Page 1
FOR VSAT EXAM PREPARATION
VSAT 2021
Question Paper · MPC
Code A
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT
VSAT 2021 Question Paper MPC Code A
Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests
Page 2
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VIGNAN’S SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST
This booklet contains 24 printed pages
B O O K L E T
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PAPER -1: MATHEMATICS, PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY, & ENGLISH / APTITUDE
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CODE SERIAL No.
.co A e m
Read carefully the following Instructions before opening the seal of this
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booklet.
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Do not open this Test Booklet untill you are instructed by the invigilator.
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Important Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars at the bottom of this test booklet with blue/black ball point pen. Use
of pencil is strictly prohibited.
2. A separate OMR answer sheet is provided along with this test booklet. When you are directed to open
the test booklet, take the OMR answer sheet and fill in the required particulars carefully.
3. The CODE for this booklet is A. Make sure that the CODE on the OMR Answer Sheet should be marked
as that on this booklet.
4. Immediately on opening the booklet, please check for (i) the same booklet code (A/B/C/D) on the top of
each page (ii) serial number of the questions (1-120) (iii) the number of pages (iv) correct printing.
m
The test is of 2 /2 hours duration.
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1
5.
.
6. The test consists of 120 Questions. The maximum marks are 120.
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7. There are 4 sections in the question paper. Each question carries 1 mark for correct answer and there is
no negative marking for incorrect answer.
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Section I - MATHEMATICS (30 Marks) consists of 30 questions (1 to 30).
a
Section II - PHYSICS (30 Marks) consists of 30 questions (31 to 60).
Section III - CHEMISTRY (30 Marks) consists of 30 questions (61 to 90).
Section IV - ENGLISH / APTITUDE (30 Marks) consists of 30 questions (91 to 120).
8. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated in instruction No.6 for correct response to each question.
Marks will not be awared for unattempted / unmarked questions on the answer sheet.
9. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material,printed or written, bits of papers, blank papers,
mobile phone, any electronic device, etc., except the hall ticket, ball point pen, HB pencil, eraser and
sharpner inside the examination hall/room.
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10. Rough work is to be done in the space provided at the bottom of each page, on pages 2 and 21 to 24 in
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the test booklet only.
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11. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the test booklet along with OMR answer sheet
se
to the Invigilator in the room/hall.
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12. Do not fold, mutilate or make any stray marks on the OMR answer sheet.
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la Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters):__________________________________________________________
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Parent’s Mobile No. : Jr.Inter Marks
School/Coching Centre Name : ____________________________________________________________________
Residence Address : ______________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________________
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State : ____________________________________________________ Pin Code :
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Candidate's Signature : __________________________ Invigilator's Signature:____________________________
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SET - II V - SAT-’21
A
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
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a
SECTION - I
MATHEMATICS
1 1 1
log 5 ....
1 4 8 16
1. Lim equals
n
5
m
m c. o
co
A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 0 [ ]
. e m
s
2. Two cars are travelling along two roads which cross each other at right angles at A. One car is travelling
e m la
s
towards A at 21 kmph and the other is travelling towards A at 28 kmph. If initially their distances from
l a
A are 1500 km and 2100 km respectively. Then the nearest distance between them is
a g
ag
A. 30 B. 45 C. 60 D. 75 [ ]
3. Suppose that f is a differentiable function with the property that f(x + y)= f(x)+f(y)+xy and
f (h)
Lim 3 Then
h 0 h
A. f is a linear function B. f ( x ) 3 x x 2
D. f (oxm
c
x2 x 2
C. f ( x ) 3 x
.
) 3x [ ]
m items which should have been 60, 70, 80, were
2 2
s ethree
lacorrect mean is
4 . Mean of 100 items is 49. It was discovered that
wrongly read as 40, 20, 50 respectively.gThe
a
1
A. 48 B. 82 C. 80 D. 50 [ ]
2
5. If f ( x ) x 2 (a b) x ab and A and H be the A.M and H.M between two quantities a and b.
Then
m
A. A f(A) = H f(H) B. A f(H) = H f(A)
m .co
c. oThe statement p (q p) is equivalent to
C. A + f(A) = H +f(H) D. f(A)+H = f(H)+A [ ]
m
em A. p ( p q)
6.
l a se
las B. p (q p )
a g
ag C. p (q p ) D. p ( p q ) [ ]
m .
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SET - II V - SAT-’21
A
7. Let 2 sin 2 x 3 sin x 2 0 and x 2 x 2 0 (x is measured in radians). Then x lies in the
interval
5 5
A. , B. 1, C. 1, 2 D. , 2 [ ]
6 6 6 6
8. A lamp post standing at a point A on a circular path of radius r subtends an angle 300 at some point B on
the path and AB subtends an angle of 450 at any other point on the path, then height of the lamp post is
r 2 3
A. 6r B. C. r D. r [ ]
6 3 2
9. Let Z be a complex number and a be a real parameter such that z 2 az a 2 0 , then locus of z is a
A. Circle B. Pair of straight lines C. Ellipse D. Parabola [ ]
10. A coin is tossed (m + n) times (m > n) then the probability of getting at least m consecutive heads is
n n2 n 1
A. B. C. D. Cannot be determined [ B ]
2 m1 2 m1 2 m1
1
11. The roots of the quadratic equation 8 x 2 10 x 3 0 are and 2 where
2
then the
2
equation whose roots are i 100 and i 100 is [ ]
A. x x 1 0 B. x x 1 0 C. x x 1 0 D. x x 1 0
2 2 2 2
12. If M is a 3 3 matrix, where M T M I and det(M)=1 then det(M-I) =
A. 1 B. -1 C. 0 D. 2 [ ]
13. Consider the system of linear equations in x, y, z Sin 3 x y z 0; cos 2 x 4 y 3 z 0
and 2 x 7 y 7 z 0 then a value(s) of in (0, ) for which the system has non –trivial solution is
5 2
A. B. C. D. [ ]
6 3 3 2
14. Between two junction stations there are 12 intermediate stations. Then the number of ways can a train
be made to stop at 4 of these if no two of these halting stations are consecutive is [ ]
A. 252 B. 70 C. 6300 D. 126
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a
15. Coefficient of x in the expansion of 2 x 2 x 3 is
4
6
A. 384 B. 192 C. 572 D. 64 [ ]
16. A focal chord of parabola y 2 4 x is inclined at an angle of with positive direction of X-axis , then
4
m
c. o
the slopes of normals drawn at the ends of focal chord will satisfy the equation [ ]
m
c. o m
B. m 2m 1 0
e
A. m 2m 1 0
2 2
C. m 1 0 m
e l a s
s
D. m 2m 1 0
g
2 2
l a a
ag point on the ellipse a b 1 whose foci are the points S and S ‘e’ is the eccentricity
2 2
x y
17. P is variable 2 2 1 2
of the given eIlipse. Locus of the incentre of PS1S 2 is an ellipse whose eccentricity is
2e 2e 2e 2e
A. B. C. D. [ ]
1 e 1 e 1 e 1 e
m
c. o 16 53
18. The centre of a circle passing through the point (0,1) and touching the curve y x 2 at (2, 4) is
16 27 16 5
eC.m ,
las
A. , B. , D. None [ ]
ag
5 10 7 10 5 10
19. Let f (x ) be a function differentiable on 0, such that f (0) 1 , f ( ) 31 6
If f 1 ( x) [ f ( x)]4 [ f ( x)] 2 , then the maximum value of is [ ]
A. B. C. D.
6 12 24 36
cos 7 x cos 8 x
20.
m
co
1 2 cos 5 x
m1 .
c. oA. 2 sin 2 x 3 sin 3x c B. sin 2 x cos 3 x c m
e
1 1 1
em 1
2 2
l a s
l as g
D. sin 3 x sina2 x c
ag
1 1 1
C. sin 2 x sin 3 x c [ ]
2 3 2 2
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SET - II V - SAT-’21
A
21. Let the position vectors of the points P, A and B be r , i j k and i k . If PA
A is perpendicular
to PB but r is not perpendicular to r j 2k then r is [ ]
A. i 2k B. i 2 j C. j 2k D. j 2k
22. BE and CF are two medians of ABC whose vertex A is (1, 3). The equation to BE is x-2y+1=0 and
CF is y -1=0 then the equation of AB and AC are [ ]
A. 3 x 2 y 7 0, x y 2 0 B. 3 x 2 y 7 0, x y 2 0
C. 3 x 2 y 7 0, x y 2 0 D. 3 x 2 y 7 0, x y 2 0
23. Equation of the curve satisfying the differential equation y x y 3 dx x y 3 x dy , and passing
through point (4, 2) is [ ]
y y
A. x y 2Tan c B. x y 2Tan c
2 2 1 2 2 1
x x
y y
C. x y 2 Sin c
1
D. x y 2 Sec c
2 2 2 2 1
x x
24. The cure y a x bx passes through the point (1, 2) and the area enclosed by the curve, the axis
of X and the line x 4 is 8 square units, then the values of a, b are [ ]
A. 3, -1 B. -3 , 1 C. 3, 1 D. -3, -1
x 1 y 1 z 2
25. If the angle between the line and the plane 2 x y z 4 0 is such
1 2 2
1
that sin then the value of is [ ]
3
3 4 5 3
A. B. C. D.
4 3 3 5
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26. Direction ratios of the line of intersection of the planes x y z 1 0 and 2 x 3 y 4 z 7 0
are
A. 1, 2, -3 B. 2, 1,-3 C. 4, 2, -6 D. 1, -2, 1 [ ]
27. PQRS is a trapezium with PQ and RS parallel. PQ = 6, QR = 5, RS = 3, PS = 4 and P 90 0. The
m
area of PQRS is
A. 27
o m B. 12 C. 18 D. 20 [ ]
c. o
x .c e m
28. If g ( x ) 2 f m f ( 2 x ) and f ( x) 0 for all x (0,2) then g (x ) is increasing on as
se2 g l
a
11
g l a
a4 4 3
A. 0, B. ,2 C. (0,2) D. 0, [ ]
3 3 4
29. Let A,B,C be three angles such that A and tan B tan C = P then all possible value of P such that
4
m
A, B, C are the angles of a triangles are
A. 3 2 2, 3 2 2, c. ,o3 2 2
B. 0
s eD.m 3 2 2,0 3 2 2 ,
la
C. ,3 2 2 3 2 2 ,
g
[ ]
x y x y 2
ab a 2
x y n 1 n 1
30. If
1 and
then the value of is [ ]
a b a2 b2 ab a b
n n
1 1 ab ab
A. 1 B. C. D.
a b ab ab
m
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c. o se
m
s em g la
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Page 9
SET - II V - SAT-’21
A
SECTION - II
PHYSICS
31. When a current of (2.5 0.5) A flows through a wire, it develops a potential difference of (20 1)V .
The resistance of the wire is [ ]
A. (8 1.5) B. (8 2) C. (8 3) D. (8 1.6)
32. A particle is projected with velocity u along the x-axis. The deceleration on the particle is proportional
to the square of the distance from the origin as a x 2 , the distance at which the particle stop is
13 13
3u 3u 2 3u 2u 2
A. B. C. D. [ ]
2 2 2 3
33. A stone is projected with a velocity 10 2m / s at an angle of 450 to the horizontal. The average
velocity of stone during its motion from starting point to its maximum height is ( g 10m / s 2 )
A. 10 5m / s B. 5 5m / s C. 20 2m / s D. 20m / s [ ]
34. About 0.014kg of nitrogen gas is enclosed in a vessel at a temperature of 270 c . The amount of heat to
be transferred to the gas to double the r. m. s. speed of its molecules is ____ (R=2 cal/mol k)
A. 900 cal B. 4500 cal C. 2250 cal D. 450 cal [ ]
35. One mole of an ideal gas has an internal energy given by U U 0 2 PV where P is the pressure and
V the volume of the gas. U 0 is a constant . This gas under goes the
quasistatic cyclic process ABCDA as shown in U-V diagram
(a). The molar heat capacity of the gas at constant pressure is 3R.
U1 U 0
(b). The work done by the ideal gas in the process AB is ln 2
2
(c). Assuming that the gas consists of a mixture of two gases, the gas is a mixture of di and tri atomic
gases
The correction option is
A. Only a, b are correct B. Only b, c are correct
C. Only c is correct D. All are correct [ ]
-8-
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a
36. In the arrangement shown, mB 3m ,density of liquid is and density of block B
is 2 . The system is released from rest so that block B moves up when in liquid and
moves down when completely out of liquid with the same acceleration. The mass of
block A is [ ]
m
9m 9m 7m
c. o
C. 2m
m
A. B. D.
co
2 4 4
. e m
m s
37. A refrigerator placed in a room at 300 k has inside temperature 200 k. How many calories of heat shall
s e g la
be delivered to the room for each 2 kcal of energy consumed by the refrigerator ideally?
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A. 4 kcal B. 2 kcal C. 6 kcal D. 8 kcal [ ]
38. A closed cubical box made of perfectly insulating material has walls of thicken 8cm and the only way for
the heat to enter or leave the box is through the solid, cylindrical,
metal plugs each of cross sectional area 12 cm2 and length 8 cm
fixed in the opposite walls of the box as shown in fig. The outer
surface A is kept at 1000 c while the outer surface B of other plug
is kept at 40 c .The coefficient of thermal conductivity of material
of the plugs is 0.5cal cm sec0 c . A source of energy generating
m
c. o
36 cal/sec is enclosed inside the box. The equilibrium temperature
emC. 48 c
of the inner surface of the box assuming that it is same at all points on the inner surface is
las
B. 76 c D. 62 c
0 0 0
A. 520 c [ ]
ag
39. Suppose potential energy between electron and proton at separation r is given by U K log r ,
where K is a constant. For such a hypothetical hydrogen atom, the radius of nth Bohr’s orbit is
nh 2h nh n2h2
A. B. C. D. [ ]
2 mk n mk 2mk 2mk
40. What is the output Y in the following circuit, when all the three inputs A, B, C are first 1 and then 0?
m
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c. o se
m
s em A. 0, 1 D.la
g
la a
B. 0, 0 C. 1, 0 1, 1 [ ]
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SET - II V - SAT-’21
A
41. A sample of radioactive material decays simultaneously by two processes A and B with half- lives 1 hr
2
1
and hr respectively. For first half hour it decay with the process A, next one hour with the process B
4
and for further half an hour with both A and B. If originally there were N 0 nuclei, the number of nuclei
after 2 hours of such decay is [ ]
N0 N0 N0 N0
A. B. C. D.
24 22 26 28
42. A source of light is placed above a sphere of radius 10cm. Find the maximum number of electrons
emitted by the sphere before emission of photo electrons stop. The energy of incident photon is 4.2ev
and the work function of metal is 1.5ev [ ]
A. 2.08 10 B. 4 10 C. 1.875 108 D. 2.88 108
18 19
43. A sinusoidal voltage V (t) =100sin500t is applied across a pure inductance of L= 0.02H. The current
through the coil is [ ]
A. -10cos500t B. -10sin500t
C. 10sin500t D. 10cos500t
44. The torque required to hold a small circular coil of 10 turns, area 1mm2 and carrying a current of
21
A in the middle of a long solenoid of 10 turns/m carrying a current of 2.5 A, with its axis
3
44
perpendicular to the axis of solenoid is [ ]
A. Zero B. 1.5 10 8 N m
3
C. 1.5 10 N m D. 1.5 10 6 Nm
45. Two identical drops of water are falling through air with a steady speed of V each. If the drops coalese
to from a single drop, the new terminal velocity is [ ]
A. V 1 23 2V B. V 1 2V C. V 1 22 3V D. V 2 V
1 2
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a
B
46. Two coherent light sources P and Q each of wave length are
separated by a distance of 3 . The maximum number of minima
formed on line AB, which runs from to is P
A. 6 B. 4
3 Q
m
c. o
C. 8 D. 2 [ ]
o m m
A
c
47. A circular disc rotates.freely about a vertical axis through its centre with angular velocity . A ring havingse
the same masssandemradius as the disc is placed on the disc and the system now rotates with an angular g l a
a
1
velocitygl about the same vertical axis. Then is a[ ]
a 2 2 1
1 3
A. B. C. 2/3 D. 1/3
2 2
48. For a certain organ pipe 3 successive resonant frequencies are observed at 425 Hz, 595 Hz and 765 Hz.
If the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s, then length of pipe is
A. 2 m B. 1 m C. 0.4 m D. 0.5 m [ ]
m
co
49. The work done in slowly lifting a body from earth’s surface to a height R (radius of earth) is equal to two
.
times the work done in lifting the body from earth’s surface to a height h. Here h is equal to [ ]
em R
s C.
l a
R R R
g
A. B. D.
6
a 3
4 2
50. The maximum angle for which the light suffers total internal reflection
at the vertical surface is [ ]
A. sin 1 1 3 B. sin 1 3 4
C. sin 1 2 3 D. sin 1 4 5
m
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c. o se
m
s em g la
gla a
a
m .
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SET - II V - SAT-’21
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51. A biconvex lens is formed with two Plano convex lenses as shown
in fig. Refractive index of the lens is 1.5 and that of the second lens
1.2. Both the curved surfaces are of the same radius of curvature
R=14 cm. For this biconvex lens, for an object distance of
40 cm, the image distance will be [ ]
A. -280 cm B. 40 cm
C. 13.3 cm D. 21.5 cm
52. One end of a mass less spring of relaxed length 50 cm and spring constant
k is fixed on top of a frictionless inclined plane of inclination 300 as
shown in fig. When a mass m=1.5 kg is attached at the other end, the
spring extends by 2.5 cm. The mass is displaced slightly and released.
The time period (in seconds) of the resulting oscillation will be
2 2
A. B. C. D. [ ]
5 5 7 7
53. A bullet of mass 10 gm moving horizontally with a velocity of 400 m/s strikes a wooden block of mass
2 kg which is suspended by a light inextensible string of length 5m. As a result, the centre of gravity of
the block is found to rise a vertical distance of 10 cm. The speed of the bullet after it emerges out
horizontally from the block will be
A. 120 m/s B. 60 m/s C. 100 m/s D. 160 m/s [ ]
3
54. A particle moves on a rough horizontal ground with some initial velocity v0 . If th of its kinetic energy
4
is lost due to friction in time t0, the coefficient of friction between the particle and the ground is
v0 v0 3v0 v0
A. B. C. D. [ ]
2gt0 4gt0 4 gt0 gt0
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a
55. Three identical dipoles are arranged as shown in fig. The net
1
electric field at ‘o’ is K 4
0
KP 2 KP
m
A. B.
c. o
x3 x3
m
c. oD. 2xKP s e m
e m a
C. Zero [ ]
s l
3
56. Calculate l g
a stress in a tight wire of a material whose youngs modulus is 19.6 10 dyne /acm so
g
a of the longitudinal wave is 10 times the speed of transverse wave.
11 2
the
that speed [ ]
A. 19.6 108 N / m 2 B. 19.6 10 N / m
9 2
C. 19.6 1012 N / m 2 D. 19.6 1010 N / m 2
57. The driver of a car approaching a vertical wall notices that the frequency of the horn of his car changes
from 400 Hz to 450 Hz after being reflected from the wall. Assuming speed of sound to be 340m/s, the
m
co
speed of approach of car towards the wall is [ ]
58. The value of resistance R in the circuit shown isem
A. 10 m/s B. 20 m/s
. C. 30 m/s D. 40 m/s
l a s
ag
A. 100 B. 50
C. 150 D. 25 [ ]
59. When a known resistance 10 and a conductor are connected
in the right and left gaps respectively and the conductor is kept at 00 c , the balancing length is 50cm. If
the temperature of the conductor in left gap is increased to1000 c , the balancing length shifts by 10cm.
o
The temperature coefficient of resistance of the material of the conductor is
m [ ]
o m .c
c m
B. 0.05 / c C. 0.025 / c
0 0
A. 0.005 / 0 c D. 0.0025 / 0 c
m. The electric field in a region of space is given by E E i 2E j where E se70 N / C . The flux of
e this field through a circular surface of radius 2cm parallel to X-Z plane isgla
s
60.
la a D. 0.70 Nm / c [ ]
0 0 0
ag 2
A. 0.125 Nm / c B. 0.176 Nm / c 2
C. Zero
2
m .
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e m l a
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SET - II V - SAT-’21
A
SECTION - III
CHEMISTRY
61. In SN 2 reactions the correct order of reactivity for the following compounds
CH 3Cl , CH 3CH 2 Cl , (CH 3 ) 2 CHCl and (CH 3 )3 Ccl is [ ]
A. CH 3Cl CH 3CH 2Cl (CH 3 ) 2 CHcl (CH 3 )3 Ccl
B. CH 3CH 2Cl CH 3Cl (CH 3 ) 2 CHcl (CH 3 )3 Ccl
C. (CH 3 ) 2 CHcl CH 3CH 2Cl CH 3Cl (CH 3 )3 Ccl
D. CH 3Cl (CH 3 ) 2 CHcl CH 3CH 2Cl (CH 3 )3 Ccl
62. For the non Stoichiometric reaction 2 A B C D the following kinetic data were obtained in the
separate experiments all at 298K [ ]
Initial Concentration Initial Concentration Initial rate of formation of C
[A] [B] mol.lit 1 sec1
0.1 0.1 1.2 103
0.1 0.2 1.2 103
0.2 0.1 2.4 103
The rate law for formation of C is
dc
dc B. K [ A][ B]2
A. K [ A]2 [ B] dt
dt
dc dc
C. K [ A] D. K [ A][ B ]
dt dt
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a
63. Sodium Phenoxide when heated with Co2 under pressure 1250 c yields a product, which on acetylation
produces C.? [ ]
ONa
+CO2
m
125 0c H+
C
c. o
5 Atm B
m
AC2 O
c. o s e m
s emC would be: g la
la
The major product
g a
A.
a OH
B.
COCH3
OH
CO CH C. 3
OCOCH3
D.
O COCH3
COOH
CO CH3 CO OH
m
64. The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valency electrons of Rubidium atom (Z=37) is
c. o
eD.m 5,0,0,1/ 2
A. 5,1,0,1 / 2 B. 5,1,1,1 / 2 [ ]
C. 5,0,1,1 / 2
l a s
a g is 50 ohms. The specific conductance of the solution
65. Resistance of 0.2M solution of an electrolyte
1
is1.4sm . The resistance of 0.5 M solution of the same electrolyte is 280 ohm. The molar conductivity
of 0.5 M solution of the electrolyte in sm 2 mol 1 is [ ]
A. 5 10 D. 5 10
3 3 4
B. 5 10 C. 5 102
66. The major organic compound formed by the reaction of 1, 1, 1-trichloro ethane with silver powder is
A. Ethene
o
B. 2- Butyne
m
m .c
. co em
C. 2 - Butene D. Acetylene [ ]
em67. The most suitable reagent for the conversion of RCH OH RCHOglisa s
las a D. KMnO
2
ag A. K Cr O 2 2
B. Cr O
7 3
C. PCC 4
[ ]
m .
.co s e m
e m l a
s g
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Page 17
SET - II V - SAT-’21
A
68. Allyl phenyl ether can be prepared by heating [ ]
A. C6 H 5CH CH Br CH 3ONa
B. CH 2 CHBr C6 H 5CH 2ONa
C. C6 H 5 Br CH 2 CH CH 2ONa
D. CH 2 CH CH 2 Br C6 H 5ONa
nRT an 2
69. Vander Waals equation for a gas is stated as P . This equation reduces to perfect gas
V nb V 2
nRT
equation P when [ ]
V
A. Both temperature and pressure are very low
B. Both temperature and pressure are very high
C. Temperature is sufficiently high and pressure is low
D. Temperature is sufficiently low and pressure is high
70. In a set of reactions P-nitro toluene yielded a product ‘E’ [ ]
CH 3
Br 2 Sn NaNo2 Cu Br
FeBr3 B HCl C HCl D HBr E
NO 3
CH 3 CH 3 D. CH 3
A. B. CH2 Br C.
Br Br Br
Br
Br Br
Br Br
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Page 18
m
m .co
c. o SET - II
e m
em l a s
s g
V - SAT-’21
A
a
71. For the estimation of nitrogen 1.4g of an organic compound was digested by Kjeldahl Method and
M
evolved ammonia was absorbed in 60ml of H 2 SO4 . The unreacted acid requires 20ml of
10
M
NaOH for complete neutralization. The percentage of nitrogen in the compound is [ ]
10
m
m c. o
A. 10% B. 3% C. 5 % D. 6%
.co
72. CsCl crystallizes in body centered cubic lattice. If ‘a’ is its edge length then which of the following
s e m
e
expression is correct
m [ ]
la
l a s a g
ag
3a 3a
A. rcs rcl
B. rcs rcl
2 2
C. rcs rcl D. rcs rcl 3a
3a
73. For complete combustion of ethane C2 H 5OH l 3O2 g 2CO2 g 3H 2Ol the amount of heat
produced as measured in bomb calorimeter is 1364.47kj/mol at 250 c . Assuming the ideality the Enthalpy
m
of combustion c H for the reaction will be
c. o
em
A. -1361.95 kJ /mol B. -1460.50 kJ/mol C. -1350.50 kJ/mol
D. -1366.95 kJ/mol [ ]
s
la C. Acrylonitrile
74. Which one is classified as a Condensation Polymer?
B. Teflon
g
75. The Octahedral complex of a metal ionaM with four monodentate ligands L , L , L and L absorbs
A. Neoprene
3
D. Dacron [ ]
1 2 3 4
wave lengths in the region of red, green, yellow and blue respectively. The increasing order of ligand
strengths of four ligands is [ ]
A. L1 L3 L2 L4 B. L3 L2 L4 L1
C. L1 L2 L4 L3 D. L4 L3 L2 L1
E cell 1.10V was allowed to bemcompletely
o
76. The cell Zn / Zn 2 (1M ) // Cu 2 (1M ) / Cu
c
0
m .
. codischarged at 298K. The relative concentration of Zn to Cu Zn issem
2
m Cu a
2 2
e
[ ]
s g l
2
l a a D. 9.65 10
ag
37.3 4
A. Antilog 24.08 B. 37.3 C. 10
m .
.co s e m
e m l a
s g
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SET - II V - SAT-’21
A
77. Silver Mirror test is given by which one of the following compounds.
A. Formaldehyde B. Benzophenone C. Acetaldehyde D. Acetone [ ]
78. a and b are Vander Waals constants for gases chlorine is more easily liquefied than ethane because
A. a for Cl 2 a for ethane but b for Cl 2 b for ethane [ ]
B. a for Cl 2 a for ethane but b for Cl 2 b for ethane
C. a and b for Cl 2 a and b for ethane
D. a and b for Cl 2 a and b for ethane
79. The strongest acid among the following compounds is [ ]
A. CH 3CH 2CH (Cl )CooH B. ClCH 2CH 2CH 2CooH
C. CH 3CooH D. HCooH
80. The correct order of acid strength of the following compounds is [ ]
a. Phenol b. P-Cresol c. m-Nitrophenol d. P- Nitrophenol
A. d > c > a > b B. b > d > a > c C. a > b > d > c D. c > b > a > d
81. Ozonolysis of an organic compound ‘A’ produces acetone and propionaldehyde in equimolar mixture
. Identify ‘A’ from the following compounds [ ]
A. 1-Pentene B. 2-Pentene
C. 2-Methyl-2-Pentene D. 2-Methyl-1-Pentene
82. In the Chemical reaction the compounds A and B respectively are [ ]
A. Benzene Diazonium Chloride and Benzonitrile
NH2
B. Nitro Benzene and Bromo Benzene
NaNo 2 CuCN
C. Fluorobenzene and phenol A B
HCl,2 78K
D. Phenol and Bromo Benzene
83. The ratio of masses Oxygen and Nitrogen in a particular gaseous mixture is 1 : 4. The ratio of number of
their molecule is [ ]
A. 7 : 32 B. 1 : 8 C. 3 : 16 D. 1 : 4
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m
m .co
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e m
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V - SAT-’21
A
a
84. Consider separate solutions of 0.500M C2 H 5OH , 0.100M Mg 3 ( Po4 ) 2 (aq ) , 0.25M KBr and
0.125M Na3 Po4 ( aq ) at 250 c . Which statement is true about these solutions assuming all salts to be
strong electrolytes? [ ]
A. 0.100M Mg 3 ( Po4 ) 2 aq has the highest Osmotic pressure
m
m
B. 0.125M Na3 Po4 aq has the highest Osmotic pressure
c. o
.co s e m
m
C. 0.500M C2 H 5OH ( aq ) has the highest Osmotic pressure
a s e g la
l a[ ]
D. They all have the same Osmotic pressure
a g
85. The IUPAC name of the complex Co(No 2 )( NH 3 )5 Cl 2
A. Nitrito – N – Pentamine Cobalt (III) Chloride
B. Nitrito – N – Pentamine Cobalt (II) Chloride
C. Pentamine Nitrito – N – Cobalt (II) Chloride
D. Pentamine Nitrito – N – Cobalt (III) Chloride
86. The P ka of a weak acid (HA) is 4.5.The P OH of an aqueous solution of HA in which 50% of the acid is
ionized is [ ]
o m
. c
A. 4.5 B. 2.5 C. 9.5 D. 7.0
e m
0 3 2
87. The ionic radii (in A ) of N , O and F are respectively
s B. 1.71, 1.36 and 1.40
are [ ]
A. 1.71, 1.40 and 1.36
l a
g D. 1.36, 1.71 and 1.40
C. 1.36, 1.40 and 1.71
a
88. Gold numbers of protective colloids A, B, C and D are 0.5, 0.01, 0.1 and 0.005 respectively. The
correct order of their protective powers is [ ]
A. D A C B B. C B D A
C. A C B D D. B D A C
89. Using MO theory predict which of the following species has shortest bond length
om
A. O22 B. O2 C. O2 D. O22 [ ]
m .c
c. oA. Octahedral
90. The structure of IF7 is
B. Pentagonal bipyramidal se
m
s em C. Square pyramidal D. Trigonal bipyramidalgl
a
gla a [ ]
a
m .
.co s e m
e m l a
s g
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SET - II V - SAT-’21
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SECTION - IV
ENGLISH / APTITUDE
91. A boatman goes 2 km against the current of the stream in 1 hour and goes 1 km along the current in
10 minutes. How long will it take to go 5 km in stationary water? [ ]
A. 40 minutes B. 1 hour C. 1 hr 15 min D. 1 hr 30 min
92. Two pipes A and B together can fill a cistern in 4 hours. Had they been opened separately, then B would
have taken 6 hours more than A to fill the cistern. How much time will be taken by A to fill the cistern
separately? [ ]
A. 1 hour B. 2 hours C. 6 hours D. 8 hours
93. The sum of three numbers is 98. If the ratio of the first to second is 2 :3 and that of the second to the third
is 5 : 8, then the second number is [ ]
A. 20 B. 30 C. 48 D. 58
94. Seats for Mathematics, Physics and Biology in a school are in the ratio 5 : 7 : 8. There is a proposal to
increase these seats by 40%, 50% and 75% respectively. What will be the ratio of new seats?
A. 2 : 3 : 4 B. 6 : 7 : 8 C. 6 : 8 : 9 D. None of these [ ]
95. If log 27 = 1.431, then the value of log 9 is [ ]
A. 0.934 B. 0.945 C. 0.954 D. 0.958
96. If A = x% of y and B = y% of x, then which of the following is true? [ ]
A. A is smaller than B. B. A is greater than B
C. A is equal to B. D. If x is smaller than y, then A is greater than B.
97. In a 300 m race A beats B by 22.5 m or 6 seconds. B’s time over the course is [ ]
A. 86 sec B. 80 sec C.76 sec D. None of these
98. A runs 1 time as fast as B. If A gives B a start of 80 m, how far must the winning post be so that A and B
might reach it at the same time? [ ]
A. 200 m B. 300 m C. 270 m D. 160 m
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m
m .co
c. o SET - II
em
em l a s
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V - SAT-’21
A
a
99. In a 100 m race, A can beat B by 25m and B can beat C by 4m. In the same race, A can beat C by
A. 21 m B. 26 m C. 28 m D. 29 m [ ]
100. Speed of a boat in standing water is 9kmph and the speed of the stream is 1.5kmph. A man rows to a
place at a distance of 105km and comes back to the starting point. The total time taken by him is
m
c. o
A. 16 hours B. 18 hours C. 20 hours D. 24 hours [ ]
m
.co e m
101. A man takes twice as long to row a distance against the stream as to row the same distance in favour of
em
the stream. The ratio of the speed of the boat (in still water) and the stream is [ ]
la s
A. 2 : 1
l a s B. 3 : 1 C. 3 : 2 D. 4 : 3
a g
ag
102. A man rows to a place 48km distant and come back in 14hours. He finds that he can row 4km with the
stream in the same time as 3km against the stream. The rate of the stream is [ ]
A. 1 km/hr B. 1.5 km/hr C. 2 km/hr D. 2.5 km/hr
103. The salaries A, B, C are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5. If the increments of 15%, 10% and 20% are allowed
respectively in their salaries, then what will be new ratio of their salaries? [ ]
A. 3 : 3 : 10 B. 10 : 11 : 20 C. 23 : 33 : 60 D. Cannot be determined
m
c. o
104. If 40% of a number is equal to two-third of another number, what is the ratio of first number to the
eC.m5 : 3
second number? [ ]
A. 2 : 5 B. 3 : 7
l a s D. 7 : 3
105. The fourth proportional to 5, 8, 15 is
a g [ ]
A. 18 B. 24 C. 19 D. 20
106. He was struck ____ lightning.
A. with B. by C. for D. at [ ]
107. He has been living here ______a month.
c om
A. from B. since C. for D. of [ ]
m .
c. oA. on em
108. Bharat goes to the office _______ foot.
m s
e
s 109. Neena ____ the report by Monday. gla
B. by C. in D. with [ ]
l a a
ag
[ ]
A. will submit B. will have submitted C. is submitting D. will be submitting
m .
.co s e m
e m l a
s g
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SET - II V - SAT-’21
A
110. Sunitha said that she _____ on this novel for five years.
A. has been working B. had been working
C. have been working D. will work [ ]
111. They _____ the old wall when it collapsed.
A. are painting B. was painting C. were painting D. paint [ ]
Fill in the blanks with the suitable collective names front he options give below
112. Children were excited to see a _____ of candies. [ ]
A. mint B. plague C. wisp D. prattle
Sentence improvement.
113. We spent an hour discussing about his character. [ ]
A. on his character B. of his character C. his character D. no improvement
Choose the opt one from the following
114. Neither the principal nor his colleagues _________ given any explanation for this. [ ]
A. has B. have C. are D. were
Choose the suitable meaning from the options for the underlined expression.
115. We should give a wide berth to bad characters. [ ]
A. give publicity to B. not sympathies C. keep away from D. publicly condemn
Choose the suitable meaning from the options for the underlined expression.
116. He made a plan to murder in cold blood. [ ]
A. murder some one in sleep B. to kill a hibernating animal
C. to commit a preplanned murder D. to kill some one accidentally
Choose the suitable meaning from the options for the underlined expression.
117. The boy had a hair – breadth escape from the street accident. [ ]
A. a lucky B. a quick C. an easy D. a narrow
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m
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V - SAT-’21
A
a
Choose the correct alternative question tag.
118. None of the clerks came _______ ?
A. didn’t B. did they C. do they D. didn’t they [ ]
m
Fill in the blanks with suitable relative pronouns.
m c. o
c. oB. what m
119. Here is a pen ____ you lost.
m s e
s e g la
A. where C. which D. when [ ]
g a
l correct alternative. a
a
Choose the
120. The clown was being laughed at by them.
A. they were laughing at the clown B. they were laughing on the clown
C. they laughed at the clown D. the clown was laughed at by them [ ]
m
. co
s em
g l a
a
m
m .co
c. o se
m
s em g la
gla a
a
m .
.co s e m
e m l a
s g
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SET - II V - SAT-’21
A
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
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