CA Foundation September 2025 Suggested Answers Paper 3 Quantitative Aptitude

FOR CA FOUNDATION EXAM PREPARATION

CA Foundation 2025
Suggested Answers ·
Paper 3 Quantitative
Aptitude
EXAM YEAR TYPE

CA Foundation 2025 Suggested Answers
SUBJECT DATE

Paper 3 Quantitative Aptitude September 2025

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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PAPER – 3: QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
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All Question are compulsory.

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Time: 2 Hours
s
Marks: 100

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1.
l aThe value of x in logx (4)+logx (16)+logx (64) =12 is _______________
a
ag (A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
2. XYZ invested ` 1,68,000 in a business. After a few months, MNP joined in
the business by investing ` 1,12,000 in the business. At the end of year, the
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total profit was divided between them in the ratio 2:1. After how many
months, did MNP join the business?
.
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(A) 3

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(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 9

 
3. The value of log a  a a a a  is _________________
 
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(A)

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8
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c. o se
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15
(B)

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16

las 15
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(C)

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8
3
(D)
4

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FOUNDATION EXAMINATION: SEPTEMBEER 2025

1 1
4. The ratio of 35 : 140 is equal to the ratio _________________
2 3
(A) 4:3
(B) 2:1
(C) 5:4
(D) 3:4
5. If α and β are the roots of the equation x2-x-6=0, then the value of α3+β3+
α2+β2+ α+β is equal to ______________
(A) 35
(B) 29
(C) 31
(D) 33
2
 x   x 
6. The roots of the equation   − 5 +6 =0 are:
 x −1   x −1 
(A) 2, 3/2
(B) 3,1/2
(C) 2,1/3
(D) 3, 2/3
7. If α and β are the roots of the equation 2x2-6x+3=0, then the equation with
α β
the roots and is--------------------
β α
(A) x2+4x +1=0
(B) x2-4x +1=0
(C) x2-4x -1=0
(D) x2+4x -1=0

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QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

5x x
8. Which of the following is a solution of the inequality ≤ −5 ?
3 6

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10
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(A) (-∞,- ]

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3

(-. ∞,- s e
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(B)
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)

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3

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(C) (-∞,- ]
3
8
(D) (-∞,- )
3
5 − 2x x
9. The number of solutions of ≤ − 5 >3-2x are ___________, where x
4 8
is a real number.
(A) Infinitely many
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(B) Only two
(C) Exactly one
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(D) No solution
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10. The region specified by the inequalities 10x+29y≥40 and 15x-4y≤25
includes the point __________
(A) (1,1.25)
(B) (3,2.25)
(C) (2.5,2.5)
(D) (4,1.25)
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11. The compound interest on ` 1,00, 000 compounded quarterly, for 9 months
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at 4% per annum is ` _______________

s em (A) 3010.1
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(B) 3030.1
(C) 3330.1
(D) 3003.1

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FOUNDATION EXAMINATION: SEPTEMBEER 2025

12. The difference between the compound interest and the simple interest on a
certain sum at 12% per annum for 2 years is ` 90, when the interest is
compounded annually. Then the sum is ` ____________
(A) 6150
(B) 6050
(C) 6350
(D) 6250
13. A machine is depreciated at the rate of 15% on the reducing balance.
The original cost of machine was ` 2,00,000. In approximately how many
years, the value of machine was ` 54,000? (Given: 0.854 = 0.522)
(A) 9
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 7
14. Mohan invests ` 25,000 every year starting from today for next 5 years
Interest rate is 7% per annum compounded annually. The future value of
the annuity is `__________. (Given (1+0.07)5 = 1.40255)
(A) 1,46,768
(B) 1,43,768
(C) 1,45,768
(D) 1,44,768
15. Mr. X borrowed ` 6000 from Mr. Y at 10% per annum simple interest.
After two years Mr. X wanted to repay this amount, Mr. Y is insisted on
paying the amount at compound interest at the same rate compounded
annually. How much extra does Mr. X have to pay?
(A) ` 60
(B) ` 1260
(c) ` 1200
(d) ` 80

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16. If ` 2,470 is obtained as an interest in 4 years and 4 months at the rate
of 3% per annum simple interest rate in bank deposit, how much
amount was deposited in `?
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(A) 17,000

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(B)
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18,000
e 19,000 la s
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(C)
a g
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The compound interest of ` 4,900 is ` 1661 for 2 years at a certain rate
of interest, compounded annually. What is the rate of interest per
annum in percentage?
(A) 19.71
(B) 17.71

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(C) 13.71
(D) 15.71
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18. If Mr. XYZ is investing ` 86,000m
interest will be payable atas
e in a bank fixed deposit scheme where
l
what will be the effectivegrate
12% per annum, compounded half-yearly,

(A) 12.36%
a of interest in a year?
(B) 12.24%
(C) 12.12%
(D) 12.48%
19. Ms. Y invested ` 2,00,000 in a mutual fund equity scheme. She redeemed

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entire investment after 96 months and received ` 6,00,000 after

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redemption. What was the Compound Annual Growth Rate (CAGR) in
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percentage? (Given: 1.14724 =1.732)

s em (A) 14.72
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a (C) 13.72
(D) 12.72

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FOUNDATION EXAMINATION: SEPTEMBEER 2025

20. A loan of ` 5,000 is lent for three years at the rate of 10% per annum,
compounded semi-annually. The future value of the money is
` ________ (Given: 1.056 = 1.34)
(A) 6,500
(B) 6,600
(C) 6,700
(D) 6,800
21. One person wants to have ` 20,000 at the end of six years. Hence, he
deposits ` _________ (rounded in rupee) in a fund that pays 3% per
annum, compounded annually. (Given : 1.036 = 1.194)
(A) 17,000
(B) 17,250
(C) 17,750
(D) 16,750
22. Suppose you deposit ` 1,000 today, ` 2,000 after one year from today
and 3,000 after two years from today, in a deposit that pays 10% per
annum, compounded annually. What is the balance in the deposit at the
end of two year in just after deposit of ` 3,000?
(A) 6,000
(B) 6,410
(C) 6,600
(D) 6,800
23. You are interested in an investment of ` 5,000 in a fund that promises
` 50 at the end of each year, forever. What is the annual interest rate on
this investment?
(A) 1%
(B) 2%
(C) 1.5%
(D) 2.5%

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QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

24. An investment was priced at ` 100 per share in year 0, priced at 150 реr
share in the end of the first year, and priced ` 200 per share in the end
of second year. What is the Compound Annual Growth Rate (CAGR) of
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the investment?
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(A)
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21.42%
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(B)
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ag (D) 51.42%
(C) 41.42%

25. How many different words from the letters of the word MATHEMATICS
can be formed so that all the vowels always come together in any word?
(A) 10080
(B) 120960

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(C) 4989600
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(D) 20160
26. Find n if nP5 =20 nP3
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(A) 7 a g
(B) 8
(C) 9
(D) 10
27. In a school, for a class monitor selection, there are 6 candidates, and

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students need to choose up to 3 monitors. A student can vote for 1 or 2

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or 3 candidates. In how many ways a student can vote?
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c. o (A) 41
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(B) 42

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(C) 43
(D) 44

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FOUNDATION EXAMINATION: SEPTEMBEER 2025

28. Different words are made with rearrangement of letters of the word
“TROPICAL" in a way that the vowels occupy odd places when counted
from left. How many such words are there?
(A) 720
(B) 1440
(C) 2880
(D) 2160
1 1- 3b 1- 6b
29. The common difference of the arithmetic progression , , ….
3 3 3
is ___________.
(A) -b
(B) b
(C) -3b
(D) 3b
30. If the numbers x, 2x + 2 and 3x + 3 are in the geometric progression,
then the fourth term of the progression is __________.
(A) 27
(B) -27
(C) 13.5
(D) -13.5
31. The sum of all natural numbers between 200 and 600 those are divisible
by 13 is __________.
(A) 12493
(B) 14493
(C) 16493
(D) 18493

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QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

32. The sum of first two terms of a geometric progression is 14 and its
infinite sum i.e. sum up to infinity is 32. What is the common ratio of the
progression?
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(A) 0.5

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(B)
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0.75
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(C)
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(D) 0.25
a relation R, aRb represents that a is related to b. If for all a, b, c, aRb
and bRc gives that aRc, then the relation is __________.
(A) Reflexive
(B) Symmetric
(C) Transitive

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(D) Asymmetric

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34. Let S = {a, b, c, d, e}. The number of non-empty proper subsets of S is

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___________.
(A) 30
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(B) 31 a
(C) 32
(D) 28
1 y +1
35. If f ( y ) =
= and g( y ) then fog(y)= _____
1+ y y

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(A)

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2 y +1

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2y
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(B)

la a
y +1

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2 y +1
y

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FOUNDATION EXAMINATION: SEPTEMBEER 2025

y +1
(D)
y
2 + 3x
36. The inverse of the function f ( x) = , by taking f(x) as y, is _____
x+5
2 + 5y
(a)
y+3
2 − 5y
(b)
y+3
2 − 5y
(c)
y −3
2 + 5y
(d)
y −3
dy
37. Find for x2y2+y = 0.
dx
2
dy 2y x
(A) = 2 2
dx 2 y x + 1
2
dy −2 y x
(B) = 2
dx 2 yx + 1
2
dy −2 y x + 1
(C) =
dx 2 y 2 x2
2
dy 2 y x − 1
(D) = 2 2
dx 2 y x

x3
38. The cost function of an organisation as C(x) = 500-5x + , where x 2
3
denotes the output. Find the level of output at which marginal cost is the
minimum.
(A) 5

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QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

(B) 4
(C) 10
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(D) 6
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39. The value of ∫ dx is __________.

s e la
x+2
a a g
0

l 4- log 6 - log 2
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(A) e e

(C) 4+ loge 6

(D) 4+ log 6 - log 2
10 10
4
2x
40. The value of ∫ dx is __________.
1 + x2
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3

16
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(A) log

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10

(B)
17
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a
log
10
16
(C) log
9
17
(D) log
9
41. Complete the given series: 0, 6, 24, 60, 120, 210, ___________.

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(A) 240

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(B) 290
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(C) 336

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42. Find the odd one out in the series: 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, a
(D) 504

ag 37, 50, 64.
(A) 17
(B) 26

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FOUNDATION EXAMINATION: SEPTEMBEER 2025

(C) 37
(D) 64
43. If in a certain language, MADRAS is coded as NBESBT. How is DELHI
coded in that language?
(A) EMFIJ
(B) EFMIJ
(C) EFMKJ
(D) EFJMI
44. In a certain code, GLAMOUR is written as IJCNMWP and MISRULE is
written as OGUSSNC, then how will MUSICAL be written in that code?
(A) OSUJECN
(B) OSUHACJ
(C) OSUJACJ
(D) OSUJABJ
45. In the following series, one term is wrong. Find out the wrong term.
48, 50, 82, 170, 290
(A) 48
(B) 50
(C) 82
(D) 170
46. Suresh started walking 4 km west from his office. Then he turned right
and walked 2 km. Again he turned right and walked 2 km to reach his
house. In which direction is Suresh's house from his office?
(A) South
(B) South-East
(C) North-West
(D) East

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47. Mr. PQR walked 50 metres towards east, took a right turn and walked
40 metres. Then he took a left turn and walked 30 metres. In which
direction is he now from the starting point?
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(A) North-East

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(B)
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(C)
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Starting from point A, PQ walked 40 metres south. She turned left and
walked 40 metres. She then turned left and walked 40 metres. She again
turned left and walked 60 metres and reached point B. How far and in
which direction is the point B from the point A?
(A) 20 metres West
(B) 20 metres East
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(C) 30 metres West

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(D) 10 metres West

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49. Two persons, P and Q, start walking from a meeting point towards

a
North. After walking 100 metres, P turns left and Q turns right. P, after
walking 50 metres, takes a left turn and walks 150 metres. But Q walks
30 metres, turns to his right and walks 90 metres. What is the shortest
distance between P and Q now in metres?
(A) 80
(B) 90
(C) 100

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(D) 110
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c. o 50. Atohunter m
e 90 metres.
is chasing a deer, by running 200 metres in east direction,
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l to left, runs 120
his right, runs 100 metres and turns to his right, runs

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a He finds the deer in
Turning to his left, he runs 50 metres and then turns

ag
metres. Finally, he turns to left and runs 60 metres.
front of him at 100 metres. In which direction is the hunter standing with
respect to the deer now?
(A) South

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FOUNDATION EXAMINATION: SEPTEMBEER 2025

(B) North
(C) East
(D) West
51. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a circle facing the centre. A is
facing D. C is left of A and right of E. D is between B and E. F is right of
A. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
(A) F and C are neighbours.
(B) F is between A and B.
(C) F and A are neighbours.
(D) B is left of D.
52. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in two rows with 3 persons in
each row facing same side. C is sitting in the middle of first row. B is
sitting in the left of C. E is also sitting in the middle. A is sitting in the
right of E. F is sitting in the right of C. Who is not sitting at one of the
ends of any row?
(A) A
(B) E
(C) D
(D) F
53. Six people, A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a hexagonal shape. All the
sides of the hexagon so formed are of same length. A is not adjacent to
B or C; D is not adjacent to C or E; B and C are adjacent; F is in the
middle of D and C. Which of the following is not a correct neighbour
pair?
(A) A and F
(B) D and F
(C) B and E
(D) C and F

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54. Seven persons with names T, B, L, A, P, Z and R are standing in a row,
facing East. It is given that T is to the right of R; A is between B and Z, L,
who is third to the left of B, is at the end; R is fourth to the right of L.
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Who is at the immediate right of T?
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(A) Z
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(B)

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ag (D) R
55. Eight friends with names P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting on a bench
and facing North. U is sitting between S and V; Q is sitting between W
and P; T is third to the left of V; W is third left of R; V is sitting at one of
the corners. Who is sitting immediate right of W?
(A) P

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(B) Q
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(C) R
(D) T
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a g the son of daughter of the father of her uncle.
56. A girl introduced a boy as
The boy is girl's
(A) Father
(B) Son
(C) Uncle
(D) Cousin/Brother

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57. A and B are Brothers. C and D are Sisters. A's son is D's Brother. How is B

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related to C?
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(A) Father

la se
las (B) Brother
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(D) Uncle

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FOUNDATION EXAMINATION: SEPTEMBEER 2025

58. Ms. X told Ms. Y, "The girl I met yesterday at the market was the
youngest daughter of the brother-in-law of my friend's mother." How is
the girl related to Ms. X's friend?
(A) Cousin
(B) Daughter
(C) Niece
(D) Aunt
59. There are six members, named as, A, B, C, D, E and F. It is given that E is
the brother of A's husband; F is the mother of E; B is the daughter of D
and A and is the granddaughter of C. How is C related to E?
(A) Son
(B) Father
(C) Brother
(D) Grandfather
60. It is given that a person named as A is married to B; the person E is a
brother of D and the person B is the mother of C whose sister is D. How
is D related to A?
(A) Sister
(B) Aunt
(C) Daughter
(D) Granddaughter
61. Sampling method which belongs to the category of Mixed sampling is
(A) Systematic Sampling
(B) Simple Random Sampling
(C) Stratified Sampling
(D) Multi-stage Sampling
62. Number of students in a college is an example of
(A) An attribute

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(B) A discrete variable
(C) A continuous variable
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(D)
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A constant
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63.
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For manifold classification, this method of presentation of data cannot
s e m
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e Textual presentation
be recommended:
la
l a s
(A)
a g
ag (B) Tabular presentation
(C) Bar Diagram
(D) Pie Chart
64. The most commonly used distribution is ______ in which the maximum
frequency is at the central part and the frequency decreases when one
moves away from the central part on either the left side or the right side.

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(A) Bell-shaped curve

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(B) U-shaped curve
(C) J-shaped curve
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(D) Mixed curve
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65. Which of the followings is not a basic principle of sample survey?
(A) Principle of Inertia
(B) Principle of Optimization
(C) Principle of Large Numbers
(D) Law of Statistical Regularity

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66. After a singing competition on a live TV show, the winner is selected
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according to the number of likes each candidate has received on a

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messaging app. This method of data collection is known as ____________

s em sampling.
g la
gla (A) Random a
a (B) Probabilistic
(C) Purposive

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FOUNDATION EXAMINATION: SEPTEMBEER 2025

(D) Multi-Stage
67. A bar chart can be drawn for the data having numbers on
(A) Students of various disciplines
(B) Persons of different age groups
(C) Sales of a commodity over a year
(D) Temperature recorded during a month.
68. An investigator collects information on salaries received by 1000
persons. From this collection, the data on women are extracted. Now the
data is called ________ data.
(A) Primary
(B) Secondary
(C) Census
(D) Ordinal
69. Two sales-persons present their numbers of sales per week for a month.
An appropriate diagram that can be drawn for this data is _____________
(A) Histogram
(B) Pie chart
(C) Ogive
(D) Adjacent bar chart
70. If X and Y are related by 4X+3Y+5=0 and Mean of X is 10, then the
Mean of Y is
(A) -23
(B) -15
(C) -20
(D) 23
71. For a moderately skewed distribution of marks in English for a group of
145 students the mean marks and median marks were found to be 55.10
and 52.40, respectively. The modal marks are -

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QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

(A) 47
(B) 42
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(C) 53.1
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(D)
c. o
52.2
e m
e m are two groups with 10 and 12 observations and harmonic mean las
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of the two groups are 3 and 5 respectively, then the combined Harmonic g
72. If there

g l a a
a (A) 8.0
mean is

(B) 2.0
(C) 3.8
(D) 4.0
73. Best measure of Dispersion for open-end classification is the _______,

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which does not change with the change of _________.
(A)
m
Quartile Deviation, Scale.
(B) Standard Deviation, Scalee
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(C) Quartile Deviation,gOrigin
a
(D) Standard Deviation, Origin
74. Coefficient of range of 84, 93, 53, 70, 82, 65 is
(A) 28.38
(B) 27.39
(C) 26.75

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(D) 29.31
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m
s em g l a
la a
(A) 2.48

ag (B) 0.21
(C) 0.31
(D) 0.25

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FOUNDATION EXAMINATION: SEPTEMBEER 2025

76. Find the Coefficient of variation for the following numbers; 7,5,9,3,6
(A) 33.33
(B) 66.66
(C) 3
(D) 300
77. A set contains seven numbers whose average is 12. The average of four
greater numbers is 18 and the average of four smaller numbers is 8.
Which of the followings is the value of one of the numbers?
(A) 12
(B) 16
(C) 18
(D) 20
78. If the sum of ten values is 20 and sum of squares of these values is 80,
then the standard deviation is __________.
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 1/2
(D) 4
79. A data set has first eleven positive multiples of 6. The semi inter-quartile
range is __________.
(A) 12
(C) 18
(B) 24
(D) 36
80. The number of tosses of a coin, that are needed so that the probability
of getting at least one head is 0.875, is
(A) 2
(C) 4

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QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

(B) 3
(D) 5
m
81.
m
Two-person X and Y appear in an interview for two vacancies for the
c. o
.co m
same post. The probability of X's selection is 1/5 and that of Y's

m s e
la
selection is 1/3. The probability that none of them will be selected is

s e 7/15 g
l a
(A)
a
ag (B) 8/15
(C) 9/15
(D) 10/15
82. A number is selected at random from the first 50 natural numbers. What
is the probability that it would be either a two-digit prime number or a
composite number lying between 5 and 40?

m
(A) 0.54
(B) 0.48
. co
(C) 0.64
s em
(D) 0.72
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83. a
Some dice with six faces have numbers written from Four to Nine. Two
such dice are thrown simultaneously. Find the probability that the sum
of numbers on the two dice would be 14 or less.
(A) 11/18
(B) 13/18
(C) 1/6

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c
(D) 2/9
m components A, B and C are manufactured separately .and then
c. o 84. Three s e mthe three
em aA, 4 percent of
assembled into a finished product. While producing
s g l
la component B and 1 percent of component C are a
components, it is found that 5 percent of component

ag defective. What is the
probability that the assembled product is free from defects?
(A) 0.75
(B) 0.8
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FOUNDATION EXAMINATION: SEPTEMBEER 2025

(C) 0.85
(D) 0.9
85. Two persons are playing a set of matches. The winner of 4 matches is
declared as the winner. Any player has 50% chance to win a match. The
probability that the game comes to an end at the fourth match is _______.
(A) 5/8
(B) 4/8
(C) 3/8
(D) 1/8
86. The Mode of binomial distribution B (7,1/3) is
(A) 3
(B) 2
(C) 7/3
(D) 8/3
87. An emergency room receives an average of 3 patients per hour. What is
the probability that exactly 2 patients arrive in an hour? (Given: e0 = 1,
e- 1 = 0.367, e- 2 = 0.135, e- 3 = 0.049, e- 4 = 0.018, e- 5 = 0.0067)
(A) 0.22
(B) 0.3
(C) 0.27
(D) 0.25
88. If a binomial distribution has n = 20 and p = 0.3 what is its variance?
(A) 4.2
(B) 5.6
(C) 3.4
(D) 2.9

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89. It is given that X has normal distribution with mean zero and standard
deviation one. Also given that P [- 2 < X < 2] = 0.95, P[- 2 < X < - 1.5]
= 0.045. Find the probability for P[0 < x < 1.5].
m
m c. o
co
(A) 0.63

. e m
(B)
m
0.53
e 0.33 la s
l a s
(C)
a g
a90.g The
(D) 0.43
probability mass function of a distribution is given below in a
tabular form:

x 0 1 2 3 4
p(x) k 2k + k 2
3k 2k + k 2
k
Where k is a non-negative constant. The median of the distribution is

m
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(A) 3k

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(B) 2
(C) 2k
l a s
(D) 3
a g
91. For a group of students, the sum of squares of differences in ranks for
Maths and Physics marks are found to be 60, which is 120 times the
value of rank correlation coefficient. How many students are there in the
group?
(A) 8
(B) 10

o m
c
(C) 9
m m.
c. o 92. If(D)two12variables move in the same direction i.e. an increasese(or
em l a
s
decrease)
on the part of one variable introduces an increase g
l a a (or decrease) on the

ag
part of the other variable, then the two variables are known to be
(A) Positive correlation
(B) Negative correlation

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FOUNDATION EXAMINATION: SEPTEMBEER 2025

(C) Zero correlation
(D) Curvilinear correlation
93. If m + 3x=10 and 2y + 5n=25 and regression coefficient of y on x is 0.80,
what is the regression coefficient of n on m?
(A) -0.106
(B) 9.375
(C) 0.106
(D) 0.0106
94. If the regression coefficient byx is greater than one, then the regression
coefficient bxy
(A) cannot be less than one
(B) cannot be greater than one
(C) can be equal to one
(D) can be equal to zero
95. The sum of squares of the differences between two ranks awarded by
two judges on 10 candidates is _______ if the rank correlation coefficient
is 0.8.
(A) 44
(B) 55
(C) 66
(D) 33
96. Two indices that is current on base and base on current should be
reciprocals of each other in
(A) Unit test
(B) Time reversal test
(C) Circular test
(D) Average weighted test

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97. If Σp0q0 = 160.7 and Σp1q0 = 178.6, then the cost of living index is
(A) 111.14
m
(B)
m
93.10
c. o
(C)
c. o
104.71
s e m
(D) m105.7 a
s e l
98. laWhich sampling technique can be used for the construction of Indexag
ag numbers?
(A) Systematic sampling
(B) Quota sampling
(C) Cluster sampling
(D) Random sampling
99. From the year 2015 to 2025, Consumer price index increased from 125
m
co
to 196. During this period, salary of the employees as per 7th pay
.
em
commission recommendations was revised from ` 25,000 to ` 37,250. In

s
real terms, an employee should get following amount as an additional

g l a
amount to maintain his previous standard of living:
(A) ` 1,965 a
(B) ` 1,950
(C) ` 1,945
(D) ` 14,200
100. If the consumer price index number is 750, then the purchasing power of
one rupee is _______.

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(A) 12.5 paise
m .
c. o (B) 15 paise
se
m
s em (C) 13.3 paise
g la
gla (D) 16.5 paise a
a

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FOUNDATION EXAMINATION: SEPTEMBEER 2025

Answer Key

1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (D)
6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (A) 9. (A) 10. (A)
11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (C) 14. None of 15. (A)
the
options
were
correct*
16. (C) 17. (D) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (C)
21. (D) 22. (B) 23. (A) 24. (C) 25. (B)
26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (C) 29. (A) 30. (D)
31. (A) 32. (B) 33. (C) 34. (A) 35. (A)
36. (C) 37. (B) 38. (A) 39. (B) 40. (B)
41. (C) 42. (D) 43. (B) 44. (C) 45. (A)
46. (C) 47. (C) 48. (A) 49. (C) 50. (A)
51. (A) 52. (B) 53. (A) 54. (C) 55. (B)
56. (D) 57. (D) 58. (A) 59. (B) 60. (C)
61. (A) 62. (B) 63. (A) 64. (A) 65. (C)
66. (C) 67. (A) 68. (B) 69. (D) 70. (B)
71. (A) 72. (C) 73. (C) 74. (B) 75. (B)
76. (A) 77. (D) 78. (B) 79. (C) 80. (B)
81. (B) 82. (D) 83. (B) 84. (D) 85. (D)
86. (B) 87. (A) 88. (A) 89. (D) 90. (B)
91. (C) 92. (A) 93. (C) 94. (B) 95. (D)
96. (B) 97. (A) 98. (D) 99. (B) 100. (C)

*Correct answer is 1,53,832.

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