is 1 : 5. If the number of girls is 247, determine the

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number of boys participating in the sports.
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Ans 1. 1210

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2. 1235

3. 1265

4. 1255

Q.16 A shopkeeper lists the price of a fan at 60% above its cost price and offers a 30% discount on its list price. If he earns a
profit of ₹60, then what is the list price (in ₹) of the fan?
Ans 1. 1021

2. 824

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3. 800

4. 873

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Q.17
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A bank offers 6.8% compound interest per annum calculated on a half-yearly basis. A customer deposits ₹4879 each on 1

your answer correct to 2 decimal places.]
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January and 1 July of a year. At the end of the year, the amount he would have gained by way of interest is ________. [Give

Ans 1. ₹503.29

2. ₹524.58

3. ₹521.27

4. ₹513.29

Q.18 A bank offers 9.2% compound interest per annum calculated on a half-yearly basis. A customer deposits ₹2907 each on 1
January and 1 July of a year. At the end of the year, the amount he would have gained by way of interest is ________. [Give
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your answer correct to 2 decimal places.]

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Ans 1. ₹395.33

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2. ₹417.31

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l as 3. ₹407.31
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ag 4. ₹399.22

Q.19 During sale, Raghav bought a notebook marked for ₹100 at 77% discount and a pen marked for ₹100 at 16% discount. How
much (in ₹) did he save due to sale?
Ans 1. 92

2. 93

3. 91

4. 95

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Q.20 Observe the graph and answer the following question.

How many students obtained marks more than 135?
Ans 1. 12

2. 18

3. 16

4. 14

Q.21 In what ratio must Suhail, a wholesaler, mix wheat worth ₹45 per kg with wheat worth ₹75 per kg, so that by selling the
mixture at ₹80 per kg, he may gain 25%?
Ans 1. 11 : 19

2. 13 : 17

3. 11 : 17

4. 13 : 19

Q.22
Find the value of

Ans 1. 275

2. 298

3. 266

4. 280

Q.23 Express the following into vulgar fraction.

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 4 of 49

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Q.24 A shopkeeper marks an article at ₹x and offers a discount of 40% on it. He sells it for ₹255 after charging VAT of 70% on the
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discounted price. What is the value of ₹ x?

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Ans 1. ₹400
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2. ₹100

3. ₹250
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4. ₹200

Q.25 The price of fuel decreases by 25%, 60% and 10% in three successive months, but increases by 60% in the fourth month.
What is the percentage increase/decrease in the price of fuel in the fourth month as compared to its original price?
Ans 1. Increases by 61.02%

2. Increases by 59.84%

3. Decreases by 56.79%
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4. Decreases by 59.51%
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Q.26
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A person drove at 39 kmph for 3.5 hours, then increased his speed by 9 kmph, and reached the destination in another hour. e m
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Find the average speed (in kmph) of the person during the entire journey.
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Ans 1. 43
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2. 45
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3. 41

4. 47

Q.27 Raghu completes his journey in 20 hours. He covers half the distance at 27 km/h and the rest at 54 km/h. What is the length
of the journey (in Km)?
Ans 1. 720

2. 728
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3. 710

4. 712
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Q.28
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The average price of three items of furniture is Rs 15960. If their prices are in the ratio 3:5:7, the price of the costliest item (in
Rs) is
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Ans 1. 22344

2. 5320

3. 7448

4. 3192

Q.29 Parvati and Pari invest in a business in the ratio 7 : 15. If total profit is Rs. 1166, then what is difference between the profit (in
Rs.) of Parvati and Pari?
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Ans 1. 424
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2. 524

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a Q.30 Find the circumference (in m) of the largest circle that can be inscribed in a rectangle whose dimensions are given as 112 m
and 114 m.

Ans 1. 354

2. 347

3. 352

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4. 350

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Q.31 Find the volume of a sphere whose surface area is 1386 cm2.
Ans 1. 4726 cm2

2. 4518 cm2

3. 4851 cm2

4. 4672 cm2

Q.32 The population of a village was 140000. It increased by 5% in the first year and increased by 20% in the second year. Its
population after two years is _______.
Ans 1. 168000

2. 147000

3. 176400

4. 175000

Q.33 Simplify the following:

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.34 Isha and Anshu together invested ₹44000 in a business. At the end of the year, out of a total profit of ₹8800, Isha's share was
₹1100. What was the investment of Anshu?
Ans 1. ₹38500

2. ₹40115

3. ₹38110

4. ₹37420

Q.35 A number when divided by 576 gives remainder 75. If the same number is divided by 24, then find the remainder.
Ans 1. 4

2. 3

3. 2

4. 1

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.36 If 2 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number 384571, what will be the sum of all
even digits in the new number thus formed?
Ans 1. 14

2. 16

3. 8

4. 12

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 6 of 49

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Q.37 Select the triad that follows the same pattern as the one followed by the two triads given below. Both triads follow the same
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pattern.

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GC-JF-MP
Ans 1. IE-LH-OS
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2. IF-LG-OS

3. IE-LH-OR

4. IF-LH-OS

Q.38 This question is based on the following words.
CAR SHE BEG MUD
In each of the words, each vowel is changed to the letter following it in the English alphabetical order and each consonant is
changed to the letter preceding it in the English alphabetical order. In how many letter-clusters thus formed, will no vowel
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appear?

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Ans 1. 1

e m
2. 3

e m l as
3. 4

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4. 2

Q.39 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus
form a group. Which pair DOES NOT belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster pair.)
Ans 1. CX : AV

2. ID : GB

3. NI : LG

4. QL : PJ
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Q.40
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In a certain code language, ‘GASP’ is coded as ‘8264’ and ‘TAPS’ is coded as ‘8562’. What is the code for ‘T’ in that
language?
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Ans 1. 2

2. 6
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3. 5

4. 8

Q.41 Six people, named W, X, Y, Z, T and U, each are of different ages. The age of W is 30. The age of U is one-fourth the age of T.
The age of Y is two times the age of X. The age of T is five times the age of Y. The age of W is two times the age of U. If the
age of X is one-fourth the age of Z, what is the age of Z?
Ans 1. 35

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2. 45

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3. 25

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4. 24

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Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

ag 24 88 137 173 ?
Ans 1. 200

2. 196

3. 198

4. 202

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Q.43 25 is related to 155 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 20 is related to 125. To which of the following is 32
related, following the same logic?
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13
– Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting /multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing
mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 199

2. 197

3. 192

4. 166

Q.44 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All spoons are forks.
All forks are jars.
Some jars are knives.

Conclusions:
(I) Some forks are knives.
(II) Some spoons are knives.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

2. Only conclusion (I) follows.

3. Only conclusion (II) follows.

4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

Q.45 This question is based on the following words.

JAR CUT DIM FOG

If in each of the words, each letter is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical order, how many words thus
formed will have no vowel?
Ans 1. 2

2. 4

3. 3

4. 1

Q.46 Refer to the following letter, number and symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left
to right only.

(Left) C & T % 7 2 R G E * S D Y # 3 5 4 @ 6 K & (Right)

How many such symbols are there which are immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by a letter?
Ans 1. 3

2. 1

3. 2

4. 0

Q.47 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus
form a group. Which is the one that DOES NOT belong to that group?
Ans 1. ID : GB

2. DY : BW

3. KF : ID

4. RM : OK

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 8 of 49

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Q.48 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
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(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent

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digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
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(19, 38, 114)

Ans
(14, 28, 84)
1. (12, 24, 72) ag
2. (15, 30, 85)

3. (16, 48, 96)

4. (17, 34, 68)

Q.49 Ankit starts from point A and drives 11 km towards North. He then takes a left turn, drives 12 km, turns left and drives 14 km.
He then takes a left turn and drives 14 km. He takes a final left turn, drives 3 km and stops at point P. How far (shortest
distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach point A again? (All turns are 90 degrees turns only
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unless specified.)

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Ans 1. 3 km to the West

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2. 2 km to the West

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s
3. 1 km to the West

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4. 4 km to the West

Q.50 Which of the following letter-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete?

IDX 1 MGS −6 ? UMI −26 YPD −39
Ans 1. WPS −11

2. PWX −9

3. PLW −13

4. QJN −15
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Q.51
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Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a row, facing north. Only five people sit between F and A. E sits to the

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immediate left of A. Only one person sits between E and B. G sits at some place to the left of D but at some place to the right
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of C. How many people sit between A and C?
Ans 1. 1

2. 4 ag
3. 2

4. 3

Q.52 If 1 is added to each even digit and 1 is added to each odd digit in the number 2175648, what will be the sum of the first and
last digits in the new number thus formed?
Ans 1. 10

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2. 12

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3. 9

e m
e m
4. 7

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Four of the following five figures are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which figure DOES NOT belong to that

ag group?

.

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Ans 1. C

e m
2. A

e m l as
3. B

l as ag

4. D
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 9 of 49

Q.54 This question is based on the given words.
VAN BUT ZIP DEW
If in each of the words, each letter is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical order, how many words thus
formed will have no vowel?
Ans 1. One

2. Three

3. Two

4. Zero

Q.55 A, B, C, D, E and F live on six different floors of the same building. The lowermost floor in the building is numbered 1, the
floor above it, number 2 and so on till the topmost floor is numbered 6. C lives on an even numbered floor but not 6. The
sum of the floors on which B and C live is 7. A lives immediately above E. The sum of the floors on which C and F live is 3.
How many people live between A and C?
Ans 1. 3

2. 4

3. 1

4. 2

Q.56 In a certain code language, ‘HAZE’ is coded as ‘8574’ and ‘HEAL’ is coded as ‘1745’. What is the code for ‘L’ in that
language?
Ans 1. 4

2. 1

3. 5

4. 7

Q.57 Select the term from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

TUR 71 UQT 60 VMV 49 ? XEZ 27
Ans 1. VIY 35

2. UWX 32

3. VJX 34

4. WIX 38

Q.58 A * B means ‘ A is the father of B’,
A - B means ‘A is the son of B’,
A $ B means ‘A is the sister of B’ and
A @ B means ‘A is the daughter of B’.
Based on the above information, which of the following means that D is the sister's daughter of R?
Ans 1. D @ U * S - T $ R

2. D * U @ S $ T - R

3. D @ U - S * T $ R

4. D $ U * S - T @ R

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 10 of 49

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Q.59 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at line MN as shown.
m
. co s e m
m a
se ag l

Ans
1.

m
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2.
m
3. .co s em
s em l a
4.

g la ag
Q.60
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In a certain code language,

‘A + B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’,
‘A – B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’,
‘A x B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’ and
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the father of B’.

How is W related to Y if ‘W + E – R ÷ T x Y’?
Ans 1. Wife's mother's brother's daughter

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2. Wife's father's brother's daughter

3. Wife's father's brother's wife
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4. Wife's mother's brother's wife
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Q.61 ag
MJ 18 is related to OF 2 in a certain way. In the same way, NE 11 is related to PA -5. To which of the following is SQ
1 related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. VM -12

2. VK -14

3. UL -15

4. UM -15

Q.62
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Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given below. Both pairs follow the same

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pattern.
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KQR : OTT
s e m
a
SWV : WZX

s e
Ans 1. ACZ : EFB
g l
g l a 2. CZP : FBQ a
a 3. QRL : TTM

4. MBK : OGM

Q.63 Amit starts from Point A and drives 11 km towards North. He then takes a right turn, drives 9 km, turns right and drives 15
km. He then takes a right turn and drives 11 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 4 km and stops at Point P. How far
(shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90 degree
turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 2 km to the east

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2. 3 km to the west

e m
3. 2 km to the west

e m l as
4. 3 km to the east
l as ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 11 of 49

Q.64 If ‘P’ stands for ‘×’, ‘Q’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘R’ stands for ‘−’ and ‘S’ stands for ‘+’ , what will come in place of the question mark ‘?’
in the following equation?
(32 Q 2) P 4 R 35 S (7 P 3) S 20 R 18 Q 3 =?
Ans 1. 64

2. 80

3. 74

4. 50

Q.65 Each of P, Q, R, S, T, U and V go to market on a different day of a week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of the
same week.
P goes to market on Wednesday. Exactly two people go to market between P and Q. Exactly three people go to market
between Q and S. Exactly two people go to market between R and T. U goes to market on the day immediately after T. V goes
to market on one of days after U.
Who goes to market on Thursday?
Ans 1. T

2. V

3. S

4. U

Q.66 In a certain code language, ‘BULK’ is coded as ‘5273’ and ‘KITE’ is coded as ‘4612’. What is the code for ‘K’ in the given code
language?
Ans 1. 4

2. 2

3. 3

4. 6

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 12 of 49

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Q.67 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.
m
. co s e m
m a
se ag l

Ans

m
.co
1.
m
m .co s e m
s e l a
l a ag
ag
2.

3.
m
m .co
s e
g la
a
4.

Q.68 Seven people, C, D, E, F, G, H and Z, are sitting in a row facing north. Only three people sit to the left of E. Only four people
sit between H and D, neither of whom sits on the left end. C sits immediately to the left of G. Only three people sit between Z
and D. How many people sit between F and G?
m
m .co
Ans 1. Three

m.co 2. Two
s e m
s e 3. One

g l a
g l a 4. Four
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a Q.69 Three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster
pair that does NOT belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their positions in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. QS - NP

2. JL - GI

3. XZ - UW

4. MN - KL

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Q.70 Each of P, Q, R, S, T, U and V has an exam on a different day of a week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of the
same week.
Only two people have exam between S and V. U has an exam on Monday. Only P has an exam between U and S. V has an
exam on the day immediately before T and the day immediately after R. Q has an exam on the day immediately before R.
Who amongst the following has an exam on Saturday?
Ans 1. R

2. V

3. T

4. P

Section : General Awareness

Q.71 Which of the following Sultans of Delhi adopted the policy of Blood and Iron?
Ans 1. Mubarak Shah

2. Shamsuddin Iltutmish

3. Ghiyasuddin Balban

4. Alauddin Khalji

Q.72 The Bills of Lading Bill, 2024 was introduced by which of the following ministries in August 2024?
Ans 1. Ministry Of Home Affairs

2. Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways

3. Ministry of Civil Aviation

4. Ministry of Commerce and Industry

Q.73 In which year was the first Regional Rural Bank established?
Ans 1. 1982

2. 1991

3. 1975

4. 1980

Q.74 The joint Air Force exercise known as ‘GARUDA-VII’ was held between:
Ans 1. India and Sudan

2. India and Malaysia

3. India and France

4. India and South Africa

Q.75 In which of the following years was the All India Muslim League founded?
Ans 1. 1919

2. 1914

3. 1906

4. 1905

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 14 of 49

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Q.76 Which of the following diagrams accurately depicts the properties of convex lenses?
m
. co s e m
m a
se ag l

Ans 1. a

2. d

3. c

m
4. b

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Q.77 What is the term of office of the Chairmen and Members of the National Commission of Scheduled Tribes?
Ans 1. 03 Years
m s e
s e l a
ag
2. 06 Years

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3. 5.5 Years

4. 04 Years

Q.78 A reproductive method in which a single parent is capable of producing offsprings is called _____.
Ans 1. Sexual Reproduction

2. Asexual Reproduction

3. Pollination

4. Fertilization
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Q.79 The fourth state of matter 'PLASMA' is a/an ______________.
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Ans 1. neutral gas with fewer electrons
s e
2. state between liquid and gas
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a
3. ionised gas with ions and electrons in an almost equal number

4. ionized gas

Q.80 In April 2023, India’s first Laser Interferometer Gravitational Waves Observatory project was approved to be established in
which of the following states?
Ans 1. Rajasthan

2. Odisha

3. Uttar Pradesh
m
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4. Maharashtra
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m.co s e m
s e
Q.81 With reference to agriculture in India, what is ‘Barani’?

g l a
g l a Ans 1. Shifting agriculture
a
a 2. Deity of agriculture

3. Rainfed farming

4. Variety of maize

Q.82 The Kayatha Culture of Chalcolithic period in Ancient India belongs to which of the following states of India?
Ans 1. Punjab

2. Maharashtra

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3. Rajasthan

4. Madhya Pradesh

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Q.83 Which of the following is involved in the process of privatisation?
Ans 1. Increasing government control over the enterprise

2. Nationalising private companies

3. Abolishing private property rights

4. Selling shares to the public through an initial public offering (IPO)

Q.84 Which of the following states has the highest sex ratio (females per 1000 males) according to the Census 2011?
Ans 1. Kerala

2. Punjab

3. Himachal Pradesh

4. Tamilnadu

Q.85 When did HH Dixon give the first detailed description of the cohesion-tension theory explaining the water transport in
xylem?
Ans 1. 1937

2. 1914

3. 1982

4. 1890

Q.86 Which of the following substances produces hydroxide ions when dissolved in water?
Ans 1. Ammonia

2. Nitrogen dioxide

3. Carbon dioxide

4. Sulphur dioxide

Q.87 The 7th meeting of the UN Committee of Experts on Business and Trade Statistics, organised by the World Trade
Organization (WTO) in September 2024, was held at which place?
Ans 1. Geneva

2. Budapest

3. Madrid

4. Beijing

Q.88 In 1978, the _________ Amendment to the Constitution removed the right to the property from the list of the fundamental
rights and converted it into a simple legal right under Article 300A.
Ans 1. 45th

2. 42nd

3. 43rd

4. 44th

Q.89 Which of the following is NOT a part of the electoral college for the election of the President?
Ans 1. Elected members of the Rajya Sabha

2. Elected members of the State Assembly

3. Elected members of the Lok Sabha

4. Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha

Q.90 The term ‘Pallavi’ relates to the first or the second thematic lines of the composition in which of the following music?
Ans 1. Classical Carnatic music

2. Classical Hindustani music

3. Classical Urdu music

4. Classical Tribal and Folk music

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 16 of 49

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Q.91 Under which Article of the Indian Constitution can a member of the Public Service Commission be removed by the President
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of India?

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Ans 1. Article 314
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2. Article 317

3. Article 318
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4. Article 315

Q.92 Who among the following is the author of 'Adipurana'?
Ans 1. Jinasena

2. Rishabhdeva

3. Krishna

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4. Amoghvarsha

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Q.93
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How many stanzas are there in the poem ‘Nandikkalambakam’?

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Ans 1. 80 stanzas

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2. 60 stanzas
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3. 50 stanzas

4. 70 stanzas

Q.94 What is the major rationale of the Government of India to set up the Agricultural Prices Commission?
Ans 1. To determine the prices of seeds supplied by the government

2. To determine the prices of agricultural goods procured from farmers

3. To determine the prices of agricultural goods sold in the market

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4. To determine the prices of agricultural goods sold by the government

Q.95 State Highways in India primarily link which of the following?
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Ans 1. Rural areas and villages with state capitals

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2. State capitals with different district headquarters

3. District headquarters with other places of the district

4. Extreme parts of the country with New Delhi

Q.96 Who wrote the book 'The Discovery of India'?
Ans 1. Bhagat Singh

2. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

3. Jawaharlal Nehru
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4. Mahatma Gandhi
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Q.97
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In which year was the 'Bharatiya Sakshya Bill' passed in India?
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Ans 1. 2024
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a 3. 2023

4. 2021

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Q.98

Ans 1. (a) iv (b) ii (c) iii (d) i

2. (a) iv (b) iii (c) ii (d) i

3. (a) i (b) ii (c) iii (d) iv

4. (a) iii (b) iv (c) ii (d) i

Q.99 The Abhinav Bharat Mandir (Young India Society) was founded by _________ and his brother as a secret organisation during
the Indian War for Independence.
Ans 1. Damodar Hari Chapekar

2. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

3. Vinayak Damodar Savarkar

4. Mahadev Govind Ranade

Q.100 In the context of genetics, what is the primary purpose of pedigree analysis?
Ans 1. To track the inheritance of specific traits across generations within a family

2. To analyse the nutritional requirements of different organisms

3. To study the ecological interactions between species in an environment

4. To measure the physical traits of individuals in a population

Q.101 Which of the following aspects is covered by the Ayushman Sahakar Scheme?
Ans 1. Housing infrastructure

2. Healthcare and Education infrastructure

3. Physical infrastructure

4. Agriculture infrastructure

Q.102 Who among the following Carnatic music composers is known for his compositional contributions in Telugu and Sanskrit
languages, particularly in praise of Lord Rama?
Ans 1. Annamacharya

2. Purandara Dasa

3. Muthuswami Dikshitar

4. Tyagaraja

Q.103 Who among the social reformers following founded the Widow Remarriage Association in 1861?
Ans 1. Dadabhai Naoroji

2. Jyotiba Phule

3. Dayanand Saraswati

4. Mahavdev Govind Ranade

Q.104 Which of the following is NOT included in the Fundamental Duties enshrined in the Indian Constitution?
Ans 1. To value and preserve the rich heritage of the country's composite culture

2. To pay taxes

3. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence

4. To cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired the national struggle for freedom

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 18 of 49

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Q.105 Ritu Negi, who was awarded with the Arjuna Awards for outstanding performance in Sports and Games 2023, is a player
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related to which of the following games?

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Ans 1. Archery
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2. Boxing

3. Kho-Kho
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4. Kabaddi

Q.106 Which of the following teams won the Season 10 of Pro Kabaddi League (PKL), concluded in March 2024?
Ans 1. Puneri Paltan

2. Jaipur Pink Panthers

3. Patna Pirates

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4. Haryana Steelers

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Q.107 Which of following is NOT a measure to improve agricultural marketing?

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1. Providing fair price for farmer produce

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2. Manupulation by big traders
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3. Better infrastructural facilities

4. Regulated markets to protect farmer from malpractice

Q.108 Who among the following Indian won the UN Military Gender Advocate of the Year award in 2023?
Ans 1. Major Wamika Sen

2. Major Ananya Sen

3. Major Monika Sen

4. Major Radhika Sen
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Q.109 Which of the following is the Keynesian approach to the degree of wage and price flexibility in the labour market?

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Ans 1. Wages are flexible but prices are sticky.

2. Wages and prices are fully flexible.
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3. Wages and prices are sticky.

4. Wages are sticky but prices are flexible.

Q.110 The fourth Quad Leaders’ Summit of September 2024 was held at which place in the United States?
Ans 1. New York

2. Chicago

3. Wilmington
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4. Dallas
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Q.111
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In March 2023, India rejected Johnson and Johnson’s attempt to extend its monopoly on the manufacturing of which TB

s e drug, invoking Section 3(d) of the Indian Patent Law?
g l a
g l a Ans 1. Rifampin
a
a 2. Ethambutol

3. Bedaquiline

4. Isoniazid

Q.112 Which Indian government scheme is specifically aimed at providing at least 100 days of guaranteed wage employment to
rural households?
Ans 1. Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY)

2. Pradhan Mantri Rozgar Protsahan Yojana (PMRPY)
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3. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)

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4. National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM)
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Q.113 Where in India is the 'Basilica of Bom Jesus' building located?
Ans 1. Goa

2. Ranchi

3. Mumbai

4. Delhi

Q.114 Which of the following is the general trend of rainfall distribution across the northern plains of India?
Ans 1. It decreases from east to west.

2. It is a uniform distribu on across the region.

3. It increases from east to west.

4. It decreases from west to east.

Q.115 In which of the following years has Dinesh Goswami committee been formed for Electoral Reforms?
Ans 1. 1998

2. 2005

3. 1990

4. 2000

Q.116 Neeraja Prabhakar was nominated Chairperson of the Research Advisory Committee (RAC) of ___________ in 2023.
Ans 1. ICAR-Indian Institute of Oil Palm Research (IIOPR), Pedavegi

2. ICAR-Central Avian Research Institute, Izatnagar

3. ICAR-National Dairy Research Institute, Karnal

4. ICAR-Central Institute of Research on Cotton Technology, Mumbai

Q.117 Which of the following union territories has the highest literacy rate among males in India according to Census 2011?
Ans 1. Lakshadweep

2. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

3. Delhi

4. Puducherry

Q.118 Which of the following river systems in Rajasthan is the most extensive and transient with its source near Pushkar, splitting
into two streams known as 'Saraswati' and 'Sabarmati'?
Ans 1. Luni River

2. Godavari River

3. Yamuna River

4. Tapti River

Q.119 Who among the following introduced the Boilers Bill, 2024 in Rajya Sabha in August 2024?
Ans 1. Union Minister for Tribal Affairs

2. Union Minister for Commerce and Industry

3. Union Minister for Minority Affairs

4. Union Minister for Finance

Q.120 In which of the following cases was 'the basic structure doctrine' recognised for the first time?
Ans 1. Berubari Union case

2. LIC of India case

3. Kumar Padma Prasad case

4. Kesavananda Bharti case
ti

2024/12/13-00:19:44
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 20 of 49

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Community UR
Test Center
Saraswati College of Education
Name
Test Date 12/12/2024
Test Time 12:30 PM - 2:00 PM
Recruitment of Sub Inspector Executive in Railway
Subject
Protection Force and Railway Protection Special Force
* Note
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.

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Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

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1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.

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2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

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Section : Arithmetic
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Q.1

l asExpress the following into vulgar fraction .

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Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.2 A flask is full of 20% sulphuric acid solution. A part of this 20% sulphuric acid solution is replaced by a 4% sulphuric acid
solution and in this process 10% sulphuric acid solution is obtained. What fraction of 20% sulphuric acid solution is
replaced from the flask?

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Ans
1.

2.

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3.

4.
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Q.3 Which of the following fractions is the largest?

Ans
1.

2.

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3.

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s e m
s e g l a
g l a Q.4
a
The average price of three items of furniture is Rs 15990. If their prices are in the ratio 3:5:7, the price of the costliest item (in
Rs) is

a Ans 1. 5330

2. 3198

3. 22386

4. 7462

Q.5 If third proportional of 48 and 24 be x, then what is the value of x?
Ans 1. 12

2. 10

3. 13

4. 15

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Q.6 A bank offers 9.6% compound interest per annum calculated on a half-yearly basis. A customer deposits ₹8908 each on 1
January and 1 July of a year. At the end of the year, the amount he would have gained by way of interest is ________. [Give
your answer correct to 2 decimal places.]
Ans 1. ₹1303.27

2. ₹1303.08

3. ₹1299.47

4. ₹1313.27

Q.7 In an election between two candidates, 75% of the eligible voters cast their votes and 6% of the votes cast were declared
invalid. A candidate got 15228 votes, which were 90% of the total valid votes. Find the total number of eligible voters.
Ans 1. 24850

2. 27000

3. 25600

4. 24000

Q.8 If p = then nd the sum of the digits in
Ans 1. 18

2. 15

3. 16

4. 17

Q.9 The value of

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.10 Which of the following fractions is the largest?

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.11 The side of a rhombus is 20 cm and the length of the one of the diagonals is 32 cm. Find the area (in cm2) of the rhombus.
Ans 1. 484

2. 384

3. 424

4. 560
fi

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 22 of 49

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Q.12 The following bar graph represents the export of sugarcane (in lakh ₹) during five years. Study the bar graph carefully and

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answer the question given below:

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What is the approximate per cent decrement in export in 2019 in comparison to the average export during these five years?

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Ans 1. 20%

2. 21%

3. 22%

4. 19%

Q.13 Mamta and Geeta invest in a business in the ratio 1 : 11. If total profit is Rs. 4500, then what is difference between the profit
(in Rs.) of Mamta and Geeta?
Ans 1. 3700

2. 3850

3. 3900

4. 3750

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Q.14 A 372 m long train crosses a man walking at a speed of 6.9 km/h in the opposite direction in 24 seconds. What is the speed
(in km/h) of the train?

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Ans 1. 49.2

2. 48.9
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3. 46.5

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Q.15
4. 51.3
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What time (in seconds) is required for a 284 m long train to cross a 676 m long tunnel, if the train travels at a speed of 18
km/h?
Ans 1. 195

2. 193

3. 192

4. 188

Q
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1

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A 1. 85.9%

m n

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s

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2. 85.4%

s e
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3. 87.9%

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4. 84.8%

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Q.17 The smallest 1-digit number to be added to the 6-digit number 723265 so that it is completely divisible by 11 is:
Ans 1. 7

2. 2

3. 4

4. 6

Q.18 A number when increased by 50 %', gives 3900. The number is:
Ans 1. 1300

2. 7800

3. 2600

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4. 5200

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Q.19 If x varies inversely as y3 - 1 and is equal to 3 when y = 2, find x when y = 4.
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.20 A person covers certain distance in 9 hours at a speed of 7 km/h and some more distance in 5 hours at a speed of 5 km/h.
Find his average speed for the entire distance covered.
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.21 The smallest natural number which is divisible by 24, 16, 15 and 40 is:
Ans 1. 240

2. 245

3. 172

4. 180

Q
.
2
2
A 1. 40%
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2. 35%

3. 30%

4. 25%

Q.23 The sides of a triangle are 60 cm, 61 cm, and 11 cm. What is its area? (in cm2 )
Ans 1. 328

2. 349

3. 309

4. 330

Q.24 The number 18579285492174 is divisible by:
Ans 1. 9

2. 11

3. 4

4. 5

Q.25 The average marks of 35 students is 52. If each student's marks are decreased by 3, what will be the sum of the digits of the
new average?
Ans 1. 12

2. 13

3. 15

4. 14

Q.26 The area of a square plot is 7569 m 2 . The length of each side of the plot (in m) is:
Ans 1. 63

2. 87

3. 69

4. 97

Q.27 The difference between the simple interest and the compound interest, compounded annually, on a certain sum of money
for 2 years at 14% per annum is ₹633. Find the sum. [Give your answer to integral number without rounded off.]
Ans 1. ₹32282

2. ₹32288

3. ₹32313

4. ₹32295

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Q.28 The areas of three adjacent faces of a solid cuboid are 192 cm2, 242 cm2 and 24 cm2. What is the volume (in cm3) of the

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cuboid?

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Ans 1. 1042

m . 2. 1328

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3. 1056

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4. 1132

Q.29 A shopkeeper sells an item for ₹953.7 after giving two successive discounts of 49% and 75% on its marked price. Had he not
given any discount, he would have earned a profit of 10%. What is the cost price (in ₹) of the item?
Ans 1. 6800

2. 6794

3. 6763

4. 6796

Q.30 During sale, Raghav bought a notebook marked for ₹50 at 10% discount and a pen marked for ₹100 at 83% discount. How
much (in ₹) did he save due to sale?
Ans 1. 86

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2. 91

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3. 88

4. 89
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Q.31 The average price of three items of furniture is Rs 15945. If their prices are in the ratio 3:5:7, the price of the costliest item (in

a ag
Rs) is

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Ans 1. 5315

2. 3189

3. 7441

4. 22323

Q.32 Anmol completes his journey in 15 hours. He covers half the distance at 62 km/h and the rest at 93 km/h. What is the length
of the journey (in Km)?
Ans 1. 1114

2. 1110

3. 1117

4. 1116

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Q.33 Find the simple interest (in ₹) on ₹2000 at 6.5% per annum rate of interest for the period from 3 February 2023 to 17 April
2023

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Ans 1. 24

2. 27

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3. 25

Q.34
4. 26

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Find the value of

Ans 1. 525

2. 510

3. 520

4. 527

Q.35 The average of 41 numbers is 58. The average of the first 16 numbers is 46 and the average of the last 26 numbers is 66. If

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the 16th number from the beginning is excluded, then what is the average of the remaining numbers?

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Ans 1. 61.1

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2. 53.107

3. 55.81
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e m 4. 57.6

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Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

a Q.36 Which of the following letter-clusters should replace # and % so that the pattern and relationship followed between the
letter-cluster pair on the left side of :: is the same as that on the right side of ::?
# : HLP :: LPT : %
Ans 1. # = AEI, % = SWO

2. # = AEI, % = UWA

3. # = AEI, % = SWA

4. # = BEI, % = SWA

Q.37 Three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the letter-cluster
pair that does NOT belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their positions in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. LP - GJ

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2. PT - KN

3. HL - CE

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4. TX - OR

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Q.38 Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

17 21 30 46 71 ?
Ans 1. 107

2. 109

3. 106

4. 105

Q.39 IAEH is related to KCGJ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, LDHK is related to NFJM.
To which of the following is OGKN related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. QIMP

2. IQMP

3. IQPM

4. QIPM

Q.40 Refer to the following letter, number and symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left
to right only.
(Left) M % $ F I 5 * £ 8 € € 9 M Z @ & 6 1 3 @ J £ (Right)
If all the numbers are dropped from the series, which of the following will be sixth from the left?
Ans 1. $

2. *

3. I

4. F

Q.41 G, H, I, J, M, N and O are si ng around a square table facing the centre of the table.
No one sits to the right of M. Only three people sit between M and O. Only two people sit between O and H. G sits
third to the le of N. J sits to the immediate right of N.
How many people sit between I and H?
Ans 1. Two

2. Three

3. One

4. Four

Q.42 In a certain code language, ‘MORE’ is coded as ‘4876’ and ‘WORM’ is coded as ‘6783’. What is the code for ‘W’ in the given
code language?
Ans 1. 3

2. 7

3. 8

4. 6

Q.43 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All computers are desktops.
All desktops are laptops.
No computer is a phone.

Conclusions:
(I) No desktop is a phone.
(II) No laptop is a phone.
Ans 1. Only conclusion II follows.

2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

3. Only conclusion I follows.

4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Q.44 Each letter in the word FORAGE is changed to the letter immediately succeeding it in the English alphabetical order and
then all the letters thus formed are arranged in alphabetical order. Which of the following letters will be the second from the
left in the new letter-cluster thus formed?
Ans 1. F

2. G

3. B

4. H

Q.45 Four of the following five figures are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which figure DOES NOT belong to that
group?

Ans 1. D

2. B
tti
ft

3. E

4. C

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 26 of 49

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Q.46 Six people, named W, X, Y, Z, T and U, each are of different ages. The age of X is 10. The age of Y is five times the age of W.

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The age of Z is one-fourth the age of U. The age of W is two times the age of Z. The age of X is one-fourth the age of Y. If the

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age of U is one-third the age of T, what is the age of T?

.
Ans 1. 58

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m 2. 48

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4. 68
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Q.47 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at line MN as shown.

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Ans 1.

2.

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s e 3.

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l a 4.
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Q.48 Rohit starts from Point A and drives 10 km towards West. He then takes a left turn, drives 6 km, turns left and drives 11 km.
He then takes a left turn and drives 9 km. He takes a final left turn, drives 1 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest
distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90 degree turns only
unless specified.)
Ans 1. 2 km to the South

2. 3 km to the South

3. 2 km to the North

4. 3 km to the North

Q.49 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically
complete?

TWZ19, JMP31, ZCF43, PSV55, ?
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Ans 1. FBX67

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2. FAY67

3. EAX67

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4. FIL67

Q.50
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Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a
group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group?

(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter cluster.)
Ans 1. QTR

2. EHF

3. KNL

4. SWT

Q.51 If 1 is added to each even digit and 2 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number 9738625, how many
digits will appear more than once in the new number thus formed?

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Ans 1. One

m 2. Three

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3. Two

e m 4. None

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l as Q.52

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In a certain code language, ‘BREW’ is coded as ‘7462’ and ‘WHAT’ is coded as ‘3751’. What is the code for ‘W’ in the given

g
code language?

a
Ans 1. 5

2. 7

3. 2

4. 3

Q.53 Rajan starts from Point A and drives 12 km towards west. He then takes a left turn, drives 13 km, turns left and drives 14 km.
He then takes a left turn and drives 18 km. He takes a final left turn, drives 2 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest
distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90 degrees turns only
unless specified)
Ans 1. 4 km to the south

2. 5 km to the south

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3. 2 km to the south

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4. 3 km to the south

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Q.54 Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

BIP ELS HOV KRY ?
Ans 1. NUB

2. BUN

3. BNU

4. NBU

Q.55 C, D, E, F, G, H and U are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table. Only two people sit between D and G,
when counted from the left of G. U sits third to the left of E. H sits to the immediate right of E. H sits second to the left of D.
C is not an immediate neighbour of U. Who sits third to the right of F?
Ans 1. H

2. G

3. C

4. E

Q.56 If ‘P’ stands for ‘×’ , ‘Q’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘R’ stands for ‘−’ and ‘S’ stands for ‘+’ , what will come in place
of the question mark ‘?’ in the following equation?
(48 Q 6) P 3 S 18 R 12 S (13 P 2) S 40 R 28 = ?
Ans 1. 92

2. 84

3. 50

4. 68

Q.57 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus
form a group. Which pair DOES NOT belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster pair.)
Ans 1. KF : ID

2. UP : SN

3. ID : GB

4. MH : KE

Q.58 Refer to the given letter, number, symbol series and answer the question that follows.

(Left) % 7 Y # K E G 6 3 C & T @ 2 5 4 D * S R + (Right)

How many such letters are there, that are immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by a symbol?
Ans 1. 5

2. 3

3. 2

4. 4

Q.59 Which of the following letter-clusters should replace # and % so that the pattern and relationship followed between the
letter-cluster pair on the left side of :: is the same as that on the right side of :: ?

# : PRM :: NPK : %
Ans 1. # = KMH, % = SUP

2. # = NHG, % = SKI

3. # = MJH, % = PRV

4. # = NLH, % = NJH

Q.60 In a certain code language, ‘BALE’ is coded as ‘1579’ and ‘LUNG’ is coded as ‘2461’. What is the code for ‘L’ in that
language?
Ans 1. 1

2. 2

3. 7

4. 5

Q.61 Seven boxes U, V, W, X, P, Q and R are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. V is kept second from
the bottom. Only three boxes are kept between V and R. X is kept at one of the positions below V. Only U is kept between R
and W. P is kept at one of the positions above R. How many boxes are kept between X and P?
Ans 1. One

2. Four

3. Three

4. Five

Q.62 P, Q, R, U, V and W live on six di erent oors of the same building. The lowermost oor in the building is numbered
1, the oor above it is numbered 2 and so on ll the topmost oor, which is numbered 6.
U lives on an even numbered oor but not on oor number 4. Only two people live between U and V. Q lives on an
odd numbered oor but not on the lowermost oor. Only two people live between Q and P. W lives immediately
below Q.
How many people live between R and W?
Ans 1. Four

2. One

3. Two

4. Three
ff

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ti

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For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 28 of 49
fl

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Q.63 Refer to the following letter and symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to

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right only.

. co (Left) T £ & Z N € Z % A € # * B I © £ * O J @ H A (Right)

s e m
m a
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How many such letters are there which are immediately preceded by a symbol and also immediately followed by a
symbol?

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Ans 1. Zero

2. Four

3. One

4. Two

Q.64 5 is related to 28 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 3 is related to 12. To which of the following is 24 related,
following the same logic?
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)
Ans 1. 597

2. 579

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3. 587

4. 586
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Q.65
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Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

m s em
s e l a
l a ag
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Ans

1.

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2.

s e
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3.

4.

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Q.66 Seven boxes, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. Only three boxes are

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kept above F. Only one box is kept between D and F. Only three boxes are kept between D and B. B is kept at some place
above F. G is kept immediately below B. E is kept at one of the places above A. C is not kept immediately above or below D.

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How many boxes are kept above G?

l as
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Ans 1. 1

l a 2. 4
ag
ag 3. 3

4. 2

Q.67 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13
into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)
(11, 60, 19)
(23, 78, 16)
Ans 1. (33, 101, 18)

2. (18, 78, 21)

3. (48, 139, 22)

m .
4. (38, 89, 7)

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Q.68 In a certain code language,
A ; B means ‘A is the sister of B’,
A = B means ‘A is the daughter of B’,
A < B means ‘A is the son of B’,
and A + B means ‘A is the father of B’.

How is T related to O if 'T < A ; N = G + O’?
Ans 1. Sister's father

2. Sister's mother

3. Sister's daughter

4. Sister's son

Q.69 A is the sister of B's son C. K is the father of C, and L is the father of K. How is A related to L?
Ans 1. Daughter's daughter

2. Son's daughter

3. Son's son

4. Son's wife

Q.70 If 2 is added to each even digit and 1 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number 6172359, what will be the sum of the
last two digits from the left in the new number thus formed?
Ans 1. 6

2. 8

3. 12

4. 10

Section : General Awareness

Q.71 Which of the following states in India was the first to implement the Panchayati Raj system?
Ans 1. Kerala

2. Maharashtra

3. West Bengal

4. Rajasthan

Q.72 PM – Daksh Yojana is associated with:
Ans 1. protection from neighbouring countries

2. precautionary health measures

3. skill development training programmes

4. use of fertilisers in agriculture

Q.73 Vigyan Shri 2024 Awardee in the field of agricultural sciences, Dr. Anandharamakrishnan C, is the Director of which of the
following institutions as on October 2024?
Ans 1. CSIR-Centre for Cellular Molecular Biology, Hyderabad

2. ICAR-Central Institute on Fisheries Education, Mumbai

3. CSIR-National Institute For Interdisciplinary Science and Technology, Thiruvananthapuram

4. ICAR-Central Arid Zone Research Institute, Jodhpur

Q.74 In August 2024, Grinson George was appointed as the director of which of the following institutions?
Ans 1. Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (CMFRI), Ernakulam

2. ICAR-Central Institute of Research on Cotton Technology, Mumbai

3. ICAR-Central Avian Research Institute, Izatnagar

4. ICAR-National Dairy Research Institute, Karnal

Q.75 The Skill India Mission, aimed at training over 40 crore people in India in different skills by 2022, is primarily facilitated by
which of the following?
Ans 1. Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY)

2. Both National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) and Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY)

3. National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC)

4. National Career Service (NCS)

Q.76 Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala, who was selected for the post of the Director General of the World Trade Organisation (WTO) until 31
August 2025, belongs to which African country?
Ans 1. South Africa

2. Algeria

3. Sudan

4. Nigeria

Q.77 Which of the following methods is used for the estimation of poverty in India?
Ans 1. Relative Poverty

2. Multidimensional Poverty Index

3. Head Count Ratio

4. Absolute Poverty

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 30 of 49

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Q.78 The Hazira-Vijaipur-Jagdishpur (HVJ) gas pipeline links Mumbai High with industries in which of the following regions of

m
India?

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Ans 1. Southern and eastern

m . 2. Northern and eastern

s e
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3. Central and western

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4. Western and northern

Q.79 Bhajan Lal Sharma took oath on 15 December 2023 as the Chief Minister of which of the following states of India?
Ans 1. Haryana

2. Jharkhand

3. Rajasthan

4. Madhya Pradesh

Q.80 Where is the Vajragiri Buddhist monastery located?
Ans 1. Uttar Pradesh

2. Odisha

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3. Bihar

4. Madhya Pradesh
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Q.81
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PV Sindhu was accompanied by whom as the flag bearer of India at the Paris 2024 Olympics opening ceremony?

m s em
Ans

s e
1. PR Sreejesh

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2. Aman Sehrawat

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3. Manu Bhaker

4. Sharath Kamal

Q.82 Which of the following local storms is beneficial for tea, jute and rice cultivation?
Ans 1. Blossom showers

2. Loo

3. Nor Westers

4. Mango showers

Q.83 Which statement is FALSE about particles of a matter?
Ans 1. Particles of matter have space between them.

m
2. Particles of matter attract each other.

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3. Particles of matter are continuously moving.

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4. Motion of particles of matter is unaffected by any external forces.

s e
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Q.84 The 15th BRICS summit unanimously decided to invite how many countries to become full members from 1 January 2024?

g
Ans 1. Seven

2. Five

3. Eight
a
4. Six

Q.85 Who was the first musician from Asia to be honoured with the Ramon Magsaysay Award for contributions to Carnatic
music?
Ans 1. GN Balasubramaniam

2. Sai Shravanam

3. MS Subbulakshmi

4. Amrutha Venkatesh

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Q.86

e m
e m l as
l as ag
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Ans 1. (a) iii (b) ii (c) i (d) iv

2. (a) iv (b) iii (c) ii (d) i

3. (a) iii (b) i (c) ii (d) iii

m .
4. (a) ii (b) i (c) iii (d)iv

.co e m
Q.87 On which of the following dates was the Supreme Court of India established?
Ans 1. 15th

e
August 1950
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l as
2. 26th January 1950

3. 28th January 1950
ag
ag4. 22nd July 1950
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 31 of 49

Q.88 Which round of the National Family Health Survey (NFHS) for maternal and child health and other associated indicators was
launched by the Centre in December 2023?
Ans 1. NFHS-4

2. NFHS-6

3. NFHS-7

4. NFHS-5

Q.89 Postulates of special theory of relativity are applicable to __________________.
Ans 1. all frames of references

2. inertial frames

3. stationary frames

4. accelerated frames

Q.90 In which House of Parliament can a money bill be introduced?
Ans 1. Vidhan Parishad

2. Rajya Sabha

3. Lok Sabha

4. Vidhan Sabha

Q.91 Which of the following two organisations teamed up to develop India’s first indigenous CAR-T cell therapy?
Ans 1. IIT Bombay and IIT Madras

2. IIT Delhi and AIIMS Delhi

3. IIT Bombay and Tata Memorial Centre

4. IIT Ropar and PGI Chandigarh

Q.92 _________ is the just distribution of resources in which every Indian should be able to meet his/her basic needs and
inequality in the distribution of wealth should be reduced.
Ans 1. Equality

2. Equity

3. Inclusion

4. Egalitarianism

Q.93 Which of the following states has the highest female literacy according to census of 2011?
Ans 1. Mizoram

2. Kerala

3. Goa

4. Tripura

Q.94 Off the coast of which state of India was the New Generation Ballistic Missile ‘Agni Prime’ successfully flight-tested in June
2023?
Ans 1. Odisha

2. Andhra Pradesh

3. Rajasthan

4. Maharashtra

Q.95 Which of the following plant components is/are tasked with conveying water and nutrients from the roots to other parts of
the plant?
Ans 1. Stomata

2. Epidermis

3. Phloem

4. Xylem

Q.96 How do microfinance institutions (MFIs) contribute to financial inclusion in remote rural areas of India?
Ans 1. By relying solely on digital banking platforms for loan disbursement

2. By offering standardised loan products similar to traditional banks

3. By focusing exclusively on urban micro-enterprises

4. By establishing partnerships with local non-governmental organisations (NGOs) for outreach

Q.97 Which of the following is the definition of Globalisation?
Ans 1. Globalisation is an outcome of industrial policies that aim to transform the world towards greater interdependence and
integration.
2. Globalisation is an outcome of trading policies that aim to transform the world towards greater interdependence and
integration.
3. Globalisation is an outcome of a set of various policies aimed at transforming the world towards greater interdependence and
integration.
4. Globalisation is an outcome of agricultural policies that aim to transform the world towards greater interdependence and
integration.

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 32 of 49

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Q.98 Consider the following statements.

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1. Elections are held every five years for the Lok Sabha and each Legislative Assembly.

. makes such a recommendation to the President.
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2. The President can dissolve the Lok Sabha even before the completion of 5 years of the government, if the Prime Minister

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3. The Council of Ministers automatically gets dissolved due to the death or resignation of the Prime Minister.

a
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4. The Lok Sabha elections are conducted according to the 'first past the post' system.

Ans
Select the correct statement.
1. Only 1 and 2 ag
2. Only 1, 2 and 4

3. Only 1 and 4

4. All 1,2,3 and 4

Q.99 Which of the following Amendments has added the 11th Fundamental Duty in the Indian Constitution?
Ans 1. 84th Amendment

2. 80th Amendment

3. 86th Amendment

4. 72nd Amendment
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m .co
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Q.100 The first Turkish ruler who introduced pure Arabic coins in India was ________________.
Ans 1. Qutubuddin Aibak

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2. Iltutmish

l as
l as 3. Balban

4. Alauddin Khilji
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Q.101 In which of the following years did the Britishers establish their first factory in Bengal?
Ans 1. 1659

2. 1651

3. 1631

4. 1605

Q.102 Former Lok Sabha MP from Assam Ramen Deka was appointed as Governor of which of the following states of India in July
2024?
Ans 1. Chhattisgarh

2. Andhra Pradesh

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3. Maharashtra

4. Odisha

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Q.103 In the context of plant and animal kingdoms, what does chemotaxonomy primarily focus on?

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Ans 1. The classification of organisms based on their morphological characteristics.

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2. The classification of organisms based on their chemical composition.

3. The classification of organisms based on their ecological roles.

4. The examination of genetic sequences in mitochondrial DNA.

Q.104 Which of the following optical instruments creates colourful beautiful patterns due to multiple reflections in plane mirrors?
Ans 1. Telescope

2. Kaleidoscope

3. Stereomicroscope

4. Magnifying glass

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Q.105 With reference to the Indian Monsoon, who among the following established the relationship between upper air circulations

m
and atmospheric conditions over the Tibetan plateau?

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Ans 1. P Koteswaram

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2. Birbal Sahni

s e
s e 3. Tessy Thomas

g l a
g l a 4. RK Sinha

a
a Q.106 How many of the following ways of losing citizenship have been prescribed in the Citizenship Act, 1955?
Ans 1. 2

2. 5

3. 3

4. 4

Q.107 PM Gatishakti National Master Plan was launched in which year?
Ans 1. 2019

2. 2020

3. 2021

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4. 2023

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Q.108 Who among the following composed the treatise, 'Mahabhashya'?
Ans

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1. Patanjali
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2. Panini

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3. Hala

4. Banabhatt
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 33 of 49

Q.109 Which of the following States/UTs DOES NOT have any SC population as per the Census 2011?
Ans 1. Sikkim

2. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

3. Manipur

4. Tripura

Q.110 Which Indian cricketer became the first batsman to cross 700 runs in a single World Cup edition during the 2023 ODI Cricket
World Cup?
Ans 1. Virat Kohli

2. Rohit Sharma

3. Yashasvi Jaiswal

4. Shubman Gill

Q.111 Who among the following established the Khalji dynasty?
Ans 1. Jalaluddin Khalji

2. Mubarak Shah Khalji

3. Alauddin Khalji

4. Arkali khan

Q.112 Who among the following great personalities, along with his followers, founded the 'Brahmo Samaj of India' in 1866?
Ans 1. Dayananda Saraswati

2. Debendranath Tagore

3. Keshab Chandra Sen

4. Raja Ram Mohan Roy

Q.113 Bhanudeva II, the ruler of Jajnagar in Orissa helped Rai Rudra Dev of Warangal in his battle against ____________, the
Sultan of Delhi.
Ans 1. Bahlol Lodhi

2. Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq

3. Sikandar Lodhi

4. Firoz Shah Tughlaq

Q.114 Who among the following wrote the story book 'Dollar Bahu'?
Ans 1. Dr Sudha Murty

2. Prasanna Kumar Acharya

3. EB Havell

4. Aravind Adiga

Q.115 Who among the following served as India's first Deputy Prime minister?
Ans 1. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

2. Lal Bahadur Shastri

3. Morarji Desai

4. Jawaharlal Nehru

Q.116 Who assumed charge as Deputy Chief of the Naval Staff in October 2023?
Ans 1. Vice Admiral Ajit Kumar

2. Vice Admiral R Hari Kumar

3. Vice Admiral Tarun Sobti

4. Vice Admiral Anil Kumar Chawla

Q.117 Which of the following colour revolutions is NOT correctly matched with its associated agricultural sector's significant
increase in production in India since Independence?
Ans 1. Blue revolution - Fruits and vegetables

2. White revolution - Milk

3. Green revolution - Foodgrain production

4. Yellow revolution - Oilseeds

Q.118 On which document is the Concept of Directive Principles of State Policy based?
Ans 1. United States Constitution

2. Magna Carta

3. British Constitution

4. Irish Constitution

Q.119 Intestinal hookworm disease in humans is caused by which species of Aschelminthes?
Ans 1. Ascaris lumbricoides

2. Ancylostoma duodenale

3. Strongyloides stercoralis

4. Trichuris trichiura
​

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 34 of 49

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Q.120 The traditional folk music of Uttar Pradesh, featuring soulful melodies and often performed during weddings and festive

m
occasions, is known as:

co m
Ans 1. Panihari

m . 2. Kajari

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se
3. Baul

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4. Maand

2024/12/13-08:24:56

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a

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 35 of 49

Community ST
Test Center
iON Digital Zone iDZ Borjhar
Name
Test Date 12/12/2024
Test Time 4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
Recruitment of Sub Inspector Executive in Railway
Subject
Protection Force and Railway Protection Special Force
* Note
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

Section : Arithmetic

Q.1 The value of

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.2 The sides of a triangle are 16 cm, 30 cm, and 34 cm. What is its area? (in cm2 )
Ans 1. 225

2. 270

3. 240

4. 257

Q.3

Ans 1. 1125

2. 1115

3. 1117

4. 1124

Q.4 LCM and HCF of two numbers are 108 and 9 respectively. If one of the numbers is 36, then find the other number.
Ans 1. 30

2. 27

3. 28

4. 25

Q.5 Three partners invested in a business in the ratio 2:7:8. They invested their capitals for 4 months, 1 months and 10 months,
respectively. What was the ratio of their profits?
Ans 1. 8:7:80

2. 6:7:80

3. 7:7:80

4. 10:7:80

Q.6 Two trains of equal length are running on parallel lines in the same direction at speeds of 101 km/h and 65 km/h. The faster
train passes the slower train in 30 seconds. The length of each train is:
Ans 1. 137 meters

2. 150 meters

3. 155 meters

4. 152 meters

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 36 of 49

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Q.7 A man walks to a viewpoint and returns to the starting point by his car maintaining constant speed and thus takes a total

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time of 6 hours 45 minutes. He would have gained 4 hours by driving both ways. How long would it have taken for him to

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walk both ways with same walking speed?

. Ans 1. 10 hours 30 minutes

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2. 10 hours 45 minutes

3. 11 hours 15 minutes
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4. 9 hours 45 minutes
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Q.8 The average price of three items of furniture is Rs 15885. If their prices are in the ratio 3:5:7, the price of the costliest item (in
Rs) is
Ans 1. 7413

2. 5295

3. 3177

4. 22239

Q.9 The smallest 1-digit number to be added to the 6-digit number 638970 so that it is completely divisible by 11 is:

m
Ans 1. 9

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2. 4

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3. 5

4. 6

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Q.10 A can is completely filled with milk. 6 litre of milk is taken out of the can and is filled with water. This operation is performed

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four more times. Now, the ratio of milk and water in the can is 32 : 211. What is the volume of the can?

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Ans 1. 21 litre

2. 18 litre

3. 20 litre

4. 15 litre

Q.11 Which of the following fractions is the largest?

Ans
1.

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2.

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3.

las
4.
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Q.12 A number when increased by 50 %', gives 3930. The number is:
Ans 1. 1310

2. 2620

3. 5240

4. 7860

Q.13 The table below shows the profit earned by five friends in four different years. Study the table carefully to answer the

m
question that follows.

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Find the amount which when lent on compound interest at 15% interest being compounded annually for 2 years, gives total
interest equal to profit earned by Chand in 2023.
Ans 1. ₹7,000

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2. ₹9,000

3. ₹8,000

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4. ₹6,000
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Q.14 Which of the following fractions is the largest?

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.15 At what rate per cent per annum will a certain sum of money multiply itself by 97 times in 2 years, the interest being
compounded annually? [Give your answer correct to 1 decimal place.]
Ans 1. 887.2

2. 884.6

3. 881.8

4. 884.8

Q.16 A sum, when invested at 10% simple interest per annum, amounts to ₹9600 after 2 years. What is the simple interest (in ₹)
on the same sum at the same rate in 1 year?
Ans 1. 800

2. 1600

3. 400

4. 3200

Q.17 During sale, Raghav bought a notebook marked for ₹100 at 53% discount and a pen marked for ₹40 at 85% discount. How
much (in ₹) did he save due to sale?
Ans 1. 89

2. 85

3. 87

4. 90

Q.18 Isha and Anshu together invested ₹44300 in a business. At the end of the year, out of a total profit of ₹7000, Isha's share was
₹1400. What was the investment of Anshu?
Ans 1. ₹35190

2. ₹33845

3. ₹37060

4. ₹35440

Q.19 In a cluster, 3 weavers can make 12 sarees in 4 days. Find the average number of sarees that can be made by each weaver
in a day.
Ans 1. 2.5

2. 2

3. 1.5

4. 1

Q.20 A train runs at a speed of 96 kmph to cover a distance of 288 km and then at a speed of 126 kmph to cover a distance of 252
km. Find the average speed of the train for the entire distance.
Ans 1. 108 kmph

2. 86 kmph

3. 158 kmph

4. 90 kmph

Q.21 A dishonest vendor claims that he is selling goods at their cost price. But he is weighing 918 grams for 1000 grams. What is
his profit percentage (rounded off to 2 decimal places)?
Ans 1. 5

2. 14.5

3. 5.68

4. 8.93

Q.22 The smallest natural number which is divisible by 15, 60, 6 and 17 is:
Ans 1. 1065

2. 1020

3. 1106

4. 1030

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 38 of 49

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Q.23 Raghav's average earning per month in the first three months of a year was ₹22560. In April, his earning was 50% more than

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the average earning in the first three months. If his average earning per month for the whole year is ₹90078, then what will

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be Raghav's average earning (in ₹) per month from May to December?

. Ans 1. 122423

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2. 122427

3. 122430
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4. 122428
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Q.24 LCM and HCF of two numbers are 180 and 12 respectively. If one of the numbers is 36, then find the other number.
Ans 1. 61

2. 62

3. 60

4. 58

Q.25 Three partners invested in a business in the ratio 6:3:2. They invested their capitals for 7 months, 4 months and 3 months,
respectively. What was the ratio of their profits?

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Ans 1. 8:2:1

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2. 7:2:1

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3. 10:2:1

4. 6:2:1

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Q.26 If 25% of a number is added to 72, then the result is the same number. 70% of the same number is:
Ans
l 1. 97.2

ag 2. 87.2

3. 37.2

4. 67.2

Q.27 A shopkeeper lists the price of a fan at 25% above its cost price and offers a 16% discount on its list price. If he earns a
profit of ₹141, then what is the list price (in ₹) of the fan?
Ans 1. 3305

2. 3321

3. 3268

4. 3525

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Q.28

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Ans 1.

las
2.

3. ag
4.

Q.29 The average price of three items of furniture is Rs 15975. If their prices are in the ratio 3:5:7, the price of the costliest item (in
Rs) is
Ans 1. 5325

2. 3195

3. 7455

4. 22365

m
m .co
Q.30 Vishal covers 104 km in a boat in 30 hours against the stream and he takes 12 hours with the stream then find the speed of

.co
the stream?
Ans 1. 2.6 km/h

e m
e m 2. 11.35 km/h

l as
l as 3. 7.52 km/h

ag
g
4. 6.65 km/h

a Q.31 A shopkeeper sells an item for ₹583.2 after giving two successive discounts of 25% and 40% on its marked price. Had he not
given any discount, he would have earned a profit of 62%. What is the cost price (in ₹) of the item?
Ans 1. 838

2. 831

3. 800

4. 824

Q.32 The LCM of 27, 48, 276 and 368 is:
Ans 1. 9855

2. 9936

m .
.co m
3. 9927

4. 9988

m s e
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 39 of 49

Q
.
3
3
A 1. 265
n
s
2. 250

3. 260

4. 255

Q.34 Suman invested a sum of ₹8000 at 5% per annum compound interest, componded annually. If she received an amount of
₹9261 after n years, the value of n is:
Ans 1. 3.5

2. 4

3. 2.79999995231628

4. 3

Q.35 The ratio of the heights of a right circular cone and a right circular cylinder is 3 : 8 and the ratio of the radii of their bases is
8 : 5. If the volume of the cylinder is 400 cm3, then the volume (in cm3) of the cone is:
Ans 1. 131

2. 134

3. 124

4. 128

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.36 Y, X, D, E, U, G and P have different ages. X is younger than U. Only Y is elder than G. Only one person is aged between X
and G. D is elder than E but younger than P. Who is the third youngest?
Ans 1. G

2. U

3. D

4. P

Q.37 Which of the following letter-clusters should replace # and % so that the pattern and relationship followed between the
letter-cluster pair on the left side of :: is the same as that on the right side of ::?

# : AGJ :: GMP : %
Ans 1. # = WCF; % = KQT

2. # = XCF; % = KQT

3. # = WCF; % = KQI

4. # = WYF; % = KQT

Q.38 Stu starts from Point A and drives 31 km towards south. He then takes a right turn, drives 36 km, turns right and drives 11
km. He then takes a right turn and drives 12 km. He then takes a right turn, drives 16 km, turns left and drives 9 km. He takes
a final left turn, drives 36 km and stops at Point P. How far (the shortest distance) and towards which direction should he
drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90° turns only, unless specified.)
Ans 1. 11 km towards east

2. 13 km towards south

3. 15 km towards east

4. 17 km towards south

Q.39 Which of the following letter-clusters should replace # and % so that the pattern and relationship followed between the
letter-cluster pair on the left side of :: is the same as that on the right side of :: ?

# : LFI :: SMP : %
Ans 1. # = RTM, % = MKL

2. # = BJM, % = LPI

3. # = PJM, % = OIL

4. # = GHT, % = LJH

Q.40 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a
group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. XUS

2. JGE

3. LIG

4. AYV

Q.41 If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number 1378564, what will be difference
between the highest and lowest digits in the new number thus formed?
Ans 1. 8

2. 2

3. 4

4. 6

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 40 of 49

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Q.42 Which numbers should come in place of the question mark (?) in the same sequence to make the series logically complete?

m
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7 24 58 126 262 ?

. Ans 1. 534

e m
m as
se
2. 484

3. 492
g l
4. 593
a
Q.43 Refer to the following number, symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right
only.

(Left) 2 & 4 6 % 7 $ & 1 # 3 Ω @ 8 * £ 5 9 (Right)

How many such symbols are there each of which is immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by
another number?
Ans 1. None

2. More than two

3. Two

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4. One

m
.co m
Q.44 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which
is the one that DOES NOT belong to that group?

m s e
a
Ans 1. AVF

s e l
ag
2. MHR

l a
ag
3. JFO

4. UPZ

Q.45 Seven boxes O, P, Q, R, S, T and D are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. Only three boxes are
kept above T. Only one box is kept between O and T. Only three boxes are kept between O and D. D is kept at some place
above T. P is kept immediately below D. S is kept at one of the places above R. Q is not kept immediately above or below O.
How many boxes are kept between Q and R?
Ans 1. Three

2. Four

3. One

4. Five

m
Q.46 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order?

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SVX QTV ORT MPR ?

m
Ans 1. KNP

2. KNO

s e
3. KMP

g la
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4. KMO

Q.47 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.
(Left) 759 843 719 857 735 (Right)
(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
NOTE - All operations to be done from left to right.
What will be the resultant if the second digit of the highest number is added to the second digit of the lowest number?
Ans 1. 4

2. 5

3. 7

4. 6

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Q.48 Four of the following five figures are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which figure DOES NOT belong to that
group?

m
m .co s e m
s e g l a
g l a a
a Ans 1. C

2. E

3. B

4. D

Q.49 Refer to the given letter, number, symbol series and answer the question that follows.

(Left) 5 4 D * S R + 6 3 % 7 Y # K E G 2 C & T @ (Right)

How many such numbers are there, that are immediately preceded by a letter and also immediately followed by a symbol?

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Ans 1. 3

2. 1
e m
3. 2

e m l as
4. 0

l as ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 41 of 49

Q.50 Select the term from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

RXU 34 TUQ 23 VRM 12 XOI 1 ?
Ans 1. ZFE -15

2. VNT -13

3. ZLE -10

4. XKE -14

Q.51 Refer to the following letter, number and symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left
to right only.

(Left) Y # 3 R 6 C & T % 7 2 K & 5 G E * S D 4 @ (Right)

How many such letters are there which are immediately preceded by a symbol and also immediately followed by a number?
Ans 1. 0

2. 1

3. 3

4. 2

Q.52 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at line MN as shown.

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.53 In a certain code language, ‘SKEW’ is coded as ‘1836’ and ‘WOKE’ is coded as ‘6283’. What is the code for ‘O’ in the given
code language?
Ans 1. 8

2. 6

3. 3

4. 2

Q.54 A, B, C, D, E and F live on six different floors of the same building. The lowermost floor in the building is numbered 1, the
floor above it, number 2 and so on till the topmost floor is numbered 6. E lives on a floor that is a prime number. The product
of the floors on which E and C live is 8. F lives immediately above A. The sum of floors on which C and B live is 7. How
many people live between E and F?
Ans 1. 4

2. 1

3. 2

4. 3

Q.55 Seven people, B, C, D, E, F, G and Q, are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table. D sits fourth to the right
of B. Only D sits between Q and E. Only F sits between B and E. E sits third to the left of G. How many people sit between F
and C when counted from the right of F?
Ans 1. Three

2. Four

3. Two

4. One

Q.56 In a certain code language, ‘believe in yourself’ is coded as ‘mb tk jb’ and ‘in the middle’ is coded as ‘ab jb wt’. How is ‘in’
coded in the given language?
Ans 1. jb

2. tk

3. ab

4. mb

Q.57 35 is related to 42 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 80 is related to 96. To which of the following is 65
related, following the same logic?
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting /multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 78

2. 72

3. 76

4. 84

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 42 of 49

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Q.58 All 38 people are standing in a row facing north. Vikash is 18th from the right end while Kerisha is 12th from the left end. How

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many people are there between Vikash and Kerisha?

co m
Ans 1. 8

m . 2. 5
s e
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3. 6

g l a
Q.59
4. 7
a
In a certain code language, ‘WIDE’ is coded as ‘6879’ and ‘DOGS’ is coded as ‘4318’. What is the code for ‘D’ in that
language?
Ans 1. 8

2. 7

3. 1

4. 4

Q.60 Naman starts from Point A and drives 8 km towards East. He then takes a right turn, drives 5 km, turns right and drives 10
km. He then takes a right turn and drives 12 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 2 km and stops at Point P. How far

m
(shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90 degree

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turns only unless specified.)

m
Ans 1. 6 km to the North

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2. 7 km to the North

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3. 7 km to the South
s e
s e l a
ag
4. 6 km to the South

l a
ag
Q.61 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus
form a group. Which is the one that DOES NOT belong to that group?
Ans 1. BW : ZU

2. HC : FA

3. EZ : DX

4. UP : SN

Q.62 If ‘P’ stands for ‘×’ , ‘Q’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘R’ stands for ‘−’ and ‘S’ stands for ‘+’ , what will come in place
of the question mark ‘?’ in the following equation?
(32 S 32) S (24 S 24) P 2 R 60 S 108 Q 2 = ?
Ans 1. 190

m
2. 150

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3. 154

m
4. 170

s e
la
Q.63 A, B, C, D, E, F and G sit around a circular table facing centre. Only three people sit between A and C when counted from the
left of A. Only three people sit between E and G when counted from the right of G.B sits to the immediate right of E. D is an

Ans 1. 4
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immediate neighbour of G as well as C. How many people sit between B and F when counted from the right of F?

2. 3

3. 1

4. 2

Q.64 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if
it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All spoons are forks.
All forks are jars.
Some jars are plates.
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m Conclusions:
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(I): Some forks are plates.

e
(II): Some spoons are plates.

e m
Ans 1. Only conclusion II follows

l as
l as 2. Only conclusion I follows

3. Both conclusions I and II follow
ag
ag 4. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Q.65 23 is related to 21.7 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 29.4 is related to 28.1. To which of the following is
26.8 related, following the same logic?

(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent
digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 24.5

2. 25.7

3. 25.5

4. 25.1

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Q.66 C is the son of F. F is the brother of E. E is the son of G. G is the wife of H. How is C related to H?
Ans 1. Son's daughter

m s e
2. Son

s e l a
l a
3. Son's wife

g ag
a
4. Son's son
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 43 of 49

Q.67 Select the triad that follows the same pattern as the one followed by the two triads given below. Both triads follow the same
pattern.

KG-NI-PS
NJ-QL-SV
Ans 1. RM-TP-VZ

2. QM-TO-VY

3. QM-TO-VZ

4. RM-TO-VZ

Q.68 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically complete the series.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.69 Each of the digits in the number 7832145 is arranged in ascending order from left to right. What will be the sum of the digits
which are second from the left and second from the right in the new number thus formed?
Ans 1. 9

2. 6

3. 8

4. 10

Q.70 S is the wife of D. D is the brother of F. F is the mother of G. G is the father of H. How is S related to H?
Ans 1. Mother's mother's brother's wife

2. Mother's father's brother's wife

3. Father's father's brother's wife

4. Father's mother's brother's wife

Section : General Awareness

Q.71 Which of the following international sports event was NOT held in the year 2023?
Ans 1. World Wrestling Championship

2. Commonwealth Games

3. Asian Games

4. ICC Mens’s Cricket World Cup

Q.72 Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for an independent Election Commission for the ‘superintendence,
directions and control of the electoral roll and the conduct of the elections of India?
Ans 1. Article 321

2. Article 333

3. Article 322

4. Article 324

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 44 of 49

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Q.73 In which of the following years was Rajiv-Longowal Peace accord signed by Indian Prime Minster Rajeev Gandhi and Akali

m
leader Harchand Singh Longowal?

co m
Ans 1. 1984

m . 2. 1986

s e
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3. 1985

g l a
a
4. 1987

Q.74 In November 2023, generic drugs for four rare diseases were made available in India, out of which 'Nitisinone' is used for the
treatment of:
Ans 1. Tyrosinemia Type 1

2. Gaucher's Disease

3. Wilson’s Disease

4. Dravet and Lennox-Gastaut syndromes

Q.75 Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution deals with the administration of Union Territories?
Ans 1. Article 245

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2. Article 260

3. Article 255
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.co em
4. Article 239

e m l as
s
Q.76 In 1309, who invaded the Kakatiya kingdom?

a ag
Ans 1. Vir Pandya

l
ag
2. Sunder Pandya

3. Ballala Deva

4. Malik Kafur

Q.77 Which of the following games made its maiden participation at National Games 2023?
Ans 1. Yachting

2. Squash

3. Beach Handball

4. Wushu

Q.78 Which of the following periods was considered as the second phase of the Green Revolution in India?

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Ans 1. Mid-1960s to mid-1970s

2. 1970s to 1980s

3. 1960s to 1970s
e m
4. Mid-1970s to mid-1980s

las
Q.79
Ans ag
Which of the following styles of Thumri singing is meant to be fairly slow and staid?
1. Agra

2. Punjab

3. Benaras

4. Assam

Q.80 The type of stress that acts coplanar along a given cross-section of the material is defined as ________.
Ans 1. Shear stress

2. Bulk stress

3. Radial stress

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4. Compressive stress

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.co m
Q.81 Which of the following states has benefited from the ‘Sirhind’ canal?

m
Ans 1. Punjab

s e
s e 2. West Bengal

g l a
g l a 3. Uttar Pradesh

4. Bihar a
a Q.82 Which of the following winds govern the climate of India during winter?
Ans 1. Southwest monsoon winds

2. Westerlies

3. Northeast trade winds

4. Northeast monsoon winds

Q.83 Which adulterant is added to increase the solids-not-fat (SNF) content in milk and the yield of dairy products?
Ans 1. Hydrogen peroxide

2. Potassium bicarbonate

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3. Melamine

e m
s
4. Maltodextrin

e m l a
l as ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 45 of 49

Q.84 When several factors affect any [bio] chemical process, Law of Limiting Factors comes into effect. This law is given by:
Ans 1. Priestley

2. Calvin

3. Blackman

4. Engelmann

Q.85 Who among the following is the Chairman of the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) as on December,
2023?
Ans 1. Dr Y Sreenivas Rao

2. Dr B K Das

3. Dr Upendra Kumar Singh

4. Dr Samir V Kamat

Q.86 The Indian men’s hockey team beat the team of which country to win the bronze medal at the Paris 2024 Olympics?
Ans 1. Belgium

2. Spain

3. Australia

4. Germany

Q.87 Which of the following is NOT a function of the Governor of the State?
Ans 1. Appointing the District Collectors

2. Nomination of members to the State Legislative Council

3. Assenting to bills passed by the State Legislature

4. Appointing the Chief Minister

Q.88 Qutb ud-Din Aibak was fond of which of the following outdoor sports?
Ans 1. Polo

2. Wrestling

3. Kabaddi

4. Hockey

Q.89 Who among the following established the Atmiya Sabha in 1814?
Ans 1. Debendranath Tagore

2. Raja Rammohan Roy

3. Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar

4. Keshub Chandra Sen

Q.90 If the court finds that a person is holding office but not entitled to hold that office, it issues the writ of
_____________________ and restricts that person from acting as an office holder.
Ans 1. Habeas Corpus

2. Quo-Warranto

3. Prohibition

4. Mandamus

Q.91 Which of the following articles of Indian Constitution deals with the executive power of the Union?
Ans 1. Article 54

2. Article 53

3. Article 55

4. Article 52

Q.92 In reference to air transport of India, what is the full form of AERA?
Ans 1. Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India

2. Agriculture Economic Regulatory Authority

3. Agriculture Economic Regulatory Authority of India

4. Aviation Economic Regulatory Authority of India

Q.93 The Central Goods and Services Tax (Second Amendment) Bill, 2023 increased the age limit for the president of the Tribunal
from ______.
Ans 1. 65 to 67 years

2. 67 to 70 years

3. 60 to 65 years

4. 65 to 70 years

Q.94 Which part of the Indian Constitution is related to citizenship?
Ans 1. Part II

2. Part III

3. Part IV

4. Part VI

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 46 of 49

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Q.95 Which of the following schemes was launched by Rajnath Singh to promote innovations in critical and strategic defence

m
technologies, during DefConnect 2024 in New Delhi on 4 March 2024?

co m
Ans 1. ADITI

m . 2. SMRITI

s e
se
3. STUTI

g l a
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4. SAMSKRUTI

Q.96 Industrial Policy Resolution, 1956 was adopted in which of the following five-year plans?
Ans 1. 1st Five-Year Plan

2. 4th Five-Year Plan

3. 3rd Five-Year Plan

4. 2nd Five-Year Plan

Q.97 'Nada' is a musical sound in the Carnatic Classical Music, which is of two kinds; 'Ahata' and '_______'
Ans 1. Charmaja

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2. Shariraja

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3. Anahata

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4. Lohaja

m s e
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Q.98 What is the primary function of development banks in the context of India's industrial growth?

s e l
ag
Ans 1. They serve as regulatory bodies to enforce industrial standards.

l a 2. Development banks provide long-term financing and support for industrial projects and infrastructure development.

ag 3. They are involved only in short-term consumer lending.

4. Their sole function is to manage the country's foreign exchange reserves.

Q.99 Who assumed charge as Minister of Earth Sciences in June 2024 in the newly formed union cabinet?
Ans 1. Jitendra Singh

2. Jadhav Prataprao Ganpat Rao

3. L Murugan

4. Virendra Kumar

Q.100 Quwwat-al-islam mosque is nearest to which of the following historical monuments?

m
Ans 1. Humayun Tomb

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2. Tughlakabad Fort

m
3. Jama Masjid

4. Qutub Minar

s e
g la
Q.101 Who among the following was the Architect of the building 'St. Francis Church' in Kochi?
Ans 1. William Emerson

2. Goerge Bush
a
3. George Wittet

4. Pedro Alvarez De Cabral

Q.102 Which of the following is the primary reason for the high literacy rate in Kerala?
Ans 1. Because of large number of universities

2. Because of effective literacy programmes and emphasis on education

3. Because of high population density

m
4. Because of industrial development

m Q.103 The Ganga-Brahmaputra-Meghna system is composed of which of the following main sub-basins?
.co
.co e m
Ans 1. Bhagirathi and Alaknanda

e m 2. Yamuna and Ramganga

l as
l as 3. Bhagirathi and Yamuna

4. Alaknanda and Gandak
ag
ag Q.104 Which of the following is also known as congenital ovarian hypoplasia syndrome which is found only in females?
Ans 1. Klinefelter syndrome

2. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

3. Usher syndrome

4. Turner syndrome

Q.105 Which sensitive dye turns yellow in the presence of acid with pH between 6.0 – 7.6?
Ans 1. Bromothymol blue

2. Thymolphthalein

3. Alizarin yellow R
m .
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4. Methyl orange

e m l as
l as ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 47 of 49

Q.106 Who taught medicine in Taxila around 6th century BCE?
Ans 1. Paramhans Atreya

2. Punarvasu Atreya

3. Prakrit Atreya

4. Panini Atreya

Q.107 A method for measuring atmospheric pressure was first devised by _____.
Ans 1. Pascal

2. Torricelli

3. Archimedes

4. Bernoulli

Q.108 Moved by the Swadeshi movement, ____________ painted his famous image of Bharat Mata in 1905.
Ans 1. Bankim Chandra chatterjee

2. Abanindranath Tagore

3. Surendranath Banerjee

4. Anand Mohan Bose

Q.109 Who was serving as the Managing Director of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) since 1 October 2019 and has been
selected by the IMF’s Executive Board to serve for a second five-year term, starting 1 October 2024?
Ans 1. Kristalina Georgieva

2. Gita Gopinath

3. Kenji Okamura

4. Antoinette Sayeh

Q.110 BharatGen is a key initiative of Ministry of Science & Technology, launched in October 2024. Which of the following
statements is true about this initiative?
Ans 1. It aims to identify dark patterns in public distribution systems.

2. It is focused on making India self-reliant in terms of classical computing.

3. It is a key initiative focused on fifth-generation bioethanol.

4. It focuses on developing a suite of foundational models in language, speech and computer vision.

Q.111 How are environmental defensive expenditures classified at the aggregate level in national accounting?
Ans 1. Final consumption expenditures

2. Intermediate consumption

3. Capital expenditures

4. Investment expenditures

Q.112 In which language is the book ‘Amar Jiban’ written?
Ans 1. Urdu

2. Hindi

3. English

4. Bengali

Q.113 As a reaction to the Muslim fundamentalism, the Hindu Mahasabha was founded in which of the following years?
Ans 1. 1915

2. 1911

3. 1920

4. 1917

Q.114 During which of the following seasons do the Southwest Monsoon winds enter the Indian Peninsula?
Ans 1. Summer

2. Rainy Season

3. Winter

4. Post-Monsoon

Q.115 How does the Indian Government finance its fiscal deficit?
Ans 1. By increasing taxes on essential goods

2. By printing more currency

3. By borrowing from domestic and international sources

4. By reducing subsidies

Q.116 At which of the following Air Force bases did the Indian Air Force (IAF) contingent participate in the Exercise Red Flag,
2024?
Ans 1. Andersen Air Force Base, Guam

2. Hickam Air Force Base, Hawaii

3. Eielson Air Force Base, Alaska

4. Nellis Air Force Base, Nevada

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 48 of 49

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Q.117 Which initiative was launched by the Union Education Minister to promote digital skill development among rural youth,

m
particularly women, in 2023?

co m
Ans 1. Digi-Skills

m . 2. Digi-Skill Drive

s e
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3. Skills on Wheels

g l a
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4. Skills on the Go

Q.118 Which of the following is NOT one of the broad objectives of NITI Aayog?
Ans 1. To promote initiatives like Make in India, Skill India, Startup India, Standup India, etc.

2. To evolve a shared vision of national development priorities, sectors and strategies with the active involvement of the states in
the light of national objectives
3. To develop mechanisms to formulate credible plans at the village level and aggregate these progressively at higher levels

4. To design strategic and long-term policy and programme frameworks and initiatives, and monitor their progress and their
efficacy

Q.119 Which of the following does the term 'household' mean according to the Census?
Ans 1. A group of related individuals living together under one roof

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2. A group of unrelated individuals residing in the same locality

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3. A group of persons engaged in common economic activities

em
s
4. A group of persons who share a common kitchen and take meals together

e m l a
l as
Q.120 Which of the following is the coverage provided by the 'Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY)' in case of partial
disability?

ag
ag
Ans 1. ₹50,000

2. ₹2 lakhs

3. ₹5 lakhs

4. ₹1 lakh

2024/12/13-09:26:51

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