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FOR MIZORAM TET EXAM PREPARATION
Mizoram TET 2022
Question Paper · II
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT
Mizoram TET 2022 Question Paper II
Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests
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MIZORAM BOARD OF SCHOOL
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lEDUCATION
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MIZORAM TEACHER ELIGIBILITY TEST
JULY — 2022
PAPER II
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om :
Date of Examination 14 July, 2022 (Thursday)
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Time
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g l a
g laNOTES a
a INSTRUCTION TO THE CANDIDATES
* This booklet contains 45 1. A candidate shall not be allowed to carry any textual
pages without cover. Check materials, printed or written, bits of papers or any
the booklet before other objectionable materials inside the examination
attempting the questions. hall.
* OMR sheets will be 2. No candidate must leave the examination hall
without special permission of the Invigilator
provided to all the m
candidate. The OMR sheet
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concerned until he/she has finished his/her
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should not be tempered in examination. Candidates should not leave the
any way. Tempered OMR
las Hall without handing over their Answer sheets
sheets shall not be
evaluated.
g to the invigilator on duty.
a Use of Cell phone, Electronic gadgets, Calculator,
3.
* Do not submit the OMR etc. are not allowed inside the Examination Hall.
sheet without signature of 4. Candidates shall maintain complete silence and
Invigilator. attend to their papers only. Any conversation or
* Rough work is to be done in gesticulation or disturbance in the examination hall
the space provided in the shall be taken into account as misbehaviour and if a
question booklet. candidate is found using unfair means or
m
m Candidates should follow .co
impersonating, his/her candidature shall be cancelled
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and he/she shall be liable to debarment of taking
s e the right marking exactly as
indicated in the Information g l a
further examination either permanently or for a
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specified period according to the nature of offence
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committed by such a candidate.
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5. Alternative English is meant only for Lai, Mara and
Chakma candidates. A candidate must thus attempt
either Part III or Part IV depending upon whether
he/she has opted for Mizo or Alternative English. A
candidate must also attempt either Part V or Part VI
depending upon whether he/she has opted for Social
Studies or Mathematics and Science. Rest of the
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paper viz., Part I and Part II are compulsory.
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MIZORAM TEACHER ELIGIBILTY TEST – 2022
PAPER II
PART I CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY
1. The process by which heredity continues to function after birth is called
(A) growth. (B) instinct.
(C) learning. (D) maturation.
2. Which activities of the following is used for the development of gross motor skill?
(A) Cutting (B) Drawing
(C) Throwing (D) Threading
3. What should be recorded in Anecdotal records?
(A) Health of the learner. (B) Result of different assessment.
(C) A particular noteworthy behaviour. (D) Any significant activity.
4. The development of human being is caused by the interaction of both ________ and
________.
(i) Skill (ii) Heredity
(iii) Creativity (iv) Environment
Select the correct answer from the codes given below
(A) (i) & (ii) (B) (ii) & (iii)
(C) (iii) & (iv) (D) (ii) & (iv)
5. According to Freud, “The relationship between the ________ is like that of a horse
and its rider.”
(A) Id and Ego (B) Id and Superego
(C) Ego and Superego (D) Conscience and Ego
6. Children’s emotions as compared to adults, are marked by
(A) intensity. (B) stability.
(C) rigidity. (D) restrain.
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se 7. According to Erikson, the task of adolescent is to g la
(A) find a consistent sense of self.
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(B) find intimacy with another.
(C) develop a sense of industry. (D) develop a sense of initiative.
8. The effects of globalisation on education of children include
(i) citizenship. (ii) commodification.
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(iii)
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internationalisation. (iv) accessibility of knowledge.
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(A) (i), (ii) & (iii) (B) (ii), (iii) & (iv) l a
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(C)a None of these (D) All of these
9. Which is the prominent factor for child deliquency?
(A) Culture (B) Community
(C) Poverty (D) Religion
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10. emfriends is the characteristics of ________
Influenced by the immediate family and
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(A) gender a (B) primary
(C) secondary (D) organisation
11. A school always give preference to girls while preparing students for inter- school
dancing competition, this reflects
(A) pragmatic approach. (B) progressive thinking.
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g la Which style is the authoritative parenting style? a
a (A) Children behaviour should be controlled as much as possible.
(B) Balance setting clear boundaries for their children.
(C) Show little responsiveness to their childrens need.
(D) Avoid confrontation with their children.
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13. Viewing students as the problem rather than as their valued clients is the
characteristics of
(A) Bureaucratic school culture. (B) Collegial school cultre.
(C) Positive school culture. (D) Toxic school culture.
14. Children learning from peers how to cooperate and socialize according to group norms
and group sanctioned modes of behaviour is
(A) positive peer influence. (B) negative peer influence.
(C) similar peer influence. (D) popular peer influence.
15. Inclusive education
(A) celebrate segregation. (B) celebrate diversity.
(C) welcome separation. (D) welcome bifurcation.
16. An approach where two or more teachers join together to plan, teach and evaluate
together in inclusive class room is
(A) peer teaching. (B) multisensory instruction.
(C) group teaching. (D) team teaching.
17. When the students with special needs are always taught alongside the students
without special needs, it is called
(A) partial inclusion. (B) regular inclusion.
(C) full inclusion. (D) proper inclusion.
18. Which type of exceptional children can learn minimal academic skills with special
educational support by their late teens?
(A) The educable mentally retarded
(B) The profound mentally retarded
(C) The severely mentally retarded
(D) The trainable mentally retarded
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19. A blend of Individual and Social constructivism propagated by American
psychologist Jerome Bruner is
(A) Cognitive constructivism. (B) Individual constructivism.
(C) Radical constructivism. (D) Social constructivism.
20. The ________ factors affecting learning include health, nervous system, sense
perception, age and nutrition, etc.
(A) external (B) mental
(C) hereditary (D) environmental
21. The process by which activities are started, directed and sustained to meet a
person’s wants is called
(A) a drive. (B) an instinct.
(C) an incentive. (D) a motivation.
22. ________ evaluation is a process of collecting evidences and form judgements relating
to a very small sample content or area of operation.
(A) Macro (B) Micro
(C) Formative (D) Summative
23. In CCE, the principle of economy refers to
(A) the statement that evaluation should not be too much time consuming.
(B) the statement that evaluation should be workable.
(C) the statement that evaluation should not be too ambitious.
(D) the statement that the element of the commitment of the teachers.
24. Checklist is
(A) a method of evaluating the social learner status in a group.
(B) used by the teacher recording observational results.
(C) a set of questions to be responded by the learner.
(D) face to face conversation between teacher and learner.
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When teacher play his role as a ________, the childrenlacentered approached takes the
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front seat leaving behind the teacher and subject centered approaches.
(A) co-learner (B) co-ordinator
(C) facilitator (D) negotiator
26. Writing on the blackboard should be ________, clear and bold to facilitate learning.
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(A) cryptic
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(C)
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27. a
According to the Professional Code of Ethics, “The teacher shall always be punctual
in attending to his duties in the school”, is included in
(A) teacher in relation to students.
(B) teacher in relation to parents.
(C) teacher in relation to colleagues and profession.
(D) teacher in relation to professional organisation.
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According to ________, “Emotional maturity does not mean simply restriction and
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control”.
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(A) Arthur Jersild a (B) Dumville
(C) Torrance (D) Robert Travers
29. In the democratic pattern of education, ________ is only to give some guidance.
(A) the principal (B) the teacher
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________ is usually imposed on the individual by some motive
a punishment.
(A) Random attention (B) Voluntary attention
(C) Volitional attention (D) Non-volitional attention
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PART II ENGLISH
A. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (31 - 35) that
follow.
The first of the Great Debates, between Senator John F. Kennedy of Massachusetts and the
incumbent Vice President Richard Nixon on September 26, 1960, centered around domestic
issues. The topic of the next debate, on October 7, was a clash over U.S. policy regarding
two small islands off the Chinese coast, and on October 13, this controversy continued. On
October 21, the final debate, the candidates focused on American/Cuban relations.
Few of the 70 million viewers could have fathomed what this first–ever televised presidential
debate augured, not only for this specific series of debates, but more importantly for the
preeminent role the fledgling medium would play in the future of the political arena.
A pallid Nixon arrived at the Chicago CBS studios after a gruelling day of campaigning. The
previous August, a knee infection had sidelined him. He was still twenty pounds underweight,
and he perspired profusely in an ill–fitting shirt. Moreover, he declined makeup to burnish
his hospital pallor. The freshly–painted studio backdrop had dried to an ashen hue that
obscured his matching suit.
The Democratic contender by contrast exuded a robust glow after a month of campaigning
in California. He had spent his day rehearsing potential questions and relaxing. An aide later
admitted that he supplemented his natural glow with a smidge of makeup. He was fit, trim
and confident.
Despite the remarkably similar agendas and arguments of the Republican and the Democrat,
TV viewers unequivocally believed Kennedy to be the victor – whereas people who had
followed the debates on the radio held the opposite opinion. The age of TV had arrived, and
the subsequent party shuffle proved the undeniable potency of television.
31. The author is mainly concerned about
(A) the debating styles of John F. Kennedy and Richard Nixon during the 1960
Great Debates.
(B) the health of Richard Nixon at the time of the 1960 Great Debates.
(C) the number of television viewers who tuned in to the 1960 Great Debates.
(D) the effect of television on the results of the 1960 Great Debates.
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32. It can be inferred from the passage that
(A) Kennedy was a better debater than Nixon.
(B) Kennedy and Nixon disagreed strongly on issues on the home front.
(C) The Democrat beat the Republican in the 1960 election.
(D) Nixon was more prepared for the first debate than Kennedy.
33. According to the passage, which of the following was true of Richard Nixon?
(A) He had a five o’clock shadow during the first debate.
(B) He wore a brown suit during the first debate.
(C) He limped onstage for the first debate.
(D) He lost his job after the election.
34. The word ‘unequivocally’ as used in the passage means
(A) unambiguously. (B) vaguely.
(C) genuinely. (D) honestly.
35. The word ‘freshly’ in the sentence ‘The freshly–painted studio backdrop had dried
to an ashen hue that obscured his matching suit’ is
(A) an adjective. (B) an adverb.
(C) a modal verb. (D) an auxiliary verb.
36. Which of the following is an important stage in a writing process?
(A) Comprehension (B) Editing
(C) Recapitulation (D) Calligraphy
37. Which is the correct description of skimming?
(A) We only try to locate specific information.
(B) We go through the material quickly to get a gist of it.
(C) The passage is examined closely and in detail.
(D) Reading for the sake of pleasure.
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The patterns of variation in the pitch of the voice is called
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(A) Stress. (B) Intonation.
(C) Rhythm. (D) Accent.
39. ‘Please, don’t forget to call me when you ________ home.’
(A) get (B) are going to get
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(C) are getting (D) will get
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This area of town is beginning to look very ________ and impoverished.
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(A)a broken-down (B) run-down
(C) put-down (D) marked-down
41. ‘Let’s try to get home quickly before the rain really ________.’
(A) sets in (B) sets on
(C) sets off
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(D) sets down
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We would never have had the accident ifmyou ________ so fast.
42.
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(A) wouldn’t been driving gl(B) hadn’t been driving
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(C) had driven (D) wouldn’t drive
43. It’s a great place to live apart from the increasing volume of ________ that passes
under my window everyday.’
(A) transport (B) traffic
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Everytime I wear something white, I ________ coffee or orangesjuice
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44.
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(C) spill (D) let
45. You can’t smoke here. Please, ________ your cigarette.
(A) put in (B) put away
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(C) put down (D) put out
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46. A l l of these except one are the factors affecting second language acquisition.
(A) Attitude (B) Personality
(C) Motivation (D) Creativity
47. The most popular activity used in Communicative Language Teaching classroom is
(A) Oral. (B) Grammar.
(C) Writing. (D) Reading.
48. In the Constructivist approach, language is taught by
(A) enabling students to create new knowledge based on past experiences and
engaging in various activities.
(B) teaching rules of grammar and giving plenty of opportunity to practise it.
(C) helping learners acquire new vocabulary by looking up word meanings in the
dictionary.
(D) teaching new words and structures using a variety of aids followed by
practice through drills.
49. The Natural/Direct method is against the use of
(A) teaching aids. (B) evaluation.
(C) mother-tongue. (D) demonstrations.
50. One of these statements is true in relation to Bilingual method.
(A) The aim of teaching English is to establish a bond or a link between the thought,
expression, experience and language.
(B) Mother-tongue of the students is used by the teacher in a restricted manner.
(C) It is based on the belief that foreign language can be easily learnt through
translation.
(D) It is the first teaching technique to be based on linguistic theory and
behavioural psychology.
51. The Grammar-Translation Method lays stress on
(A) Writing skills and grammar. (B) Listening and Writing skills.
(C) Reading skills and grammar. (D) Reading and speaking skills.
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52. In planning a lesson for a learner-centred classroom, the least important thing a
teacher should consider is
(A) the different learning styles of the learners.
(B) the time available for teaching and learning.
(C) availability of teaching-learning material.
(D) covering the syllabus in time.
53. Which of these statements is not true?
(A) A teacher should use teaching aids of various kinds.
(B) A teacher should use only low cost teaching aids.
(C) Textbook is a visual aid.
(D) Visual aids should not remain visible throughout the lesson.
54. The primary purpose of using teaching aids while teaching is to
(A) make the lesson interesting.
(B) help the students form direct connection between forms and meanings.
(C) have better relation with the students.
(D) supplement teacher’s lack of competence.
55. In a lesson plan, a specific objective implies
(A) the small unit that a teacher prepares.
(B) the objective of the topic to be taught.
(C) the objective of the subject.
(D) all of the above.
56. After reading a story on birds, a teacher asks the students to answer – ‘Imagine you
have wings like the birds. What will you do?’ This is an example of
(A) close type question. (B) open-ended question.
(C) close-ended question. (D) essay type question.
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se 57. Conventions of writing do not include g l a
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(A) spelling. (B) punctuation.
(C) good vocabulary. (D) capitalisation.
58. Identify the question/instruction that assesses students’ ability to infer the meaning of
the text.
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Make sentence using the word ‘perseverance’.
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(B) Give
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(D) What is the name of Buanga’s pet?
59. This kind of test evaluates learner’s ability of sound discrimination, listening
comprehension and spelling of words.
(A) Oral test (B) Objective test
(C) Diagnostic test om Dictation
c. (D)
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A language teacher can develop listening skills by
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(A) a to use their mother tongue in the classroom.
not allowing the students
(B) focusing only on listening skills without associating it with other language
skills.
(C) making the learners listen to everything they hear passively.
(D) creating opportunities for them to listen to a variety of sources. m
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PART III MIZO
A. A hnuaia thu ziak hi ngun takin chhiar la, thu ziak behchhanin zawhna 61- 65 thleng
hian chhang ang che.
Kan incheina chu a chhia emaw a tha emaw a fai phawt tur a ni. Khawlaiah leh hmun
thenkhatah, ‘Fai hi Pathian an teuhna ber a ni’ tih tarte kan hmu a. An dahna hmun chauh kha
he thil hian a kawk lo. Fai hrim hrim a kawk a ni. Kawr man tam tak fai si lo ai chuan kawr
man tlawm deuh fai veng vawng hi a zahawm zawk. Incheina atana kan inbel a nih chuan
min tizahawm turin kan thawmhnaw chu a faiin a nelawm tur a ni. Fai si lova thawmhnaw
man tam inbel chin ngawt hi ler taka incheina, incheina ziktluak lo a ni. Thenkhat chuan
mawza uih tak an bun a, sam bal ang chhep chhawpin an pu a, kawr nghawng uk ang thet
thawtin foreign kekawr leh kawrchung an inthawlh thawt a, rimtui an inhnawih a, an inkhuih
pial a, an kut an sil fai a, intivei fein an leng veh veh mai thin. Thlan rim leh mawza uih rim
leh rimtui a inchawhpawlh rum rum thin.
Kan incheinate hi a inhmeh tur a ni a. A that lamah chuan a harsa pawh a ni thei a, a
faiah chuan kan taksa te nen tenawm lo leh hak tlak tawk chuan a inkhuangrual tur a ni. Kut
hnathlawk mi tan chuan hnathawhna hmunah chuan a harsa pawh a ni ang, mahse a lutuk
chin leh a awm chin a awm ve leh a ni. Duhthusamah chuan hnathawhna hmunah pawh
thawmhnaw fai tha hak chhuah tur nei thei ila, kan danglam sawtin a rinawm. Hei vang hi a
ni ang, ‘Inbual leh inkhawm chu inchhirawm loh tak a ni’ an lo tih thin.
Kan inchei chhan hi kan hre reng tur a ni. Inchei ni ve a, inbel dan dik lova kan inbel
chuan “A mawi hle mai” tih aiin “A chuti khati, chu chu ni se” tiin min kawk liam a. Inchei
hma a ngaihawm rum rum thin. Kan thawmhnaw eng hi nge chutih huna hak tur, a eng nen
hian nge hak tur, a eng hi nge chumi hunah chuan hak tur tih hi kan ngaihtuah fo a tha. Kan
kalna hmun tur mil lova kan inbel chuan ‘Mawi’ tih aiin ‘Mawl’ tih kan hlawh mai thin.
Retheih hi sual a nih loh avangin kan neih loh chuan a eng pawh ha ila a pawi lo. Mahse nei
lo ni si lo, thawmhnaw hak hun hre miah lo chu, mahni hming pawh ziak thiam si lo, inchei
nana kawlawm pai tlar thut ang a ni. Engkim hian hun a nei a, engkim hian hmun a nei vek
thin. Kan nihna hi incheinaah eng emaw chen chu a innghat a, in chhung khur leh rilru
ngaihtuahna kan inhmuhpui phak vek loh avangin kan incheina hian mi kan hipin eng emaw
chenah mi kan hnawl thin.
Inchei hun hi kan hriat reng a tha. Kan nihphung leh kan dinhmun zui zelin kan
inchei a dik ang. A hun leh hun lo pawh thlu lovin kan neih patawpin kan inchei thin. Mi tam
tak chuan zing thawhhlim atanga zan mut thlengin incheina inbel kan tum a, a fel hlel hle a
ni. Kan nei a, kan hnathawhin a zir a nih chuan sawi thu a cheng lo. A nei leh theite thik a, nei
lo leh tlin lo pawhin inbel ve reng kan tum tlat hi chu a tha lo a ni.
Incheina hman tlak ber leh pawimawh ber chu hawihhawmna a ni. Kan thawmhnaw
chu hmel hriat loh leh khualkhuaa min cheitu mai a ni. Kan thawmhnaw mawina phak bakah
hian hawihhawmna chuan mi a chei a, thian thar siam nan a thain, thian hluite tan a chuai
thei lo a ni. Incheina man tam pui pui inbela hawihhawmna inbel tel si loh chu an ngei a na
duh ting mai a, an incheina a lak tlak loh leh lek phei chuan hmuhsit viau maite pawh a awl
thin. Mi dang nena han inhnaihchilh a, han inbelh chian chuan incheina kan thlir vawng
vawng lem lo a, an chetzia leh awka chhuak kan chik tawh zawk thin.
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Mi pakhat thusawi ka la hriat reng chu, “Thiante u, kan thawmhnawte hi min
tizahawmtu a ni lova, kan nungchangte hi min tizahawmtu a ni zawk e,” tih a ni, a dik hle.
Kan zahawmna leh kan nihphung tak tak chu kan nungchangah a innghat a ni. Mi chanchin
kan sawi pawhin, “Thawmhnaw a nei nalh em em mai a, ka ngaina” ti lovin, “A hawihhawm
a, a bengvar a, a nungchang a tha a, a bula awm a nuam em mai,” kan ti zawk thin.
Hawihhawmnain inchei ila, a timawitu turin thawmhnaw fai, a inbel dan dik takin a hun leh
hmunah tak thliar thiamin i inbel thin ang u.
61. Kan incheina reng reng hi a faia a nelawm a tulna chhan chu
(A) min tizahawm turin. (B) min timawi turin.
(C) kan saruak hliahkhuh turin. (D) mi zinga kan ngampat nan.
62. Zahawmna leh nihphung hi engah nge a innghah?
(A) Incheinaah. (B) Rinawmnaah.
(C) Nungchangah. (D) Hawihhawmnaah.
63. He thu ziaktuin thian hluite tana chuai thei lo min cheitu a tih chu
(A) thawmhnaw fai. (B) nungchang mawi.
(C) zahawmna. (D) hawihhawmna.
64. He thu ziaktuin an ngei a na duh ting mai a tihte chu
(A) khawhar ina thawmhnaw var inbelte.
(B) incheina man tam pui pui inbel a,hawihhawmna inbel tel si lote.
(C) mawza uih tak buna, sam bal tak pute.
(D) mo lawmnaa kawr dum ha leh tlat thinte.
65. He thu ziaka “inbel dan dik lova kan inbel chuan ‘A mawi hle mai’ tiha “ Mawi”
tih hi eng parts of speech nge?
(A) Adverb (B) Verb
(C) Adjective (D) Postposition
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se B. g
A hnuaia hla thu hi ngun takin chhiar la, zawhna 66-70
a zawhnate hi hla
lthlengin
thu behchhanin chhang ang che.
a
Thal khaw romei tlang tin bawmtu,
Zo lentu leh lelthang zai nen;
Tuangtuah par tlan sirva leng rual,
Chung muvanlai di tawng lo nen,
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Min ban di zun ka tanglaiah.
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Aw kar a hla, duhlai mi u,
s e
s emLunglen biahthu thaikawi bawngte,
Min dantu lamtluang a sei lua e,
l a
g la Thleng zo ang maw ka di runah. ag
a
Thuva indi lamtluang mawitu,
Phengpheleng leh vahkhuai par tlan;
Siahthing zar bel, zai tin rem thiam,
Uleuh, Dawlrem, thlang Kawrnu nen;
Di ngaih lunglen zai kan lo sa.
m
Tlai tla lenkawl a sen ruai e, .co
Riakmaw run dil nau ang tap a; s em
lahian,
Zan tiang chhawrthla a logkai
a
Ka rauvi thla tlang tin pelin,
A lawi, mi u, i run ngeiah.
Zan khua tlaia run sang kaiin,
Laikhum thleh nem mahte’n ka bel;
Thangril zan mu ka chhing nem maw,
m
m Awmhar zan tiang zai tin ka chhiar, .co
.co Awi a leng e, a leng vawng vawng
s e m
s em g l a
g la a
a 66. He hla thu hi ngun takin chhiar la, he hlaah hian nungcha thlawk thei hming engzat
nge i hmuh?
(A) 7. (B) 8.
(C) 9. (D) 10.
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67. He hla phuahtu Pu Lalhmingthanga hian zana a muthilh theih loh khan eng nge a
chhiar thin?
(A) Nungcha hrang hrang hram ri.
(B) Riakmaw sava in zanriahna tur dila a tap ri.
(C) A hun kal liam tawh hnu.
(D) Hla taka zai ri.
68. He hla phuahtu hian di ngaih lunglen zai a sakpuite nia a sawi chu...
(A) thumi/ Vathu nupa kalkawnga tla dun rial rial te.
(B) uleuh,dawlrem, kawrnu.
(C) phengphehlep leh khuai te.
(D) muvanlai nen.
69. He hla phuahtu hian “ Thaikawi bawngte”a tih awmzia chu ________ a ni.
(A) palai (B) bawng note
(C) lehkha thawn (D) lunglen thu
70. He hla thua “ Tlai tla lenkawl a sen ruai e” tih a ‘sen ruai’a tih hi Tawngkam then
hrang hrangah (Parts of Speech) a nihna chu...
(A) Adverb. (B) Verb.
(C) Adjective. (D) Postposition.
71. Tawng zirtirna atana inhnial fiamna (debate) kan buatsaih hian a tum tak chu...
(A) tawngkam mawi,nalh leh mi hneh thei thiamtir.
(B) inhnial an thiam a, tan hmun tha an hriat nan.
(C) an ngaihtuahna rang taka a lum leh zung zung theih nan.
(D) tawng chhuah an thiam a, nal taka an tawng theih nan.
72. Herbartian approach to lesson plan hi “content centre approach” an tihna chhan ber
chu...
(A) objective a ngaih pawimawh vang.
(B) zirlai thu (content) zirtir a ngaih pawimawh vang.
(C) zirtirnain a nghawng chhuah tur a ngaih pawimawh vang.
(D) zirtu nuna inthlak danglam lo awm tur a ngaih pawimawh vang.
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73. Zirlai naupangten tawng an thiam dan evaluate na atana achievement test an tih
hi…
(A) zir tur bi tuk chhung zir tur duan (course ) an thiam dan tehna.
(B) tawng dang hmang naupangin an thiam dan tehna.
(C) naupangte harsatna leh an mutan hriat chhuahna.
(D) naupangte than dan leh hmasawn dan hriatna.
74. Educationist tam takten sikula grammar inzirtir tul an tih loh chhan chu…
(A) hun a duh rei vang a ni.
(B) grammar zir lo pawhin tawng dan dik tak an thiam theih tho vang a ni.
(C) tawng hi inzirtir kher lovin tawng nghal bawrh bawrh se an thiam hma
zawk an ti.
(D) tawng thiam tura inzirtir kher hi tul an ti lo.
75. Thil sawi tur a nihna tak leh a awmzia sawi fiahna ang chi-entirnan, Tlang ram
lo neih dan tih te, lei hipna tih ang chi te sawi fiah zawnga thu ziah hi
________ a ni.
(A) Expository Essay (B) Narrative Essay
(C) Descriptive Essay (D) Reflective Essay
76. A hnuaia thute hi ngun takin chhiar la, hla zirtir dan thlang chhuak ang che.
(i) Zirtirtu chuan hla phuah chhan tawi fel takin a sawi ang.
(ii) Zirlai naupangte chu a hla zirtir tur chu a sak chhintir hmasa ang.
(iii) Hla thu lam harsa leh hla-rua te chu a hrilh fiah ang a, a lam rik dan te
pawh a hrilh ang.
(iv) Mizo hnamah hla pawimawhzia a hrilh ang a, hla a tui turin a fuih hmasa
ang.
(A) (i) & (ii) (B) (ii) & (iv)
(C) (iv) & (iii) (D) (i) & (iii).
77. Naupangte spelling zirtir dawn a, thumal te te sipeltir a, rem khawm a, chhiar
zirtir lovin, kha sentence kha entir a chhiartir tawp hi ________ a ni.
(A) See & Pronounce method (B) Playway method
(C) Sentence method (D) Spelling games
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se 78. g
Zirlaiten tawng an thiam tak takna tur chuan chhiar lana thiam ngei a ngai a, an
a
lehkha chhiar hian awmzia a neih theihna tura thil pathum inkawp tlatte chu
________ te an ni.
(A) intonation, stress & sound (B) symbol, sound & sense
(C) symbol, Intonation & stress (D) intonation, Symbol & Sense
m
79.
m
A hnuaia teaching aids tarlan te zingah hian audio aids pakhat ngaihthlak
.co
.co
thiamna zirtirna atana hman tangkai theih tur thlang chhuak rawh.
s e m
s em
(A) Tape recorder. (B) Flannel graph. l a
g la ag
a Chart.
(C) (D) Film-strip.
80. Elementary sikula mizo tawng zirtirtu tha ni tura nih ngei tur (qualification)
pakhat han thlang chhuak teh.
(A) Tawng hrang hranga tawng thei.
(B) Tawngkam thiam leh thusawi thiam.
m
(C) Mi hrisel, thothang tha leh tawng nuam ti mi.
.co
(D) em
Thu hla-ril (literature) lama tui mi leh hre ril.
s
g la
81. a
Mizo naupang pakhat chu England-ah a piang a,mizo tawng thiam lovin a sei
lian a, “a mother tongue a thiam lo a ni” tiin i sawi ta a. Tichuan he naupang
chungchang bik atana mother tongue hrilh fiahna hrang hrang zinga hrilh fiahna
i hman chu ________ a ni.
(A) pianpui tawng
(B) mahni hnam tawng
(C) nausenin tawng a zir thiam hmasak ber o m
m ber.
c
c. o (D) kan tawng thiam ber,ngaihtuahna tih chet nana kan hman s e m
e m l a
l as 82. g
Mizo tawngah “inngeih lo” sawi nana an hman thin chua________ tih hi a ni.
ag (A) bawng leh vawk thlun pawlh ang
(B) vawk leh kel thlun pawlh ang
(C) ui leh kel thlun pawlh ang
(D) ui leh Ar thlun pawlh ang
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.co s e m
s em l a
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83. Tawng thiam tehna chi hnihte thlang chhuak rawh.
(i) Thumal hriat tam leh sentence dik taka tawng thiam.
(ii) Thu sawi thiam a, sawi tlawr thiam.
(iii) Thawnthu phuah chawp leh eng thupui pawh mam taka sawi thei.
(iv) Tawngkam dik leh mawi, mi hneh thei zawnga sawi thiam.
(A) (i) & (iii) (B) (ii) & (iv)
(C) (iii) & (ii) (D) (i) & (iv)
84. Zir thiam theih (acquired,learned & imitated) hi mihring hnena society in a thilpek,
a lova khawsak theih loh tluk a ni a, tawng zir thiamna bulpui pali zinga ________
a ni.
(A) ngaihthlak thiamna (B) tawng/ sawi thiamna
(C) chhiar thiamna (D) ziah/ ziak thiamna
85. Tawng zirtirna hmunah naupangte tawngtirna hun siamsak nan, mita hmuh
theih leh khawih theih heng- pangpar te,pen te,map etc kan hman thin hi
________ a ni.
(A) chart (B) object lesson
(C) film (D) drama chantir
86. Mizo tawng upa a “ Ar khaw thim dai” tih hi a awmzia chu...
(A) ar anga khaw hmuh chiang lo.
(B) mit that loh avanga kalna hre lo.
(C) kawng hre lova pawng kal.
(D) thinur avanga kal tau sawk sawk.
87. Elementary school-a thuphuah composition in a tum ber chu..
(A) naupangten thil engpawh an hmuh leh an hriat, fiah leh tawi kim taka an
sawi chhuah thiam nan.
(B) thu leh hlaah an tui a, an thiam tak tak nan.
(C) naupangten tawng an thiam tak tak nan.
(D) naupangte an puitlin hunah mi thiam, ram leh hnam tana mi tangkai an lo
nih theihna turin.
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88 Naupangten tawng an zirna a, an inbiakna te, an thil ziah chi hrang hrang te,
lemchan te, thu kim lo dah kimna bakah an hnuhma chi hrang hrang dah khawmna
hi ________ a ni.
(A) checklists (B) register
(C) anecdotal Record (D) portfolio
89. (i) Hun kal tawha an thil lo zir tawh leh an zir thar tur suih zawmtir tum tur.
(ii) Zirlaite an rilru leh an ngaihtuahna, zir tur leh thiam tak tak tura buatsaih.
A chunga thu khi ngun takin chhiar la, Lesson plan dan chi khat 5E lesson plan
a eng stage ber nge a nih?
(A) Evaluate. (B) Elaborate.
(C) Engage. (D) Explore.
90. A hnuaia thuziak hrang hrangte zingah hian mizo tawng ziah dan tur dik taka
ziah thlang chhuak rawh.
(A) Phaizawl ah buh a tha duh.
(B) I ngaih dan han sawi ve teh.
(C) Khawiahnge i nu a awm?
(D) Rukru chu policein an umzui zel.
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se PART IV ALTERNATIVE ENGLISH g l a
a
A. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (61 – 70) that follow:
Liz was just about to finish wrapping up the final details for the surprise party she
was planning for her husband. She had been meticulously preparing for this event, designing
every aspect of the party from the invitations to the food, and she was very excited about it.
m
m
Family members whom Guermo hadn’t seen in years were flying in from Peru in a .co
.co
few days. Liz had tracked down several college friends, and they were coming from various
s e m
s em
places across the country. The caterer and band were set. l a
g l a ag
Theabest part for Liz: she knew Guermo did not have a clue about the party. She could
not wait to see the look on his face when he walked into a big “Surprise!” in his own home.
The party was to be on Saturday. As Liz was daydreaming about picking relatives up
at the airport the next day and taking them to their hotel, Guermo walked into the kitchen
and said, quite certainly, “Sweetheart, I don’t want anything special done for my birthday.”
m
.co
“What do you mean?” Liz responded nonchalantly, though her heart began to pound.
em
“I mean that I don’t want a surprise party.”
s
g laa problem.”
a
“Okay,” Liz said with a shrug. “Not
Liz’s mind raced. There was nothing she could do about Guermo’s request now. And,
frankly, she didn’t want to. Liz had been planning this for more than a year. The party would
go off as she intended. She did not want all of her effort to be for naught.
When Guermo came home Saturday evening from playing soccer with friends, he
was shocked. Tears filled his eyes. (This response was something Liz had not predicted.) m
m
Among the crowd he saw friends whom he had not seen in nearly 20 years and family
o .co
m . c
members who had come from Peru just for this evening. s em
s e g l a
l a a wife. He felt ambushed.
But along with being deeply moved, he was also angry with his
ag He knew he could be emotional, and he did not like people to see him that way. That was
why he did not like being surprised.
61. As used in the beginning of the story, which is the best antonym for meticulously?
(A) Angrily (B) Carelessly
(C) Overtly
m (D) Quickly
.
c. o s e m
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ag
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62. As used in the middle of the story, which is the best synonym for nonchalantly?
(A) Complacently (B) Half-heartedly
(C) Indifferently (D) Casually
63. Given the circumstances, the most likely reason that Liz’s heart began to pound in the
middle of the story is because Liz was
(A) angry. (B) confused.
(C) nervous. (D) heartbroken.
64. To ambush someone means to
(A) make someone cry.
(B) lie to someone repeatedly.
(C) attack someone in a surprise manner.
(D) present someone with all their friends and family.
65. When Guermo tells Liz that he does not want a surprise party, why did Liz decide not
to tell Guermo about the party?
(A) She was embarrassed.
(B) She would have had to cancel the party.
(C) She had done a lot of work to make it a surprise.
(D) The guests would have been disappointed.
66. “Salsa music filled the home of Liz and Guermo. Guests filled up on ceviche, lomo
soltado and empanadas.”
Which of the following is the best way to combine the above sentences while keeping
their original meaning?
(A) Salsa music filled the home of Liz and Guermo, guests filled up on ceviche,
lomo soltado and empanadas.
(B) While salsa music filled the home of Liz and Guermo, guests filled up on
ceviche, lomo soltado and empanadas.
(C) Salsa music filled the home of Liz and Guermo; nevertheless, guests filled up
on ceviche, lomo soltado and empanadas.
(D) Salsa music filled the home of Liz and Guermo; however, guests filled up on
ceviche, lomo soltado and empanadas.
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67. What is the main reason Guermo did not want to be surprised?
(A) He did not like to dance.
(B) He did not like to get emotional.
(C) He did not want people to know his age.
(D) He did not want to see his family and friends.
68. What could the author have done to add more tension to the passage?
(i) describe Peruvian cuisine in more detail
(ii) flashback to a previous incident in which one of Liz’s surprises had gone awry
(iii) included a scene in which Guermo storms out of the party
(A) (i) only (B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii), and (iii)
69. What can the reader assume likely happens at the end of the night?
(A) Guermo forgives Liz.
(B) Guermo plans to get Liz back.
(C) Liz never tries to surprise Guermo again.
(D) Guests are upset that Guermo hates their surprise.
70. Which excerpt best summarizes the moment in which conflict first arises in the story?
(A) “Sweetheart, I don’t want anything special done for my birthday.”
(B) “I mean that I don’t want a surprise party.”
(C) “Okay,” Liz said with a shrug. “Not a problem.”
(D) “But along with being deeply moved, he was also angry with his wife.”
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m .co s em
se B. Read the following poem carefully and answer the g la (71 – 75) that follow:
questions
a
Idylls of the King: Song from The Marriage of Geraint
Turn, Fortune turn thy wheel, and lower the proud;
Turn thy wild wheel thro’ sunshine, storm, and cloud;
Thy wheel and thee we neither love nor hate.
m
om Fortune, turn thy wheel with smile or frown;
c. Turn, m .co
m With that wild wheel we go not up or down; s e
s e l a
g l a ag
a Our hoard is little, but our hearts are great.
Smile and we smile, the lords of many lands;
Frown and we smile, the lords of our own hands;
For man is man and master of his fate
m
.co
Turn, turn thy wheel above the staring crowd;
em
Thy wheel and thou are shadows in the cloud;
s
Thy wheel andag
la
thee we neither love nor hate.
- Alfred, Lord Tennyson
71. ‘We neither love nor hate’ means ________.
(A) we are unconcerned (B) we disregard
m
om
c. 72.
(C) we are unrelated (D)
m
we are not touched
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s e
em
The words ‘lower the proud’ are request to Fortune to ________.
s g l a
la (A) throw down those who are snobbish a
ag
(B) bring down the proud
(C) humiliate people
(D) make powerful people lose power
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73. ‘Our hoard is little’ means ________.
(A) we have little fortune (B) we don’t have much in our stores
(C) we are not wealthy (D) what we have collected is little
74. ‘The lords of our own hands’ means ________.
(A) we have our destiny in our own hands
(B) we are farmers
(C) we have strong hands
(D) we control our life
75. The wheel of fortune symbolizes ________.
(A) changes in fortune (B) ups and downs in life
(C) a spinning wheel (D) a giant wheel
76. At the elementary level, teaching in the students’ mother tongue is recommended
because
(A) it enables children to comprehend. (B) it creates a natural environment.
(C) children develop self-confidence. (D) it promotes regional languages.
77. Miss Rami often uses the children’s mother tongue to give instructions in her second
language class. This ________ exploits the communicative potential of the given
structure.
(A) sandwich approach (B) communicative approach
(C) bilingual technique (D) structural technique
78. The teacher uses discussion method to teach a prose lesson and starts the discussion
by asking questions, and then the students respond by giving explanations and
examples. The speaking assessment here is to grade how well students
(A) express themselves.
(B) process information and respond appropriately.
(C) respond in an appropriate tone and express themselves fluently.
(D) speak fluently and creatively.
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79. In ________ method of teaching grammar, the teacher states the rules and gives
examples
(A) Direct (B) Inductive
(C) Grammar-Translation (D) Deductive
80. The correct sequence to be followed while teaching a second language to students is
(A) Listening, Speaking, Reading, Writing.
(B) Listening, Reading, Speaking, Writing.
(C) Speaking, Reading, Writing, Listening.
(D) Writing, Speaking, Listening, Reading.
81. Before coming to school, children
(A) are well versed in more than one language.
(B) are aware of all the grammatical rules related to language.
(C) are well equipped in their native language to understand and explain.
(D) do not know anything about the second language.
82. Which one of the following is NOT a vocabulary learning strategy?
(A) Repetition and drills (B) Choral reading
(C) Contextual analysis (D) Chunking
83. Miss Rini asked Thanga to recite a poem so that she can test Thanga’s
(A) knowledge of literature. (B) proficiency in speaking.
(C) skill of listening. (D) fluency skill.
84. Language acquisition occurs only when
(A) the child is taught the rules of grammar.
(B) the child is given a reward.
(C) the child has exposure to the language.
(D) the child absorbs the language without conscious attention.
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se 85. g la is
A test which is administered at the end of a language course
a
(A) Diagnostic test. (B) Placement test.
(C) Achievement test. (D) Memory test.
86. A teacher can effectively minimize the influence of the mother tongue in a second
language class by
(A) using the mother tongue less often. m
m .co
(B)
.co
giving examples from the mother tongue.
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ag
(C) giving a lot of exposure in the target language.
g l a
(D)a giving inputs from the target language in a simple, graded manner.
87. ________ is a teaching technique based on the saying that “What I hear, I forget;
What I see, I remember; What I do, I understand.”
(A) Simulations (B) Role play
(C) Demonstrations (D) Discussions
m
88. A teacher can be successful if she/he
m .co
(A) completes the course on time.
s e
g la
(B) a
knows his subject-matter well.
(C) presents the subject-matter in a well organised manner.
(D) prepares the students to score good marks in the examinations.
89. To resolve conflicts in the classroom, it would be best if the teacher
(A) gathers suggestions from the students and implements the relevant ones.
m
m(B)
c. o (C)
relies solely on his/her opinion.
m .co
m s e
s e asks his/her colleagues for suggestions.
g l a
g la (D) reports it to the headmaster. a
a
90. A language proficiency test aims at measuring
(A) how much a learner learnt over a specific period of time.
(B) a learner’s knowledge of the content of the textbook.
(C) a learner’s knowledge of the various rules of language.
m .
(D)
.co
a learner’s knowledge of the whole language.
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PART V MATHEMATICS AND SCIENCE
91. Which of the following numbers in Roman numerals is incorrect?
(A) LXII (B) XCI
(C) LC (D) XLIV
92. Generalised form of a three-digit number xyz is ________.
(A) x+y+z (B) 100x + 10y + z
(C) 100z + 10y + x (D) 100y + 10x + z
93. If 5× A = CA, then the values of A and C are ________.
(A) A = 5, C = 1 (B) A = 4, C = 2
(C) A = 5, C = 2 (D) A = 2, C = 5
94. The product of a non-zero whole number and its successor is always divisible by
________.
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 2
95. Mawia is standing at the middle of the bridge which is 20m above the water level of
a river. If a 35m deep river is flowing under the bridge, then the vertical distance
between the foot of Mawia and bottom level of the river is ________.
(A) 35m (B) 55m
(C) 20m (D) 15m
96. The sum of two integers is 47. If one of the integers is -24, what is the other
number?
(A) 71 (B) 23
(C) – 71 (D) – 23
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97. Write a pair of fractions whose sum is and its difference is .
9 4 7 5
(A) (B)
22, 22 22, 22
9 5 9 7
(C) , (D) ,
22 22 22 22
98. Which of the following is in direct proportion?
(A) One side of a cuboid and its volume.
(B) Speed of a vehicle and the distance travelled in a fixed time interval.
(C) Change in weight and height among individuals.
(D) Number of pipes to fill a tank and the time required to fill the same tank.
99. T he i rreduci bl e f actori zati on of 3a3 + 6a is ________.
(A) 3a (a2 + 2) (B) 3 (a3 + 2)
(C) a (3a2 + 6) (D) 3 x a x a x a x2 x 3 x a
100. Which of the following cannot be the sides of a triangle?
(A) 3cm, 4cm, 5cm (B) 2.3cm, 6.4cm, 5.2cm
(C) 2.5cm, 3.5cm. 4.5cm (D) 2cm, 4cm, 6cm
101. If the diagonals of a quadrilateral bisect each other at right angles, it will be a
________.
(A) rhombus (B) trapezium
(C) rectangle (D) kite
102. A prism is a polyhedron whose lateral faces are ________.
(A) circles (B) triangles
(C) parallelograms (D) rhombuses or Rhombi
103. In the word “MATHS” which of the following pairs of letters shows rotational
symmetry?
(A) M and T. (B) H and S.
(C) A and S. (D) T and S.
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se g laits side becomes 10 times
104. What will be the change in the volume of a cube when
the original side? a
(A) Volume becomes 1000 times.
(B) Volume becomes 10 times.
(C) Volume becomes 100 times.
(D) Volume becomes 1/1000 times.
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105. The range of the data :- 9, 8, 4, 3, 2, 1, 6, 4, 8, 10, 12, 15, 4, 3 is ________.
m
.co
(A) 15 (B) 12
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e m l as
(C)
l as10 (D) 14
ag
ag
106. A dice is thrown 2 times, and sum of the numbers appearing on the dice are noted.
The number of possible outcomes is ________.
(A) 6 (B) 11
(C) 18 (D) 36
o m
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107. Two distinct lines in a plane that cross at. a point are called ________.
(i) Intersecting lines s em
(ii) Parallel lines g la
Choose the correct answer
a
(A) Only (i) is correct (B) Only (ii) is correct
(C) Both (i) and (ii) are correct (D) None of them is correct
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108. The length and breadth of a steel tape are 10m and 2.4cm. respectively. The ratio of
m
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the length to the breadth is ________.
m s e
s e (A) 5 : 1.2 (B) 25 : 6
g l a
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a (C) 625 : 6 (D) 1250 : 3
3
109. If of a number is 12. The number is ________.
4
(A) 9 (B) 16
(C) 18 m (D) 32 .
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110. If 1 is added to the greatest 7-digit number, it will be equal to ________.
(A) 1 crore (B) 1 lakh
(C) 10 lakh (D) 10 thousand
111. ________ is the consideration of limited group for consideration of bigger groups or
extending concepts to a bigger area to investigate about it.
(A) Counter example (B) Conjecture
(C) Axioms (D) Generalization
112. Which is not included in the aims of teaching Mathematics at Middle School?
(A) Develop Mathematical curiosity.
(B) Develop inability to reflect critically.
(C) Use inductive reasoning when solving problems.
(D) Use deductive reasoning when solving problems.
113. Which is not the objective of teaching Mathematics at Middle school?
(A) Knowledge and Understanding. (B) Investigating Patterns.
(C) Suppression in Mathematics. (D) Communication in Mathematics.
114. Which of the following is not included as the place of Mathematics in School
Curriculum?
(A) Decision – Making. (B) Inter-disciplinary Approach.
(C) Utilization Value. (D) Develop various values.
115. The characteristics of the language of Mathematics is ________.
(A) precise (B) concise
(C) none of these (D) Both (A) and (B)
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116. Which of the following is the most suitable method of teaching Mathematics at
Middle stage?
(A) Lecture Method. (B) Problem-solving Method.
(C) Demonstration Method (D) Laboratory Method.
117. Instructional material in teaching Mathematics includes ________.
(i) 2D and 3D shapes
(ii) Pretend Money
Choose the correct answer
(A) Only (i) is correct (B) Only (ii) is correct
(C) Both (i) and (ii) are correct (D) None of these
118. Problems of teaching mathematics ________.
(i) may include various myths
(ii) requires a sharp brain and intelligence
Choose the correct answer
(A) Only (i) is true (B) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(C) Only (ii) is true (D) Neither (i) nor (ii) is true
119. The method which is used in assessment of Mathematics is ________.
(A) Pre-assessment (B) Formative assessment
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
120. The fundamental concept of Mathematics does not include ________.
(A) hypothesis (B) function
(C) natural number (D) postulate
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m .co s em
se g la bacteria?
121. Which of the following atmospheric gas is fixed by rhizobium
(A) Oxygen
a
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Carbon dioxide (D) Hydrogen
122. The organism that obtains nutrients from the dead or decaying organic matter is
________.
m
(A) Parasite
m (B) Omnitroph
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(C)
s em
Saprotroph (D) Symbiotic organism l a
g l a ag
123. Thea4R Principle for waste minimization is ________.
(A) Reduce, Reuse, Recycle, Recover
(B) Remember, Reduce, Recycle, Rejoice
(C) Repeat, Rejoice , Recycle, Reduce
(D) None of these
m
124.
.co
The coating used in non – stick cookware and electric iron is ________.
(A) Teflon
s em(B) Rayon
g la
(C) Polyester a (D) Melamine
125. What will I choose if I want to buy a gift made of animal fibre obtained without
harming the animal?
(A) Silk scarf (B) Animal fur cap
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(C) Leather jacket (D) Woolen shawl
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s e 126. Cell wall is found in
g a
lonly.
g la (A) plant cells only. (B) a
animal cells
a
(C) both (A) and (B) (D) none of these
127. The empty blank looking structures in the cytoplasm is ________.
(A) vacuoles (B) plastids
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(C) plasma membrane (D) nucleus
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128. Sometimes when we do heavy exercise, anaerobic respiration takes place in our muscle
cells and produce
(A) alcohol and lactic acid. (B) alcohol and CO2 .
(C) lactic acid and CO2. (D) lactic acid only.
129. Which of the following are pipe-like, consisting of a group of specialized cells,
transport substances and form a two-way traffic in plants?
(A) Xylem tissue (B) Vascular tissue
(C) Root hairs (D) Phloem tissue
130. Awmawmi observed that a pond with clear water was covered up with green algae
within a week. By which method of reproduction did the algae spread so rapidly?
(A) Budding (B) Sexual reproduction
(C) Fragmentation (D) Pollination
131. Force acting per unit area is called
(A) non-contact forces. (B) contact forces.
(C) weight. (D) pressure.
132. Two boys A and B are applying force on a block from opposite sides. If the block
moves towards the boy A, which one of the following statements is correct?
(A) Magnitude of force applied by A is greater than that of B.
(B) Magnitude of force applied by A is smaller than that of B.
(C) Net force on the block is towards B.
(D) Magnitude of force applied by A is equal to that of B.
133. When the hammer strikes the gong of an electric bell, which of the following force is
responsible for the movement of hammer?
(A) Gravitational force alone. (B) Magnetic force alone.
(C) Electrostatic force alone. (D) Frictional force alone.
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134. Observe the figure given below :
The time period of a simple pendulum is the time taken by it to travel from
(A) A to B and B to A. (B) O to A, A to B and B to A.
(C) B to A, A to B and B to O. (D) A to B.
135. Rema walks to his school which is at a distance of 3 km from his home in 30 minutes.
On reaching he finds that the school is closed and comes back by a bicycle with his
friend and reaches home in 20 minutes. His average speed in km/h is ________.
(A) 8.3 (B) 7.2
(C) 5 (D) 3.6
136. In making a battery
(A) positive terminal of one cell is connected to the negative terminal of the next cell.
(B) positive terminal of one cell is connected to the positive terminal of the next cell.
(C) negative terminal of one cell is connected to the negative terminal of the next cell.
(D) none of the these.
137. Which instrument is used to measure earthquake?
(A) Richter scale (B) Seismograph
(C) Polygraph (D) Seismoscale
138. Which of the following occurs during lightning?
(A) Acid rain (B) Nitrogen fixation
(C) Green house effect (D) Earthing
139. “Every Drop Counts” is a slogan related to
(A) counting of drops of any liquid. (B) counting of water drops.
(C) importance of water. (D) importance of counting.
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140. Voice of a man is heavy compared to a woman because
(A) female vocal cord is longer.
a
(B) male vocal cord is longer.
(C) male vocal cord is shorter. (D) the concept is not related.
141. Which of the following is not a qualitative test?
(A) Observation (B) Checklist
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(C)
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Rating Scale (D)
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Objective questions
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s e l a
g the
142. Sarahatook her class VII pupils on a field trip. Which of the following will be
l a
ag
objectives for this activity?
(i) It encourages interaction among children.
(ii) It promotes process skills through concrete experience.
(iii) It enhances observation skill among the children.
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iii)
o m
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(C) (i) and (iii)
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143. Which of the following is recommended according to NCF 2005 in science curriculum
at upper primary stage?
(i) Concepts should be linked to make sense of everyday experience.
(ii) Concepts should be arrived from activities and experiments.
(iii) Concepts should be taught through disciplinary approach.
(iv) Along with concepts, laws and theories need to be introduced.
m
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s em (C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (iv) and (i)a
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l a 144. Which of the following is used for finding the learning a
ag gaps of learners in science ?
(i) Concept map (ii) Anecdotal record
(iii) Portfolio (iv) Term end achievement test
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) m (D) (i), (ii) and (iv) .
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145. Which one of the following is not the objective of teaching science at elementary
stage?
(A) Developing enquiring skills.
(B) Acquiring technological skills.
(C) Acquiring scientific literacy.
(D) Acquiring process skills.
146. Which of the following is not the characteristic of a person having a scientific attitude ?
(A) Open-mindedness.
(B) Belief in cause and effect relationship.
(C) Spirit of inquiry and curiosity.
(D) Shows faith in superstition.
147. “A good science teacher must have the necessary knowledge for the various problems
faced by him/her in the teaching of his/her subject”. What can be the most prevalent
problem(s)?
(A) Lack of facilities, resources and skilled teachers.
(B) Overcrowded classes and time-bound completion of the syllabus.
(C) Lack of autonomy given to the teacher to experiment innovations.
(D) All of the above.
148. Teaching Learning Material should be used to
(A) Make teaching more useful. (B) Make teaching impressive.
(C) Provide concrete examples. (D) Facilitate learning.
149. The purpose of remedial teaching is to
(A) introduce new items.
(B) test recently taught items.
(C) teach again the items which are not properly understood by students.
(D) teach again the items already learned.
150. A study on discovery of LASER will show the correlation of science with
(A) Fine Arts. (B) History.
(C) Literature. (D) Geography.
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PART VI SOCIAL SCIENCE
91. Which river’s bank did the people live along in the ancient time?
(A) Ganga (B) Narmada
(C) Sutlej (D) None of these
92. Why did hunter-gatherers move from place to place?
(A) In search of food. (B) In search of shelters.
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
93. When did the domestication begin?
(A) About 12,000 years ago. (B) About 8,000 years ago.
(C) About 6,000 years ago. (D) About 4,000 years ago.
94. Where did the crafts persons make the things in the earliest cities?
(A) In their own homes. (B) In special workshops.
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
95. Which of the following is the oldest Veda?
(A) Samaveda (B) Yajurveda
(C) Rigveda (D) Atharvaveda
96. Who believed that the result of our action is Karma?
(A) Mahavir (B) Buddha
(C) Indera (D) Ram Chandra
97. Which new dynasty developed in eastern part of the country?
(A) Cholas (B) Palas
(C) Chahamanas (D) Rashtrakutas
98. What was the language of administration under the Delhi Sultans?
(A) Urdu (B) Persian
(C) Hindi (D) English
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m .co s e m
se 99. Akbar, a great Mughal Emperor was known for his gl
a
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(A) tolerant religious policy. (B) good administration.
(C) economic reforms and works. (D) All of these.
100. The people from distant land visited Surat because
(A) it was the Gateway to West Asia. (B) it was a beautiful place.
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(C)
m .co
it was the pilgrim centre. (D) None of these.
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101. The Ahom tribes migrated from ________.
g l a
(A)a Iran (B) Arab
(C) Myanmar (Burma) (D) China
102. The Third Battle of Panipat was fought in the year ________.
(A) 1743 (B) 1752
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(C) 1761 (D)
103. The Champaran movement was against e m
las
(A) Peasant. ag
(B) East India Company.
(C) The oppressive attitude of the planters.
(D) None of these.
104. The sepoys were angry with the British because m
m
c. o (A) m .co
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of their policy of divide and rule.
s e
s e g l a
g la (B) of the cartridge episode.
a
a (C) of their intolerating behaviour.
(D) None of these.
105. Portuguese first came to India in search of ________.
(A) Cotton (B) Spices
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(C) Steel
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106. Who set up Asiatic Society of Bengal ?
(A) William Jones (B) Henry Thomas Colebrooke
(C) Nathaniel Hached (D) all of these
107. The Vernacular Press Act was enacted in ________.
(A) 1840 (B) 1857
(C) 1878 (D) 1890
108. Which is NOT the features of our Constitution
(A) Adoption of Universal Adult Franchise.
(B) Preference to Hindu Religion.
(C) Equal rights to all Citizens.
(D) Special privileges for the poorest and most disadvantageous Indians.
109. The earth is called a blue planet because of the presence of ________.
(A) water (B) blue colour
(C) brown colour (D) red colour
110. What is a globe?
(A) Earth. (B) True model of the earth.
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these.
111. The circle that divides the globe into day and night is called
(A) Circle of darkness. (B) Circle of day and night.
(C) Circle of illumination. (D) None of these.
112. Which is World Environment Day celebrated every year ?
(A) 25th December (B) 23rd June
(C) 26th January (D) 5th June
113. The process of transformation of the rock from one form to another is known as
(A) road cycle. (B) food cycle.
(C) rock cycle. (D) All of these.
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114. Where is the air pressure highest?
(A) Moon (B) Sea Level
(C) Stratosphere (D) Exosphere
115. Tropical evergreen forests are also called
(A) tropical rain forests. (B) tropical dry forests.
(C) tropical deciduous forests. (D) None of these.
116. Which country has the largest railway network in Asia?
(A) China (B) India
(C) Pakistan (D) Japan
117. Resources drawn from nature and used without much modification are called
(A) human made resources. (B) natural resources.
(C) cultural resources. (D) None of these.
118. The uneven distribution of population in the world is due to the varied character of
________.
(A) land and climate (B) climate
(C) vegetation (D) settlements
119. The important inputs like seeds, fertilisers, machinery etc form a system called as
________.
(A) Barter system (B) Water system
(C) Farm system (D) All of these
120. The highest density of the population in the world is in ________.
(A) Europe (B) South America
(C) South Central Asia (D) None of these
121. How many languages are spoken in India?
(A) More than 600. (B) More than 1600.
(C) More than 2600. (D) More than 3600.
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122. Which issue can become a source of conflict betweenlaStates?
a
(A) Roads (B) Transport
(C) Rivers (D) None of these.
123. Who is called the Sarpanch?
(A) Members of Panchayat (B) Panchayat Head
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(C)
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Villages (D) All of these.
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124. District Collector is also known as ________.
g la
a Tehsildar
(A) (B) Zamindar
(C) Sarpanch (D) Panchs
125. Which agency replaces the broken street lights, collects the garbage, provides
water supply, keeps the market clean?
(A) Municipal Corporation (B) Hospital
o m
. c(D)
(C) Police
e m none of these
126. Whose biography is ‘Joothan’?la
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ag
(A) Omprakash Valmiki’s (B) Atal Behari Vajpayee’s
(C) Mahatma Gandhi’s (D) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru’s
127. When is international Women’s Day celebrated?
(A) 8 th April (B) 8th March
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8 January
th
(D) 8 August
th
e m
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em 128. What refers to independent people in a democratic form ofglgovernment?
a
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(C) Polity (D) Trafficking
129. Who is the Chairman of Rajya Sabha?
(A) Prime Minister of India. (B) President of India.
(C) m
Vice President of India. (D) None of these. .
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130. The minorities are forced to live on the margins of economic and social
development, this is known as ________.
(A) malnourished (B) marginalisation
(C) displaced (D) All of these.
131. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding the nature of Social
Science?
(i) Social Science are advance level studies of human society.
(ii) Social Science contribute to the social utility and advancement of
knowledge
(iii) Social Science are those aspects of knowledge which have direct bearing
on man’s activities in different socio-cultural fields.
(A) only (iii) (B) both (i) and (ii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii) (D) only (ii)
132. The term ‘Social Structure’ means that society
(A) is stratified. (B) has concrete structure.
(C) is captured. (D) is structured.
133. The central concepts to understand the dialectical relationship between the society
and individual are________.
(A) structure (B) stratification
(C) social processes (D) All of these
134. Which of the following is not a characteristics of a State?
(A) Motivated by profit.
(B) Sovereign power.
(C) Monopoly of the legitimate use of force.
(D) The power to make laws for all citizens.
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135. Which of the following metals was not known during the Indus Valley
Civilization?
(A) Iron (B) Gold
(C) Copper (D) Silver
136. Which of the following is regarded by historians as a crucial stage in describing the
progress of civilization?
(A) Writing. (B) The discovery of fire.
(C) Agriculture. (D) The use of internet.
137. Which Articles of Indian Constitution are related to Citizenship?
(A) Article 3 to 10. (B) Article 4 to 11.
(C) Article 5 to 11. (D) Article 6 to 11.
138. A state with only one nation within its borders is a
(A) Stateless - Nation. (B) Nation State.
(C) Ethnocentric Nation. (D) Statehood.
139. Resources which are found in a region, but have not been utilised is a ________
resource.
(A) renewable (B) developed
(C) national (D) potential
140. Which one of the following type of resource is iron ore?
(A) Renewable (B) Biotic
(C) Flow (D) Non-renewable
141. What are different types of markets?
(A) Weekly (B) Neighbourhood
(C) Mall (D) All of these
142. Which teaching method is most suited for teaching elementary student?
(A) Lecture method. (B) Comparison method.
(C) Narration/story telling method. (D) Discussion.
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se 143. Students find/explore the solutions on their own in gl
a
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(A) lecture method of teaching. (B) discovery method of teaching.
(C) comparison method of teaching. (D) story telling method of teaching.
144. The selection of teaching aid depends largely on the
(A) age of students.
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(B)
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interest of students.
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(C) age and motivation of students.
g la
(D)a educational level and age of students.
145. Which one is not the three main types of Teaching Aids?
(A) Visual Aids (B) Audio Aids
(C) Projected Aids (D) Audio Visual Aids
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146. Which of the following is NOT a source of History on the basis of availability?
(A) Oral traditions
s em(B) Archaeological sources
g la (D)
(C) Witness accounts a Literary sources
147. A tertiary source of data is
(A) films, hoardings and posters.
(B) government gazette, newspaper and magazines.
(C) information derived from both primary and secondary sources. m
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data collected from polity papers.
s e
s em148. In order to monitor students’ progress and modify teaching accordingly,
g l a
l a a the best
ag method of evaluation is
(A) formative evaluation. (B) summative evaluation.
(C) qualitative evaluation. (D) objective-base evaluation.
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149. The three stages of evaluation dimention are
(i) determination of education objectives.
(ii) providing learner experiences.
(iii) evaluation of behavioural changes .
The above stages are given by
(A) B.S. Bloom (B) Herbert
(C) Skinner (D) Thorndike
150. Which one of the following is related to Summative evaluation?
(A) Provide the teacher with continuous and immediate feedback about
student’s progress.
(B) Focuses on molecular analysis of instructional material.
(C) On-going of systematic assessment of learner’s achievement.
(D) Terminal assessment of the learner’s performance at the end of the session.
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