VSAT 2021 Question Paper BiPC Code E

FOR VSAT EXAM PREPARATION

VSAT 2021
Question Paper · BiPC
Code E
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT

VSAT 2021 Question Paper BiPC Code E

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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V-SAT’21
VIGNAN’S SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST
This booklet contains 24 printed pages B O O K L E T
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PAPER -1: BIOLOGY, PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY, & ENGLISH / APTITUDE
CODE

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SERIAL NO.

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Read carefully the following Instructions before opening the seal
of this booklet.

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Do not open this Test Booklet untill you are instructed by the invigilator.

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Important Instructions:
a of pencil is
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1. Immediately fill in the particulars at the bottom of this test booklet with blue/black ball point pen. Use
strictly prohibited.
2. A separate OMR answer sheet is provided along with this test booklet. When you are directed to open the test
booklet, take the OMR answer sheet and fill in the required particulars carefully.
3. The CODE for this booklet is E. Make sure that the CODE on the OMR Answer Sheet should be marked as that on
this booklet.
4. Immediately on opening the booklet, please check for (i) the same booklet code (A/B/C/D/E) on the top of each
page (ii) serial number of the questions (1-120) (iii) the number of pages (iv) correct printing.

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5. The test is of 2 1 hours duration.

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6. The test consists of 120 Questions. The maximum marks are 120.
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7. There are 4 sections in the question paper. Each question carries 1 mark for correct answer and there is no

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negative marking for incorrect answer.

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Section I - BIOLOGY (30 Marks) consists of 30 questions (1 to 30).
Section II - PHYSICS (30 Marks) consists of 30 questions (31 to 60).
Section III - CHEMISTRY (30 Marks) consists of 30 questions (61 to 90).
Section IV - ENGLISH / APTITUDE (30 Marks) consists of 30 questions (91 to 120).
8. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated in instruction No.6 for correct response to each question. Marks will
not be awared for unattempted / unmarked questions on the answer sheet.
9. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material,printed or written, bits of papers, blank papers, mobile
phone, any electronic device, etc., except the hall ticket, ball point pen, HB pencil, eraser and sharpner inside the
examination hall/room.

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10. Rough work is to be done in the space provided at the bottom of each page, on pages 2 and 21 to 24 in the test

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booklet only.

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11. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the test booklet along with OMR answer sheet to the

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Invigilator in the room/hall.

m of the Candidate (in Capital Letters):__________________________________________________________
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12. Do not fold, mutilate or make any stray marks on the OMR answer sheet.

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la Parent’s Mobile No. : g
a Marks
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School/Coching Centre Name : ____________________________________________________________________
Residence Adress : ______________________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________________

State : ___________________________ Pin Code :
,

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Candidate's Signature : __________________________ Invigilator's Signature:____________________________

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SET-II V - SAT-’21
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SECTION - I
BIOLOGY

1. Which of the following viruses devoid of protein coat and their body constituted by only RNA

A. Tobacco mosaic virus B. Potato spindle tuber virus [ ]

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C. Blue tongue virus D. Influenza virus
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2. Human beings can not swim by birth, unless learning in the life time. Frogs can swim by birth. Why?

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A. In the humans, lungs are solid & in frogs lungs are hollow
l lungs are hollow & in frogs lungs are solid a g
B. In theg
a humans,

C. In the humans, lungs are filled with alveoil & in frog lungs are hollow

D. None of the above

3. The sequence of development of embryo sac is [ ]

A. archesporial cell  sporogenous cell  megaspore mother cell  megaspore  embryosac

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B. archesporial cell  sporogenous cell  megaspore  megaspore mother cell  embryosac

s em  megaspore mother cell  embryosac
C. sporogenous cell  archesporial cell  megaspore
lamegaspore mother cell  megaspore  embryosac
D. sporogenous cell  archesporial cellg
a
4. Binary fission in Paramecium occurs during which of the following? [ ]

A. Enough food is available B. Temp is available

C. Environmental conditions are favourable D. Enough water is available

5. Nucloside is the combination of [ ]

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A. Sugar + phosphate B. Sugar + base

. coC. Phosphate + base D. Sugar + phosphate +
s
base
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s em6. How many Barr bodies are found in the human karyotype AA+XO ? gla
la
[ ]

g a D. Zero
a A. One B. Two C. Three

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SET-II V - SAT-’21
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7. Mesokaryon is a [ ]

A. True nucleus present at the centre of the cell

B. Nucleus having condensed chromosomes in interphase and the chromosomes without histones

C. Primitive nucleus not having envelop around it

D. Extra chromosomal DNA present in cytoplasm

8. Path of water in a sponge is [ ]

A. Ostia  Spongoceol  Osculum B. Osculum  Spongocoel  Ostia

C. Ostia  Incurrent canal  Osculum D. Ostia  Excurrent canal  Osculum

9. If the base sequence in a strand of mRNA is - CCU AGG GGG UAG, what would be the
sequence on the non-template strand of DNA? [ ]
A. GGA UCG CCC AUC B. CCT AGG GGG TAG
C. GGA TCG CCC ATC D. CCU AGC GGG UAG

10. Blood of hexapods is [ ]

A. Red in colour B. Green in colour C. Blue in colour D. Colour less

11. In a cross between AABB x aabb the ratio of F2 genotypes between AABB, AaBb, AaBb and aabb
would be [ ]
A. 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 B. 7 : 5 : 3 : 1 C. 2 : 1 : 1 : 2 D. 1 : 2 : 2 : 1

12. The characteristic feature of cardiac muscles is [ ]

A. Fatigue B. Rythimicity C. Sarcolemma D. Neurilemma

13. Which of the following is a vulnerable species? [ ]

A. Red panda B. Antelope cervicapra C. Dodo D. Podophyllum

14. Protonema is [ ]

A.An organ with diploid cells B.Juvenile gameetophyte of Moss

C.Formed from the zygote D.Sporohyte of Moss

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15. If the skin of Earthworm dries, what happens to the Earthworm? [ ]

A. Dies due to the failure of nutrition

B. Dies due to the failure of respiration

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C. Dies due to the failure of excretion

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D. Dies due to the failure of reproduction

16. Correctly match the.plants with the types of roots they have. Use the codes given below. s e
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[ ]

( i ) Viscum a
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a g
a. Pneumatophores

( ii ) Rhizophora b. Complete parasite

( iii ) Taeniophyllum c. Green roots

( iv ) Cuscuta d. Partial parasite

A. ( i ) - d ; ( ii ) - c ; ( iii ) - a ; ( iv ) - b B. ( i ) - b ; ( ii ) - a ; ( iii ) - c ; ( iv) - d

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C. ( i ) - d ; ( ii ) -a ; ( iii ) -c ; ( iv ) - b D. ( i ) - d ; ( ii ) - a ; ( iii ) - b ; ( iv ) - c

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17. Match the following [ ]

l a s P. Pneumonia casuing bacteria
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I. Bacillus

II. Coccus a Q. Escherichia

III. Spirillum R. Acetobactor

IV. Plemorphic S. Beggiota

A. I-Q: II-R : III-S : IV-P B. I-R : II-S : III-Q : IV-P

C. I-Q : II-P : III-S : IV-R
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D. I-P : II-Q : III-S : IV-P
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m of one chromosome extra over the normal chromosome number is called .c
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18. Presence [ ]

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B. Monosomy C. Trisomy D. Tetrasomy

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SET-II V - SAT-’21
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19. Mammals are identified by the presence of [ ]

A. Milk producing mammary glands B. Hairy exoskelton

C. Opposable thumb D. Dephyodont teeth

20. Ball and Socket joint is [ ]

A. Hip joint B. Elbow joint C. Knee joint D. Pivot joint

21. Assertion-A: The restriction enzymes recognize short sequence of double sranded DNA as targets for
cleavage. [ ]
Reason-R: Each enzyme is named by three letter abbreviation, which identifies its origin.
A. A is true, Ris false
B. A is false, R is true
C. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
D. Both A and R are true R is not the correct explanation of A
22. Following is used as a ‘clot buster’ [ ]
A. Streptokinase B. Enterokinase C. Methanogen D. Thinokinase

23. Blood clotting enzyme is [ ]

A. Thrombin B. Thrombokinase C. Rennin D. Vit ‘K’

24. Perithecium is a [ ]

A. Sexual fruting body of a fungus

B. Protective covering around sex organs of a moss plant

C. Asexual spore pproducing organ of a fungus

D. Hygroscopic structure helps in the dehiscence of sporangium in a fern

25. Contraction of gall bladder and relaxation are by [ ]
A. Alphacells B. Beta cells of ppancreas
C. Delta cells of pancreas D. ‘F’ cells of pancreas

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26. How many types of gametes are produced from the genotype Cc Dd Ee? [ ]

A. Four B. Six C. Eight D. Sixteen

27. Following is the character required for an ideal cloning vector [ ]

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A. High molecular weight

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B. Bearing resistance to antibiotics
C. Many sites for the.activity of restriction enzymes s e
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D. Cannot replicate in the host cell

28. Housefly [ ]

A. 3 pairs of legs & 1 pair of wings

B. 3 pairs of legs & 3 pairs of wings

C. 3 pairs of legs & 2 pairs of wings

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D. 3 pairs of legs & 4 pairs of wings

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29. Study the following statements regarding Cycas [ ]

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I. Presence unbranched stems

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II. Presence of conjoint, collateral and closed vascular bundles

III. Presence of siphonostele

Choose the combination of correct statements

A. I & II are correct B. II & III are correct C. I only is correct D. All are correct

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30. According to Hardy & Weinbberg principle, when ‘AA’ individual is crossed wth ‘aa’

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individual, in ‘F1’ progeny what are the genotypic frequencies of AA, Aa & aa? [ ]

c. oA. 0, 1, 0 D. 1, 0, m
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B. 0.5, 0.5, 0 C. 0, 0.5, 0.5

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SET-II V - SAT-’21
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SECTION - II
PHYSICS

31. A sonometer wire under tension of 64N vibrating in its fundamental mode is in resonance with a vibrating
tuning fork. The vibrating portion of that sonometer wire has a length of 10 cm and a mass of 1 gm. The
vibrating tuning fork is now moved away from the vibrating wire with a constant speed and an observer
standing near the sonometer hears one beat per second. The speed with which the turning fork is moved
is _________ (nearly) (speed of second in air is 300m/s) [ ]

A. 1 m/s B. 0.75 m/s C. 2.5 m/s D. 1.25 m/s
32. An electrical circuit is shown in fig .The potential difference across the
resistor of 400  as measured by a voltmeter V of resistance 400 
is [ ]

A. Zero volt B. 5 V
C. 10/3 V D. 20/3 V
33. A motor boat is racing towards north at 10 km/hr and the water current in that region is 10 km/hr in the
direction of 600 east of south. The resultant velocity of the boat is [ ]
A. 10 km/hr due east B. 10 km/hr 600 east of north
C. 12 km/hr 300 east of north D. 20 km/hr north east
34. A radioactive sample decays by 63% of its initial value in 10 sec. If would have decayed by 50% of its
initial value in [ ]
A. 7 sec B. 14 sec C. 5 sec D. 1.4 sec
35. 1.5 m W of 4000A0 light is directed at a photoelectric cell. If 0.10 percent of the incident photons
produce photoelectrons, the current in the cell is (take h = 6.6 x10-34 J.s, c = 3x108 m/s,
e = 1.6 x 10-19C)

A. 1.16A B. 0.59 A C. 0.48A D. 0.79 A [ ]

36. Consider a spring pendulum executing damped oscillations. If mass of block is 200gm, spring constant
is 90 N m and damping constant b = 40 gm/sec, the time taken for its amplitude of oscillation to drop
to half of the initial value is [ ]

A. 0.3 sec B. 3.46 sec C. 6.93 sec D. 0.15 sec

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37. One mole of diatomic ideal gas is heated at constant volume until the pressure is doubled and again
heated at constant pressure until the volume is doubled. The average molar heat capacity for the whole
process is [ ]

13R 19R 17R 23R
A. B. C. D.
m
6 6 6 6

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38. Young’s double slit experiment is made in a liquid. The 10th bright fringe in liquid lies where 6th dark fringe

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lies in vacuum. The refractive index of the liquid is approximately [ ]
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A. 1.54 B. 1.2 C. 1.8 D. 1.67

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39. The acceleration of an electron at a certain moment in a magnetic field B  2iˆ  ˆj  kˆ is a  iˆ  xˆj  3kˆ .
The value of x is [ ]
A.5 B. 0.5 C. 1.5 D. 2
40. What should be the value of angle  so that light entering normally through
the surface AC of a prism (RI n = 3/2) does not cross the second refracting
surface AB [ ]

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A.   Cos 1 2 3 B.   Sin 1 2 3
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C.   Cos 1 2 3 D.   Sin 1 2 3

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41. The specific heat of a substance varies as 3t 2  t 10 3 cal
gm 0 c
. The amount of heat required to rise

the temperature of 1kg of substance from 100c to 200c is [ ]
A. 7150 cal B. 8200 cal C. 9250 cal D. 750 cal
42. A rod AB rests with the end A on rough horizontal ground and the end
B against a smooth vertical wall. The rod is uniform and of weight W. If

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the rod is in equilibrium in the position shown in figure, the frictional force

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at A is [ ]

c. oA. 3W m
2
se
W
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B.

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2
3
W

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SET-II V - SAT-’21
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43. A convex lens of focal length 10 cm and a planoconcave lens of focal length 20 cm are placed in contact.
The lateral magnification of an object at 10 cm from the combination of lenses is [ ]
A. -2 B. +2 C. +1.5 D. -3
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44. Four dipoles each of magnitudes of charges ‘  e ’ are placed inside a sphere. The total flux of E coming
out of the sphere is [ ]
1 8e e
A. 4e B. C. Zero D.
O O O

45. A length scale  depends on the permittivity  of a dielectric material , Boltzmann constant K B  ,the
absolute temperature T  the number per unit volume n  of certain charged particles , and the charge
q  carried by each of the particles. Which of the following expression for  is dimensionally correct?
nq 2 q 2 K BT  K BT q 2 K BT
A.   B.   C.   D.   [ ]
 K BT n nq 2 n1/ 3 
46. Two capacitors A and B are connected in series with a battery as shown in fig. When switch ‘S’ is closed
and the two capacitors get charged fully, then [ ]
A. The potential difference across the plates of A is 4 V and across the plates of B is 6
V
B. The ratio of charges in A and B is 3:2
C. The ratio of electrical energies stored in A and B is 2:3
D. The potential difference across the plates of A is 6 v and across the
plates of B is 4 V
47. When a Ferro magnetic material is subjected to magnetisation and
demagnetisation cycles with a frequency of n Hz and if the loss of energy is completely used to rise
the temperature of the material then the rise in temperature of material in time‘t’ is (  is density of
material, s is specific heat of material and E0= Area of B-H curve)
[ ]

nE ot nEo nEo s s
A. B. C. D.
s st st nEot

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48. A cylindrical tube open at both ends has a frequency ‘f’ in air. The tube is dipped vertically in water so
that half of it is in water .The first overtone of the air column is now [ ]

3f 4f
A. f B. 3 f C. D.
2 3
49. Two non mixing liquids of densities  and 2  are put in a cylinder. The height of each liquid is h. A
m
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solid cylinder of length L and density  is put in this container. The cylinder floats with its axis vertical

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and length xL(x<1) in the denser liquid. The density  is equal to
. e
[ ]

em la s
l a s B. 1  x  C. 1  x 

a g
g
A. x
 
D. 1  x
a
50. An artificial satellite is moving in a circular orbit around the earth with a speed equal to half the magnitude
of escape velocity from the earth surface. If the satellite is stopped suddenly in its orbit and allowed to fall
freely onto the earth, the speed with which it hit the surface of earth is [ ]

gR 2GM gR 3GM
A. B. C. D.
R 2 2R

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51. A circular disc of mass m and radius R is set into motion on a horizontal floor with a linear speed V in

the forward direction and an angular speed   em
s
labottom most point ‘O’ of the disc is
R
in clock wise direction as shown in fig . The magnitude

a g
of total angular momentum of the disc about [ ]

mVR
A. mVR B.
2

3mVR 2
C. D. mVR
2 3

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52. A battery has an open circuit potential difference of 6 V between its terminals .when a load resistance
m .
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of 60  is connected across the battery, the power dissipated by the battery is 0.4W. The load

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resistance R, so that maximum power will be dissipated in R is [ ]

s g l a
gla A. 30  B. 60  C. 15  a D. 6 
a

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53. The network shown in the fig is a part of complete circuit. What is the potential difference (VB-VA) when
the current i is 5A and is decreasing at a rate of 103 A/s? [ ]

A. 5 V B. 15 V C. 10 V D. 20 V
54. A spherical body with radius 12 cm radiates 450W power at 500K. If the radius was halved and
temperature doubled, the power radiated is [ ]
A. 1800 W B. 450 W C. 900 W D. 225 W
55. After perfect inelastic collision between two identical balls moving with same speed in different directions,
the speed of the combined mass becomes half the initial speed. The angle between the two before
collision is [ ]
A. 900 B. 450 C. 600 D. 1200
56. A carrier wave of peak voltage 12V is used to transmit a message signal. The peak value of the modulating
signal in order to have a modulation index of 75% is [ ]
A. 3 V B. 9 V C. 6 V D. 21 V
57. If the velocity V of a particle moving along a straight line decreases linearly with its displacement ‘S’
from 20m/s to a value approaching zero at S=30m , the acceleration of the particle at S= 15m is
[ ]
2m 20 m
A. B. 2
3 s 3 s
2

2m  20 m
C. D.
3 s
2
3 s2

58. Ionisation potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 V. Hydrogen atoms in the ground state are excited by
monochromatic radiation of photon energy 12.1ev .The spectral lines emitted by hydrogen atom
according to the Bohr’s theory will be [ ]
A. One B.Two C. Three D. Four

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59. A flask contains argon and chlorine in the ratio of 2 : 1 by mass. The temperature of the mixture is 270c.
The ratio of average kinetic energy per molecule of the two gases is [ ]
(Atomic mass of argon = 39.9 u, Molecular mass of chlorine = 70.9 u)
A. 1 : 2 B. 2 : 1 C. 1 : 33 D. 1 : 1

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60. A body of mass 1kg begins to move under the action of a time dependent force F  2tiˆ  3t 2 ˆj N ,  
.co s e m
m la]
where iˆ and ĵ are unit vectors along X and Y axis. The power developed by the force at the time ‘t’ is

s e g
l a a
[

 ag 
A. 2t 3  3t 5 W 
B. 2t 2  4t 4 W  
C. 2t 3  3t 4 W  
D. 2t 2  3t 3 W

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SET-II V - SAT-’21
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SECTION - III
CHEMISTRY
61. Which artificial sweetener contains chlorine? [ ]
A. Sucralose B. Aspartame C. Alitame D. Saccharin
62. Mixture used for tips of match stick is [ ]

A. white P4  K 2Cr2O7  S B. Red P4  K 2Cr2O7  S

C. Red P4  S D. Red P4  K 2Cr2O7  S

63. Which one of the following is the correct statement? [ ]
A. Boric acid is a protonic acid
B. Beryllium exhibits coordination number 6
C. Chlorides of both Be and Al have chlorobridge structures in solid phase

D. B2 H 6  2NH 3 is known as in organic benzene

64. The number of p  d pi bonds present in Xeo3 and Xeo4 molecular respectively [ ]

A. 3, 4 B. 4, 2 C. 2, 3 D. 3, 2

65. In which of the following pairs the two species are not isostructural [ ]

A. Co 32- and No 3- B. PCl 4 and SiCl 4 C. PF5 and BrF5 D. AlF63- and SF6

66. Given E 0 3  0.72V , E 0 2  0.42V . The potential for the cell [ ]
Cr Cr Fe Fe

Cr / Cr 3 (0.1M) // Fe 2 (0.01M) / Fe is
A. 0.26V B. 0.399V C. -0.339V D. -0.26V
67. Iodoform can be prepared from all except [ ]
A. Ethyl methyl ketone B. Isopropyl alcohol
C. 3-methyl -2 butanone D. Isobutyl alcohol

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68. In the presence of peroxide HCl and HI do not give anti Markownikoff’s addition to alkenes because
A. HCl is oxidizing and HI is reducing B. All the steps are exothermic in HCl and HI [ ]
C. Both HCl and HI are storong acids D. One of the steps is endothermic is HCl and HI
69. The IUPAC name of CH 3 2 CH  CH  CH  CH  CH  CH is [ ]
m
3

m
C2 H 5
c. o
.co s e m
m
A. 2, 7- dimethyl – 3, 5 - nonadiene B. 2,7- dimethyl – 2- ethyl heptadiene

a s e g la
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C. 2 – methyl-7-ethyl-3, 5 octadiene D. 1, 1- dimethyl -6-ethyl - 2, 4 heptadiene

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70. SiCl 4 on hydrolysis form X and HCl compound ‘X’ loses water at 10000 C gives Y. Compounds X and
Y respectively are [ ]

A. H 2SiCl 6 , Sio2 B. H 4Sio 4 , Si C. Sio 2 , Si D. H 4Sio 4 , Sio2

71. Among the following the maximum equivalent character is shown by the compound

A. AlCl3 B. MgCl2 C. FeCl2 D. SnCl 2 [ ]

m
c. o
72. Identify A and B respectively in the following reaction [ ]

Br  CH  CH  Br     A s
m s
e   B  2 AcOH
la
excess hydrodlysi
Ag  oAc 
g
2 2
a ethane
A. 1, 2 - di acetoxy ethane and 1,2 - dibromo
B. 1, 2 - di acetoxy ethane and ethylene glycol
C. Ethylene glycol and glycerol
D. Ethylene glycol and glycerol

m
NaCN

co
73. CH 3CH 2 I  A   B    C The major product ‘C’ is
m .
Partial hydrolysis Br2 ; NaOH

c. oA. CH CH NH se
m
em gla
B. CH 3CH 2CH 2 NH 2 [ ]

as
3 2 2

l a
ag
CH  CH  NH
C. 3 2 D. CH 3CH 2CONH 2
CH 3

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SET-II V - SAT-’21
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74. In hydrogen atom the electron is at a distance of 4.768 A 0 from the nucleus. The angular momentum of
the electron is [ ]

h 3h 9h 1.5h
A. B. C. D.
2 2 2 2
75. Copper becomes green when exposed to moist air for a long time this is due to [ ]
A. Formation of a layer of cupric oxide on the surface of copper
B. The formation of basic copper sulphate layer on the surface of the metal
C. The formation of a layer of cupric hydroxide on the surface
D. The formation of a layer of basic carbonate of copper on the surface of copper
76. An octahedral complex with molecular composition M.5NH3.Cl.SO4 has two isomers A and B .The
solution of A gives white ppt with AgNO3 solution and the solution of B gives white ppt with BaCl2
solution. The type of isomerism exhibited by the complex is [ ]
A. Linkage isomerism B. Coordinate isomerism
C. Geometrical isomerism D. Ionisation isomerism
77. For a first order reaction A  products the concentration of A changes from 0.1 M to 0.025M in

40minutes. The rate of reaction when the concentration of A is 0.01M is [ ]
A. 1.73X10-5 M/min B. 3.47X10-4M/min C. 3.47x10-5M/min D. 1.73x10-4 M/min
78. An iron hall has a mass of 35 gms and a speed of 50 m/sec. If the speed can be measured with an
accuracy of 2% then the uncertainty in the position [ ]
A. 1.507 x10-34 m B. 1.507x 10-31 m C. 1.507x 10-33 m D. 1.507x10-32 m
79. The compressibility factor for a real gas at high pressure is [ ]

RT Pb
A. 1  B.1 C. 1  D. 1  Pb
Pb RT RT

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80. For the estimation of nitrogen 1.4g of an organic compound was digested by Kjeldhal method and the

M
evolved ammonia was absorbed in 60 ml of sulphuric acid .The unreacted acid required 20 ml of
10
M
m
c. o
sodium hydroxide for complete neutralization. The percentage of nitrogen in the compound is

m
10

c. oB. 6% s e m
A. 5%
e m C. 10% D. 3 % [
la
]

l a s a g
ag
zn
81. Phenol 
CH 3 Cl
X  
dust
Alk
 y  zAnhyAlcl 3 KMno 4
[ ]

CooH Co oH
OH OH

A. B. C. D.
Cl CH 3

o m
.
82. Which one of the following is an example of thermosetting polymer?
c [ ]

e m
s
A. Nylon 6, 6 B. Bakelite C. Neoprene D. Bunna-N

g l a
a
83. 3g of activated charcoal was added to 50 ml of acetic acid solution (0.06N) in a flask .After an hour
if was filtered and the strength of the filtrate was found to be 0.042N. The amount of acetic acid adsorbed
(per gram of charcoal) is [ ]
A. 42 mg B. 54 mg C. 18 mg D. 36 mg
84. The chemical entities present in thermosphere of the atmosphere [ ]

A. O2 , O  , NO B. O3

m
m
D. O3 , O2 , O2
.co
c. o
C. N 2 , O2 , CO2 , H 2O
m
em la se
las a g
ag

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SET-II V - SAT-’21
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85. The emf of the following three galvanic cells are represented by E1, E2 and E3 respectively
which of the following is correct [ ]

1. Zn 2 (1M ) // Cu 2 (1M ) / Cu
Zn
2. Zn (0.1M ) // Cu 2 (1M ) / Cu
Zn  2

3. Zn 2 (1M ) // Cu 2 (0.1M ) / Cu
Zn
A. E1> E2> E3 B. E3 > E2 > E1 C. E3 > E1> E2 D. E2> E1> E3

86. The equilibrium constant ( K c ) for the reaction N 2 ( g )  O2 ( g )  2 NO( g ) at temperature T is 4x10-4.

The value of K c for the reaction NO(g)  1 2 N 2(g)  1 2 O 2(g) at the same temperature is [ ]

A . 0.02 B. 2.5 x 10-2 C. 4 x 10-4 D. 50.0
87. Which pair of oxy acids of phosphorous contain P-H bonds [ ]

A. H 3 PO4 , H 3 PO3 B. H 3 PO5 , H 4 P2O7 C. H 3 PO3 , H 3 Po2 D. H 3 Po2 , HPo3

88. Accumulation of which of the following molecules in the molecules occurs as a result of vigorous excercise
A. L-Lactic acid B. Glycogen C. Pyruvic acid D. Glucose [ ]

89. Two liquids X and Y forms an ideal solution at 300k vapour pressure of the solution containing 1mol of
X and 3 mol of Y is 550 mm of Hg. At the same temperature if 1 mol of Y is further added to this solution.
Vapour pressure of the solution increased by 10mm Hg. Vapour pressure (in mm Hg) of X and Y in their
pure states will be respectively [ ]

A. 200 and 300 B. 300 and 400 C. 400 and 600 D. 500 and 600

90. For complete combustion of ethanol C2 H 5OH (l )  3O2 ( g )  2CO2 ( g )  3H 2O(l ) the amount of
heat produced as measured in bomb calorimeter is 1364.47 kj mol-1 at 250c assuming ideality the enthalpy
of combustion  c H for the reaction will be [ ]

A. -1350.50 kj mol-1 B . -1366.95 kj mol-1 C. -1361.95 kj mol-1 D. -1460.50 kj mol-1

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SECTION - IV
ENGLISH / APTITUDE
91. Neena ____ the report by monday. [ ]

A. will submit B. will have submitted C. is submitting D. will be submitting

m
c. o
92. We spent an hour discussing about his character. [ ]
m
A. on his character
c. oB. of his character C. his character D. no improvement
s e m
em la
a s
93. If A = x% of y and B = y% of x, then which of the following is true?
l a
[
g
]

ag
A. A is smaller than B. B. A is greater than B

C. A is equal to B. D. If x is smaller than y, then A is greater than B.

94. They _____ the old wall when it collapsed.

A. are painting B. was painting C. were painting D. paint [ ]

95. If log 27 = 1.431, then the value of log 9 is [ ]
m
A. 0.934 B. 0.945
c. o C. 0.954 D. 0.958

96. A man rows to a place 48 km distant and comeebackm in 14 hours. He finds that he can row 4 km with
s
the stream in the same time as 3 km againstathe stream. The rate of the stream is
l
g
[ ]

A. 1 km/hr B. 1.5 km/hr a C. 2 km/hr D. 2.5 km/hr

97. The sum of three numbers is 98. If the ratio of the first to second is 2 :3 and that of the second to the third
is 5 : 8, then the second number is [ ]

A. 20 B. 30 C. 48 D. 58

98. Speed of a boat in standing water is 9kmph and the speed of the stream is 1.5kmph. A man rows to a

o m
c
place at a distance of 105km and comes back to the starting point. The total time taken by him is

o m16 hours D. 24 hours.
m
. c eand 20% are allowed
A. B. 18 hours C. 20 hours [ ]

em a s
s respectively in their salaries, then what will be new ratio of their salaries?gl
99. The salaries A, B, C are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5. If the increments of 15%, 10%

l a a [ ]

ag A. 3 : 3 : 10 B. 10 : 11 : 20 C. 23 : 33 : 60 D. Cannot be determined

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SET-II V - SAT-’21
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100. A runs 1 time as fast as B. If A gives B a start of 80 m, how far must the winning post be so that A and
B might reach it at the same time? [ ]

A. 200 m B. 300 m C. 270 m D. 160 m

101. The fourth proportional to 5, 8, 15 is [ ]

A. 18 B. 24 C. 19 D. 20

102. None of the clerks came, _______ ?

A. didn’t B. did they C. do they D. didn’t they [ ]

Choose the suitable meaning from the options for the underlined expression.

103. We should give a wide berth to bad characters. [ ]

A. give publicity to B. not sympathies C. keep away from D. publicly condemn

Sentence improvement.

104. Two pipes A and B together can fill a cistern in 4 hours. Had they been opened separately, then B would
have taken 6 hours more than A to fill the cistern. How much time will be taken by A to fill the cistern
separately? [ ]

A. 1 hour B. 2 hours C. 6 hours D. 8 hours

105. In a 300 m race A beats B by 22.5 m or 6 seconds. B’s time over the course is [ ]

A. 86 sec B. 80 sec C.76 sec D. None of these

106. Children were excited to see a _____ of candies. [ ]

A. mint B. plague C. wisp D. prattle

107. In a 100 m race, A can beat B by 25m and B can beat C by 4m. In the same race, A can beat C by

A. 21 m B. 26 m C. 28 m D. 29 m [ ]

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Choose the correct alternative.

108. Sunitha said that she _____ on this novel for five years. [ ]

A. has been working B. had been working

m
c. o
C. have been working D. will work

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.co e m
109. A man takes twice as long to row a distance against the stream as to row the same distance in favour of

em
the stream. The ratio of the speed of the boat (in still water) and the stream is [ ]
la s
l a s a g
ag
A. 2 : 1 B. 3 : 1 C. 3 : 2 D. 4 : 3

110. He has been living here ______a month.

A. from B. since C. for D. of [ ]

Fill in the blanks with suitable relative pronouns.

111. Seats for Mathematics, Physics and Biology in a school are in the ratio 5 : 7 : 8. There is a proposal to
increase these seats by 40%, 50% and 75% respectively. What will be the ratio of new seats?

m
A. 2 : 3 : 4 B. 6 : 7 : 8
. co
C. 6 : 8 : 9 D. None of these [ ]

s em
a
112. Here is a pen ____ you lost.

l
g C. which
a
A. where B. what D. when [ ]

Choose the suitable meaning from the options for the underlined expression.

113. Bharat goes to the office _______ foot.

A. on B. by C. in D. with [ ]

114. A boatman goes 2 km against the current of the stream in 1 hour and goes 1 km along the current in

m
m .co
10 minutes. How long will it take to go 5 km in stationary water? [ ]

c. oA. 40 minutes s emmin
em115. The boy had a hair – breadth escape from the street accident.
B. 1 hour C. 1 hr 15 min D. 1 hr 30

las gla
a D. a narrow
[ ]

ag A. a lucky B. a quick C. an easy

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SET-II V - SAT-’21
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Choose the suitable meaning from the options for the underlined expression.

116. Neither the principal nor his colleagues _________ given any explanation for this. [ ]

A. has B. have C. are D. were

Fill in the blanks with the suitable collective names front he options give below.

117. He was struck ____ lightning.

A. with B. by C. for D. at [ ]

118. The clown was being laughed at by them. [ ]

A. they were laughing at the clown B. they were laughing on the clown

C. they laughed at the clown D. the clown was laughed at by them

Choose the correct alternative question tag.

119. He made a plan to murder in cold blood. [ ]

A. murder some one in sleep B. to kill a hibernating animal

C. to commit a preplanned murder D. to kill some one accidentally

Choose the opt one from the following.

120. If 40% of a number is equal to two-third of another number, what is the ratio of first number to the

second number? [ ]

A. 2 : 5 B. 3 : 7 C. 5 : 3 D. 7 : 3

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

m
m c. o
.co s e m
em la
l a s a g
ag

m
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s em
g l a
a

m
m .co
c. o se
m
s em g la
gla a
a

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SET-II V - SAT-’21
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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