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COMMON P. G. ENTRANCE TEST – 2020
Test Booklet No. :
DEPT. OF HIGHER EDUCATION, GOVT. OF ODISHA
TEST BOOKLET
Subject Code 47 Subject ZOOLOGY
Time Allowed : 90 Minutes Full Marks : 70
: INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES :
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK
THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES
OR ITEMS ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
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Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write
anything else on the Test Booklet.
3. YOU ARE REQUIRED TO FILL UP & DARKEN HALL TICKET NO. & TEST BOOKLET NO. IN THE
ANSWER SHEET AS WELL AS FILL UP TEST BOOKLET SERIAL NO. & ANSWER SHEET
SERIAL NO. IN THE ATTENDANCE SHEET CAREFULLY. WRONGLY FILLED UP ANSWER
SHEETS ARE LIABLE FOR REJECTION AT THE RISK OF THE CANDIDATE.
4. This Test Booklet contains 70 items (questions). Each item (question) comprises
four responses (answers). You have to select the correct response (answer)
which you want to mark (darken) on the Answer Sheet. In case, you feel that there
is more than one correct response (answer), you should mark (darken) the
response (answer) which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE
response (answer) for each item (question).
5. You have to mark (darken) all your responses (answers) ONLY on the separate Answer
Sheet provided by using BALL POINT PEN (BLUE OR BLACK). See instructions in the Answer
Sheet.
6. All items (questions) carry equal marks. All items (questions) are compulsory. Your total
marks will depend only on the number of correct responses (answers) marked by you in
the Answer Sheet. There is no negative marking.
7. After you have completed filling in all your responses (answers) on the Answer Sheet
and after conclusion of the examination, you should hand over to the Invigilator
the Answer Sheet issued to you. You are allowed to take with you the candidate’s
copy / second page of the Answer Sheet along with the Test Booklet, after completion
of the examination, for your reference.
8. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
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XL – 34/8 (2) ( Continued )
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1. Amoebic dysentery is caused by :
(A) Amoeba proteus
(B) Entamoeba histolytica
(C) Plasmodium vivax
(D) Taenia solium
2. Ecdysone is :
(A) BH
(B) PTTH
(C) PGH
(D) JH
3. In sponges, the cells surrounding the osculum is :
(A) Archaeocytes
(B) Myocytes
(C) Choanocytes
(D) Gland cells
4. Conchology is the study of :
(A) Coelenterate
(B) Mollusca
(C) Shell of mollusca
(D) Mentle of mollusca
5. Syncytial epidermis is found in :
(A) Hydra
(B) Ascaris
(C) Earthworm
(D) Starfish
6. Aristotle’s lantern present in :
(A) Sea lillies
(B) Sea cucumber
(C) Sea urchin
(D) Sea pea
XL – 34/8 (3) ( Turn over )
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7. In earthworm, the ovary is situated in the :
(A) 10th segment
(B) 13th segment
(C) 11th segment
(D) 14th segment
8. In cephalochordates, gill slits open into :
(A) Pharynx
(B) Atrium
(C) Coelom
(D) Heart
9. Mammal like reptiles belongs to :
(A) Anapsid line of evolution
(B) Euryapsid line
(C) Parapsid line
(D) Synapsid line
10. The fossil record of Archaeopteryx have been discovered from :
(A) Britain
(B) Germany
(C) France
(D) USA
11. Largest living land animals are included in the suborder :
(A) Perissodactyla
(B) Artiodactyla
(C) Probiscidea
(D) Hyracoidea
12. The driving force of an ecosystem is :
(A) Biomass
(B) Producers
(C) Solar energy
(D) Carbohydrates in producers
XL – 34/8 (4) ( Continued )
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13. The term ecotype was coined by :
(A) GoteTuresson
(B) Mc Millan
(C) Korringa
(D) Elton
14. The term biocoenosis was proposed by :
(A) Tansley
(B) Warming
(C) Kark Mobius
(D) None of these
15. Which of the following is not a limiting factor for photosynthesis ?
(A) Oxygen
(B) Carbon di oxide
(C) Chlorophyll
(D) Light
16. Receptor mediated endocytosis from plasma membrane requires which one of the
following coat proteins ?
(A) Clathrin
(B) SNARE
(C) Arrestin
(D) Glycoprotein
17. The protein that is responsible for the sliding of outer microtubule doublets against
one another to produce ciliary binding is :
(A) Nexin
(B) Dynein
(C) Tubulin
(D) None of these
18. Which of the following protein targeting mechanisms is common for mitochondria
and chloroplast organelles ?
(A) Co- translational
(B) Post-translational
(C) Co-translational and post-translational
(D) de-novo protein synthesis
XL – 34/8 (5) ( Turn over )
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19. Cell cycle is controlled by :
(A) Proteolysis of cyclin dependent kinase
(B) Phosphorylation of cyclins
(C) Dephosphorylation of cyclin
(D) Proteolysis of cyclins
20. Which of the following biochemical reactions is most commonly utilized by living cells
to propagate intracellular signals ?
(A) Acylation
(B) Phosphorylation
(C) Methylation
(D) Decarboxylation
21. Isotopes used for proving semiconservative replication of DNA are :
(A) N14 and P31
(B) N14 and N15
(C) N14 and C14
(D) C14 and P31
22. In prokaryotes, the lagging primers are removed by :
(A) 3’ to 5’ exonuclease
(B) DNA ligase
(C) DNA polymerase I
(D) DNA polymerase III
23. When the human genome draft sequence was released, which of the following
observation was least expected ?
(A) The large amount of repititive DNA
(B) The size of the total genome
(C) The size of individual chromosomes
(D) The small number of protein-coding genes
24. Photoreactivation :
(A) Repairs dimers in DNA using an endonuclease
(B) Uses light to activate repair enzymes
(C) Removes alkylating agents from bases
(D) Deaminates bases
XL – 34/8 (6) ( Continued )
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25. Position effect is the result of :
(A) Mutations
(B) Deletions
(C) Inversions
(D) Transversions
26. The perineurium is the connective tissue layer :
(A) Surrounding an entire nerve
(B) Surrounding individual axons in the CNS
(C) Surrounding individual axons in the PNS
(D) Surrounding fascicles of axons in the PNS
27. The most important factor in determining the percent oxygen saturation of haemoglobin
is :
(A) The partial pressure of oxygen
(B) Acidity
(C) The partial pressure of carbon dioxide
(D) Temperature
28. Reabsorption of chloride ions from the glomerular filtrate in the kidney tubule is carried
out by :
(A) Osmosis
(B) Diffusion
(C) Active transport
(D) Brownian movement
29. The gastric gland cell whose absence could lead to pernicious anaemia is the :
(A) Chief cell
(B) Goblet cell
(C) Mucous neck cell
(D) Parietal cell
30. All the hormones of the adrenal cortex are synthesized from :
(A) Tyrosine
(B) Glycoproteins
(C) Cholesterol
(D) Fats
XL – 34/8 (7) ( Turn over )
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31. The primary target organ of aldosterone action is :
(A) Liver
(B) Pancreas
(C) Kidney
(D) Heart
32. The bacteriophage M13 contains as its genetic material :
(A) Single stranded RNA
(B) Double Stranded RNA
(C) Single stranded DNA
(D) Double stranded DNA
33. What is number of hydrogen bonds in B-DNA of 1000 base pairs with the proportion
of bases C, A and T in one of the strands corresponding to 60%,30% and 10%
respectively ?
(A) 2600
(B) 2400
(C) 2200
(D) 2000
34. In Sanger’s method of DNA sequencing, the growing DNA chains are terminated
because :
(A) DNA polymerase is not very processive
(B) A radioactive nucleotide is incorporated
(C) The substrates become limiting
(D) A phosphodiester bond cannot be made
35. Glucose and galactose are two isomeric monosaccharides known as :
(A) Anomers
(B) Epimers
(C) Enantiomers
(D) Conformers
XL – 34/8 (8) ( Continued )
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36. Assuming they all had the same number of carbon atoms, which of the following has
the maximum number of C-H bonds ?
(A) An unsaturated fat
(B) A polyunsaturated fat
(C) A polysaccharide
(D) A saturated fat
37. Which of the following cofactor is essential for the activity of acetyl-CoA carboxylase ?
(A) NAD+
(B) Biotin
(C) TPP
(D) Vitamin B6
38. Abzymes are :
(A) Enzymes that are highly specific like antibodies
(B) Antibodies that have catalytic activities
(C) Also referred to as zymogens
(D) Enzymes that hydrolyze antibodies
39. Which of the following statement is true about non-competitive inhibition ?
(A) Km increases
(B) Km decreases
(C) Vmax increases
(D) Vmax decreases
40. Which of the following compounds is a positive allosteric regulator of the enzyme
pyruvate carboxylase ?
(A) Adenosine tri phosphate
(B) Acetyl Coenzyme A
(C) Biotin
(D) Phosphoenolpyruvate
41. p53 protein is associated with all of the following except :
(A) Tumor suppression
(B) Programmed cell death
(C) Transcription
(D) Post translational modifications
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42. When heterozygous black pigs are inter crossed then what is the chance of the first
two offspring being black ?
(A) 46
(B) 56
(C) 66
(D) 76
43. Toll like receptors (TLRs) play an important role in immune defence by recognising :
(A) Microbial components
(B) Conformational difference in antigenic protein
(C) MHC peptide complexes
(D) Anti idiotypic immunoglobulins
44. The macrophage rich mass found at the site of injection of an adjuvant is called :
(A) Myeloma
(B) Granuloma
(C) Adjuvant activated lymphoma
(D) None of these
45. Major variability of MHC is found in :
(A) Alpha chain
(B) β2 microglobulins
(C) Amino terminus region
(D) Domains
46. The predominant antibody in saliva is :
(A) IgG
(B) IgA
(C) IgM
(D) IgD
47. Cytokines are not :
(A) Able to induce increased blood vessel permeability
(B) Antigen specific
(C) Made in response to bacterial antigens
(D) Signals from one cell that affects the behaviour of another cell
XL – 34/8 ( 10 ) ( Continued )
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48. Type I hypersensitivity is known as :
(A) Anaphylaxis
(B) Agglutination
(C) The transfusion reaction
(D) Contact hypersensitivity
49. In myasthenia gravis blocking antibodies bind to :
(A) Acetylcholine
(B) Dopamine
(C) Acetylcholine receptor
(D) Axons
50. Which of the following is an epigenetic factor for gene expression in eukaryotes ?
(A) Recombination
(B) DNA methylation
(C) Protein phosphorylation
(D) DNA protein interaction
51. Which of the following is a post-zygotic-isolating mechanism in speciation ?
(A) Behavioural isolation
(B) Seasonal isolation
(C) Fertilization failure
(D) Hybrid sterility
52. The phenomenon of genetic drift is most likely to occur in population that are :
(A) Small and inbred
(B) Undergoing gene flow
(C) Allopatric
(D) Large and panmictic
53. The first vertebrates appeared in which one of the following periods of the Palaeozoic
era ?
(A) Ordovician
(B) Silurian
(C) Evonian
(D) Mississippians
XL – 34/8 ( 11 ) ( Turn over )
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54. Chaperone proteins help in :
(A) Protein folding and assembly
(B) Protein stability
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
55. Deviation from the Hardy-Weinberg assumption of infinitely large population size
results in :
(A) Genetic lethal
(B) Heterozygote advantage
(C) Consanguinity
(D) Genetic drift
56. In a population that is in equilibrium, the proportion of individuals showing the dominant
trait at a given locus having two allele is 84%. The frequency of the recessive allele in
the population is :
(A) 0.40
(B) 0.30
(C) 0.20
(D) 0.16
57. The folding of sheets of cells, the migration of cells and cell death are all mechanisms
of :
(A) Cleavage division
(B) Pattern formation
(C) Morphogenesis
(D) Differentiation
58. The process by which developing cells achieve their functional, mature identity as
liver or muscle or nerve is called :
(A) Cleavage division
(B) Pattern formation
(C) Morphogenesis
(D) Differentiation
XL – 34/8 ( 12 ) ( Continued )
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59. Which of the following cell organelle actively participates in animal apoptosis ?
(A) Vacuoles
(B) Chloroplast
(C) Nucleus
(D) Mitochondria
60. A species facing an extremely high risk of extinction in the immediate future is called :
(A) Vulnerable
(B) Rare
(C) Endangered
(D) Link species
61. Which of the following zones in a lake suffers from lack of light and therefore limited
photosynthesis is able to take place ?
(A) Littoral
(B) Profoundal
(C) Pelagic
(D) Euphotic
62. In which year Wildlife Protection Act was implemented in India ?
(A) 1952
(B) 1962
(C) 1972
(D) 1982
63. The part of the brain that has been shown to function like a ‘Biological clock’ is the :
(A) Nucleus of the solitary tract
(B) Suprachiasmatic nucleus
(C) Gigantocellular tegmental field
(D) Optic chiasm
64. Which hormone is secreted by placenta ?
(A) ACTH
(B) Progesterone
(C) GH
(D) Gastrin
XL – 34/8 ( 13 ) ( Turn over )
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65. Identify fish group which excretes urea as the primary nitrogenous end product :
(A) Teleost fishes
(B) Lung fishes
(C) Elasmobranch fishes
(D) None of these
66. Induced breeding technique is used in :
(A) Culture fishery
(B) Marine fishery
(C) Capture fishery
(D) Inland fisheries
67. Which of the following is an imino acid ?
(A) Hystidine
(B) Glycine
(C) Cysteine
(D) Proline
68. Proteins may be separated according to size by :
(A) Reverse phase chromatography
(B) Ion exchange chromatography
(C) Molecular exclusion chromatography
(D) Isoelectric focussing
69. All of the enzymes of TCA cycle are located in the mitochondrial matrix except :
(A) Citrate synthatase
(B) Alpha keto glutarate dehydrogenase
(C) Succinate dehydrogenase
(D) Fumarase
70. To be a cloning vector, a plasmid does not require :
(A) An origin of replication
(B) An antibiotic resistance marker
(C) A restriction site
(D) To have a high copy number
XL – 34/8 ( 14 ) ( Continued )
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
XL – 34/8 (6,880) ( 15 ) Zoology