Mizoram TET 2023 Question Paper II

FOR MIZORAM TET EXAM PREPARATION

Mizoram TET 2023
Question Paper · II
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT

Mizoram TET 2023 Question Paper II

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

.
m .co s e m Mizoram TET 2023 Question Paper II

s e l a
a ag
MIZORAM BOARD OF SCHOOL EDUCATION

MIZORAM TEACHER ELIGIBILITY TEST
JULY — 2023
m
om
PAPER II . co
. c e m
Date of Examination :
e m 27th July, 2023 (Thursday)
l as
Time as
l NOTES : 01:30 p.m. - 04:00 p.m.
ag
ag INSTRUCTION TO THE CANDIDATES
 This booklet contains 38 1. A candidate shall not be allowed to carry any
pages without cover. textual materials, printed or written, bits of
Check the booklet before papers or any other objectionable materials
attempting the questions. inside the examination hall.
 OMR sheets will be 2. No candidate must leave the examination hall
provided to all the without special permission of the Invigilator
candidates. The OMR concerned until he/she has finished his/her
m
.co
sheet should not be examination. Candidates should not leave the
tampered in any way. Hall without handing over their Answer sheets
e m
Tampered OMR sheets
3. l
shall not be evaluated. as of Cell phone, Electronic gadgets,
to the invigilator on duty.

g Use
 Do not submit the OMR a Calculator, etc. are not allowed inside the
sheet without signature ofExamination Hall.
Invigilator. 4. Candidates shall maintain complete silence and
 Rough work is to be done attend to their papers only. Any conversation or
in the space provided in gesticulation or disturbance in the examination
the question booklet. hall shall be taken into account as misbehaviour
and if a candidate is found using unfair means
 Candidates should follow or impersonating, his/her candidature shall be
the right marking exactly cancelled and he/she shall be liable to m
m as indicated in the debarment of taking further examination either
.co
.co em
Information Brochure. permanently or for a specified period according

e m s
to the nature of offence committed by such a
la
las candidate.
g
a only for Lai, Mara
ag 5. Alternative English is meant
and Chakma candidates. A candidate must thus
attempt either Part III or Part IV depending
upon whether he/she has opted for Mizo or
Alternative English. A candidate must also
attempt either Part V or Part VI depending upon
whether he/she has opted for Mathematics and
Science or Social Studies. Rest of the paper
viz., Part I and Part II are compulsory.
m . c
c. o s e m
s em
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
gl a
Page 1 of 40

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 2 of 40

MIZORAM TEACHER ELIGIBILITY TEST – 2023
PAPER – II

PART I : CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY

1. Who is the father of modern Pedagogy?
A. Pestalozzi B. Watson
C. Skinner D. Gestalt

2. The best method to study growth and development of the child is
A. Psychoanalytic method B. Comparative method
C. Developmental method D. Statistical method

3. Amalgamation and rapid unification between countries can be identified as
A. Globalization B. Liberalization
C. Socialization D. Privatization

4. “Individual learns from his own mistakes”. This statement is based on which
theory?
A. Instrumental conditioning B. Insight
C. Trial and Error D. Classical conditioning

5. According to Erikson, the task of adolescence is
A. to find intimacy with others
B. to develop a sense of initiative
C. to find a consistent sense of self
D. to develop a sense of industry

6. Sigmund Freud considers the paternal love of girls as
A. Oedipus complex B. Electra complex
C. Narcissism D. Feeling of dependence

7. Which mostly affects the development of emotional self-regulation?
A. Temperament B. Learning
C. Perception D. Motivation

8. Who is known as the principal attachment figure?
A. Father B. Mother
C. Care givers D. Significant others

1

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 3 of 40

.
m .co s e m Mizoram TET 2023 Question Paper II

s e l a
a ag
9. The knowledge that quantity is unrelated to the arrangement and physical
appearance of objects is
A. conservation B. operations
C. classification D. accommodation

10. Use of multimedia for communication will help inclusion of
m
i. students with intellectual intelligence
om . co
c
ii. students with giftedness
. e m
m
iii. students with autism
e l as
as
iv. students with dyslexia
l ag
ag
Choose the correct option
A. i, ii, iii B. ii, iii, iv
C. i, ii, iv D. i, ii, iii, iv

11. Peer groups are the agents of
A. Secondary socialization B. Anticipatory socialization
C. Primary socialization D. Developmental socialization

m
.co
12. The parents expect their orders to be obeyed without explanation in
A. Authoritative parenting
m
B. Authoritarian parenting
e
C. Uninvolved parenting
l asD. Permissive parenting

g
13. If a child has a mental age ofa5 years and chronological age of 4 years then what
will be the IQ of the child?
A. 125 B. 80
C. 120 D. 100

14. “Sex” and “Gender” can be defined on the basis of
A. Environmental factors B. Biological factors
m
.co
C. Sociological factors D. General factors
m
c. o 15. What type of evaluation identifies children with special needs? sem
s em A. Placement B. Summative
g l a
la C. Continuous D. Diagnostic a
ag
16. Attitudes and expectations regarding gender roles are based on
A. Stereotypes
B. Inherent gender differences
C. Discriminatory policies followed through generations
D. Gender typing

m . c
c. o
2

e m
em as
s
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
gl
Page 4 of 40

17. The individual successes of teachers and students are recognized in
A. toxic school culture B. positive school culture
C. bureaucratic school culture D. collegial school culture

18. Through which Amendment of the constitution has education become a
Fundamental Right?
A. 25th Amendment B. 86th Amendment
C. 22nd Amendment D. 52nd Amendment

19. While introducing a new topic, a teacher should ask questions which
A. are from the domains completely unfamiliar from students
B. are much beyond their cognitive abilities
C. have no relation with the topic to be taught
D. relate to the topic to be studied with what the student already knows

20. Socio-constructivist theorists consider the child as
A. a blank slate
B. a passive recipient of knowledge
C. an active being involved in creation of knowledge
D. a miniature adult

21. “The teacher shall respect and be loyal to the school, community, state and
nation,” is the teacher’s relation to
A. management/administration B. parents/guardians
C. colleagues & profession D. society and the nation

22. Maslow explained Theory of Motivation in perspective of
A. Needs B. Rewards
C. Expectancies D. Objectives

23. A process of what is being assessed is called
A. Assessment B. Evaluation
C. Measurement D. Rubrics

24. CCE mainly aims at promoting
A. Competition among children
B. Competition among teachers
C. Academic excellence among children
D. Inclusive education

3

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 5 of 40

25. Student-centric classroom is meant for
A. addressing individual differences
B. reducing teacher-oriented lectures
C. recalling the previous knowledge
D. engaging the entire class

26. Which of the following is the most appropriate method to monitor the progress of
children with learning disabilities?
A. Case-study
B. Anecdotal records
C. Behavioural-rating scale
D. Structured behavioural observation

27. Which one of the following methods would never be used by a behaviorist?
A. Interview
B. Projective test
C. Personality inventory
D. Direct observation

28. The most essential qualities for a teacher is to
A. be an expert of the subject B. be a learned person
C. be a well-dressed person D. have lots of patience

29. You work at a pre-school, the pay is low and working hours are long, but you
love being around children and have no desire to look for a higher paying job.
Your motivation appears to be
A. selfish B. external
C. extrinsic D. intrinsic

30. The main responsibility of school management lies on the
A. Principal or Headmaster B. Teachers & Principal
C. Manager & Headmaster D. Teachers & Manager

4

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 6 of 40

.
m .co s e m Mizoram TET 2023 Question Paper II

s e l a
a ag
PART II : ENGLISH

A. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (31 – 35) that
follow.

A sage once said, “How can there be peace on earth if the hearts of men are like
volcanoes?” We can live in harmony with others only when we overcome anger m
om
and make room for peace. So how can we set about creating that sense of peace
. co
. c
within ourselves? It starts with the realization that we do not have the choice to
e m
em
think and feel the way we want to. If we look at what it is that makes us angry,
l as
as
we might discover there is nothing that has the power to make us feel this way.
l ag
ag
We can only allow something to trigger our anger –anger is a way in which we
respond to an event or person. But because we are so used to reacting on
impulse, we forget to choose how we want to feel, and end up reacting
inappropriately, leaving ourselves with angry feelings. A single word spoken in
anger leaves a lasting impression on a person’s heart and has the ability to ruin
the sweetness of any relationship.

Meditation helps us create personal space within ourselves so that we have the
m
chance to look, weigh the situation, and respond accordingly, remaining in a state
.co
of self-control. When we are angry, we have no self-control. At that moment, we
m
e
are in a state of internal chaos, and anger can be a very destructive force.
s
a
Stability that comes from practice of meditation can create a firm foundation, a
l
ag
kind of positive stubbornness. Others can say whatever they want, and it may
also be true, but we don’t lose our peace or happiness on account of that. This is
to respect what is eternal within each of us. The experience of inner peace may
come naturally. We give ourselves the opportunity to maintain our own peace of
mind, because no one is going to turn up at our door with a box full of peace and
say, “Here, I think you could do with some of this today!”

31. What is anger?
A. It is loss of control over temper m
m B. It is our reaction to an event or person .co
m .co C. It is release of our pent up emotions
s e m
s e D. It is an effort to avenge ourselves
g la
g la a
a 32. Why should we not get angry with a friend?
A. It may give us a heart attack
B. It affects our health
C. It ruins our relationship
D. It damages our mental health

m . c
c. o
5

e m
em as
s
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
gl
Page 7 of 40

33. Getting angry
A. affects the clarity of our mind
B. gives us a feeling of superiority
C. makes us feel ashamed of ourselves
D. affects our well-being

34. To overcome anger, meditation helps us by
A. removing the trigger
B. giving us the choice to think
C. remaining in a state of self-control
D. offering us a wide range of answers

35. ‘A single word spoken in anger leaves a lasting impression on a person’s heart.’
Here the word ‘lasting’ is
A. an adjective B. a gerund
C. present participle D. an adverb

36. Searching for a telephone number in a directory is an example of
A. Skimming B. Scanning
C. Intensive reading D. Extensive reading

37. Second language acquisition occurs through
A. formal instruction of the language
B. natural use of the language
C. unconcious learning of the language
D. All of these

38. Intensive reading is needed when we
A. glance a text in order to find specific information
B. read the text with immense pleasure
C. try to read with comprehension
D. try to draw a gist of it

39. “May you get well soon!” is an
A. exclamatory sentence
B. imperative sentence
C. assertive sentence
D. optative sentence

6

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 8 of 40

40. Which tense is used to express general truths and facts?
A. Present continuous tense
B. Present perfect tense
C. Past perfect tense
D. Present indefinite tense

41. The best way to teach vocabulary is to
A. ask students find the meanings of the words in a dictionary
B. ask students to underline the difficult words in a lesson and find meanings
C. write all the new words in the blackboard and write their meanings
D. ask students to group the words into meaningful categories and use them in
real life purposes

42. Choose the correct synonym of the word ‘banned’
A. prohibited B. denied
C. avoided D. allowed

43. This table is made_____ wood.
A. from B. of
C. on D. over

44. Liana opened the gate for me. The verb in the sentence is
A. Transitive verb B. Intransitive verb
C. Weak verb D. Modal verb

45. Which of the following is not a visual aid?
A. Pictures B. Model
C. Tape recorder D. Chart

46. The ultimate aim of learning English in India is to
A. Master language other than one’s own mother-tongue
B. Know more about the syntax of English language
C. Comprehend and speak English
D. Know more about English culture and tradition

47. Proper management of time enables an English teacher to
A. complete the course within a specific time frame
B. become more effective and productive
C. have more time for himself/herself
D. teach more in less time

7

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 9 of 40

.
m .co s e m Mizoram TET 2023 Question Paper II

s e l a
a ag
48. Using ‘Role Play’ in an English class is intended to
A. develop students’ acting skills
B. develop the receptive skills of students
C. enable the students to learn about different professions
D. provide authentic opportunities to use the language

m
49. Memorisation is the main technique used in
om . co
. c
A. Direct method B. Structural approach
e m
e m
C. Bilingual method D. Grammar translation method
l as
as
l expression of students can be assessed by ag
g
50. Written
aA. gap filling exercise B. dictation exercise
C. picture composition D. writing parallel sentence

51. In a constructivist classroom, language learning would most importantly be
based on
A. minute observation and record of each child’s language development
B. correction of spelling errors and making sure that they are not repeated
m
.co
C. carefully completing the language syllabus
D. group discussion and peer interaction
e m
52. Using only the target language inla
s
classrooms for instruction and learning is the
agmethod.
characteristic feature of _____
A. Grammar translation B. Bilingual
C. Direct D. Audio-lingual

53. The teacher tells a story about animals. Children make animal noises every time
they hear the name of the animal. It is
A. total physical response B. situational conversation
C. role play D. realia
o m
m . c
c. o 54. While developing writing skill among students, a language teacher m
s e should most

e m importantly focus on
l a
las A. good handwriting B. grammatical
a g
aspects

ag C. word limits D. expression

55. The structural approach advocates
A. using mother tongue
B. resorting to fluency
C. selection and gradation of material
D. assessing learners’ performance

m . c
c. o
8

e m
em as
s
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
gl
Page 10 of 40

56. Reading for comprehension can be best achieved through
A. teaching learners to run a finger or pencil under the line being read
B. asking the children to read the text aloud
C. helping learners spell words clearly while reading
D. learners reading silently and asking comprehension questions

57. In a language class, learners are engaged in a pair activity taking the roles of a
shopkeeper and customer. The activity is called
A. authentic activity B. simulation
C. exchanging notes D. scaffolding

58. Effective language learning takes place when students are
A. passive B. interactive
C. well behaved D. good at memorising

59. Guided writing provides _____ to students when writing on their own
A. review and feedback B. model text and visuals
C. opportunities for creativity D. helpful tools, scaffolding and support

60. Grammar should be taught by
A. asking students to learn rules
B. making students do written exercises
C. giving clear explanations
D. enabling practice in content

9

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 11 of 40

PART III : MIZO

A. A hnuaia ziak hi ngun takin chhiar la, zawhna 61 – 65 thleng hian thu ziak
behchhanin chhang ang che.

Chenpuite nena inrem lohna hi khawvel tihrehawmtu a ni. Khawvela hnam
hrang hrangte hian ngaih dan hrang hrang kan nei vek a, inlungrualtlang taka
ngaih dan pakhat kan neih chu ‘nu leh pa ngaihsak lo chuan malsawmna an
dawng ngai lo’ tih hi a ni. Sum te, thil te kan peipung \hin a, ham\hatna leh
malsawmna leh hlimna peipunna tha ber chu nu leh pa duat leh ngaihsak hi a
ni. Nu leh pa ngaihsak lo chu hun a kal a kal a, an fate pawhin an ngaihsak lo
ve zel. Nu leh pa duattu chu an fate pawhin an rawn duat ve mai \hin. Nu leh pa
te laka ti khaw khaw \hin mihringte hi mi hlawhtling ziktluak an tam lo hle
ang. Mo, pasal chhungte mil thei lo chuan amah mil thei lo mo a nei ve leh mai
\hin. Nu leh pate pawhin kan hriat tur chu fate rem thei tura kan insiamrem a
\ul. Fate rawn loa mahni duh dan dana chhungkua herpui chiam hi lung a rual
kim lo \hin a, kan duh dan min duhpui ve theih dan tur kan dap a \ul hle. Kan
chenpuite ngaihsak hi kan mawhphurhna lian tak a ni. Tunlai khawvel hian a
hla hla ngaihsak turin min fuih a, a hnai hnai kan thlauhthla thung a.
Chhungkua hi awm ho thap mah ila kan inbe tam ta lo hle. Mahni mobile
phone \heuh khawihin kan buai em em a, kan bula kan chenpuite kha biak enah
kan en ta mang lo, phone khawih thiam lo upa zawk ten ring deuhin TV an en
a, anmahni biak leh chhawnchhaih kan hman lo tial tial. A hnai hnai biak sawm
leh ngaihsak kan chin thar a \ul hle. Chhungkua hi kan inchhung lo tial tial a,
kan pherh telh telh bawk. A chhan ber nia lang chu nih hona kan nei tlem a,
mahni duh dan dana nun tumna a lian ta hlawm em a ni. Inngaihsak ila kan
hlim tlang chu a ni mai a, inngaihsak lai tak kha kan harsat ber lai chu a ni
bawk si a, kan hlim loh tial tial mai loh nâkah.

|henawm khaw veng leh mahni mihringpuite ngaihsak apiang hian nun an
hmang nuamin an rilru a hlim emaw tih tur a ni. Mihringpuite ngaihhlut
nachang hre lo te hi mi hlim tak an ni ngai lo a, hring nun puitlinna lam
kawngah an thanglian thei bawk hek lo. Hlimna hi keimahni chhung lama irh
chhuak a ni ngawt lo va, keimahni pawn lam a\anga rawn insiam a nih tlangpui
avangin mi dangte chunga kan sukthlek leh nun dan khan keimahniah
sawhkhawk a rawn nei leh \hin a ni zawk. Thil hi a thangkhawk kual vel a,
keimahni lam a\anga chhuak kha a \hat phawt chuan thil \hain min rawn deng
leh dawn tihna a ni. Pathian thu pawhin tuh rah seng a sawi uar hle a, keimahni
lam a\anga kan pek chhuah kha a thangkhawk kual a, keimahniah bawk a lo let
leh dawn tih pawm mai ila, kan chunga thleng tura kan duh ang kha pek chhuah
kan tum ve zel tur a ni. Mi dang nen inlaichinna \ha siam te hi mi nihlawh tak
an ni.

10

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 12 of 40

.
m .co s e m Mizoram TET 2023 Question Paper II

s e l a
a ag
Mahni inhre bawk si lo, mi dang hrilh var chuang bawk si loin kan inhriat dan
leh mi min hriat dan inmil lo deuhin a awm theih. Tuin nge mi chapo a ni tih
hrilh ang a, chapo lo turin engtin nge a inbuatsaih ang? Kan mi zia hi a dik leh
dik loh tehna tur kan nei em? A thlakna \ha zawk kan nei em? A tehna leh
thlakna tha ber chu Pathian zawm hi a ni lo thei lo. Pathian nena inzawmna dik
neitu chuan a nun teh zel tur a nei a ni.
m
om
61. Malsawmna leh hlimna peipunna \ha ber eng nge? . co
. c e m
A. Pathian \ih
e m l as
l as
B. Nu leh pa duat leh ngaihsak
C. Inrenchem thiam ag
ag
D. Nu leh pa thuawih

62. Kan nun hona kawngah eng nge kan mawhphurhna lian tak ni ta?
A. Chenpuite ngaihsak
B. Eizawnna ngelnghet neih
C. Chhungkaw enkawltu \ha nih
D. Pathian ngaihsak
m
.co
63. Chhungkua kan inhlat hret hret zelna chhan ni a lang ta chu
m
A. Sum leh pai vang
s e
B. Kan induhsak tawn tawk loh vang
l a
C. Nih hona kan nei tlem
D. Phone leh TV vang
ag
64. Mahni mobile phone khawihin kan buai em em a.
‘em em’ tih hi Parts of speech ah eng nge a nih?
A. Adjective B. Verb
C. Adverb D. Conjunction

m
.co
65. Hlimna hi khawi a\anga rawn insiam \an nge a nih?
m
.co m
A. Chhungkua a\angin

m B. Mimal nun a\angin s e
s e C. Inngaihsak tawnna a\angin
g la
g la D. Pawn lam a\anga rawn insiam a
a

m . c
c. o
11

e m
em as
s
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
gl
Page 13 of 40

B. A hnuia hla thu hi ngun takin chhiar la, zawhna 66 – 70 thlengin zawhnate hi
hla thu behchhanin chhang ang che.

Pathian ralthuam hmangtute chu,
Chatuan tlang chhipah an chawl.
Buaina piah ralmuang hmun an thleng
Lungngaih reng an tuar tawh lo.

Lei leh van Lal hnam tin tana thi chu
Thuin an fak seng lo,
Chawimawina dar an vua,
Tlantu zaiin an awi.

An bang lo vang, chatuan thlengin,
Fakna a zau zual zel ang.
Thisen puan var sinin an leng;
Nunna lallukhum an nei.

Kei pawh khawvel ka awm chhungin,
Kalvari tlanga lengin,
Felna thuam famkim chu lain,
Ral lian ka do thei ang.

A hneh ang a, ka chawimawi ang,
Chatuan Lal hmangaih ropui;
Mi sual ka tana tuar hnu kha,
Khawvelah hian ka awi ang.

66. Tu nge khawvela a awih tur nia a sawi kha?
A. Isua Krista B. Thlarau thianghlim
C. Hmangaih Pathian D. Ral lian

67. Chatuan tlang chhipa chawl tur kha tute nge?
A. Hnehtute
B. Pathian hmangaihtute
C. Pathian ralthuam hmangtute
D. Hnam tinte

68. Thisen puan var sinte khan eng nge an neih?
A. Lungawina kim B. Nunna lallukhum
C. Hlimna D. Chatuan nunna

12

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 14 of 40

69. Ral do turin eng nge a mamawh?
A. Huaisenna
B. Thlarau thianghlim leh phaw
C. Felna silhfen
D. Felna thuam famkim

70. “Ral lian ka do thei ang”
‘do’ hi Parts of speech ah eng nge a nih?
A. Noun B. Adverb
C. Verb D. Interjection

71. |awng hi _____ min petu a ni.
A. Finna leh hriat zauna B. |hian \ha
C. Mahni inrintawkna D. Lungawina

72. |awng pawimawhna eng nge?
A. Rualpawl nan
B. Hnam nun zia rang an hriat a, an ngaihsan a, an vawn him zel nan
C. Thlahtu bul chhui nan
D. Hnam dangte nen kan inpawh zel nan

73. |awng zirtirtu \ha ni tura pawimawh em em chu
A. Naupangte tih tlangnel thiam
B. Naupang hui khawm thiam
C. Naupang Psychology hriat
D. Naupangte ngaihpawimawh

74. _____ thiam chu \awng thiamin a zui a ngai.
A. Zia B. Ngaihtuah
C. Sawi D. Ngaihthlak

75. Lehkha kan chhiar hian _____ a \angkawp vek.
A. Mit, beng, hmui B. Beng, hmui, rilru
C. Lei, beng, rilru D. Mit, rilru, beng

76. |awng kalhmang thiamtir tur zawnga thu ziak hi
A. Simple handwriting B. Prose writing
C. Penmanship D. Essay writing

13

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 15 of 40

.
m .co s e m Mizoram TET 2023 Question Paper II

s e l a
a ag
77. Poetry zirtirin a tum ber chu
A. Zai an tui a, an thiam nan
B. Naupangte tihlim a, an rilru tizangkhai turin
C. Hla phuah an thiam nan
D. An lunglen hnemtu atan a la \angkai dawn avangin

m
78. Grammar zirtir dawna, a dan tlangpui a\anga a mawl te tea leh dan hi _____ a ni.
om . co
. c
A. Inductive method B. Inductive-deductive method
e m
m
C. Deductive method
e
D. Introduction method
l as
a s a
79. Thul emaw hla emaw chiang zawk leh \awngkam awl zawk, a kawh thuhmun tho
g
g
asi a dah chhuah hi
A. Paraphrase B. Translation
C. Dictation D. Sequence

80. Lesson plan ah step pathum te Input, Process leh Output ngaipawimawha
duangchhuaktu chu
A. Benjamin Bloom
m
.co
B. Regional College of Education Mysore (RCEM)
C. Henry C Morisson
e m
D. Johann Friedrich Herbart
l as
g hle.
81. Hliampui tuarte hi an _____a\hin
A. Khawngaihthlakawm B. Lainatthlakawm
C. Khawngaihthlak D. Lainatthlak

82. Mizo \awng ziak dan dik ber thlang chhuak rawh.
A. Chingpirinu hi sava lian tak a ni
B. Ching pi rinu hi sava lian tak a ni
C. Chingpiri nu hi sava lian tak a ni
m
m D. Ching pirinu hi sava lian tak a ni
c. o 83. Lêngkhawm zai tui tak sawina chu m .co
m s e
s e g la
g la A. Puan ven sawi chhing B. Puallawi
a
a C. Sa husual D. Puankawp sawr ang

84. |awng zir nana language laboratory kan hman \hin hi _____ a ni.
A. Visual aids B. Audio-Visual aids
C. Audio aids D. A ni lo vek

m . c
c. o
14

e m
em as
s
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
gl
Page 16 of 40

85. Naupangte chemkalna, an tuipui zawng leh an thiam zawng bik tak enfiahsakna
chu
A. Aptitude test B. Interest inventory
C. Intelligence test D. Psychology test

86. Naupangte \awng zirtirna atana inhnial fiamna buatsaih \hin hi _____ a ni.
A. Role play B. Discussion
C. Drama D. Debate

87. Naupangten hun tiam chhunga ngunthluk leh chik zawka thil an zir hi
A. Group work B. Pair work
C. Project work D. Field trip

88. ‘|hi beh lo thu’ tih awmzia chu
A. Inchei ngaina lo B. Mi rethei
C. Mipa sawina D. Mi naran, mi pawisawi lo thu

89. Kan \henawm khuate nen kan inkalpawhna ber _____ dawh motorin a zawh
chim hlauh mai.
A. Lei B. Leilawn
C. Leihlawn D. Lei lawn

90. Mizo \awng dik ber thlang chhuak rawh.
A. Mi mal tin mal min sawm ang che
B. Chiangkuang takin sawi rawh
C. Mi tlaktlai lo tak a ni
D. I nikhua hle mai

15

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 17 of 40

PART IV : ALTERNATIVE ENGLISH

A. Read the passage and answer the following questions ( 61 – 69 ) that follow:

Sportsmanship can be conceptualized as an enduring and relatively stable
characteristic or disposition such that individuals differ in the way they are
generally expected to behave in sports situations. In general, sportsmanship
refers to virtues such as fairness, self-control, courage, and persistence, and has
been associated with interpersonal concepts of treating others and being treated
fairly, maintaining self-control when dealing with others, and respect for both
authority and opponents.
The four elements of sportsmanship are the state of being in good form, the will
to win, equity and fairness. All four elements are critical, and a balance must be
found among all four for true sportsmanship to be illustrated. These elements
may also cause conflict, as a person may desire to win more than play in equity
and fairness and thus resulting in a clash within the aspects of sportsmanship.
This will create problems as the person believes he is a good sportsman, but is
defeating the purpose of the idea as he is ignoring the two key components of
sportsmanship. When athletes become too self-centred, the idea of
sportsmanship is dismissed.
Today's sporting culture, in particular the base of elite sport, places great
importance on the idea of competition and winning, and thus sportsmanship
takes a back seat as a result. In most, if not all sports, sportsmen at the elite level
make the standards on sportsmanship and no matter whether they like it or not,
they are seen as leaders and role models in society.
Since every sport is rule driven, the most common offence of bad sportsmanship
is the act of cheating or breaking the rules to gain unfair advantage. A competitor
who exhibits poor sportsmanship after losing a game or contest is often called a
"sore loser", while a competitor who exhibits poor sportsmanship after winning
is typically called a "bad winner". Sore loser behaviour includes blaming others
for the loss, not accepting responsibility for personal actions that contributed to
the defeat, reacting to the loss in an immature or improper fashion, making
excuses for the defeat, and citing unfavourable conditions or other petty issues as
reasons for the defeat. A bad winner acts in a shallow manner after his or her
victory, such as gloating about his or her win, rubbing the win in the face of the
opponent, and attempting to lower the opponent's self-esteem by constantly
reminding the opponent of his/her "poor" performance.
61. Sportsmanship is associated with
A. winning/losing responsibly B. the desire to win
C. respect for rules of the game D. All of these

16

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 18 of 40

.
m .co s e m Mizoram TET 2023 Question Paper II

s e l a
a ag
62. If one does not accept responsibility for one’s defeat, one is called a
A. sore loser B. bad winner
C. good loser D. prudent sportsman

63. From the passage, give the antonym of the word ‘deep’
A. Sore B. Elite
m
C. Immature
om
D. Shallow
. co
. c e m
64. According to the passage, when does the spirit of sportsmanship die?
e m l as
l as
A. When the sportsman becomes too self-centred
B. When the player loses the will to live ag
ag
C. When the sportsman behaves badly
D. When the sportsman becomes a bad winner

65. “…not accepting responsibility for personal actions that contributed to the
defeat.” Here, defeat is a/an
A. Adverb B. Noun
C. Gerund D. Transitive verb
m
.co
66. In today's sporting culture, what takes precedence over sportsmanship?
m
A. Lack of understanding about the importance of sportsmanship
e
l as
B. Elite athletes prioritize competition and winning

ag
C. Insufficient emphasis on virtues like fairness and self-control
D. Inadequate role modelling by sports authorities

67. What should be the main focus of sportsmanship?
A. Winning at all costs
B. Maintaining self-control and treating others fairly
C. Gaining an unfair advantage over opponents
D. Demonstrating physical prowess in sports situations
m
m 68. Which of the following is not a virtue associated with sportsmanship?
.co
m .co A. Respect for opponents B. Persistence
s em
la
C. High self-esteem D. Self-control
s e g
g la 69. Why do athletes at the elite level play a significant role ain setting the standards
a for sportsmanship?
A. They are highly skilled and successful in their respective sports
B. They are seen as role models in society
C. They have a deep understanding of fairness and self-control
D. They are required to maintain a high level of sportsmanship as part of their
contracts

m . c
c. o
17

e m
em as
s
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
gl
Page 19 of 40

B. Read the following poem and answer the following questions (70 – 75) that
follow:

The Chimney Sweeper

When my mother died I was very young,
And my father sold me while yet my tongue
Could scarcely cry 'Weep! weep! weep! weep!'
So your chimneys I sweep, and in soot I sleep.

There's little Tom Dacre, who cried when his head,
That curled like a lamb's back, was shaved; so I said,
'Hush, Tom! Never mind it, for, when your head's bare,
You know that the soot cannot spoil your white hair.'

And so he was quiet, and that very night,
As Tom was a-sleeping, he had such a sight!--
That thousands of sweepers, Dick, Joe, Ned, and Jack,
Were all of them locked up in coffins of black.

And by came an angel, who had a bright key,
And he opened the coffins, and set them all free;
Then down a green plain, leaping, laughing, they run
And wash in a river, and shine in the sun.

Then naked and white, all their bags left behind,
They rise upon clouds, and sport in the wind;
And the angel told Tom, if he'd be a good boy,
He'd have God for his father, and never want joy.

And so Tom awoke, and we rose in the dark,
And got with our bags and our brushes to work.
Though the morning was cold, Tom was happy and warm:
So, if all do their duty, they need not fear harm.

70. What is the tone of the poem?
A. Pessimistic B. Grief and mourning death
C. Cheerful experience D. Gentle innocence and hope

71. In whose perspective is the first stanza of the poem written?
A. Tom Dacre B. An old man
C. The Angel D. A little child

18

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 20 of 40

72. Tom was “happy and warm” because
A. the angel set him free
B. the morning was cold
C. the angel told him he would have God for his father
D. his hair grew back

73. Nature in the poem is a metaphor for
A. freedom and redemption B. innocence
C. life from poverty to wealth D. God’s salvation

74. What does 'coffins of black' signify?
A. The dark and tight places that the boys work in
B. Closeness to death due to unhealthy nature of their work
C. The physical and emotional state of being confined in life as a chimney
sweeper
D. All of these

75. "They rise upon clouds, and sport in the wind." Here, 'sport' is a
A. Gerund B. Noun
C. Verb D. Preposition

76. When young learners seem to lose interest in a lesson, the teacher should
A. tell a story or conduct an interesting activity
B. ask them to sit quietly for some time
C. allow them to go out and play
D. ask them to sleep for a while

77. Generally speaking, the first language is
A. marked by characteristic difficulty in mastering it
B. influenced by the grammar and style of second language
C. marked by the accent and regional expressions of the area where students
grow up
D. marked by the influences of the school environment the child is studying in

78. One of the objectives of teaching vocabulary is not to
A. be able to use words in different contexts
B. enable learners to use the dictionary
C. develop active and passive vocabulary
D. understand the meaning of words

19

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 21 of 40

.
m .co s e m Mizoram TET 2023 Question Paper II

s e l a
a ag
79. After a story telling session, the learners are asked to change the ending of the
story. This will help the learners
A. understand grammar better
B. develop library reference skills
C. evaluate the teacher’s originality
D. become imaginative and creative
o m
m
o of rules that governs how words can be meaningfully . c
c
80. What is the system
. e m
em
arranged to form phrases and sentences?
l as
as
A. Phoneme B. Language
ag
C.glSyntax D. Morpheme
a
81. Pedagogical grammar is
A. learning of rules first and then the meanings of words
B. learning of grammar in context through use
C. learning of meanings through form
D. learning of grammar through prose and poetry

m
.co
82. While writing, one of the cohesive devices used is
A. Preposition
e m
B. Content words
C. Imagery
l as D. Ellipsis

ag is
83. The main purpose of assessment
A. to improve the teaching learning process
B. to give practice in writing
C. to measure achievement of learners
D. to decide pass and fail

84. Direct method is also known as
m
.co
A. Inductive method
m
.co
B. Deductive method
e m
e m
C. Natural method
las
las D. Oral method
ag
ag 85. A good teacher is one who
A. explains concepts and principles
B. gives ample opportunities to learn
C. gives lots of information to the students
D. gives interests to the learners

m . c
c. o
20

e m
em as
s
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
gl
Page 22 of 40

86. The purpose of remedial teaching is to
A. introduce new language items
B. test recently taught items
C. teach again the language items not properly learnt
D. teach again the language items already learnt

87. When students are asked to listen and follow directions, they are trained on their
A. Productive skill B. Recognition skill
C. Acting skill D. Receptive skill

88. Which one of the following is not a poetic device?
A. Metaphor B. Alliteration
C. Morpheme D. Imagery

89. The Communicative Approach to teaching of language is related to
A. teaching of grammar through principles of language and dictation
B. teaching of language for written test
C. narrating the grammatical principles according to the needs of the audience
D. honing the abilities of listening, speaking, reading, writing and meaning
making

90. The type of reading where the students read in detail with specific learning
aims and tasks is called
A. Intensive reading B. Extensive reading
C. Skimming D. Scanning

21

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 23 of 40

PART V : MATHEMATICS AND SCIENCE

91. On a number line, when we add a negative integer, we
A. move to the right B. move to the left
C. do not move at all D. None of these

92. _____ gives the number of times a particular entry occurs.
A. Organisation of Data B. Collection of Data
C. Representation of Data D. Frequency distribution table

93. The sum of all interior angles of a hexagon is
A. 720° B. 540°
C. 360° D. 180°

94. If a polygon has 8 sides, then the number of diagonals it has is
A. 8 B. 16
C. 20 D. 24

95. How many pairs of identical faces does a cuboid have?
A. 2 B. 3
C. 4 D. 1

96. The width or size of the class interval 20 – 30 is
A. 10 B. 20
C. 30 D. 5

97. Which of the following 2 angles are classified as complementary?
A. 100° and 80° B. 75° and 15°
C. 180° and 180° D. 65° and 35°

98. If A : B : C = 3 : 5 : 8, then the ratio (A + B + C) : C is equal to
A. 1 : 2 B. 2 : 1
C. 4 : 1 D. 8 : 1

99. The lid of a rectangular box of sides 20 cm by 10 cm is sealed all around with
tape. What is the length of the tape required?
A. 30 cm B. 20 cm
C. 60 cm D. 40 cm

22

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 24 of 40

.
m .co s e m Mizoram TET 2023 Question Paper II

s e l a
a ag
100. Three numbers are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 and their HCF is 12. The numbers are
A. 2 : 4 : 6 B. 120 : 240 : 360
C. 12 : 24 : 36 D. 3 : 6 : 9

101. A piece of cloth is 1/5 red, 1/3 green and the rest is white. If the white piece is
7 m long then the length of the piece of the cloth is
m
A. 29 m
om
B. 15 m
. co
C. 14 m
. c D. 28 m
e m
m
e two successive discounts of 20% and 15%, the selling price of an gl as
a s
102. On allowing
l becomes Rs. 3060. What is the marked price of the article? a
g
article
aA. Rs. 4000 B. Rs. 4100
C. Rs. 4200 D. Rs. 4500

103. Find the principal if the compound interest is charged on the principal at the rate
of 16 % per annum for two years and the sum becomes Rs. 196.
A. Rs. 140 B. Rs. 144
C. Rs. 150 D. Rs. 300
o m
c
104. A sum of Rs. 53 is divided among A, B.and C in such a way that A gets Rs. 7
e m
as 8 more than what C gets. The ratio of their
more than what B gets and B gets Rs.
l
shares is
A. 27:20:12 ag B. 27:17:09
C. 25:18:10 D. 23:19:11

105. The average of 35 raw scores is 18. The average of the first seventeen of them is
14 and that of the last seventeen is 20. Find the eighteenth raw score.
A. 42 B. 46
C. 52 D. 56
o m
m106. The area of a trapezium is 480 cm , the distance between two parallelc
. sides is
c. o 15 cm and one of the parallel sides is 20 cm. The other parallel side
2

m
e is
e m l a s
las A. 20 cm
C. 44 cm
B. 34 cm
D. 50 cm ag
ag
107. A polygon that has a minimum number of sides is
A. Triangle B. Square
B. Rectangle D. Angle

m . c
c. o
23

e m
em as
s
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
gl
Page 25 of 40

108. Statement 1: The number of lines of symmetry of a regular polygon is equal to
the vertices of the polygon.
Statement 2: The number of lines of symmetry of a scalene triangle is one
A. Both statement are true

B. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false

C. Both Statement are false

D. Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true

109. The angles of rotations (rotational symmetry) of an equilateral triangle are
A. 90 degree,180 degree, 270 degree, 360 degree
B. 60 degree, 120 degree, 180 degree
C. 120 degree, 240 degree, 360 degree
D. 60 degree, 120 degree, 180 degree, 240 degree, 300 degree, 360 degree

110. How many are in ?
A. 5 B. 12
C. 10 D. 8

111. In class VI, in the unit of “Understanding Quadrilaterals’, important results
related to angle – sum property of quadrilaterals are introduced using paper
folding activity followed by the exercise based on these properties. At this level,
proof of the angle property is not given, as the students of class VI are at
Van Hiele level of
A. Level 1 – Analysis
B. Level 2 – Informal Deduction
C. Level 3 – Deduction
D. Level – Visualization

112. The following is a line from class VI textbook: “Write a pair of integers whose
sum gives negative integer.” The above instruction refers to
A. Closed – ended question
B. Reflective question
C. Multi – disciplinary question
D. Open – ended question
24

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 26 of 40

113. The four stages of language development in mathematics classroom in order are
A. Everyday language → Symbolic language → Language of Mathematics
problem solving → Mathematized situation language

B. Everyday language → Mathematized situation language → Language of
Mathematics problem solving → Symbolic language

C. Everyday language → Language of Mathematics problem solving →
mathematized situation language → Symbolic language

D. Everyday language → Language of Mathematics problem solving →
Symbolic language → Mathematized situation language

114. The following is a question from Class VII textbook: “A map is given with a
scale of 2 cm = 1000 km. What is the actual distance between the two places in
kms, if the distance on the map is 2.5 cm?” This problem is
A. investigatory in nature
B. based on higher order thinking skills
C. to enhance problem solving skills
D. interdisciplinary in nature

115. As per NCF 2005, the goal of mathematics teaching in school curriculum is that
children learn ‘Important Mathematics’. Important Mathematics implies
A. understanding appropriate use of learnt mathematical techniques
B. knowing mathematical procedures and algorithms
C. verifying geometrical theorems in Maths Lab
D. solving mathematical games and puzzles

116. In class VIII time table, for teaching Mathematics which period will be the most
appropriate for students learning?
A. First period B. Fifth period
C. Fourth period D. Second period

117. Which of the following is the major problem of teaching Mathematics?
A. Teaching method of mathematics teacher
B. Ability to use mathematical tools
C. Class room operations
D. Knowledge of teaching methods
25

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 27 of 40

.
m .co s e m Mizoram TET 2023 Question Paper II

s e l a
a ag
118. Which one of the following is not the first step in the development of a lesson
plan?
A. Introduction B. Initiation
C. Motivation D. Testing of previous knowledge

119. Which of the following is not an advantage of unit planning? o m
m . c
. co in organizing time and resources available with him
A. It helps teachers
s e m
emin giving a balanced emphasis to various aspects of content
B. It helps
s g l a
C. lItahelps in designing a systematic, sequential and graded arrangement of
a
ag
content
D. It helps students to manage their teaching learning experiences

120. Which of the following teaching-learning resources in mathematics cannot be
used for visually challenged students?
A. Tiles B. Geoboard
m
C. GeoGebra
m .co
D. Taylor’s abacus
e
s of different
l a
121. A food web is formed by interconnection
A. Ecosystem ag B. Food chain
C. Species D. Nutrient cycle

122. Pick the odd one out in terms of their nutrition.
A. Rabbit B. Deer
C. Cat D. Goat

123. Take two glasses X and Y. Put tap water in X and salt water in Y. Put one egg in
m
m each glass. In which of the glass will the egg sink?
.co
m .co A. X B. Y
s e m
s e C. Both X and Y D. None
g la
g la a
a 124. Which of the following statement is true?
A. Soap gives lather with hard water
B. Soap gives lather with soft water
C. Both A and B
D. None of these

m . c
c. o
26

e m
em as
s
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
gl
Page 28 of 40

125. Which aquatic animals do not have gills?
A. Shark B. Fish
C. Dolphin D. Octopus

126. Photosynthesis generates which of the following nutrients?
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Glucose
C. Nitrogen
D. Oxygen

127. The audible frequency range of the human ear is
A. 10 – 10,000 Hertz
B. 100 – 10,000 Hertz
C. 20 – 20,000 Hertz
D. 200 – 20,000 Hertz

128. In the following table, the readings of an odometer at different times of a journey
are given.
Time Odometer reading (km)
8:00 6640
8:30 6658
9:00 6676
10:00 6712

The speed of the vehicle in kilometre per hour is
A. 36 B. 10
C. 18 D. 20

129. LED and CFL are commonly used as a source of light in homes. Which of the
following statements is true?
A. CFL is better because LED contains toxic materials
B. LED is better because CFL contain toxic materials
C. Both are equally free from toxic materials
D. None of them is good because they both contain toxic materials

27

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 29 of 40

130. A magnet will attract materials made from
A. Copper B. Aluminium
C. Gold D. Nickel

131. The zone where earthquake is most likely to occur is known as
A. Seismic zone B. Ritcher zone
C. Hazard zone D. Seismos zone

132. Which of the following cannot be easily charged by friction?
A. Plastic scale B. Wollen cloth
C. Copper rod D. Inflated balloon

133. What is called a poor man’s timber?
A. Teak B. Sandalwood
C. Dil palm D. Bamboo

134. What human activities lead to an increase in the carbon content in the
atmosphere?
A. Riding vehicle B. Breathing process
C. Burning of waste D. All of these

135. In a meal, Mawia consumed Bean, Potato, Rice and Brinjal. Which food item
contains the highest amount of protein?
A. Brinjal B. Bean
C. Potato D. Rice

136. The features which enable a plant or animal to live in a particular habitat is called
A. Acclimatisation B. Habitation
C. Hosting D. Adaptation

137. What is the unit of temperature?
A. Celsius B. Fahrenheit
C. Kelvin D. All of these

138. When an electric current is passed through a metallic conductor, amount of heat
produced in the conductor depends on its
A. material and length
B. length and thickness
C. material and thickness
D. material, length and thickness

28

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 30 of 40

.
m .co s e m Mizoram TET 2023 Question Paper II

s e l a
a ag
139. Choose the set that represent only biotic component of a habitat
A. Tiger, deer, grass, soil
B. Aquatic plant, fish, frog, insects
C. Sand, turtle, crab, rock
D. Insects, water, aquatic plant, fish
m
m . co
c. o abundant non-renewable source of energy on earth?
140. What is the most
s e m
A. Coalem a
as B. Natural gas
g l
C. lPetroleum
g D. Nuclear power a
a
141. Scientific attitude is related to which of the following clause?
A. Belief in cause and effect relationship
B. Willingness to put in hard work
C. Potential to memorize
D. Willingness to spend more time in laboratory
m
m .co
e
142. Which of the following is not the aims and objectives of teaching Science?
s
A. To develop inquiring minds
g l a
B. To develop skills to rejectahypothesis
C. To help pupils to solve problem
D. To develop interest in science

143. Which of the following method is considered as discovery method?
A. Inquiry approach B. Lecture method
C. Demonstration method D. Activity approach m
m
c. o 144. The following shows various steps in organizing activity in a classroom.
m Pick the .co
s e
s em g l a
la
step that a good science teacher will follow
a
ag A. Selection of Material – Selection of activities – Organising activities
B. Selection of Material – Organising activities – Selection of activities
C. Organising activities – Selection of material – Selection of activities
D. Selection of activities – Selection of material – Organising activities

m . c
c. o
29

e m
em as
s
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
gl
Page 31 of 40

145. Survey – comprehensive examination used to determine general academic
standing is called
A. Educational Achievement Test
B. Educational Intelligence Test
C. Educational Personality Test
D. Comprehensive Academic Test

146. Objectives written in behavioral terms to be achieved by students of a particular
class level are called
A. Specific objectives B. Target objectives
C. Learning outcomes D. General outcomes

147. Choose one of the following actions that promote equity in a science classroom.
A. Give students equal attention
B. Give students equal feedback
C. Cater pupils according to needs
D. Encourage pupil as a spoke person for his gender

148. Which one is the indicator of science museum?
A. Science Kit
B. Experimental equipment
C. Sample of dead insects and animals
D. Advanced scientific instruments

149. In teaching the topic ‘Parts of flower’, the best pedagogical process is
A. Lecture method B. Discussion method
C. Demonstration method D. Scientific method

150. The first step in scientific method is
A. Forming a hypothesis B. Making an observation
C. Conducting an experiment D. Predicting the result of experiment

30

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 32 of 40

PART VI : SOCIAL SCIENCE

91. The period for which we have no written records is known as
A. History B. Geology
C. Pre-History D. Archaeology

92. How did ancient people travel?
A. By buses B. By ships
C. By trains D. On foot

93. Why were the dead buried with animals in Mehrgarh?
A. For playing
B. To serve as food in the next world
C. To protect them in the next world
D. Both A and B

94. When did Harrapan cities develop?
A. About 4700 years ago B. About 3700 years ago
C. About 2700 years ago D. About 1700 years ago

95. The language of the Veda is
A. Hindi B. Urdu
C. Vedic Sanskrit D. Tamil

96. What was the early name of Gautam Buddha?
A. Siddhartha Gautama B. Ashoka
C. Mahavira D. Parsvanatha

97. Who was the first emperor of the Cholas?
A. Aditya Chola B. Rajendra Chola
C. Vijayalaya Chola D. Uttam Chola

98. Who was the first slave king of Delhi sultanate?
A. Qutub-ud-din Aibak B. Iltutmish
C. Raziyya Sultan D. Alauddin Khalji

99. The Mughal Emperor who was defeated by Sher Shah Suri was
A. Babur B. Humayun
C. Akbar D. Jahangir

31

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 33 of 40

.
m .co s e m Mizoram TET 2023 Question Paper II

s e l a
a ag
100. Associations or Unions of persons of any particular craft were termed as
A. Emporium B. Factor
C. Guilds D. Sthapatis

101. Mongols were hunter gatherer tribes inhabited in
A. Easter Asia B. South Asia
m
C. Western Asia
om
D. Central Asia
. co
. c e m
em
102. Who led the British army at the time of Battle of Plassey?
l as
l as
A. Vasco-da-Gama B. Robert Clive
ag
ag
C. Lord Wallesley D. Warren Hastings

103. In which year was the Permanent Settlement of Bengal introduced?
A. 1763 B. 1773
C. 1783 D. 1793

104. The Sepoy mutiny started from
A. Meerut B. Delhi
m
.co
C. Agra D. Bareily

e m
105. In which century did the India’s textile industry decline?
A. 17th Century
l as
B. 18th Century
C. 19th Century agD. 20th Century

106. Who had argued that English education had enslaved Indians?
A. Rabindranath Tagore B. Mahatma Gandhi
C. Subash Chandra Bose D. Acharya Vinoba Bhave

107. Who was the first Indian Governor General of free India?
A. Mahatma Gandhi B. Jawaharlal Nehru
m
m C. C Rajagopalachari D. Sardar Vallabhai Patel
c. o 108. Which Indian mass movement began with the famous ‘Dandi March’mof .co
s e
s em g l a
la
Mahatma Gandhi?
a
ag A. Khalifat movement
C. Civil disobedience movement
B. Non-cooperation movement
D. Quit India movement

109. The earth is called a blue planet because of the presence of
A. Water B. Blue color
C. Trees D. Blue sky

m . c
c. o
32

e m
em as
s
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
gl
Page 34 of 40

110. What divides the earth into two equal parts – the northern hemisphere and the
southern hemisphere?
A. Tropic of Capricorn B. Tropic of Cancer
C. Equator D. Arctic Circle

111. A year with 366 days is called
A. Leap Year B. Julian Year
C. Lunar Year D. Vague Year

112. When is the World Environment Day celebrated every year?
A. 25th December B. 23rd June
C. 26th January D. 5th June

113. The uppermost layer of the earth’s surface is called
A. The crust B. The outer core
C. The inner circle D. The mantle

114. Which gas is used by the green plants to make their food?
A. Oxygen B. Carbon dioxide
C. Nitrogen D. Ozone

115. The average salinity of sea water is about
A. 35 grams per litre B. 25 grams per litre
C. 40 grams per litre D. 45 grams per litre

116. Which type of vegetation grows in sandy soils?
A. Coniferous trees B. Grasslands
C. Cactus and thorny bushes D. Evergreen trees

117. Where did the early men live?
A. On trees and caves B. In huts
C. In kuchcha houses D. In pucca houses

118. Resources drawn from nature and used without much modification are called
A. human made resources B. natural resources
C. cultural resources D. renewable resources

119. Which is not an example of ground water?
A. Water flowing in river B. Water through wells
C. Water through hand pumps D. Water through submersible pump

33

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 35 of 40

120. Which country is the largest producer of fruits and vegetables?
A. India B. USA
C. China D. Brazil

121. Using resources carefully and judiciously, giving them time to get renewed is
called
A. Resource development B. Sustainable development
C. Sustainable conservation D. Resource conservation

122. The right to vote enables people to elect their
A. Law B. Parliament
C. Constitution D. Representatives

123. Panchayati Raj system was put into force in the year
A. 1990 B. 1992
C. 1998 D. 2000

124. In urban administration, the responsibility of replacing street light belongs to
A. Municipal Council B. Police Department
B. Revenue Department D. Public Works Department

125. According to Universal Adult Franchise, every adult have
A. No vote B. One vote
C. Two votes D. Multiple votes

126. Which of the following is used for election of President of India?
A. Open ballot system B. Single transferable vote system
C. Direct election D. Collective vote system

127. The system where father is the head of the family is called
A. Hierarchy B. Matriarchy
C. Patriarchy D. Monarchy

128. Which of the following is not allowed in government schools?
A. Sing national anthem
B. Sing Rashtriya Geet
C. Celebrate any religious festival
D. Extra-curricular activities

34

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 36 of 40

.
m .co s e m Mizoram TET 2023 Question Paper II

s e l a
a ag
129. Consider the following statements:
i. Parliament is the supreme legislative body of India
ii. The India parliament comprises of the President and two houses
iii. The Upper house is called Rajya Sabha
iv. The Prime Minister has the power to dissolve Lok Sabha
m
om
Choose the correct option . co
. c e m
A. iii only
e m B. i & iii
l as
as
C. i & iv
l D. i, ii & iii
ag
a g
130. The minorities are forced to live on the margins of economic and social
development. This is known as
A. Malnourished B. Marginalisation
C. Displaced D. Reservation

131. Social studies is supposed to study
m
(i) Economic relations of man
m .co
(ii) Political relations of man s e
(iii) Social relations of man g l a
a
(iv) Social geographical relations of man
Choose the correct option
A. (i), (ii) and (iii) B. (i), (iii) and (iv)
C. (ii), (iii) and (iv) D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

132. Which one of the following is the new concept in Social Science? m
m A. Accumulation of factual information .co
m .co s e m
la
B. Study of social customs
s e g
g la a
C. The study of human relations and betterment of society
a D. The study of International relations

m . c
c. o
35

e m
em as
s
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
gl
Page 37 of 40

133. The main aim of Social Science teacher should be
A. to develop competition among students
B. to develop an awareness of connections between all elements that shape
society
C. to make learners memorize the socio-historical facts
D. to prepare learners in maintaining and accepting all decisions of the
government
134. The term ‘social science’ means that society
A. is captured B. has concrete structure
C. is structured D. is stratified

135. The earliest city discovered in India was
A. Harappa B. Punjab
C. Mohenjodaro D. Sindh

136. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a state?
A. Motivated by profit
B. Sovereign power
C. Monopoly on the legitimate use of power
D. The power to make laws for all citizens

137. Citizenship of India cannot be acquired by
A. Birth B. Registration
C. Naturalisation D. Migration

138. The highest density of the world’s population is in
A. Europe B. South America
C. South Central Asia D. Africa

139. Coal, iron ore, petroleum, diesel, etc. are the examples of
A. Biotic resources B. Abiotic resources
C. Renewable resources D. Non-renewable resources

140. Stock exchange is also known as _____ for securities.
A. primary market B. secondary market
C. capital market D. fixed market

36

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 38 of 40

141. Which one of the following is a merit of teaching learning project method?
A. It is a short term learning method
B. It helps to develop the discovery attitude
C. It discourages divergent thinking
D. The emphasis is on individual student achievement and not team work

142. Which one is not the advantage of discussion method of teaching social science?
A. Training on self-expression
B. Development of democratic way of thinking
C. Participation by everybody
D. Improve writing skills

143. Story telling method is commonly used for teaching
A. lower classes B. higher classes
C. university students D. adults

144. Which technique is mostly used in traditional research?
A. Questionnaire B. Interview
C. Observation D. Sociometry

145. Which approach puts students in their own learning, developing creativity in
solving problems?
A. Discussion B. Narration
C. Discovery D. Comparision

146. Which one is not among the three main types of teaching aids?
A. Audio aids B. Radio aids
C. Visual aids D. Audio – visual aids

147. A data sourced from the place of origin is called _____ data.
A. secondary B. primary
C. secondary and primary D. fundamental

37

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 39 of 40

.
m .co s e m Mizoram TET 2023 Question Paper II

s e l a
a ag
148. When evaluation takes place at the end of the semester, it is said to be
A. Summative evaluation B. Questionnaire evaluation
C. Formative evaluation D. Class Test

149. Evaluation is a _____ process.
m
A. Qualitative
m . co
c. o
B. Quantitative
s e m
m
equalitative l a
a s
C. Both
lNone of these
and quantitative
ag
g
D.
a
150. Which one of the following is not the technique of evaluation?
A. Observation B. Resources
C. Interview D. Testing

m
m .co
s e
l a
ag

m
m .co
m .co s e m
s e g la
g la a
a

m . c
c. o
38

e m
em as
s
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
gl
Page 40 of 40