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Odisha CPET 2020 Question Paper Public Health

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Odisha CPET 2020 Question Paper Public Health – Text

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Page 1

COMMON P. G. ENTRANCE TEST – 2020

Test Booklet No. :

DEPT. OF HIGHER EDUCATION, GOVT. OF ODISHA
TEST BOOKLET

Subject Code 57 Subject PUBLIC HEALTH

Time Allowed : 90 Minutes Full Marks : 70
: INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES :
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK
THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES
OR ITEMS ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. You have to enter your Hall Ticket No. on the Test
Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write
anything else on the Test Booklet.
3. YOU ARE REQUIRED TO FILL UP & DARKEN HALL TICKET NO. & TEST BOOKLET NO. IN THE
ANSWER SHEET AS WELL AS FILL UP TEST BOOKLET SERIAL NO. & ANSWER SHEET
SERIAL NO. IN THE ATTENDANCE SHEET CAREFULLY. WRONGLY FILLED UP ANSWER
SHEETS ARE LIABLE FOR REJECTION AT THE RISK OF THE CANDIDATE.
4. This Test Booklet contains 70 items (questions). Each item (question) comprises
four responses (answers). You have to select the correct response (answer)
which you want to mark (darken) on the Answer Sheet. In case, you feel that there
is more than one correct response (answer), you should mark (darken) the
response (answer) which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE
response (answer) for each item (question).
5. You have to mark (darken) all your responses (answers) ONLY on the separate Answer
Sheet provided by using BALL POINT PEN (BLUE OR BLACK). See instructions in the Answer
Sheet.
6. All items (questions) carry equal marks. All items (questions) are compulsory. Your total
marks will depend only on the number of correct responses (answers) marked by you in
the Answer Sheet. There is no negative marking.
7. After you have completed filling in all your responses (answers) on the Answer Sheet
and after conclusion of the examination, you should hand over to the Invigilator
the Answer Sheet issued to you. You are allowed to take with you the candidate’s
copy / second page of the Answer Sheet along with the Test Booklet, after completion
of the examination, for your reference.
8. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
XL – 21/13 ( Turn over )

Page 2

XL – 21/13 (2) ( Continued )

Page 3

1. Social determinants of health do not deal with :
(A) Poverty
(B) Gender
(C) Education
(D) Quality of life

2. Understanding and identifying with a person’s situation and feeling is known as :
(A) Pitying
(B) Grieving
(C) Empathy
(D) Sympathy

3. The construct of Gender is :
(A) Biological
(B) Sociological
(C) Physical
(D) Supernatural

4. Amoebiasis is a common condition caused by :
(A) Bacteria
(B) Virus
(C) Fungus
(D) Protozoa

5. ABC in First Aid refers to :
(A) Airway, Breathing & Circulation
(B) Affordable, Balanced & Cost effective
(C) Airway, Breathing & Communication
(D) Assistance, Blood & Circulation

6. The best word that describes the following sentence: “sample taken from a population
should be” :
(A) Representative
(B) Best in quality
(C) Precise
(D) Confident

XL – 21/13 (3) ( Turn over )

Page 4

7. The correct definition that describes an epidemic is :
(A) Occurrence of cases that are more than the expected frequency
(B) Occurrence of cases more than existing ones at that point of time
(C) Occurrence of cases that never occurred before
(D) Old cases that have come up again

8. Which of the following is considered as the power house of a cell ?
(A) Nucleus
(B) DNA
(C) Mitochondria
(D) Sarcoplasmic reticulum

9. What is herd immunity ?
(A) The immune status of a population
(B) The immune status of shepherds
(C) The immune status of domestic animals
(D) The immune status of the head of the household

10. One PHC is located for a population of :
(A) 5,000
(B) 30,000
(C) 100,000
(D) 500

11. Which of the following is the correct sequence of various components of the
communication process ?
(A) Receiver, Message, Channel, Feedback, Sender
(B) Sender, Feedback, Message, Channel, Receiver
(C) Sender, Message, Channel, Receiver, Feedback
(D) Message, Sender, Channel, Feedback, Receiver

12. What is the color-coding of bag in hospitals to dispose of human anatomical wastes
such as body parts ?
(A) Yellow
(B) Black
(C) Red
(D) Blue

XL – 21/13 (4) ( Continued )

Page 5

13. Dengue fever is transmitted by :
(A) Tiger mosquito
(B) Jackal mosquito
(C) Wolf mosquito
(D) Lion mosquito

14. Learned behavior which is socially acquired is known as :
(A) Customs
(B) Acculturation
(C) Standard of living
(D) Culture

15. Pulses are deficient in :
(A) Lysine and threonine
(B) Lysine and tryptophan
(C) Methionine and cysteine
(D) Lysine and methionine

16. Dash diet is important in case of :
(A) Diabetes
(B) Hypertension
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these

17. “Hidden Hunger” is an important issue, which occurs due to deficiency of :
(A) Fats
(B) Vitamins and minerals
(C) Protein
(D) Carbohydrate

18. Breast cancer screening is an example of :
(A) Primary prevention
(B) Secondary prevention
(C) Tertiary prevention
(D) Quaternary prevention

XL – 21/13 (5) ( Turn over )

Page 6

19. First country adopted the National Family Planning Programme :
(A) India
(B) China
(C) America
(D) German

20. Which of the following is a form of Non-probability sampling ?
(A) Purposive sampling
(B) Stratified sampling
(C) Cluster sampling
(D) Simple random sampling

21. Match the following Pioneers of Preventive Medicine and their achievements :
a. Edward Jenner (I) Transmission of Yellow fever
b. James Lind (II) Vaccination against Smallpox
c. Walter Reed (III) Prevention of scurvy
(A) a. (III), b. (I), c. (II)
(B) a. (III), b. (II), c. (I)
(C) a. (II), b. (I), c. (III)
(D) a. (II), b. (III), c. (I)

22. Hypothesis is a :
(A) Established document
(B) Axiom
(C) Variable to be tested
(D) Verified variable

23. Migration study is used to study :
(A) Diseases with long incubation period
(B) Prevalence of disease in a population
(C) Socio-demographic reasons for migration of a population
(D) Environmental and genetic factors in a disease in population

XL – 21/13 (6) ( Continued )

Page 7

24. Infections transmitted to man from vertebrate animals are known as :
(A) Exotic
(B) Anthropozoonoses
(C) Zooanthroponoses
(D) Epizootic

25. Quarantine period should be :
(A) Minimum incubation period
(B) Maximum incubation period
(C) Period of communicability
(D) Median incubation period

26. At Primary Health Center (PHC) level, vaccines are stored in the :
(A) Cold Box
(B) Deep freezer
(C) Ice lined refrigerator
(D) Walk in cold room

27. Sputum is sterilized by all expect :
(A) Boiling
(B) Chlorhexidine
(C) Cresol
(D) Autoclaving

28. KAP studies were first used in India to study :
(A) HIV
(B) Malaria
(C) Carcinoma cervix
(D) Family planning

29. Most reliable test for screening of diabetes mellitus :
(A) GTT
(B) Glycosylated hemoglobin
(C) Fasting blood sugar
(D) Urine for sugar

XL – 21/13 (7) ( Turn over )

Page 8

30. Rubella is caused by :
(A) Toga virus
(B) Paramyxovirus
(C) Orthomyxovirus
(D) Arbovirus group B

31. Incubation period of swine flu :
(A) 1-3 days
(B) 10-15 days
(C) 2-3 weeks
(D) 5 weeks

32. Urban malaria is due to :
(A) Anopheles stephensi
(B) Anopheles culicifacies
(C) Culex vishnaui
(D) Aedes

33. False about Leprosy is :
(A) It has been eliminated from India
(B) It can be transmitted through breast milk
(C) Lepromin test is not a diagnostic test
(D) MDT is contraindicated during pregnancy

34. Window period for HIV infection is :
(A) 3-12 weeks
(B) 8-20 weeks
(C) 6-24 weeks
(D) None of these

35. Food poisoning is caused by all except :
(A) Staphylococcus aureus
(B) Clostridium difficile
(C) Vibrio parahaemolyticus
(D) Bacillus cereus

XL – 21/13 (8) ( Continued )

Page 9

36. The most common cancer, affecting both males and females in world, is :
(A) Lung cancer
(B) Cancer of pancreas
(C) Buccal mucosa cancer
(D) Colorectal cancer

37. Internationally accepted method of measuring obesity is :
(A) Lorentz index
(B) Ponderal index
(C) BMI
(D) Corpulence index

38. The most common cause of blindness in India is :
(A) Trachoma
(B) Refractive errors
(C) Vitamin A deficiency
(D) Cataract

39. IT based TB monitoring is known as :
(A) Nischay
(B) Nikshay
(C) Nirbhay
(D) e – DOTS

40. Vital statistics in a population include :
(A) Sex ratio
(B) Birth rate
(C) Age composition
(D) Dependency ratio

41. Most common cause of low birth weight baby is :
(A) Prematurity
(B) Infection
(C) Anemia
(D) Diabetes

XL – 21/13 (9) ( Turn over )

Page 10

42. In ICDS, all of the following are included except :
(A) Immunization
(B) Health Education
(C) Prevention of Iodine deficiency disorders
(D) Supplementary nutrition

43. First requisite before conducting an interview is :
(A) Securing rapport
(B) Probe questions
(C) Establishing contact
(D) Guiding the interview

44. Poverty line is defined as expenditure required for daily calorie consumption below
(urban) :
(A) 1800
(B) 2100
(C) 2000
(D) 2200

45. Principles of Health education include all except :
(A) Participation
(B) Motivation
(C) Reinforcement
(D) Punishment

46. Following occupational diseases are notifiable under the Indian Factory Act, 1976
except :
(A) Silicosis
(B) Asbestosis
(C) Byssinosis
(D) Bagassosis

47. Haemophilia is a genetic disorder of coagulation seen only in males. It is transmitted
as :
(A) X-linked dormant
(B) Y-linked dormant
(C) X-linked recessive
(D) Autosomal recessive

XL – 21/13 ( 10 ) ( Continued )

Page 11

48. Which one of the following is not a socio-pathological factor associated with mental
illness ?
(A) Emotional stress
(B) Frustration
(C) Endocrine disease
(D) Anxiety

49. Number of ASHA visits after home delivery is :
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 5
(D) 7

50. Rural Health scheme introduced by :
(A) Bhore committee
(B) Mukherjee committee
(C) Shrivastava committee
(D) Mudaliar committee

51. The term “tracking” of blood pressure refers to :
(A) 24 hour BP monitoring
(B) Identifying children at risk of developing Hypertension at future date
(C) Pictorial representation of BP
(D) BP control with medication as tablet

52. Which is not correct regarding commercial surrogacy ?
(A) Made commercial surrogacy legal in India
(B) Only allows altruistic surrogacy for needy, infertile Indian couples
(C) Requires intended parents to be married for five years and have a doctor’s
certificate of their infertility
(D) Restricts women to being surrogates only once, and only if they are a close
relative of the intended parents, are married and have a biological child

53. What is the most serious potential side effect of vaccination ?
(A) Swelling
(B) Soreness
(C) Fever
(D) Anaphylaxis

XL – 21/13 ( 11 ) ( Turn over )

Page 12

54. The spread of cancer cells to other parts of the body is called :
(A) Metastasis
(B) Peritonitis
(C) Pnemothorax
(D) Hemophilia

55. At the village level, which one of the following is the executive organ and agency for
planning and development ?
(A) Gram sabha
(B) Gram panchayat
(C) Nyaya panchayat
(D) Zila panchayat

56. Thanatology is the study of :
(A) Life expectancy
(B) Biological aging
(C) Death and Dying
(D) Adulthood

57. Action research means :
(A) A longitudinal research
(B) An applied research
(C) A research initiated to solve an immediate problem
(D) A research with socio-economic objective

58. Which of the following is not a “graphic representation” ?
(A) Pie chart
(B) Bar chart
(C) Table
(D) Histogram

59. All of the following diseases require surveillance according to WHO, except :
(A) Chickenpox
(B) Yellow fever
(C) Malaria
(D) Rabies

XL – 21/13 ( 12 ) ( Continued )

Page 13

60. The largest constituent of human body is :
(A) Proteins
(B) Water
(C) Fats
(D) Minerals

61. Census in India is done every :
(A) 10 years
(B) 05 years
(C) 15 years
(D) 20 years

62. Kidneys maintain blood pressure by regulating :
(A) Toxins levels in the body
(B) Lipids and Proteins in the body
(C) Nutrients levels in the body
(D) Salt and fluid levels in the body

63. Which of the following is the lowest source of energy in our diet ?
(A) Carbohydrates
(B) Fiber
(C) Proteins
(D) Fats and oils

64. The headquarter of WHO is in :
(A) Rome
(B) New York
(C) Paris
(D) Geneva

65. Assertion (a): Pasteurization of milk is a sterilization process.
Reason (r): its purpose is to destroy all the pathogenic organisms.
(A) Both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is the correct explanation of (a).
(B) Both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is not the correct explanation of (a).
(C) (a) is true, but (r) is false.
(D) (a) is false, but (r) is true.

XL – 21/13 ( 13 ) ( Turn over )

Page 14

66. If the standard deviation of a population is 9, the population variance is :
(A) 27
(B) 21
(C) 9
(D) 3

67. Which of the following statements is incorrect about WHO ?
(A) Objective of WHO is attainment by all people of the highest level of health.
(B) Headquarters of WHO are located in Geneva.
(C) WHO is a non-specialized, political agency of United Nations.
(D) World Health Assembly is the ‘Health Parliament’ and supreme governing body
of the organization.

68. Global warming true is :
(A) CO2 is major greenhouse gas
(B) Stratosphere ozone layer is harmful.
(C) CFC increases stratosphere ozone layer
(D) Kyoto protocol called for 20% reduction in green house emissions

69. In normal delivery, breast feeding should be started within :
(A) 1 hour of delivery
(B) 1 hour of delivery
(C) 4 hour of delivery
(D) 6 hour of delivery

70. Vaccine which should not be given to an elderly man is :
(A) Measles vaccine
(B) H. influenza vaccine
(C) TT vaccine
(D) Pneumococcal vaccine

XL – 21/13 ( 14 ) ( Continued )

Page 15

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

XL – 21/13 (470) ( 15 ) Public Health

Document Details

Board / OrgOdisha Exams
ExamOdisha CPET
TypeQuestion Paper
Pages15
Updated22 Jul 2026

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