RPF Constable 2025 Question Paper 18 Mar All Shifts (in English)

FOR RPF CONSTABLE EXAM PREPARATION

RPF Constable 2025
Question Paper · All
Shifts English
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT DATE

RPF Constable 2025 Question Paper All Shifts English 18 Mar

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Exam Date 18/03/2025
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Centre Name iON Digital Zone iDZ Kovilambakkam
Exam Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
* Note
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.
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Section : Arithmetic
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Q.1 The HCF of 36, 45 and 54 is _____.
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Ans 1. 12

2. 9

3. 24

4. 18

Q.2 Under an offer at a saree shop, customers receive 3 sarees free with the purchase of 5
sarees. Find the discount available to the customers.
Ans 1. 36.5%

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2. 37.5%

3. 34.5%

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4. 35.5%

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Q.3 Arrange the given quotients in ascending order.
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1) 876.48÷83
2) 171.74÷62
3) 369.24÷17
Ans 1. 3,2,1

2. 1,2,3

3. 3,1,2

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4. 2,1,3

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Q.4 2% of 4% of a number is what percentage of that number?
Ans
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1. 8
s e
s e 2. 6
g l a
g l a 3. 0.008 a
a 4. 0.08

Q.5 20% of a number is more than 20% of 530 by 170. The number is:
Ans 1. 1230

2. 1380

3. 1480

4. 1430
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 1 of 60

Q.6 The population of Pune in 2023 and 2024 was 71,66,000 and 73,45,850, respectively.
What was the percentage increase in the population from 2023 to 2024? (Rounded off to
one decimal place)
Ans 1. 2.5%

2. 4%

3. 9.8%

4. 1.8%

Q.7 Veer can do a piece of work in 6 hours. Manoj can do it in 24 hours. With the assistance
of Anand, they completed the work in 3 hours. In how many hours can Anand alone do
it?
Ans 1. 7

2. 10

3. 8

4. 9

Q.8 The average of first 112 even numbers is
Ans 1. 113.5

2. 114

3. 113

4. 112.5

Q.9 What is the compound interest (in ₹) on ₹1,900 at 5% per annum for 2 years,
compounded annually?
Ans 1. 198.50

2. 207.80

3. 194.75

4. 188.90

Q.10 If a vendor offers a discount of 20% on the marked price of his goods and thus ends up
selling at 120% of the cost price, what was the percentage markup?
Ans 1. 40%

2. 55%

3. 45%

4. 50%

Q.11 9 men can complete a piece of work in 20 days while 4 women can do it in 15 days. In
how many days can 5 women and 3 men complete it?
Ans 1. 6 days

2. 10 days

3. 9 days

4. 5 days

Q.12 The value of

Ans 1. 1086

2. 1083

3. 1091

4. 1088

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 2 of 60

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Q.13 If the 7-digit number 689K348 is divisible by 9, then the value of K is:
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Ans 1. 5

. e m
m 2. 6
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se 3. 7
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4. 8

Q.14 If 8 , 38 , 60 , and y are in proportion, then the value of y is:
Ans 1. 285

2. 284

3. 289

4. 290
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Q.15 Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 24 minutes and 32 minutes, respectively. Both the
pipes are opened together, but after 8 minutes pipe A is turned off. What is the total time
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required to fill the tank?
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Ans
s
1. 24 min 36 sec

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2. 29 min 20 sec

3. 20 min 29 sec

4. 10 min 40 sec

Q.16 The volume (in cm3) of a wire of diameter 10 cm and length 56 m is:

Ans 1. 441000

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2. 440700

3. 440000
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4. 440400
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Q.17 ag
In what ratio should sugar costing ₹71 per kg be mixed with sugar costing ₹29 per kg so
that by selling the mixture at ₹32.4 per kg, there is a profit of 8%?
Ans 1. 2 : 40

2. 3 : 43

3. 3 : 40

4. 1 : 41

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Q.18 An amount of ₹301 is divided among three persons in the ratio of 6 : 17 : 5. The

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difference between the largest and the smallest shares (in ₹) in the distribution is:

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Ans 1. 130

e m
e m 2. 153

l as
l as 3. 150
ag
ag 4. 129

Q.19 A lunch box has a length of 20 cm, a width of 12 cm and a height of 8 cm. Find the
volume of the lunch box.
Ans 1. 192 cm3

2. 182 cm3

3. 1820 cm3

4. 1920 cm3

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 3 of 60

Q.20 Find the value of where

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4. 0

Q.21 Evaluate: 41 - [36 - {48 ÷ 2 - (6 - 9 ÷ 3) ÷ 3}]
Ans 1. 28

2. 29

3. 27

4. 30

Q.22 Find the greatest 5-digit number that is exactly divisible by 15, 18, 21.
Ans 1. 99660

2. 99540

3. 98910

4. 99999

Q.23 A man riding on a bicycle at a speed of 50 km/h crosses a bridge in 39 minutes. Find the
length of the bridge?
Ans 1. 30.3 km

2. 35.9 km

3. 32.5 km

4. 30.4 km

Q.24 A person sells two laptops at ₹24,000 each. He gets 20% profit on the first laptop and
incurs 20% loss on the other. What is the net percentage profit or loss?
Ans 1. 2% Loss

2. 2% Profit

3. 4% Profit

4. 4% Loss

Q.25

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.26 A car travels 207 km in the first hour and 51 km in the second hour. What is the average
speed (in km/h) of the car for the whole journey?
Ans 1. 124

2. 122

3. 129

4. 120

Q.27 The average of the marks of 15 students in a class is 40. If the marks of each student
are doubled, find the new average?
Ans 1. 80

2. 15

3. 30

4. 40

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 4 of 60

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Q.28 Diya has to reach Surat which is 804 km away in 24 hours. His starting speed for 9
m
hours was 58 km/hr. For the next 162 km his speed was 54km/hr. By what speed he

. co must travel now so as to reach Surat in decided time of 24hours?

s e m
m Ans 1. 4 km/hr
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se 2. 10 km/hr
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3. 16 km/hr

4. 12 km/hr

Q.29 A 555 m long train crosses a man walking at a speed of 3.4 km/h in the opposite
direction in 9 seconds. What is the speed (in km/h) of the train?
Ans 1. 216.4

2. 222.1

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3. 213.6

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4. 218.6

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Q.30
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A sum, when invested at 10% simple interest per annum, amounts to ₹3120 after 2
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years. What is the simple interest (in ₹) on the same sum at the same rate of interest in
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2 years?
Ans 1. 260

2. 2080

3. 1040

4. 520

Q.31 The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 77 and the third
number is 125. Find the average of the remaining two numbers?

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Ans 1. 189

2. 188

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3. 202
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4. 203
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Q.32
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Find the value of

Ans 1. 74

2. 70

3. 62

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4. 68

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Q.33 If the hypotenuse and base of a right-angled triangle are 65 cm and 60 cm, respectively,

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find the perimeter of the triangle.
s e
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Ans 1. 150 cm

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g l a 2. 100 cm
a
a 3. 195 cm

4. 175 cm

Q.34 In what ratio should sugar costing ₹36 per kg be mixed with sugar costing ₹13 per kg so
that by selling the mixture at ₹15.4 per kg, there is a profit of 10%?
Ans 1. 2 : 21

2. 1 : 22

3. 2 : 20
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4. 2 : 24

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 5 of 60

Q.35 The population of insects in a colony 2 years ago was 12,000. If the growth rate of the
population is 5%, what is the present population of insects in the colony?
Ans 1. 13,215

2. 13,230

3. 13,210

4. 13,225

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.36 If ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘−’ means ‘÷’, ‘×’ means ‘−’ and ‘÷’ means ‘+’, then what will come in
place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?
8 + 2 × 4 − 4 ÷ 16 = ?
Ans 1. 20

2. 26

3. 31

4. 18

Q.37 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. MIO

2. IEJ

3. QMR

4. GCH

Q.38 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
13 - 5 - 8
34 - 8 - 26
Ans 1. 78 - 8 - 72

2. 16 - 4 - 8

3. 45 - 8 - 34

4. 25 - 5 - 20

Q.39 Select the triad that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two triads given
below. Both triads follow the same pattern.

EG – IK – MO
BD – FH – JL
Ans 1. HI – MP – SU

2. NP – QR – SU

3. AC – EG – IK

4. GI – JL – MN

Q.40 Each of B, R, O, K, E, N and S has a holiday on a different day of a week, starting from
Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week. Only two people have holiday
between R and B. Only two people have holiday before R. Only three people have
holiday between R and S. Only one person has holiday between K and E. O has holiday
immediately before K. How many people have holiday after N?
Ans 1. Three

2. Two

3. Zero

4. One
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 6 of 60

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Q.41 In a certain code language, ‘India has many seasons’ is coded as ‘so to po vo’ and ‘I like
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spring and summer seasons’ is coded as ‘vo ko ro no lo no’. How is ‘seasons’ coded in

. co the given language?

s e m
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a
se 2. no
ag l
3. vo

4. lo

Q.42 What will be the value of the following expression if the ‘+’ and the ‘÷’ signs are
interchanged?
24 + 8 ÷ 4 × 5 − 7 ÷ 2 × 2 + 1
Ans 1. 12

2. 29
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3. 20
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4. 34

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Q.43 In a certain code language,
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A + B means ‘A is the mother of B’,
A − B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
A × B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
and A ÷ B means ‘A is the father of B’.

How is E related to R if ‘E + N × P ÷ Q − R’?
Ans 1. Mother

2. Wife's mother

3. Mother's mother

4. Father's mother
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Q.44
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What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

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la
768 384 192 96 48 ?
Ans 1. 24

2. 36 ag
3. 6

4. 12

Q.45 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.
WQA : XRB
TRO : USP

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Ans 1. PAS : QBR

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2. VDF : UEG

m 3. MED : NFC
s e
s e g l a
g l a 4. PER : QFS
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a Q.46 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
Ans 1. RT - WO

2. UW - ZS

3. OQ - TL

4. LN - QI

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 7 of 60

Q.47 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.

APEX - EAPX - XEPA
GREW - EGRW - WERG
Ans 1. SAKE - SKAE - EKAS

2. MEAN - AMEN - EANM

3. FIRN - RFIN - NRIF

4. KING - IKNG - GINK

Q.48 Seven friends, Q, R, S, T, W, X and Y, are sitting around a circular table facing the centre
of the table. Only two people sit between Q and W when counted from the left of Q. R
sits fourth to the left of Q. S sits fourth to the right of W. X is not an immediate
neighbour of S or Q. T is not an immediate neighbour of X. How many people sit
between R and T when counted from the right of T?
Ans 1. Three

2. Four

3. Zero

4. Two

Q.49 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows. Counting to
be done from left to right only. (All numbers are single-digit numbers only.)

(Left) 8 4 2 5 9 4 3 5 1 4 6 7 2 1 7 6 7 9 5 4 1 3 6 2 9 7 6 7 9 5 (Right)

How many such even digits are there each of which is immediately preceded by an even
digit and also immediately followed by an even digit?
Ans 1. Four

2. One

3. Two

4. Three

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 8 of 60

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Q.50 Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?)
m
to logically complete the following series.

. co s e m
m a
se ag l

Ans

1.

m
m .co
m .co s em
s e l a
2.
l a ag
ag

3.

m
m .co
s e
g la
4.
a

Q.51 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
Some spoon is plate.
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Some plate is bowl.
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No bowl is glass.
Conclusions:
e m
e mI) Some spoon is glass.
II) Some plate is glass.
l as
l as III) Some plate is not glass
ag
ag Ans 1. Both I and III

2. Only II

3. Either II or III

4. Only III

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Q.52 Harry starts from Point A and drives 8 km towards south. He then takes a left turn,
drives 5 km, turns left and drives 11 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 13 km. He
takes a final left turn, drives 3 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
90 degrees turns only unless specified)
Ans 1. 8 km to the east

2. 5 km to the east

3. 6 km to the east

4. 7 km to the east

Q.53 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All bands are threads.
All bands are ropes.
Some ropes are wires.
Conclusions:
(I): Some wires are bands.
(II): Some ropes are threads.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

3. Only conclusion (II) follows.

4. Only conclusion (I) follows.

Q.54 Which of the following letter-number-clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

HM28 IN36 JO44 KP52 ?
Ans 1. LQ60

2. LQ61

3. LR61

4. LR60

Q.55 In a certain code language, ‘LEAD’ is coded as ‘1398’, ‘TOLD’ is coded as ‘7843’ and
‘SOAP’ is coded as ‘4925’. What is the code for ‘T’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 7

2. 3

3. 8

4. 4

Q.56 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation if ‘×’ and ‘+‘
are interchanged and ‘÷’ and ‘−’ are interchanged?

66 − 11 × 10 + 2 ÷ 14 = ?
Ans 1. 12

2. 24

3. 16

4. 10

Q.57 Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a row, facing north.
No one sits to the right of C. Only three people sit between C and F. Only two people sit
between F and E. G sits third to the left of A. B sits to the immediate right of A.
How many people sit between D and B?
Ans 1. 4

2. 2

3. 3

4. 1

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 10 of 60

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Q.58 In a certain code language,
m
A % B means ‘A is the father of B’

. co A # B means ‘A is the brother of B’
A ÷ B means ‘A is the wife of B’
s e m
m a
se l
A @ B means ‘A is the daughter of B’

Based on the above, how is E related to X if 'E @ F % I # J ÷ X’?
ag
Ans 1. Wife's sister

2. Wife's brother

3. Wife's mother

4. Wife's father

Q.59 A, B, C, D, and E are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. D is the immediate
left neighbour of A. C sits third right to A. B is not an immediate neighbour of C.
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How many people sit between A and E when counted from the right of A?

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Ans 1. Three

em
2. One

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3. Two

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4. Zero

Q.60 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

(Left) 587 465 872 647 249 (Right)

(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)
(NOTE: All operations to be done from left to right.)

If all the numbers are arranged in the ascending order, the position of how many
numbers will remain unchanged?
Ans 1. None
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2. Two
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3. Three
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4. One
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Q.61
a
Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
All candies are chocolate.
Some candies are lollipop.
No lollipop is cookie.
Conclusions:
I) Some candies are not cookies.
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II) Some chocolates are not cookies.

m
III) Some chocolates are not lollipop.
Ans

m.co 1. Only II and III

s e m
s e 2. Only I, II and III

g l a
g l a 3. Only III
a
a 4. Only I and II

Q.62 Seven boxes D, E, F, H, I, J and K are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. Only two boxes are kept below E. Only one box is kept above I. Only one
box is kept between I and D. J is kept immediately above F. H is kept at some place
below K. How many boxes are kept between K and J?
Ans 1. Three

2. Four

3. One
m .
4. Two

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 11 of 60

Q.63 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single-digit numbers only and counting to be done from left to right only).

(Left) 6 6 8 8 1 7 8 3 8 9 5 3 8 6 8 2 2 7 2 4 8 7 3 (Right)

How many such odd digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd
digit and also immediately followed by an even digit?
Ans 1. One

2. None

3. Three

4. Two

Q.64 Mr. Tqr starts from Point A and drives 31 km towards South. He then takes a left turn,
drives 7 km, turns left and drives 39 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 17 km,
turns left and drives 5 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 2 km. He takes a final
left turn, drives 3 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards
which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90 degree
turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 10 km to the South

2. 10 km to the North

3. 12 km to the East

4. 12 km to the West

Q.65 In a certain code language, ‘he drove home’ is coded as ‘mt bk lo’ and ‘did he go’ is
coded as ‘mf jo mt’. How is ‘he’ coded in the given language?
Ans 1. mf

2. jo

3. bk

4. mt

Q.66 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

RIP 14, UFS 19, XCV 24, AZY 29, ?
Ans 1. EVC 36

2. EWC 34

3. DVB 36

4. DWB 34

Q.67 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

18 31 57 109 213 ?
Ans 1. 420

2. 423

3. 421

4. 422

Q.68 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

KA 33, IJ 38, GS 48, EB 63, ?
Ans 1. CP 85

2. CK 83

3. CP 83

4. CK 85

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 12 of 60

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Q.69 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of '?' will logically
m
complete the series.

. co s e m
m a
se ag l

Ans

1.

m
m .co
m .co s em
s e l a
2.
l a ag
ag

3.

m
m .co
s e
g la
4.
a

Q.70 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

56, 65, 83, 110, ?, 191
Ans 1. 146

m
.co
2. 156
m
.co m
3. 165

m s e
s e 4. 136

g l a
g l a a
a Section : General Awareness

Q.71 Which of the following is NOT one of the three lines of effort for the Atlantic Partnership
of September 2024?
Ans 1. Military Defense Cooperation

2. Ocean-based Food Security

3. Sustainable Blue Economy

4. Science Capacity Building and Exchange

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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 13 of 60

Q.72 Which Gupta emperor established his capital at Sakala?
Ans 1. Samudragupta

2. Mihirakula

3. Ashoka

4. Chandragupta

Q.73 What was the stance of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in its October 2024 Monetary
Policy Committee (MPC) meeting?
Ans 1. Accommodative

2. Hawkish

3. Tightening

4. Neutral

Q.74 Which bank merged with AU Small Finance Bank as per the approval of the Reserve
Bank of India (RBI) in 2024?
Ans 1. Fincare Small Finance Bank

2. Equitas Small Finance Bank

3. Janalakshmi Small Finance Bank

4. Ujjivan Small Finance Bank

Q.75 Who published 'New Lamps for Old' in the 'Indu Prakash'?
Ans 1. Lala Lajpat Rai

2. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

3. Bipin Chandra Pal

4. Aurobindo Ghosh

Q.76 In a dam, potential energy of water changes into ___________, which rotates the
turbine.
Ans 1. electric energy

2. mechanical energy

3. kinetic energy

4. heat energy

Q.77 The Sundarbans are famous for which type of vegetation?
Ans 1. Mangrove Forests

2. Thorn Forests

3. Deciduous Forests

4. Tropical Evergreen Forests

Q.78 Consider oxygen gas at standard temperature and pressure (STP). What is the
approximate weight (in grams) of one mole of oxygen molecules at STP?
Ans 1. 16

2. 64

3. 8

4. 32

Q.79 Which of the following can be considered as a long-term impact of the globalisation
policies of 1991 on India’s economic structure?
Ans 1. Shift towards a service-based economy

2. Dominance of agriculture in GDP contribution

3. Isolation from international trade

4. Complete elimination of poverty

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 14 of 60

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Q.80 Which Constitutional Amendment Act is known as the 'Right to Education' Amendment?
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Ans 1. 44th Amendment
. e m
m 2. 86th Amendment
as
se 3. 101st Amendment
ag l
4. 61st Amendment

Q.81 The Subjects of the Union List are mentioned under which article of the Indian
Constitution?
Ans 1. Article 248

2. Article 246

3. Article 242

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4. Article 244

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Q.82
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Which court in India is responsible for handling civil cases like property disputes,

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divorce and consumer problems?
s em
s e l a
ag
Ans 1. Civil Court

l a
ag
2. Sessions Court

3. Criminal Court

4. Revenue Court

Q.83 Who among the following was the Nawab of Awadh in 1856, at the time of its annexation
to the British Empire?
Ans 1. Wajid Ali Shah

2. Amjad Ali Shah

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3. Shuja-ud-Daula

4. Wazir Ali

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Q.84
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Who among the following was one of the grandsons of Ashoka?
Ans 1. Dasharatha Maurya
ag
2. Brihadratha

3. Bindusara

4. Chandragupta II

Q.85 The use of drugs for medical treatment is referred to as _____.
Ans 1. Phototherapy

2. Radiotherapy
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3. Chemotherapy
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m.co 4. Immunotherapy
s e m
s e g l a
g l a Q.86 In November 2024, SEBI implemented six out of seven measures recommended by an
expert panel to regulate which segment of the financial market? a
a Ans 1. Derivatives Market

2. Equity Market

3. Forex Market

4. Debt Market

Q.87 When was electricity production in India commenced using nuclear energy?
Ans 1. 1978

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2. 1969

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3. 1988

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4. 1998

l as ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 15 of 60

Q.88 Which edition of the NDC Course at National Defence College is scheduled from 6th
January 2025 to 28th November 2025?
Ans 1. 65th

2. 70th

3. 100th

4. 75th

Q.89 Which of the following incidents during the revolt of 1857 resulted in the mass
massacre of Indian rebels?
Ans 1. Mutiny at Meerut

2. The capture of Delhi

3. The hanging of Mangal Pandey

4. Mutiny at Agra

Q.90 With which of the following coloured sandstones was a Male Torso found in Harappa?
Ans 1. Green

2. Red

3. Brown

4. Yellow

Q.91 Which sector received a major allocation of ₹2.66 lakh crore in the 2024 Budget for
development purposes?
Ans 1. Rural development

2. Defense

3. Urban infrastructure

4. MSME sector

Q.92 Why is literacy an important component of human development?
Ans 1. It directly increases Gross Domestic Product.

2. It reduces population growth.

3. It ensures higher agricultural productivity.

4. It empowers individuals to make informed decisions and improves employment opportunities.

Q.93 Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with power, authority and
responsibility of municipalities?
Ans 1. Seventh Schedule

2. Twelfth Schedule

3. Eighth Schedule

4. Tenth Schedule

Q.94 By how much percentage did Axis Bank's Net Interest Income grow year-on-year (YoY)
in Q2 FY25?
Ans 1. 15%

2. 6%

3. 11%

4. 9%

Q.95 In July 2024, Defence Minister Rajnath Singh inaugurated the Defence Aviation Expo
IDAX-24 in which city?
Ans 1. Jaipur

2. Bhopal

3. Surat

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 16 of 60

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Q.96 In August 2024, which of the Indian Institute of Technology developed shoes that
m
generate electricity, track location in real time for Armed forces?

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Ans 1. IIT Delhi
s e m
m a
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2. IIT Kanpur

3. IIT Indore
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4. IIT Bombay

Q.97 As of November 2024, who is the Minister of State for Defence?
Ans 1. Amit Shah

2. Sanjay Seth

3. Akhilesh Yadav

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4. Nirmala Sitharaman

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Q.98
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What is the annual average rainfall in the Indian Desert?

m s em
Ans
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1. more than 1000 mm

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2. 500 mm to 1000 mm
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3. 200 mm to 500 mm

4. Less than 150 mm

Q.99 When was clause (K) of Article 51(A) inserted in the Indian Constitution?
Ans 1. 1990

2. 1999

3. 2002

4. 2004
m
Q.100 What is the outermost range of the Himalayas called?
m .co
s e
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Ans 1. Himadri

2. Shiwaliks
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3. Himachal

4. Karakoram

Q.101 Which country's player won the Men’s Singles title in the India Open Badminton
Championship 2024, held in New Delhi in the month of January 2024?
Ans 1. China

2. Thailand

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3. Japan

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4. South Korea

m s e
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Q.102 The United Nations Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) were announced in the year
g l a
g l a Ans
_______________.
a
a
1. 2004

2. 2002

3. 2003

4. 2000

Q.103 Ramani Rangan, the winner of the Sangeet Natak Akademi Amrit Award in 2022 for her
contribution towards classical musical instrument of Veena, belongs to which Indian
state?

m .
Ans 1. Tamil Nadu

2. Andhra Pradesh

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3. Karnataka
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4. Gujarat
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Q.104 One of the classical instruments of India, the Tambura (also called Tanpura in north
India), is made of how many metal strings?
Ans 1. 9

2. 6

3. 4

4. 3

Q.105 The Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution have a resemblance to which of the
following international declarations?
Ans 1. Universal Declaration of Human Rights

2. United Nations Charter

3. International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights

4. Geneva Convention

Q.106 By which of the following dynasties was the Brihadeswara temple built?
Ans 1. Maurya

2. Chola

3. Gupta

4. Pandya

Q.107 ‘Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)’ is characterised by a difference in sea surface temperature
between which of the following?
Ans 1. Tropical Western Indian Ocean and Tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean

2. Tropical Western Indian Ocean and Tropical Western Pacific Ocean

3. Tropical Western Indian Ocean and Tropical Eastern Indian Ocean

4. Tropical Eastern Indian Ocean and Tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean

Q.108 The ________ wheat variety was launched in India in October 2024.
Ans 1. NWS-2199 Badshah

2. NWS-2184 Badshah

3. NWS-2194 Badshah

4. NWS-2164 Badshah

Q.109 The first partition of Bengal took place in _____.
Ans 1. 1898

2. 1905

3. 1885

4. 1907

Q.110 Which of the following period is considered as Phase of pulling up agriculture in the
context of economic development in India?
Ans 1. Late 1960s - 1970s

2. Late 1970 - 1980

3. mid 1950 - mid 1960

4. Late 1980 - 1990

Q.111 Which of the following is NOT a component of land reforms?
Ans 1. Land ceiling

2. Tenancy reforms

3. Industrial privatisation

4. Abolition of intermediaries

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 18 of 60

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Q.112 Which river is the Sardar Sarovar Dam built on?
m
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Ans 1. Tapi

. e m
m 2. Mahanadi
as
se 3. Krishna
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4. Narmada

Q.113 In which year was Awadh formally annexed to the British Empire?
Ans 1. 1860

2. 1852

3. 1854

4. 1856
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m .co
.co
Q.114 The Green Revolution in India was aimed at improving which of the following?

em
s
Ans 1. Urban infrastructure

e m l a
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2. Agricultural productivity

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ag
3. International trade

4. Industrial growth

Q.115 What is the primary role of thrombocytes in the human body?
Ans 1. Carrying oxygen to tissues

2. Transporting nutrients to cells

3. Forming blood clots to stop bleeding

4. Initiating the immune response

m
__________ of the total road network in the country.
m .co
Q.116 According to Basic Road Statistics in India-2018-19, National Highways constitutes

s e
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Ans 1. 12.90%

2. 08.40%
ag
3. 02.09%

4. 22.10%

Q.117 Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports (MYAS) provides which of the following awards for
coaches who help athletes achieve excellence over a period of four years?
Ans 1. Arjuna Award

2. Dronacharya Award

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3. Khel Ratna Award

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.co m
4. Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar

m s e
s e
Q.118 To prohibit the slaughter of cows is a Directive Principle mentioned in _____ of the
g l a
g l a Ans
Indian Constitution.
a
a
1. Article 49

2. Article 43

3. Article 48

4. Article 42

Q.119 Kush Maini, who secured his first Formula 2 Sprint Race win at the Hungarian Grand
Prix in July 2024, is from which of the following countries?
Ans 1. Sri Lanka

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2. India

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3. Nepal

e m l as
4. Myanmar

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ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 19 of 60

Q.120 In the context of digestion, bolus is best described by which of the following options?
Ans 1. A type of enzyme produced by the pancreas

2. A hormone released by the stomach to stimulate digestion

3. A digestive fluid secreted by glands in the intestinal mucosa

4. A mixture of food and saliva formed during chewing

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 20 of 60

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m . s e
se g l a
Exam Date 18/03/2025
a
Centre Name iON Digital Zone iDZ Old Alwal
Exam Time 12:30 PM - 2:00 PM
* Note
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.
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Section : Arithmetic
m .co s em
s e l a
a ag
Q.1 The average of first 139 even numbers is
l
ag
Ans 1. 139.5

2. 140

3. 140.5

4. 141

Q.2 The sides of a triangle are 7 cm, 24 cm, and 25 cm. What is the area of this triangle?
Ans 1. 70 cm2

2. 84 cm2
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3. 96 cm2

4. 50 cm2
e m
las
Q.3
g
A metallic cube of side 12 cm is cut into 8 equal solid cubes of equal volume. Find the
a
ratio between the surface areas of a cube with a larger edge to a smaller edge.
Ans 1. 3 : 1

2. 2 : 5

3. 1 : 2

4. 4 : 1

Q.4 7 men can complete a piece of work in 6 days while 4 women can do it in 14 days. In
how many days can 2 women and 2 men complete it?
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Ans 1. 9 days
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2. 14 days

m s e
s e
3. 12 days

g l a
g l a 4. 17 days
a
a Q.5 Find the total surface area of a right circular cone, if the height and radius of the cone
are 63 cm and 16 cm, respectively.
Ans 1. 1269π cm2

2. 1962π cm2

3. 1296π cm2

4. 1692π cm2

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 21 of 60

Q.6 A sum, when invested at 10% simple interest per annum, amounts to ₹3360 after 2
years. What is the simple interest (in ₹) on the same sum at the same rate of interest in
2 years?
Ans 1. 1120

2. 2240

3. 560

4. 280

Q.7 A train overtakes two persons walking along a railway track. The first one walks at 7.2
km/h. The other one walks at 12.6 km/h. The train needs 6.6 and 13.2 seconds
respectively to overtake them. What is the speed of the train if both the persons are
walking in the same direction as the train?
Ans 1. 27 km/h

2. 18 km/h

3. 20 km/h

4. 26 km/h

Q.8 A 629 m long train crosses a man walking at a speed of 10.4 km/h in the opposite
direction in 12 seconds. What is the speed (in km/h) of the train?
Ans 1. 183.1

2. 178.3

3. 176.6

4. 177.4

Q.9 1% of 95% of a number is what percentage of that number?
Ans 1. 0.095

2. 0.95

3. 96

4. 95

Q.10 The selling price of a dozen bananas is equal to the cost price of 20 bananas. The
percentage of profit is ______.
Ans 1. 60%

2. 50%

3. %

4. %

Q.11 The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 75 and the third
number is 119. Find the average of the remaining two numbers?
Ans 1. 196

2. 194

3. 193

4. 195

Q.12 What is the interest amount for ₹40,000 at the rate of 10% per annum compounded half
yearly for 1.5 years?
Ans 1. ₹6,325

2. ₹6,315

3. ₹6,305

4. ₹6,335

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 22 of 60

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Q.13 Ravi sold an article to Mahesh at 15% profit and Mahesh sold it to Ashutosh at 10%
m
loss. If Ashutosh paid ₹2,691 to Mahesh, then find the cost price of the article paid by

. co Ravi.

s e m
m Ans 1. ₹2,550
a
se 2. ₹2,635
ag l
3. ₹2,598

4. ₹2,600

Q.14 The cost of a television set rose from ₹16,000 to ₹19,200. Find the percentage increase.
Ans 1. 22.67%

2. 16.67%

3. 24%
m
4. 20%
m .co
Q.15
m .co
John and Mike can complete a piece of work in 10 hours and 15 hours, respectively.
s em
s e
How long will it take for them to complete the work together?
l a
Ans 1. 5 hours
l a ag
2. 8 hours
ag
3. 6.2 hours

4. 6 hours

Q.16 The monthly incomes of two friends Gopal and Akshay, are in the ratio 5 : 7 respectively
and each of them saves ₹93000 every month. If the ratio of their monthly expenditure is
2 : 4, find the monthly income of Gopal(in ₹).
Ans 1. 154000

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2. 156000

m
3. 217000

4. 155000
s e
g la
Q.17
a
Find the value of

Ans
1.

2.
m
m .co
m.co 3.
s e m
s e g l a
g l a a
a 4.

Q.18 Find the greatest number of four digits which is divisible by 10, 20, 40 and 75.
Ans 1. 9400

2. 9600

3. 9999

4. 9500
m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 23 of 60

Q.19 The average of the marks of 15 students in a class is 42. If the marks of each student
are doubled, find the new average?
Ans 1. 30

2. 42

3. 84

4. 15

Q.20

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.21 The value of

Ans 1. 1.96

2. 6.36

3. 11.07

4. 3.43

Q.22 A bike goes 94 meters in a second. Find its speed in km/hr.
Ans 1. 333.1

2. 333.7

3. 338.4

4. 347.9

Q.23 The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 75 and the third
number is 109. Find the average of the remaining two numbers?
Ans 1. 199

2. 198

3. 184

4. 185

Q.24 Simplify the following.

Ans 1. 13

2. 16

3. 15

4. 14

Q.25 Evaluate: 2 × {17 - 3 × (9 -4)}
Ans 1. 3

2. 4

3. 1

4. 8

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 24 of 60

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Q.26 Find the value of (8K2 − 5K) for which the number 25K583 is divisible by 11.
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Ans 1. 57

m . s e
a
2. 48

se 3. 62
ag l
4. 52

Q.27 The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 77 and the third
number is 130. Find the average of the remaining two numbers?
Ans 1. 185.5

2. 186.5

3. 208

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4. 207

m
Q.28

m .co s em
Ans 1. 25 hrs
s e l a
2. 33 hrs
l a ag
3. 11 hrs
ag
4. 43 hrs

Q.29 Find the LCM of 0.24, 0.36 and 0.48.
Ans 1. 1.20

2. 1.80

3. 1.96

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4. 1.44

Q.30
e m
In a race, an athlete covers a distance of 360 m in 120 sec in the first lap. He covers the

athlete?
las
second lap of the same length in 60 sec. What is the average speed (in m/sec) of the

Ans 1. 14
ag
2. 2

3. 7

4. 4

Q.31 An amount of ₹858 is divided among three persons in the ratio of 9 : 8 : 13. The
difference between the largest and the smallest shares (in ₹) in the distribution is:
Ans 1. 233
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2. 173
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3. 237

m s e
s e 4. 143

g l a
g l a Q.32 Three partners invested in a business in the ratio 6:1:5. They invested their capitals fora
a Ans
7 months, 10 months and 8 months, respectively. What was the ratio of their profits?
1. 21:5:20

2. 23:5:20

3. 20:5:20

4. 19:5:20

Q.33 The compound interest on a certain sum of money for two years at 8% per annum is
₹312. What is the principal amount (in ₹)?
m .
.co m
Ans 1. 1,855

m s e
2. 1,800

s e l a
a ag
3. 1,875

g l
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 25 of 60

Q.34 With a discount of 10% on the marked price, on selling an item, 20% profit is earned.
What should be the percentage discount on the marked price to earn 10% profit?
Ans 1. 15%

2. 17.5%

3. 18.5%

4. 20%

Q.35 A retailer purchases a batch of electronics at a marked price of ₹20,000. The supplier
offers a trade discount of 15% and an additional scheme discount of 5% on the price
after the trade discount. What is the effective price the retailer pays after both
discounts?
Ans 1. ₹18,150

2. ₹17,750

3. ₹16,150

4. ₹16,450

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.36 Christian starts from Point A and drives 12 km towards east. He then takes a left turn,
drives 7 km, turns left and drives 13 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 10 km. He
takes a final left turn, drives 1 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
90 degrees turns only unless specified)
Ans 1. 4 km to the north

2. 3 km to the north

3. 2 km to the north

4. 1 km to the north

Q.37 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All fans are mirrors.
All fans are slippers.

Conclusions:
(I) : Some mirrors are slippers.
(II) : All slippers are fans.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

3. Only conclusion (II) follows

4. Only conclusion (I) follows

Q.38 Each of D, E, F, H, I, J and K has an exam on a different day of a week starting from
Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week. No one has the exam before F. Only
three people have the exam between F and E. Only one person has the exam between E
and K. I has the exam on Wednesday. J has the exam on one of the days after H but on
one of the days before D. On which day of the week does J have the exam?
Ans 1. Tuesday

2. Thursday

3. Saturday

4. Friday

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 26 of 60

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Q.39 Seven friends S, A, P, W, E, T, and Z are sitting around a circular table facing the centre.
m
E is sitting immediately between A and P. T is sitting to the immediate left of P and right

. co of S. W is sitting third to the right of E. Who is sitting to the immediate right of Z?

s e m
m Ans 1. E
a
se 2. A
ag l
3. T

4. W

Q.40 WQKE is related to UOIC in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, TNHC is related to RLFA. To which of the following is VPJD related, following
the same logic?
Ans 1. TNHB

2. SMAG
m
3. BJPV
m .co
4. SMGA

m .co s em
s e l a
a ag
Q.41 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

agl
15 28 50 81 121 ?
Ans 1. 170
2. 169

3. 166

4. 196

Q.42 This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below.

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(Left) 325 486 751 259 654 (Right)
(Example- 697 – First digit = 6, second digit = 9 and third digit = 7)

m
NOTE - All operations to be done from left to right.

s e
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What will be the resultant if the second digit of the second highest number is added to

g
the third digit of the lowest number?
Ans 1. 11
a
2. 13

3. 15

4. 14

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m .co
m.co s e m
s e g l a
g l a a
a

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 27 of 60

Q.43 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of ‘?’ will logically
complete the series.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.44 In a certain code language, 'experience the moment' is coded as 'ot km cz' and 'the pen
broke' is coded as 'jb cz mo'. How is 'the' coded in the given language?
Ans 1. cz

2. km

3. mo

4. ot

Q.45 Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the
given series will complete the series.

BD_A F_GE _LKI NP_M R_SQ
Ans 1. CGJOT

2. EHJOT

3. CHIOT

4. CHJOT

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 28 of 60

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Q.46 Each letter in the word STYLISH is changed to the letter immediately preceding it in the
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English alphabetical order. Which of the following letters will be third from the right in

. co the letter-cluster thus formed?

s e m
m Ans 1. R
a
se 2. X
ag l
3. H

4. K

Q.47 In a certain code language, ‘CLUE’ is coded as ‘9658’ and ‘GLUE’ is coded as ‘8769’.
What is the code for ‘G’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 8

2. 5

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3. 9

m
.co m
4. 7

m s e
Q.48
s e
Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
l a
a ag
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
l
ag
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. GKE

2. PTO

3. MQL

4. JNI

Q.49 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
m
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given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the

m
statements.
Statements:
s e
la
All dolls are toys.

g
All toys are pink.
No pink is white.
Conclusions:
I) Some toys are white.
a
II) Some toys are doll.
III) Some dolls are white.
Ans 1. Only I

2. Only II

3. Only I and III

4. Only III
m
m .co
.co
Q.50 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?
e m
e m l as
s
QSV NPS KMP HJM ?

l a Ans 1. EHI
ag
ag 2. EGJ

3. EGI

4. EHJ

Q.51 Select the triad that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two triads given
below. Both triads follow the same pattern.

PK-RM-TU
RM-TO-VW
m .
.co m
Ans 1. NI-PK-RT

2. MI-PK-RT
m s e
s e l a
a ag
3. NI-PK-RS

g l
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 29 of 60

Q.52 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

87, 96, 114, 141, ?, 222
Ans 1. 177

2. 186

3. 168

4. 158

Q.53 All 32 people are standing in a row facing North. Steve is 18th from the right end while
Ben is 22nd from the left end. How many people are there between Steve and Ben?
Ans 1. 5

2. 7

3. 4

4. 6

Q.54 In a certain code language, ‘SLIT’ is coded as ‘3782’ and ‘TILE’ is coded as ‘8217’. What
is the code for ‘E’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 7

2. 8

3. 1

4. 2

Q.55 In the following expression, what will be the value after calculation if all ‘a’s are
replaced by 4?
7×5+1−a×2+3÷3−a×2
Ans 1. 21

2. 22

3. 18

4. 20

Q.56 Refer to the following letter, symbol series and answer the question. Counting to be
done from left to right only.
(Left) 2 & @ 8 $ 7 + 3 Ω 9 % 4 6 # 1 * £ 5 (Right)
How many such symbols are there each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and also immediately followed by another number?
Ans 1. 6

2. 4

3. 7

4. 5

Q.57 In a certain code language,
‘A + B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’
‘A – B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’
‘A × B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the father of B’

How is P related to T if ‘P + Q – R × S ÷ T’?
Ans 1. Grandmother

2. Mother-in-law

3. Daughter

4. Sister-in-law

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 30 of 60

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Q.58 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a
m
certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic.

. co COIN - OICN - NIOC
s e m
m a
se l
SINK - INSK - KNIS
Ans 1. MOAN - OMAN - NOAM
ag
2. RIPE - IPRE - EPIR

3. SEAK - SAEK - KAES

4. GEAR - EAGR - EARG

Q.59 Brij starts from Point A and drives 23 km towards the south. He then takes a left turn,
drives 29 km, turns left and drives 28 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 34 km. He
takes a final left turn, drives 5 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
m
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90° turns only unless specified.)

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Ans 1. 5 km to the east

em
2. 53 km to the west

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s
3. 2 km to the east

l a ag
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4. 3 km to the west

Q.60 Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a row, facing north. Only two people
sit to the left of A. Only three people sit between A and F. Only one person sits between
F and D. E sits to the immediate left of B. C is not an immediate neighbour of F. How
many people sit to the right of A?
Ans 1. 4

2. 2

3. 3

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4. 1

Q.61
e m
Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
las
g
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down

a
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3
and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)

(14, 13, 28)
(17, 15, 33)
Ans 1. (12, 18, 21)

2. (18, 20, 40)

3. (10, 18, 29)

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4. (15, 18, 35)

m
Q.62

m.co
If ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged, then what will come in
place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?
s e m
s e g l a
g l a Ans
6÷5+8×2−3=?
a
a
1. 29

2. 25

3. 30

4. 34

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 31 of 60

Q.63 Refer to the following series and answer the question (all numbers are single digit
numbers only).

(Left) 1 6 4 8 5 8 6 7 8 5 7 7 4 5 9 4 6 1 5 6 1 (Right)

How many such odd digits are there each of which is immediately preceded by an even
digit and also immediately followed by an even digit?
Ans 1. Three

2. One

3. Two

4. Four

Q.64 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?
FEW KAB PWG USL ?
Ans 1. ZOQ

2. AOP

3. YPQ

4. ANR

Q.65 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

127 121 109 91 67 ?
Ans 1. 45

2. 40

3. 34

4. 37

Q.66 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. GHK

2. MNQ

3. PQT

4. CDF

Q.67 In a certain code language,
A : B means ‘A is the father of B’
A + B means ‘A is the wife of B’
A = B means ‘A is the son of B’
A < B means ‘A is the sister of B’
Based on the above, how is E related to A if 'E = X + T : R < A’?
Ans 1. Sister

2. Brother

3. Father

4. Mother

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 32 of 60

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Q.68 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
m
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly

. co known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
s e m
m a
se Statements:
All mangoes are arrows.
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All kings are mangoes.

Conclusions:
(I) : Some arrows are mangoes.
(II) : All kings are arrows.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows

2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

3. Only conclusion (II) follows

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4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
m
Q.69
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If ‘+’ and ‘×’ are interchanged and ‘−’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged, then what will come in
m s em
e
place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

s l a
l a
20 ÷ 5 + 4 × 6 − 2 = ?
ag
Ans 1. 5

2. 3
ag
3. 10

4. 7

Q.70 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of ‘?’ will logically
complete the series.

m
m .co
s e
g la
Ans
a
1.

m
m .co
2.

m.co s e m
s e g l a
g l a a
a 3.

4.
m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
Sec
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 33 of 60

Q.71 Which Directive Principles of State Policy Article focuses on the organisation of village
panchayats?
Ans 1. Article 36

2. Article 43

3. Article 40

4. Article 45

Q.72 With reference to Gram Nyayalayas, who presides over the Gram Nyayalayas and what
is their official designation?
Ans 1. A District Magistrate appointed by the High Court

2. A judicial officer designated as Nyaya Adhikari, appointed by the State Government in consultation with the High Court

3. A representative from the Panchayat Samiti

4. A village representative known as Nyaya Panchayat

Q.73 As per Census of India 2011, towns with a population of over ____________ are
categorised as cities.
Ans 1. 1,00,000

2. 50,000

3. 20,000

4. 75,000

Q.74 The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is mentioned in which Article of the Indian
Constitution?
Ans 1. Article 152

2. Article 148

3. Article 140

4. Article 145

Q.75 Which of the following was a significant problem faced by the agricultural sector in
India around 1947?
Ans 1. Surplus production

2. Dependence on monsoons

3. High productivity levels

4. Modern farming techniques

Q.76 The Battle of Khanua was fought between _______.
Ans 1. Akbar and Ali Mirza

2. Babur and Ali Mirza

3. Humayun and Rana Sanga

4. Babur and Rana Sanga

Q.77 What was the ancient name of coastal Orissa?
Ans 1. Taxila

2. Kalinga

3. Kalsi

4. Topra

Q.78 Which geological event led to the formation of the Peninsular plateau?
Ans 1. Collision of tectonic plates

2. Volcanic eruptions

3. Breaking and drifting of Gondwana land

4. Glacial activity

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 34 of 60

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Q.79 When was Tata Iron and Steel Company Limited (TISCO) established?
m
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Ans 1. 1903

. e m
m 2. 1965
as
se 3. 1947
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4. 1907

Q.80 National Highway (NH)-2, a section of the Grand Trunk Road, is a major highway in India
that runs from Delhi to _______.
Ans 1. Kolkata

2. Panipat

3. Amritsar

m
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4. Ambala

m
Q.81
.co
Who among the following scientists is credited with the discovery of the element
radium?
m s em
s e l a
ag
Ans 1. Dmitri Mendeleev

l a
ag
2. Marie Curie

3. JJ Thomson

4. Wilhelm Roentgen

Q.82 Which region of the Western Coastal Plains is known for its indented coastline with
natural harbours?
Ans 1. Gujarat Coast

2. Karnataka Coast

m
.co
3. Malabar Coast

4. Konkan Coast

e m
Q.83
las
Which state in India was one of the first to benefit from the Green Revolution?
Ans 1. West Bengal
ag
2. Bihar

3. Punjab

4. Kerala

Q.84 In 1997, which state was at the centre of a recommendation to impose President's Rule
that President KR Narayanan sent back for reconsideration?
Ans 1. Madhya Pradesh

m
.co
2. Bihar
m
.co m
3. Rajasthan

m s e
s e
4. Uttar Pradesh

g l a
g l a Q.85 Examine the dynamics of a rigid body that is either pivoted or fixed in some way. Which a
a Ans
of the following options best describe the possible motion for such a system?
1. Only rotation

2. Combination of rotation and translation

3. Only translation

4. Linear motion

Q.86 The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has retained the GDP growth rate of India for the
financial year 2024-25 at ____________.
m .
.co m
Ans 1. 4.5%

2. 6.5%
m s e
s e l a
a ag
3. 3.2%

g l
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 35 of 60

Q.87 Which of the following is/are an example of economic infrastructure?
Ans 1. Roads and bridges

2. Schools

3. Museums

4. Parks

Q.88 What trend has CPI housing (rent) inflation shown from March to August 2024, in India?
Ans 1. Increased significantly

2. Moderated sequentially

3. Fluctuated wildly

4. Remained constant

Q.89 What was the primary characteristic of the Indian economy on the eve of independence
in 1947?
Ans 1. It was a highly industrialised economy with a strong manufacturing sector.

2. It had a well-developed banking and financial system.

3. It was a net exporter of industrial products.

4. It was primarily an agricultural economy with most of the population dependent on agriculture.

Q.90 Which of the following was NOT one of the reasons for the failure of the First War of
Independence?
Ans 1. Superior British military technology

2. Lack of unity among the rebels

3. Strong support from foreign powers

4. Limited geographical spread of the rebellion

Q.91 In the Harappan Civilisation, sculptures in _________ are excellent examples of
handling three-dimensional volumes.
Ans 1. marble

2. wood

3. stone

4. granite

Q.92 In which regions of India are the Mangrove Forests found?
Ans 1. Plateaus

2. Cold deserts

3. Deltas

4. Hot deserts

Q.93 The Opening Ceremony of MALABAR 2024, under the aegis of the Eastern Naval
Command, was held onboard with which Indian Naval Ship at Visakhapatnam?
Ans 1. INS Vikrant

2. INS Shivalik

3. INS Kolkata

4. INS Satpura

Q.94 Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts has the land boundary
agreement between India and Bangladesh?
Ans 1. 31st Constitutional Amendment Act

2. 25th Constitutional Amendment Act

3. 61st Constitutional Amendment Act

4. 100th Constitutional Amendment Act
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 36 of 60

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Q.95 The Major Atmospheric Cherenkov Experiment (MACE) Observatory was inaugurated at
m
_________ .

. co
Ans 1. Dehradun, Uttarakhand
s e m
m a
se l
2. Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir

3. Shimla, Himachal Pradesh
ag
4. Hanle, Ladakh

Q.96 Which of the following statements best represents the mass number of an atom?
Ans 1. The average mass of all the isotopes of the element

2. The number of electrons in an atom

3. The total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus

m
.co
4. The number of protons in the nucleus

m
Q.97
.co
In September 2024, the Union Government launched the upgraded ‘e-Shram: One-stop

m
solution’ portal to provide access to which of the following for the unorganised Sector?
s em
s e l a
ag
Ans 1. Women's safety at working place

l a
ag
2. Telemedicine services

3. Skill development programmes

4. Different social security schemes

Q.98 On which date did India’s maiden solar mission Aditya-L1 reach the L1 point (Lagrange
point 1) in 2024, after being launched in September 2023?
Ans 1. 25 August

2. 6 January

m
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3. 6 February

4. 25 January

e m
Q.99
las
Under which Act was the Armed Forces Tribunal (AFT) established in India?
Ans 1. Armed Forces Tribunal Act, 2009
ag
2. Indian Armed Forces Act, 1950

3. Military Tribunal Act, 1950

4. Armed Forces Tribunal Act, 2007

Q.100 Who among the following was the British resistance at Lucknow during the Revolt of
1857?
Ans 1. Henry Lawrence

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2. Colonel Oncell
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3. William Taylor

m s e
s e
4. John Nicholson

g l a
g l a Q.101 Arjun Erigaisi climbed to which of the following positions in the global chess rankings a
a after his victory over Alexey Sarana at the Chennai Grand Masters 2024 on 7th
November 2024?
Ans 1. Fourth

2. Third

3. First

4. Second

Q.102 What does Human Development Index measure to assess development?
m .
.co m
Ans 1. Industrial output

m s e
2. Population density

s e l a
a ag
3. Education, health and income levels

g l
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 37 of 60

Q.103 Name the author who wrote the famous book on economics called 'Arthashastra'.
Ans 1. Kautilya

2. Bharavi

3. Kuntaka

4. Matanga Muni

Q.104 Which of the following Acts ended the company rule in India?
Ans 1. Indian Councils Act, 1861

2. Charter Act, 1853

3. Indian Councils Act, 1892

4. Government of India Act, 1858

Q.105 What was the name of the campaign unveiled by the National Payments Corporation of
India (NPCI) to promote RuPay credit cards at Indian Premier League 2024?
Ans 1. RuPay – Digital Revolution

2. RuPay – Safe and Secure

3. RuPay – Simplify Payments

4. RuPay – Link it, Forget it

Q.106 In September 2024, the Government of India renamed Port Blair to _____.
Ans 1. Vijay Nagar

2. Bharat Nagar

3. Andaman Nagar

4. Sri Vijaya Puram

Q.107 Who among the following was NOT involved in the establishment of the Indian National
Congress?
Ans 1. Dadabhai Naoroji

2. KT Telang

3. Justice MG Ranade

4. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Q.108 The process of removing introns and connecting the remaining exons in a specific
sequence to form a mature mRNA molecule is known as _____.
Ans 1. Capping

2. Splicing

3. Splitting

4. Tailing

Q.109 In November 2024, the Diplomatic Conference on Design Law took place in .
Ans 1. Kuwait

2. Saudi Arabia

3. Russia

4. Colombia

Q.110 How did HDFC Bank’s gross non-performing assets (NPA) change from Q1 FY25 to Q2
FY25?
Ans 1. Dropped to 1.30%

2. Increased from 1.33% to 1.36%

3. Decreased from 1.36% to 1.33%

4. Remained at 1.36%

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 38 of 60

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Q.111 How many holes of a Shahnai are used for playing?
m
co
Ans 1. 5

. e m
m 2. 7
as
se 3. 8
ag l
4. 10

Q.112 As of 1 November 2024, how many T20I centuries has Rohit Sharma scored, tying him
with Glenn Maxwell for the most in this format?
Ans 1. Five

2. Seven

3. Eight

m
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4. Three

o m m
. c
Q.113 Rutherford’s planetary model of atom is also called the ________________.
s e
Ans 1.
m
eof atom
Discreate energy orbit model of atom
l a
a s ag
gl of atom
2. Nuclear model
3.

4.
a
Wave model
Plum pudding model of atom

Q.114 Which of the following countries was the first to adopt the concept of Gross National
Happiness Index?
Ans 1. India

2. Bhutan

3. Sri Lanka
m
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4. Mauritius

e m
which of the following groups?
las
Q.115 In 2024, BOBCARD LIMITED introduced the TIARA Credit Card exclusively designed for

Ans 1. Business owners
ag
2. Students

3. Senior citizens

4. Women

Q.116 At Dholavira _______ was used to build massive fortifications.
Ans 1. stone

2. mud
m
m
3. cement
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m .co 4. wood
s e m
s e g l a
g l a Q.117 In October 2024, which Indian IT company collaborated with NVIDIA to launch AI
solutions for industry-specific use cases? a
a Ans 1. Infosys

2. Tata Consultancy Services

3. Wipro

4. HCL Technologies Limited

Q.118 The sand dunes in the Thar desert are primarily formed by:
Ans 1. river erosion

m .
.co
2. flash floods

e m
3. wind action

e m l as
4. earthquakes

l as ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 39 of 60

Q.119 Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?
Place Leader of 1857 Revolt
I. Lucknow Begum Hazrat Mahal
II. Jhansi Rani Lakshmi Bai
III. Gwalior Tatya Tope
IV. Allahabad Kunwar Singh
Ans 1. I and II

2. II and IV

3. Only IV

4. III

Q.120 Which of the following statements is/are correct in the context of the causes of failure
of the 1857 Revolt?
I. No active support of Princely states.
II. Lack of effective leadership of rebels.
Ans 1. Neither I nor II

2. Only II

3. Both I and II

4. Only I

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 40 of 60

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m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
Exam Date 18/03/2025
a
Centre Name Sumit Dhariwal Memorial Group of Institutions
Exam Time 4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
* Note
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.
m
m .co
Section : Arithmetic
m .co s em
s e l a
a ag
Q.1 Evaluate the following:
l
ag
Ans 1. 5.2

2. 4.4

3. 2.48

4. 1.78

Q.2 The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 78 and the third
number is 130. Find the average of the remaining two numbers?
m
Ans 1. 185.5

m .co
2. 208
s e
3. 209
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4. 184.5
a
Q.3 The monthly incomes of two friends Rakesh and Shivam, are in the ratio 5 : 7
respectively and each of them saves ₹87000 every month. If the ratio of their monthly
expenditure is 1 : 3, find the monthly income of Rakesh(in ₹).
Ans 1. 108750

2. 152250

3. 107750

m
.co
4. 109750

m
Q.4
.co
The value of

m s e m
s e g l a
g l a Ans 1. 9.54
a
a 2. 1.87

3. 12.99

4. 2.53

Q.5 A shirt was originally priced at ₹ 600. It is now on sale for ₹ 540. What is the percentage
decrease in the price?
Ans 1. 10%

m .
2. 25%

3. 20%

m .co s e m
4. 15%
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 41 of 60

Q.6 Find the least number, which, when divided by 20, 25, 35 and 40 leaves remainders 14,
19, 29 and 34, respectively.
Ans 1. 1238

2. 1498

3. 1389

4. 1394

Q.7 Sudhir purchased certain goods at the rate of ₹7,380 per dozen. He sold each one of
them at the rate of ₹575. What was his percentage loss? (Round up to two decimal
places)
Ans 1. 6.50%

2. 23.12%

3. 40%

4. 6.96%

Q.8 Which of the following ratio is smallest?
Ans 1. 13 : 53

2. 19 : 42

3. 16 : 54

4. 25 : 39

Q.9

Ans 1. 4

2. 2

3. 3

4. 5

Q.10 The average of first 118 even numbers is
Ans 1. 119

2. 119.5

3. 118.5

4. 120

Q.11 Abhi sold a dress to Pari for ₹10,000. Pari sold it to Mikki at 20% profit. Mikki modified it
with cost ₹,2000 and sold this dress to Sneha at a loss of 10%. The amount paid by
Sneha for the dress was:
Ans 1. ₹13,000

2. ₹12,600

3. ₹11,950

4. ₹14,200

Q.12 A grocery item was sold for ₹660 with 25% discount on its marked price. What is the
marked price?
Ans 1. ₹860

2. ₹880

3. ₹890

4. ₹870

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 42 of 60

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Q.13 A cylindrical rod has an outer curved surface area of 1900 cm2. If the length of the rod is
m
co
39 cm, then the outer radius (in cm) of the rod, correct to two places of decimal, is:

. e m
m as
se Ans 1. 8.88
ag l
2. 7.75

3. 7.18

4. 6.27

Q.14 In what ratio should sugar costing ₹10 per kg be mixed with sugar costing ₹49 per kg so
that by selling the mixture at ₹54.6 per kg, there is a profit of 40%?
Ans 1. 27 : 8

m
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2. 28 : 12

m
.co m
3. 31 : 11

m s e
4. 10 : 29

s e l a
l a ag
ag
Q.15 6 men can complete a piece of work in 12 days while 4 women can do it in 18 days. In
how many days can 2 women and 2 men complete it?
Ans 1. 22 days

2. 18 days

3. 20 days

4. 23 days

Q.16 Evaluate: 41 - [36 - {48 ÷ 2 - (5 - 6 ÷ 2) ÷ 2}]

m
Ans 1. 27

2. 28

m .co
3. 30
s e
4. 29
g la
Q.17
a
The area of a rectangular field is 2400 m2. If the field is 80 m long, what is its perimeter?
Ans 1. 110 m

2. 210 m

3. 30 m

4. 220 m

m
Q.18 An Uber auto covers a distance of 120 km in 20 hours. What is its speed in km/h?

.co
Ans 1. 16
m
m.co 2. 9

s e m
s e 3. 10

g l a
g l a 4. 6
a
a Q.19
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.20 Find the LCM of 10, 7 and 4.
m .
.co m
Ans 1. 1

m s e
a
2. 280

s e l
a ag
3. 140

g l
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 43 of 60

Q.21 The sum of 10 numbers is 432. Find their average.
Ans 1. 43.2

2. 41.2

3. 44.2

4. 42.2

Q.22 For a chemistry experiment, Veena has 60 ml of 25% solution of ferrous sulphate. How
many millilitres of 60% solution should she add to make a 30% solution of ferrous
sulphate?
Ans 1. 25 ml

2. 15 ml

3. 10 ml

4. 20 ml

Q.23 If 35% of k is 20 less than 1200% of 25, then k is:
Ans 1. 840

2. 760

3. 800

4. 780

Q.24 Train A leaves station M at 6:15 AM and reaches station N at 3:15 PM on the same day.
Train B leaves station N at 8:15 AM and reaches station M at 2:15 PM on the same day.
Find the time when Trains A and B meet.
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.25 Abhinav is thrice as efficient as Arpan and can finish a piece of work in 34 days less
than Arpan. In how many days can Arpan can finish this work?
Ans 1. 54

2. 51

3. 69

4. 48

Q.26 A pipe can fill a tank in 8 hours. Another pipe can empty the filled tank in 72 hours. If
both the pipes are opened simultaneously, then the time (in hours) in which the tank will
be two-third filled, is:
Ans 1. 18

2. 6

3. 12

4. 24

Q.27 What will be the compound interest on a sum of ₹75,000 after 2 years at the rate of 10%
per annum, compounded annually?
Ans 1. ₹90,750

2. ₹7,500

3. ₹75,000

4. ₹15,750

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 44 of 60

m
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Q.28 The ages of Ayushi and Anmol are in the ratio of 2 : 7 respectively. After 4 years the
m
ratio of their ages will be 3 : 8. What is the difference in their present ages?

. co
Ans 1. 6
s e m
m a
se l
2. 20

3. 8
ag
4. 29

Q.29 Two banks, A and B, offered loans at 3.5% and 6% per annum, respectively. Gopal
borrowed an amount of ₹360000 from each bank. Find the positive difference between
the amounts of simple interest paid to the two banks by Gopal after 4 years (in ₹).
Ans 1. 35500

2. 36000

m
.co
3. 37500

m
.co m
4. 37000

m s e
Q.30
s e
In a general store, the marked price of a pack of 5 kg wheat flour is ₹220. The general
l a
a ag
store owner sells it at ₹200. What is the percentage of discount given by the general
l
ag
store owner? (Correct up to two decimal places)
Ans 1. 8.98%

2. 9.09%

3. 8.08%

4. 9.99%

Q.31 How many seconds will a boy take to run one complete round around a square field of
side 51 metres, if he runs at a speed of 9 km/h?

m
Ans 1. 79

2. 91

m .co
3. 81.5
s e
4. 82
g la
Q.32
a
For what prime number p in the number 3785p so that the number is exactly divisible by
3?
Ans 1. 1

2. 7

3. 3

4. 5

m
.co
Q.33 The difference between the compound and simple interest accrued on ₹18,000 in 2

m
years was ₹405. What was the rate of interest percentage compounded per annum?
Ans

m.co 1. 16%

s e m
s e 2. 13%

g l a
g l a 3. 12%
a
a 4. 15%

Q.34 In a race, an athlete covers a distance of 408 m in 68 sec in the first lap. He covers the
second lap of the same length in 136 sec. What is the average speed (in m/sec) of the
athlete?
Ans 1. 7

2. 1

3. 6

m .
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4. 4

e m
e m l as
l as ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 45 of 60

Q.35
Find the value of 14 -10 ÷ 14 13 × 14 -7
Ans 1.
14 -25
2.
14 -26
3.
14 -30
4.
14 -37

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.36 Refer to the following series and answer the question (all numbers are single digit
numbers only).

(Left) 2 2 1 3 8 1 4 1 4 8 3 6 8 6 2 1 3 7 4 4 1 (Right)

How many such odd digits are there each of which is immediately preceded by an even
digit and also immediately followed by a perfect square?
Ans 1. Four

2. Two

3. One

4. Three

Q.37 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

93 182 129 161 165 140 201 119 ?
Ans 1. 237

2. 221

3. 249

4. 240

Q.38 P, Q, R, S, T, U and V sit around a circular table facing the centre. Only one person sits
between P and Q when counted from the left of Q. U sits third to the right of T. V sits
third to the left of S. U sits to the immediate right of V. R is not an immediate neighbour
of V. How many people sit between R and P when counted from the right of P?
Ans 1. 4

2. 3

3. 2

4. 1

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 46 of 60

m
.co
Q.39 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as
m
shown below.

. co s e m
m a
se ag l

m
m .co
Ans

m .co s em
s e l a
l a ag
ag
1.

2.

m
m .co
s e
g la
3.
a

m
.co
4.

m
m.co s e m
s e g l a
g l a Q.40 In a certain code language, a
a A × B means ‘A is the wife of B’
A + B means ‘A is the brother of B’
A ? B means ‘A is the father of B’
A ~ B means ‘A is the daughter of B’
Based on the above, how is E related to Y if 'E ~ N ? J + O × Y’?
Ans 1. Wife's sister

2. Wife's brother

3. Wife's father

m .
4. Wife's mother

m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 47 of 60

Q.41 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:

Some cats are dogs.

Some dogs are elephants.

All fishes are elephants.

Conclusions:

I. Some elephants may be cats.

II. Atleast some fishes are dogs.
Ans 1. Only I follows

2. Both I and II follow

3. Only II follows

4. Neither I nor II follows

Q.42 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. CE - FH

2. PR - SU

3. TU - XY

4. JL - MO

Q.43 In a row of 19 students facing north, Rina is 8th from the right end. If Suni is 9th to the
left of Rina, what is Suni's position from the left end of the line?
Ans 1. 2nd

2. 1st

3. 3rd

4. 4th

Q.44 M, N, O, P, Q, and R are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. P sits to the
immediate right of O. Q sits second to the right of P. R is not an immediate neighbour of
P. N sits second to the right of Q. Who sits to the immediate right of R?
Ans 1. M

2. N

3. Q

4. P

Q.45 In a certain code language, ‘DIME’ is coded as ‘4691’ and ‘MADE’ is coded as ‘9412’.
What is the code for ‘A’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 4

2. 1

3. 9

4. 2

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 48 of 60

m
.co
Q.46 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
m
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly

. co known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.
s e m
m a
se Statements:
All sparrows are dolphins.
ag l
All crows are bulbuls.
No bulbuls are sparrows.

Conclusions:
(I) Some dolphins are bulbuls.
(II) No crows are sparrows.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

3. Only conclusion (I) follows.
m
m .co
.co
4. Only conclusion (II) follows.

em
Q.47
e m
Select the term from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in
l as
the following series.

l as ag
ag
MNX 62, SRZ 54, YVB 46, EZD 38, ?
Ans 1. JDG 28

2. KEG 28

3. KDF 30

4. JEF 30

Q.48 If ‘+’ and ‘×’ are interchanged and ‘−’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged, then what will come in
place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

m
.co
32 ÷ 12 − 6 × 2 + 3 = ?
Ans 1. 40

e m
2. 36

las
3. 35

4. 30 ag
Q.49 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 2 / 5 6 @ 3 ? 8 3 7 6 * 7 # 2 7 * 9 \ $ 4 (Right)

How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol
and also immediately followed by a symbol?
Ans 1. Four
m
m
2. Three
.co
m.co 3. Two
s e m
s e 4. One
g l a
g l a a
a Q.50 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.
KGC−GCY
YUQ−UQM
Ans 1. SNI−OKG

2. SNI−NJF

3. SOK−NKF

4. WSO−SOK

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 49 of 60

Q.51 If + means −, − means ×, × means ÷ and ÷ means +, then what will come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following equation?
63 ÷ 70 × 14 − 12 + 15 = ?
Ans 1. 108

2. 105

3. 106

4. 104

Q.52 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

MTAH UBIP CJQX KRYF ?
Ans 1. SGZN

2. SZGN

3. SZNG

4. SGNZ

Q.53 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

919 918 915 910 903 ?
Ans 1. 896

2. 895

3. 894

4. 893

Q.54 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statement(s) is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
Some sugars are jaggery.
No jaggery is honey.

Conclusions:
(I) Some sugars are honey.
(II) Some jaggery are sugars.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

3. Only conclusion (I) follows.

4. Only conclusion (II) follows.

Q.55 XZ 42 is related to ZX 41 in a certain way. In the same way, ST 35 is related to TS 34. To
which of the following is QR 33 related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. RS 32

2. PQ 33

3. RQ 32

4. RP 34

Q.56 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

21, 34, 60, 99, 151 ?
Ans 1. 218

2. 212

3. 216

4. 214

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 50 of 60

m
.co
Q.57 P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Only U sits
m
between R and Q. Q sits third to the left of T. S sits to the immediate left of T. P is not an

. co immediate neighbour of Q. How many people sit between P and U when counted from
the right of U?
s e m
m a
se Ans 1. 2

2. 1 ag l
3. 3

4. 4

Q.58 In a certain code language,
'A + B' means 'A is the sister of B',
'A − B' means 'A is the brother of B',
'A / B' means 'A is the wife of B',
'A ! B' means 'A is the husband of B',
m
.co
'A * B' means 'A is the mother of B' and

m
'A × B' means 'A is the father of B'.

.co
How is M related to B if 'M / Q × T − B + S'?
m s em
Ans 1. Sister
s e l a
2. Mother
l a ag
ag
3. Father

4. Brother

Q.59 Kavish starts from Point A and drives 13 km towards East. He then takes a right turn,
drives 7 km, turns right and drives 15 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 9 km. He
takes a final right turn, drives 2 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
90 degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 3 km to the South
m
.co
2. 2 km to the North

3. 3 km to the North
e m
4. 2 km to the South
las
ag

m
m .co
m.co s e m
s e g l a
g l a a
a

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 51 of 60

Q.60 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of the question mark (?)
will logically complete the series.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.61 In a certain code language, ‘have a party’ is coded as ‘ds fg rt’ and ‘party and enjoy’ is
coded as ‘tr ds gf’. How is ‘party’ coded in the given language?
Ans 1. ds

2. fg

3. rt

4. gf

Q.62 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. AO – PF

2. KY – ZP

3. PY – IN

4. QE – FV

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 52 of 60

m
.co
Q.63 Refer to the following letter, symbol series and answer the question. Counting to be
m
done from left to right only.

. co (Left) @ 5 7 ^ \ / 3 / $ % / * 2 # $ & \ / 3 > ^ (Right)
How many such numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol
s e m
m a
se l
and also immediately followed by another number?
Ans 1. One
ag
2. None

3. Two

4. Three

Q.64 Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. Only G is kept above D. Only two boxes are kept between D and B. Only F
is kept below C. A is not kept immediately above B. How many boxes are kept between
G and E?
m
.co
Ans 1. 3
m
.co m
2. 1

m s e
3. 4

s e l a
4. 2
l a ag
Q.65 ag
In a certain code language, ‘ORANGE’ is coded as ‘321965’ and ‘BANANA’ is coded as
‘496969’. What is the code for ‘A’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 5

2. 9

3. 6

4. 3

m
.co
Q.66 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

DGC8 FIE12 HKG16 JMI20 ?
e m
Ans 1. ILP24
las
2. LOT23
ag
3. LPI20

4. LOK24

Q.67 Select the option in which the numbers share the same relationship as that shared by
the given pair of numbers.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13, can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
m
m .co
.co
12, 30
16, 38
e m
e
Ans
m 1. 15, 35
l as
l as 2. 12, 27
ag
ag 3. 11, 29

4. 10, 26

Q.68 If ‘+’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged and ‘−’ and ‘×’ are interchanged, then what will come in
place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

40 × 6 − 24 + 4 ÷ 5 = ?
Ans 1. 5

2. 10
m .
3. 12

m .co s e m
4. 9
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 53 of 60

Q.69 Daniel starts from Point A and drives 12 km towards west. He then takes a right turn,
drives 8 km, turns right and drives 13 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 11 km.
He takes a final right turn, drives 1 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance)
and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns
are 90 degrees turns only unless specified)
Ans 1. 3 km to the north

2. 3 km to the south

3. 4 km to the south

4. 4 km to the north

Q.70 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

CUS : EQV
EYA : GUC
Ans 1. PCM : RGO

2. AVI : CRG

3. IHM : GDO

4. VIK : XEM

Section : General Awareness

Q.71 What is the main focus of Article 356 of the India Constitution?
Ans 1. National emergency

2. Fundamental duties

3. Special provisions for Jammu and Kashmir

4. President's rule in states

Q.72 Which of the following states is known for extensive cultivation of coffee in India?
Ans 1. Assam

2. Karnataka

3. Maharashtra

4. Punjab

Q.73 India's first bullet train project is under construction between which of the following
cities?
Ans 1. Ahmedabad - Mumbai

2. Delhi - Lucknow

3. Mumbai - Bangalore

4. Chennai - Hyderabad

Q.74 Which Article states that the State shall strive to promote the welfare of the people?

Ans 1. Article 36

2. Article 39

3. Article 40

4. Article 38

Q.75 In August 2024, which state assembly passed Compulsory Registration of Muslim
Marriages and Divorces Bill, 2024?
Ans 1. Meghalaya

2. Assam

3. Uttar Pradesh

4. Himachal Pradesh

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 54 of 60

m
.co
Q.76 Which of the following statements about Gay-Lussac's Law is correct?
m
co
Ans 1. The volume of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature at constant pressure.

. e m
m s
2. The pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume at constant temperature.
a
se g l
3. The total pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of the individual gases.
a
4. The pressure of a given mass of gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature at constant volume.

Q.77 What is the GDP growth forecast for India in FY 2025-26, according to the International
Monetary Fund (IMF)?
Ans 1. 6.3%

2. 6.5%

3. 6.0%

m
.co
4. 6.8%

m
Q.78
.co
The 29th Conference of Parties (COP-29) of the United Nations Framework Convention

m s em
on Climate Change from 11–22 November 2024 was held in ______________.

s e l a
a ag
Ans 1. Azerbaijan

l
ag
2. Canada

3. India

4. Italy

Q.79 Which of the following vegetation types are common in the Thar desert?
Ans 1. Mangroves

2. Dense temperate forests

3. Xerophytic shrubs and grasses
m
.co
4. Tropical evergreen forests

e m
Q.80
s
Government of India introduced the gender budget statement for the first time in the
year __________.
la
Ans 1. 2004-2005
ag
2. 2001-2002

3. 2002-2003

4. 2005-2006

Q.81 Which two countries signed Bilateral Investment Treaty (BIT) on 27 September 2024 to
boost investor confidence and enhance economic cooperation?
Ans 1. India and Uzbekistan
m
.co
2. Sri Lanka and Kenya
m
.co m
3. USA and Philippines

m s e
s e 4. South Korea and France

g l a
g l a Q.82 What was a key feature of the economic reforms in India after 1991? a
a Ans 1. Decreased private sector involvement

2. Strict control over foreign investments

3. Nationalisation of industries

4. Liberalisation of trade policies

Q.83 Meerananda Barthakur is a famous _____ dancer.
Ans 1. Manipuri

m .
.co m
2. Kuchipudi

m s e
a
3. Sattriya

s e l
a ag
4. Kathak

g l
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 55 of 60

Q.84 What is the name given to India’s first-ever AI teacher robot launched in a Kerala school
in March 2024?
Ans 1. Shalu

2. Vidya

3. Sophia

4. Iris

Q.85 What was the main objective of the Special Campaign 4.0 launched by the Department
of Financial Services in October 2024?
Ans 1. To attract foreign investments

2. To minimise pendency and institutionalise Swachhata

3. To increase revenue

4. To enhance employee productivity

Q.86 Which Constitutional Amendment conferred the constitutional status upon the National
Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST)?
Ans 1. 85th Amendment Act

2. 89th Amendment Act

3. 101st Amendment Act

4. 102nd Amendment Act

Q.87 Match the following.
Indus Valley Civilisa on Site Excavator
(A). Harappa I. R Rao
(B). Dholavira II. JP Joshi
(C). Surkotada III. RS Bisht
(D). Lothal IV. Daya Ram Sahini
Ans 1. A-I; B-III; C-II; D-IV

2. A-II; B-IV; C-III; D-I

3. A-III; B-I; C-IV; D-II

4. A-IV; B-III; C-II; D-I

Q.88 What was the Goods and Services Tax (GST) collection for India in September 2024?
Ans 1. ₹1,65,000 crore

2. ₹1,70,500 crore

3. ₹1,73,240 crore

4. ₹1,80,000 crore

Q.89 Under whose leadership did the British forces suppress the Revolt of 1857 in Kanpur?
Ans 1. John Nicholson

2. General Hugh Rose

3. Colonel Oncell

4. Sir Colin Campbell

Q.90 In which of the following states is Sanchi Stupa currently situated?
Ans 1. Odisha

2. Rajasthan

3. Madhya Pradesh

4. Chhattisgarh

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 56 of 60

m
.co
Q.91 Real gases deviate from the ideal gas law because of intermolecular interactions among
m
their molecules. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the pressure of

. co a real gas compared to the ideal gas pressure?

s e m
m Ans
a
1. The pressure of real gas decreases by a correction term which is directly proportional to the square of the volume.

se ag l
2. The pressure of real gas increases by a correction term which is inversely proportional to square of the volume.

3. The pressure of real gas increases by a correction term which is directly proportional to the square of the volume.

4. The pressure of real gas decreases by a correction term which is inversely proportional to the square of the volume.

Q.92 The Indian Army conducted which of the following Multilateral Annual Joint
Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) Exercises at Ahmedabad and
Porbandar in November 2024?
Ans 1. Operation Vijay 2024

2. Operation Kaveri
m
3. Operation Karuna
m .co
4. Sanyukt Vimochan 2024

m .co s e m
s e l a
a ag
Q.93 Which of the following sacred texts provide(s) most of the information about the social
l
ag
and economic life of the early Vedic period?
Ans 1. Ramayana

2. Upnishadas

3. Mahabhatarta

4. Vedas

Q.94 1 kg L−1 = ______ g cm−3
Ans 1. 1000

m
.co
2. 1

3. 100
e m
4. 10
las
Q.95 ag
A macromolecule consisting of ten or more monosaccharide units linked together by
glycosidic bonds is called:
Ans 1. a monosaccharide

2. a disaccharide

3. an oligosaccharide

4. a polysaccharide

Q.96 Which organisation partnered with NABARD to organise the 'Climate Changemakers'
m
.co
dialogue in August 2024?
m
.co
Ans 1. United Nations

e m
e m 2. International Monetary Fund

l as
l as 3. World Bank
ag
ag 4. Deutsche Gesellschaft für Internationale Zusammenarbeit (GIZ) GmbH

Q.97 To which political party does Omar Abdullah, who became the Chief Minister of Jammu
and Kashmir after the abrogation of Article 370, belong?
Ans 1. People's Democratic Party

2. Jammu and Kashmir National Panthers Party

3. Indian National Congress

4. National Conference

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 57 of 60

Q.98 How many biotech products were launched by Indian startups at the Global Bio-India
held in September 2024, highlighting the country's emerging talent in bioscience?
Ans 1. 11

2. 14

3. 5

4. 7

Q.99 The Government of India initiated and announced the policy of Special Economic Zones
to attract foreign investments in business. This was announced in the year ________.
Ans 1. 2002

2. 2007

3. 2000

4. 2005

Q.100 Cherrapunji and Mawsynram (receive annual rainfall exceeding 1,080 cm) are located in
which hills of Meghalaya?
Ans 1. Garo hills

2. Jaintia hills

3. Khasi hills

4. Shillong hills

Q.101 When did the revolt of 1857 start?
Ans 1. 11 May 1857

2. 10 May 1857

3. 10 June 1857

4. 11 June 1857

Q.102 Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with languages?
Ans 1. Twelfth Schedule

2. Tenth Schedule

3. Eighth Schedule

4. Sixth Schedule

Q.103 Example of a gaseous conductor is ____________.
Ans 1. nitrogen

2. oxygen

3. argon

4. wet air

Q.104 In 2011, the sex ratio (number of females per 1000 males) at all India level was 943 and
the same for rural areas was ______________.
Ans 1. 931

2. 949

3. 929

4. 952

Q.105 Which of the following crops increases the natural fertility of soils through nitrogen
fixation?
Ans 1. Cereal grains

2. Pulses

3. Root vegetables

4. Oilseeds

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 58 of 60

m
.co
Q.106 During the winter months, the weather conditions in India are primarily influenced by
m
the high-pressure system over which region?

. co
Ans 1. Central and Western Australia
s e m
m a
se l
2. Central and Western Asia

3. Central and Southern Europe
ag
4. Central and Eastern Asia

Q.107 Which of the following is true regarding the removal of a judge of a High Court in India?
Ans 1. A judge can only be removed after an address from Parliament, supported by a special majority.

2. The procedure for removal of a High Court judge differs from that of a Supreme Court judge.

3. A judge can be removed on any grounds as decided by the President.

m
.co
4. The President can remove a judge without any parliamentary involvement.

m
.co
Q.108 In August 2024, The Madras High Court declared which of the following Sections
unconstitutional?
m s em
s e l a
ag
Ans 1. Section 123 of the Registration Act

l a
ag
2. Section 45 of the Registration Act

3. Section 77-A of the Registration Act

4. Section 50 of the Registration Act

Q.109 Who among the following founded the secret Congress Radio, which broadcast
messages of independence and anti-British propaganda and made significant
contributions to the freedom struggle?
Ans 1. Aruna Roy

2. Usha Mehta
m
.co
3. Sunitha Krishnan

4. Kalpana Datta
e m
las
ag
Q.110 Which Article of the Indian Constitution allows the State to make special provisions for
the advancement of any socially and educationally backward class?
Ans 1. Article 17

2. Article 15

3. Article 16

4. Article 18

Q.111 Which of the following are the two main fibre crops grown in India?
Ans 1. Rayon and Nylon
m
m
2. Wool and Silk
.co
m .co 3. Cotton and Jute
s e m
s e 4. Flax and Hemp
g l a
g l a a
a Q.112 The frequency and paths of the tropical depressions originating from the Bay of Bengal
are mainly determined by the position of which of the following?
Ans 1. Tropic of Cancer

2. Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ)

3. Equator

4. Tropic of Capricorn

Q.113 After which of the following wars did the British company rule formally begin in India?
m .
.co m
Ans 1. Battle of Plassey

2. Third Battle of Panipat
m s e
s e l a
a ag
3. Second Carnatic War

g l
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 59 of 60