RPF Constable 2025 Question Paper 09 Mar All Shifts (in English)

FOR RPF CONSTABLE EXAM PREPARATION

RPF Constable 2025
Question Paper · All
Shifts English
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT DATE

RPF Constable 2025 Question Paper All Shifts English 09 Mar

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Exam Date 09/03/2025
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Centre Name iON Digital Zone iDZ Tirunelveli
Exam Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
* Note
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.
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Section : Arithmetic
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Q.1 The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 77 and the third
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number is 132. Find the average of the remaining two numbers?
Ans 1. 185.5

2. 184.5

3. 210

4. 209

Q.2 There are 2664 students in a school and the ratio of boys to girls in the school is 41 : 31,
then find the number of boys in school.
Ans 1. 1499
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2. 1509

3. 1515
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4. 1517
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Ans
1.

2.
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4.

Q.4 A number when increased by 40 %', gives 3290. The number is:
Ans 1. 4700

2. 7050

3. 1175

4. 2350

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Q.5 In what ratio should sugar costing ₹27 per kg be mixed with sugar costing ₹55 per kg so
that by selling the mixture at ₹57.6 per kg, there is a profit of 44%?
Ans 1. 15 : 13

2. 14 : 16

3. 15 : 11

4. 15 : 17

Q.6 A pipe can fill a tank in 7 hours. Another pipe can empty the filled tank in 21 hours. If
both the pipes are opened simultaneously, then the time (in hours) in which the tank will
be two-third filled, is:
Ans 1. 28

2. 21

3. 7

4. 14

Q.7 The volume (in cm3) of a wire of diameter 28 cm and length 14 m is:

Ans 1. 861400

2. 862400

3. 862500

4. 861900

Q.8 If the cost price is 72% of the selling price, what is the profit percentage
(approximately)?
Ans 1. 14.4%

2. 38.8%

3. 61.2%

4. 28%

Q.9 A company earns a profit (in ₹) that is distributed among the company's three partners
in the ratio of 12 : 13 : 15. If the difference between the smallest and the largest shares
is ₹36684, the total profit (in ₹) of the company is:
Ans 1. 489096

2. 489144

3. 489120

4. 489085

Q.10 After 57 litres of petrol was poured into an empty storage tank, it was still 1% empty.
How much petrol (in litres, rounded off to two decimal place) must be poured into the
storage tank in order to fill it?
Ans 1. 56.58

2. 58.58

3. 57.58

4. 58

Q.11 Evaluate: 41 - [36 - {48 ÷ 2 - (6 - 6 ÷ 3) ÷ 2}]
Ans 1. 28

2. 27

3. 29

4. 26

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 2 of 60

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Q.12 A bus travelling at 84 km/h completes a journey in 7 hours. At what speed will it have to
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cover the same distance in 14 hours?

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Ans 1. 42 km/h
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2. 44 km/h

3. 40 km/h
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4. 45 km/h

Q.13 A 375 m long train crosses a man walking at a speed of 10.2 km/h in the opposite
direction in 15 seconds. What is the speed (in km/h) of the train?
Ans 1. 77.3

2. 77.6

3. 76.2
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4. 79.8
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Q.14
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If a pipe can fill a tank in 5 hours and another pipe can empty the tank in 8 hours, then
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what part of the tank will be filled by both pipes in 1 hour, if both pipes are open
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simultaneously?
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Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

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Q.15 Evaluate: 2 × {17 - 3 × (8 -6)}

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Ans 1. 21

2. 19
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3. 22
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4. 26

Q.16 The sum of 8 numbers is 924. Find their average.
Ans 1. 114.5

2. 116.5

3. 113.5

4. 115.5
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Q.17 What is the HCF of 24 and 36?

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Ans 1. 6

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a 3. 12

4. 8

Q.18

Ans 1. 20%

2. 10%

3. 15%

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4. 25%

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Q.19 The speed of the current is 4 km/hr. A motorboat goes 6 km upstream and back again to
the starting point in 48 minutes. The speed (in km/hr) of the motor of the sailor is:
Ans 1. 17

2. 16

3. 18

4. 8

Q.20 Two banks, A and B, offered loans at 3.5% and 6% per annum, respectively. Ajay
borrowed an amount of ₹500000 from each bank. Find the positive difference between
the amounts of simple interest paid to the two banks by Ajay after 2 years.
Ans 1. 26500

2. 26000

3. 25000

4. 24500

Q.21 Three pipes, A, B and C, together can fill a tank in 8 hours. After working together for 2
hours, C is closed, and A and B can fill the remaining part in 9 hours. Find the time
taken by C to fill the empty tank alone.
Ans 1. 20 hours

2. 24 hours

3. 16 hours

4. 12 hours

Q.22 If an item is sold at marked price, the percentage of profit is 50%. A discount of x% is
offered on the marked price and the profit earned is x%. The value of x is ______.
Ans 1. 25

2. 22.5

3. 27.5

4. 20

Q.23 Evaluate the value of x if (5420 + 3312 + x) ÷ 600 = 25.93.
Ans 1. 6359

2. 6826

3. 6287

4. 1558

Q.24

Ans 1. 8,235 cm3

2. 3,258 cm3

3. 5,832 cm3

4. 2,538 cm3

Q.25 At what rate of compound interest per annum will a sum of ₹3,600 become ₹4,277.16 in
2 years?
Ans 1. 9%

2. 8%

3. 9.5%

4. 8.5%

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 4 of 60

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Q.26 PQRS is a rectangle. The ratio of the sides PQ and QR is 3 : 4. If the length of the
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diagonal PR is 10 cm, then what is the perimeter (in cm) of the rectangle?

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Ans 1. 24
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2. 28

3. 36
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4. 30

Q.27 A student’s marks in an exam increased from 72 to 90. What is the percentage increase
in the student's marks?
Ans 1. 20%

2. 10%

3. 25%
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4. 15%
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Q.28
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In an exam, the average marks obtained by John in English, Maths, Hindi and Drawing
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were 50.5. His average marks in Maths, Science, Social Studies and Craft were 70. If the
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average marks in all seven subjects was 58, his score in Maths was:
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Ans 1. 50

2. 60

3. 76

4. 52

Q.29 A car travels 194 km in the first hour and 286 km in the second hour. What is the
average speed (in km/h) of the car for the whole journey?
Ans 1. 246

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2. 249

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3. 240

4. 234
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Q.30
Ans 1. 8%
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2. 4%

3. 6%

4. 2%

Q.31 Which of the following numbers is exactly divisible by all prime numbers between 1 and
17?
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Ans 1. 550540
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2. 818313

m s e
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g l a
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a Q.32 The average of first 130 even numbers is
Ans 1. 130.5

2. 132

3. 131.5

4. 131

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Q.33 Find out the value of 'y' in the following equation.

Ans 1. 5

2. 3

3. 2

4. 4

Q.34 There is a 40% increase in an amount in 4 years at simple interest. What will be the
compound interest on ₹15,000 after 3 years at the same rate (compounded annually)?
Ans 1. ₹4,965

2. ₹1,331

3. ₹5,000

4. ₹19,965

Q.35 The greatest 5-digit number which is completely divisible by 11, 22, 33, 44 and 55 is:
Ans 1. 99880

2. 99680

3. 99660

4. 99860

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.36 Each of B, E, Y, O, N, D and S has an interview on a different day of a week, starting
from Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week. Only three people have an
interview before D. E has an interview on one of the days after O and on one of the days
before S. Y has an interview on one of the days after N and on one of the days before B.
N has an interview on one of the days after D. How many people have an interview
between Y and E?
Ans 1. Zero

2. Three

3. One

4. Two

Q.37 In a certain code language,
‘A # B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’,
‘A % B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’,
‘A − B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’ and
‘A @ B’ means ‘ A is the father of B’.

How is K related to Y if ‘K @ L % P # O − Y’?
Ans 1. Wife's father

2. Wife's mother's father

3. Wife's mother's brother

4. Wife's brother

Q.38 Darpan starts from Point P and drives 8 km towards west. Then she takes a right turn,
drives 10 km. She turns right again and drives 12 km. She then takes a right turn and
drives 16 km. She then takes a final right turn and drives 4 km and stops at Point Q.
How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should she drive in order to
reach Point P again? (All the turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 6 km towards east

2. 6 km towards north

3. 4 km towards west

4. 6 km towards west

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 6 of 60

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Q.39 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
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given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly

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statements.
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se Statements:
All buns are grinders.
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All grinders are lamps.

Conclusions:
(I) : Some lamps are grinders.
(II) : All buns are lamps.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

2. Only conclusion (II) follows

3. Only conclusion (I) follows

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4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
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Q.40
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Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
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given series to make it logically complete?

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AFC18 DIF27 GLI36 JOL45 ?

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Ans 1. MKO55

2. MPL50

3. MRO54

4. MNO64

Q.41 Select the triad that follows the same pattern as the one followed by the two triads
given below. Both triads follow the same pattern.

MT-PW-RU
PW-SZ-UX
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Ans 1. EL-HO-JM

2. FL-HO-JN
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3. FL-HP-JN
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4. EL-HO-JN
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Q.42 Guru starts from Point A and drives 32 km towards the east. He then takes a right turn,
drives 34 km, turns right and drives 35 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 36 km.
He takes a final right turn, drives 3 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance)
and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns
are 90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 3 km to the south

2. 2 km to the south

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3. 2 km to the north

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4. 4 km to the north

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Q.43 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
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g l a are single-digit numbers only and counting to be done from left to right only).
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a (Left) 7 2 9 2 5 5 4 3 9 3 2 5 3 9 1 7 1 5 3 3 2 2 8 (Right)

How many such odd digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an even
digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?
Ans 1. Three

2. None

3. Two

4. One

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Q.44 In a certain code language, ‘all the way’ is coded as ‘io er sw’ and ‘we all are’ is coded
as ‘tg io nb’. How is ‘all’ coded in the given language?
Ans 1. tg

2. nb

3. sw

4. io

Q.45 In a certain code language, ‘she is beautiful’ is coded as ‘ne oq bs’ and ‘where is he’ is
coded as ‘os tr oq’. How is ‘is’ coded in the given language?
Ans 1. tr

2. oq

3. ne

4. os

Q.46 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) $ < 2 7 > / 7 5 6 / < @ * 6 @ 8 3 9 $ ^ 6 (Right)

How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and also immediately followed by a number?
Ans 1. Two

2. None

3. Three

4. One

Q.47 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statement(s) is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
All cottages are buildings.
All cottages are skyscrapers.

Conclusions:
(I) Some buildings are skyscrapers.
(II) All skyscrapers are cottages.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (II) follows.

2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

3. Only conclusion (I) follows.

4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Q.48 Each of the digits in the number 91624538 is arranged in descending order from left to
right. The position of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in the
original number?
Ans 1. Two

2. None

3. Three

4. One

Q.49 Seven boxes A, B, C, D, U, V and W are kept one over the other but not necessarily in
the same order. V is kept immediately above U. A is kept immediately above B. Only W
is kept above C. Only two boxes are kept above V. A is not kept at third position from
the bottom. How many boxes are kept between D and W?
Ans 1. One

2. Four

3. Three

4. Two

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 8 of 60

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Q.50 Select the triad that follows the same pattern as the one followed by the two triads
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given below. Both triads follow the same pattern.

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KQ - QS - WU
Ans 1. VU - TR - QO
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2. IH - GF – NM

3. DC - BA - YX

4. EC - KE - QG

Q.51 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

MBF69, YPR101, KDD133, WRP165, ?
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Ans 1. ICB197
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2. IFB198

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3. LFB197

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4. IFB197
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Q.52 ag
What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

31 63 127 255 ? 1023
Ans 1. 611

2. 411

3. 511

4. 711

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Q.53 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers

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are single digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

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(Left) 2 3 4 7 6 8 1 5 9 2 6 5 7 4 3 8 1 5 9 7 3 4 2 1 5 4 7 (Right)

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How many such odd digits are there each of which is immediately preceded by an even
digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?
Ans 1. Three

2. Two

3. One

4. More than three

Q.54 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, what will
come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?
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9B2A3C8D3=?
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Ans 1. 5

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2. 11

g l a
g l a 3. 9
a
a 4. 8

Q.55 In a certain code language,
A + B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
A @ B means ‘A is the son of B’,
A - B means ‘A is the father of B’,
A * B means ‘A is the brother of B’.

Based on the above, how is P related to H if ‘P @ I + T * C - H’?
Ans 1. Father's brother's son

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2. Father's son's sister

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3. Father's brother's sister

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4. Father's brother's mother

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Q.56 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. DS - CR

2. GK - FJ

3. LR - JP

4. WH - VG

Q.57 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

6 6 9 18 45 ?
Ans 1. 140

2. 150

3. 135

4. 145

Q.58 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs
are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT
belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. ZZ – XD

2. VH – TL

3. DR – BV

4. AC – DF

Q.59 Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the
given series will complete the series.

DB_A H_GE _JKI PN_M T_SQ
Ans 1. CELOR

2. CFMOR

3. CFLOS

4. CFLOR

Q.60 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some goats are tickets.
No clocks are tickets.
All tickets are pigeons.

Conclusions:
(I) Some goats are pigeons.
(II) Some goats are not clocks.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

2. Only conclusion (II) follows.

3. Only conclusion (I) follows.

4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 10 of 60

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Q.61 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
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the following sets.

. co (NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /
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subtracting / multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and
then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
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(6, 20, 26)
(4, 14, 20)
Ans 1. (5, 17,23)

2. (8, 22, 28)

3. (9, 29, 23)

4. (12, 34, 40)

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Q.62 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as
shown below.
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s e l a
l a ag
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Ans

1.

m
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s e
2.

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a
3.

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4.

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Q.63 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
g l a
g l a below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.
KIO : IFJ a
a Ans
JDI : HAD
1. CRG : ANB

2. FPT : DMP

3. DQW : BNS

4. FUP : DRK

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Q.64 Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a row, facing north. Only five people
sit between B and F. E sits to the immediate left of F. Only one person sits between E
and D. C sits at some place to the left of G but at some place to the right of A. How
many people sit between B and E?
Ans 1. 1

2. 3

3. 2

4. 4

Q.65 If 1 is added to the digits which are at odd places, and the digits at even places remain
unchanged in the number 2435, then what will be the sum of the first and last digits of
the new number thus formed?
Ans 1. 9

2. 11

3. 10

4. 8

Q.66 Seven friends C, D, E, P, Q, R and S are sitting in a straight line facing north. No one sits
to the right of D. Only two people sits between Q and E. E sits immediately to the left of
D. R sits third to the left of C. P sits to the immediate left of E. How many people sit
between S and E?
Ans 1. None

2. Three

3. One

4. Two

Q.67 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. F sits to the
immediate right of B. E sits third to the right of F. C sits second to the left of E. A is the
immediate neighbour of D and E.
How many people sit between B and G when counted from the left of B?
Ans 1. Three

2. One

3. Zero

4. Four

Q.68 In a certain code language, ‘POST’ is coded as ‘3671’, ‘SOLE’ is coded as ‘2168’ and
‘TALK’ is coded as ‘5789’. What is the code for ‘E’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 1

2. 6

3. 2

4. 8

Q.69 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

16 27 49 82 ? 181
Ans 1. 127

2. 124

3. 125

4. 126

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 12 of 60

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Q.70 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of the question mark (?)
m
will logically complete the series.

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m a
se ag l

Ans

1.

m
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m .co s em
s e l a
l a ag
ag
2.

3.

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s e
g la
a
4.

Section : General Awareness
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Q.71 Which of the following statements is true about the Directive Principles of State Policy

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(DPSP) mentioned in the Indian Constitution?
Ans
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1. DPSP’s are legally bounded.
s e
s e 2. DPSP’s are non-justiciable.
g l a
g l a 3. DPSP’s are non-amendable. a
a 4. DPSP’s are justiciable.

Q.72 For a system, moment of inertia (I) angular velocity (ω) graph looks like:
Ans 1. rectangular hyperbola

2. sigmoidal

3. straight-line passing through origin

4. exponential
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Q.73 The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation, in August 2024, has granted approval
to Siemens Healthineers for the manufacture of RT-PCR testing kits for detection of
_____________.
Ans 1. Small Pox

2. Dengue

3. Swine Flu

4. Monkey Pox

Q.74 Name the artificial intelligence-enabled chatbot launched by SEBI on 29th July 2024?
Ans 1. SARATHI

2. SEVA

3. SHAKTI

4. SAFAR

Q.75 Who was appointed the new chairman of the Bombay Stock Exchange Brokers’ Forum
(BBF) in September 2024?
Ans 1. Kishor Kansagra

2. Anup Gupta

3. Harsh Mehta

4. Gautam Adani

Q.76 When milk gets converted into curd, the bacteria improves its nutritional quality by
increasing _____.
Ans 1. vitamin A

2. vitamin C

3. vitamin B12

4. vitamin D

Q.77 Ravi Shankar was a legendary _____________ player.
Ans 1. flute

2. guitar

3. tabla

4. sitar

Q.78 The Indian Councils Act of 1909 is also known as ________.
Ans 1. Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms

2. Ilbert Bill

3. Morley-Minto Reforms

4. Pitt’s India Act

Q.79 What is the maximum number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, allowed in a
state council of ministers as per Article 164?
Ans 1. 10% of the total strength of the legislative assembly

2. 20% of the total strength of the legislative assembly

3. 15% of the total strength of the legislative assembly

4. 12% of the total strength of the legislative assembly

Q.80 Which film was selected as the opening film for the Indian Panorama section at IFFI
2024?
Ans 1. Karkhanu

2. Swatantrya Veer Savarkar

3. Kalki 2898 AD

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 14 of 60

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Q.81 Where was the 14th meeting of the India-Australia Joint Working Group on counter-
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terrorism held on 12 August 2024?

. Ans 1. Kolkata
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se 2. Mumbai

3. New Delhi ag l
4. Bengaluru

Q.82 Acetic acid is found in which of the following kitchen ingredients?
Ans 1. Milk

2. Vinegar

3. Sugar

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4. Baking soda

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Q.83
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When did ISRO launch a microsatellite equipped with advanced payloads designed for

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environmental monitoring, disaster management and remote sensing applications?

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Ans 1. 16 August 2024

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2. 8 September 2024

3. 8 August 2024

4. 16 September 2024

Q.84 Under which Section of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, was the Central Consumer
Protection Authority (CCPA) established?
Ans 1. Section 21

2. Section 15

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3. Section 12

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4. Section 10

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Q.85
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Who among the following was NOT associated with the 'moderate' phase of Indian
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a
National Congress?
Ans 1. Dadabhai Naoroji

2. Surendranath Banerjee

3. Bipin Chandra Pal

4. Gopal Krishna Gokhale

Q.86 SBI expects to plough back how much in profits by the end of FY24?
Ans 1. ₹14,205 crore
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2. ₹9,164 crore
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3. ₹40,000 crore

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s e 4. ₹47,620 crore

g l a
g l a Q.87 Which sector in India faces the highest level of seasonal unemployment? a
a Ans 1. IT sector

2. Education sector

3. Agricultural sector

4. Healthcare sector

Q.88 Goblet cells play a crucial role in maintaining the health of various organs. Where are
goblet cells primarily located in the human body?
Ans 1. Brain
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2. Kidneys

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3. Digestive tract
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4. Liver
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Q.89 Padas in Carnatic classical music are scholarly compositions in _____ and Tamil.
Ans 1. Telugu

2. Sanskrit

3. Kannada

4. Hindi

Q.90 With which of the following rivers is the Omkareshwar Project associated?
Ans 1. Tapi

2. Bhima

3. Chambal

4. Narmada

Q.91 MS Gopalakrishnan is known for playing which of the following musical instruments in
India?
Ans 1. Guitar

2. Sarangi

3. Violin

4. Sarod

Q.92 In which year did India experience a severe balance of payments crisis, prompting
economic reforms?
Ans 1. 1990

2. 1985

3. 1991

4. 1981

Q.93 The first volume of Akbarnama dealt with the history of _______.
Ans 1. the events of Akbar’s reign

2. Akbar’s ancestors

3. Akbar’s army and revenues

4. Akbar’s administration

Q.94 HSBC India's global education payment service, launched in 2024, allows Indian
students to pay fees to over how many international universities and colleges?
Ans 1. 400

2. 300

3. 600

4. 500

Q.95 In which year did Ram Prasad Bismil and his comrades, including Ashfaqullah Khan,
carry out the Kakori Train Action?
Ans 1. 1920

2. 1922

3. 1925

4. 1918

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 16 of 60

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Q.96 Which of the following statements is/are correct?
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Statement 2: There is hardly any seasonal change in the distribution pattern of the
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temperature in coastal areas of India.
Ans 1. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.
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2. Statement 1 is correct, while statement 2 is incorrect.

3. Statement 2 is correct, while statement 1 is incorrect.

4. Neither statement 1 nor statement 2 is correct.

Q.97 Which airport is known as Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose International Airport?
Ans 1. Hyderabad

2. Bhubaneshwar
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3. Patna
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4. Kolkata

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Q.98 Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Pradhan Mantri
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Grammen Sadak Yojana (PMGSY)?
1. PMGSY is a 100% centrally sponsored scheme.
2. This schemes connect the unconnected habitats of rural areas with a population 500
persons and above in plain areas.
3. This scheme is not applicable to hilly areas and North East states.
Ans 1. 2 and 3 only

2. 1, 2 and 3

3. 1 and 2 only

4. 1 and 3 only

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Q.99 Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve is located in which state?
Ans 1. Odisha
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2. Uttarakhand
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3. Karnataka
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4. Himachal Pradesh

Q.100 In July 2024, the Government of India upgraded the Indian Railway Catering and
Tourism Corporation to which category of Central Public Sector Enterprises?
Ans 1. Schedule D

2. Schedule A

3. Schedule B

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4. Schedule C
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Q.101 What is outsourcing?
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Ans 1. Exporting goods
g l a
g l a 2. Contracting out services to other countries
a
a 3. Importing goods

4. Lending of money

Q.102 Which of the following options correctly represents the chemical name (IUPAC) of
baking soda?
Ans 1. Sodium Chloride

2. Sodium Hydrogencarbonate

3. Potassium Bicarbonate
m .
4. Calcium Carbonate

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Q.103 Which of the following Articles of Part IV of the Indian Constitution has a provision for
the separation of Judiciary from the Executive?
Ans 1. Article 50

2. Article 51

3. Article 49

4. Article 48

Q.104 Who was the first ruler of the Gupta dynasty to adopt the grand title of Maharajadhiraja?
Ans 1. Chandragupta I

2. Kumaragupta

3. Vishnugupta

4. Skandagupta

Q.105 What is the approximate total length of the Golden Quadrilateral (GQ) highway network?
Ans 1. 5846 km

2. 1700 km

3. 7300 km

4. 1235 km

Q.106 For what purpose did the Assam government launched the 'Nijut Moina' scheme in
August 2024?
Ans 1. To eradicate child marriages by empowering female students and promoting education over early marriage

2. To eliminate financial difficulties for poor families

3. To support indigenous weavers and promote their traditional hand-woven items

4. To provide healthcare facilities to all the citizens who cannot afford proper treatment

Q.107 The trio of extremist leaders, Lal-Bal-Pal, became prominent after:
Ans 1. World War II

2. Dandi March

3. Non-Cooperation Movement

4. Partition of Bengal

Q.108 Articles 52 to 78 of the Indian Constitution deal with:
Ans 1. the Judiciary

2. the Union Executive

3. the State Executive

4. the Legislature

Q.109 Dr. BR Ambedkar was appointed as the _____ of independent India in 1947.
Ans 1. Defense Minister

2. Law Minister

3. Finance Minister

4. Education Minister

Q.110 In September 2024, President Droupadi Murmu approved the establishment of which of
the following commissions for the 2024-2027 term?
Ans 1. National Scheduled Tribe Commission

2. Law Commission

3. National Scheduled Castes Commission

4. Finance Commission

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 18 of 60

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Q.111 Which of the following Acts was based on the Mountbatten plan?
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Ans 1. Indian Independence Act, 1947

. e m
m 2. Simon Commission, 1927
as
se 3. Government of India Act, 1935
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4. Composition of Constituent Assembly

Q.112 The Great Indian Desert is also known as:
Ans 1. Thar Desert

2. Deccan Plateau

3. Kutch Desert

4. Malwa Plateau
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Q.113 Who won the Men's Goalkeeper of the Year award at the FIH Hockey Star Awards
ceremony on November 8, 2024?
em
Ans 1. PR Sreejesh
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2. Krishan Pathak
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3. Jarmanpreet Singh

4. Suraj Karkera

Q.114 What was ICICI Bank's net NPA ratio at the end of Q3 2024?
Ans 1. 0.55%

2. 0.44%

3. 0.50%

4. 0.43%
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Q.115 The Great Indian Plains are primarily known for:
m .co
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Ans 1. alluvial soils and high agricultural productivity

2. desert vegetation
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3. alluvial soils and low agricultural productivity

4. mineral resources and sand dunes

Q.116 Who is known as the inventor of the Mohan Veena in India?
Ans 1. Budhaditya Mukherjee

2. Pt. Vishwa Mohan Bhatt

3. Hara Shankar Bhattacharya
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m
4. M Rajam
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m .co
Q.117 Under the Sagar Mala project, the overall set of projects were divided into how many
s e m
s e number of pillars?
g l a
g l a Ans 1. 7
a
a 2. 11

3. 5

4. 9

Q.118 The U.S.- Nigeria ______ Transport Agreement, which has been provisionally applied
since 2000, entered into force on May 13, 2024.
Ans 1. Air

2. Water
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3. Rail

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4. Road
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Q.119 Which of the following is an example of economic development in action?
Ans 1. A factory producing more goods

2. Improved access to employment opportunities

3. A rise in consumer prices

4. A country lowering its interest rates

Q.120 Who was the first President of the Indian National Congress?
Ans 1. Gopal Krishna Gokhale

2. Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee

3. Firoz Shah Mehta

4. Dadabhai Naoroji

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 20 of 60

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Exam Date 09/03/2025
a
Centre Name iON Digital Zone iDZ Kottay am
Exam Time 12:30 PM - 2:00 PM
* Note
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.
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Section : Arithmetic
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Q.1 Prakash and Vinesh can complete a certain piece of work in 17 and 15 days,
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respectively, They started to work together, and after 4 days, Vinesh left. In how many
days will Prakash complete the remaining work?
Ans
1.

2.

3.
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4.
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Q.2
Ans
a
A number when increased by 40 %', gives 3360. The number is:
1. 1200

2. 7200

3. 2400

4. 4800

Q.3

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Ans

m.co s e m
s e
1.

g l a
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a 2.

3.

4.

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Q.4 A 338 m long train crosses a man walking at a speed of 6.8 km/h in the opposite
direction in 12 seconds. What is the speed (in km/h) of the train ?
Ans 1. 94.6

2. 97.5

3. 90.5

4. 91.6

Q.5 Pankaj and Kamal can do a piece of work in 12 days and 16 days, respectively. In how
much time will they together complete the same work?
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.6 A shopkeeper buys a watch for ₹2,000 and sells it for ₹2,400. What is the percentage of
profit?
Ans 1. 20%

2. 22.67%

3. 25%

4. 16.67%

Q.7 In a business, A, B and C invest ₹1,00,000, ₹2,00,000 and ₹2,50,000, respectively. If B
gets ₹5,500 as profit, then the total profit (in ₹) is:
Ans 1. 15,552

2. 15,125

3. 15,512

4. 15,215

Q.8 A dinner set is sold at ₹9,775 after giving a discount of 15%. What is the marked price of
the dinner set?
Ans 1. ₹13,250

2. ₹10,500

3. ₹12,250

4. ₹11,500

Q.9 If the length of cuboid is 2 cm, breadth is 7 cm and the volume of cuboid is 5278 cm3,
then find the height of cuboid (in cm).
Ans 1. 377

2. 384

3. 372

4. 367

Q.10
Find the value of

Ans 1. 116

2. 107

3. 118

4. 110

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 22 of 60

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Q.11 A sum of ₹5,000 is invested for 2 years at an annual interest rate of 6%.
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What will be the difference in the Compound Interest (CI) and Simple
. Interest (SI) at the end of 2 years? Use (1.06)2 = 1.1236
e m
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Ans 1. ₹28

2. ₹16 ag
3. ₹18

4. ₹48

Q.12 The volume (in cm3) of a wire of diameter 2 cm and length 98 m is:

Ans 1. 30800
m
2. 27300
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3. 31600
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4. 29800
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l a ag
Q.13
ag
In a sale, a trader offers several discount schemes. Choose a scheme that provides the
highest discount from the following options.
Ans 1. Two successive discounts of 8% and 12%

2. A single discount of 20%

3. Two successive discounts of 10% and 11%

4. Two successive discounts of 10% each

Q.14 The sum of 8 numbers is 912. Find their average.

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Ans 1. 112

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2. 115

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3. 114

4. 113
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Q.15 A certain sum invested at 8% per annum compound interest, compounded annually,
amounts to ₹10,580 at the end of 2 years. Find the sum.
Ans 1. ₹9,070.64

2. ₹9,007.64

3. ₹9,400.70

4. ₹9,600.70

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Q.16
m
The smallest number which, when divided by 3, 5 and 7 leaves a remainder of 5 in each
.co
.co m
case, is:
Ans
m
1. 115
s e
s e g l a
a
2. 100

g l 3. 110 a
a 4. 95

Q.17 The price of an item is initially increased by 20%, and then the new price is decreased
by 10%. What is the overall percentage change in the price?
Ans 1. 6% decrease

2. 8% decrease

3. 6% increase

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4. 8% increase

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Q.18 Pravin can do a piece of work in 8 hours. Rishi can do it in 24 hours. With the
assistance of Shan, they completed the work in 3 hours. In how many hours can Shan
alone do it?
Ans 1. 7

2. 8

3. 5

4. 6

Q.19 Evaluate: 41 - [36 - {48 ÷ 2 - (6 - 8 ÷ 2) ÷ 2}]
Ans 1. 28

2. 29

3. 27

4. 30

Q.20 A bike goes 7 meters in a second. Find its speed in km/hr.
Ans 1. 26.9

2. 25.1

3. 34.4

4. 25.2

Q.21
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.22 Which of the following ratio is smallest?
Ans 1. 29 : 36

2. 28 : 46

3. 24 : 31

4. 13 : 45

Q.23 The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 75 and the third
number is 116. Find the average of the remaining two numbers?
Ans 1. 192

2. 194.5

3. 191

4. 195.5

Q.24

Ans 1. −31

2. −29

3. −25

4. −27

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 24 of 60

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Q.25 After 62 litres of petrol was poured into an empty storage tank, it was still 10% empty.
m
How much petrol (in litres, rounded off to two decimal place) must be poured into the

. co storage tank in order to fill it?

s e m
m Ans 1. 69.89
a
se 2. 63
ag l
3. 68.89

4. 67.89

Q.26 The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 76 and the third
number is 102. Find the average of the remaining two numbers?
Ans 1. 178

2. 200.5

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3. 201.5

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4. 179

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Q.27
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If the distance between A and B is 1404 Km. From A, Namit goes to B with speed 69
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km/h and return to A with the speed 49 km/h. Find the average speed of Namit.(rounded
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off to two decimal place)
Ans 1. 60.78 km/h

2. 52.33 km/h

3. 57.31 km/h

4. 63.38 km/h

Q.28 The average of first 113 even numbers is
Ans 1. 115

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2. 114

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3. 114.5

4. 113.5
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Q.29
a
Two banks, A and B, offered loans at 3.5% and 6% per annum, respectively. Atul
borrowed an amount of ₹420000 from each bank. Find the positive difference between
the amounts of simple interest paid to the two banks by Atul after 3 years.
Ans 1. 33000

2. 32500

3. 31500

4. 31000

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Q.30 Mukund bought 52 books for Rs 1130 from one shop and 44 books for Rs 910 from

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another. What is the average price (in Rs) he paid per book ?
Ans

m.co 1. 24.25

s e m
s e 2. 22.25

g l a
g l a 3. 21.25
a
a 4. 23.25

Q.31 A retailer buys an electronic item for ₹175. His overhead expenses are ₹25. He sells the
electronic item for ₹340 and makes x%' profit. The value of x is:
Ans 1. 50

2. 60

3. 90

4. 70
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Q.32 If the perimeter of a triangle is doubled, then its area is _______ times the previous area.
Ans 1. 2

2. 1.5

3. 2.5

4. 4

Q.33 Simplify the following:
12 ÷ (12 × 12) + (15 ÷15) ÷ 15 × 15 + 15
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.34 Which of the following numbers is divisible by 5?
Ans 1. 24314

2. 24311

3. 24317

4. 24315

Q.35 In covering a distance of 40 km, Amit takes 2 hours more than Vinay. If Amit doubles his
speed, then he would take 8 hour less than Vinay. Amit's speed is:
Ans 1. 2 km/h

2. 4 km/h

3. 12 km/h

4. 11 km/h

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.36 Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a straight line facing north. Only two
people are sitting to the left of F. A is sitting to the immediate right of F. E is sitting
second to the right of A. B is sitting to the immediate right of E. C is sitting at the left
end of the line. G is not an immediate neighbour of F. Who is sitting between C and F?
Ans 1. E

2. D

3. B

4. A

Q.37 Refer to the following number, symbol series and answer the question. Counting to be
done from left to right only.
(Left) # 2 $ + / + 4 9 @ # > > > @ 9 8 # $ @ ^ 9 (Right)
How many such numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol
and also immediately followed by a symbol?
Ans 1. One

2. Two

3. None

4. Three

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 26 of 60

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Q.38 In a certain code language, ‘ETYJ’ is coded as ‘5970’ and ‘JEFT’ is coded as ‘0857’. What
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is the code for ‘F’ in the given code language?

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Ans 1. 7
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2. 8

3. 0
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4. 5

Q.39 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

215 ? 221 223 227 229
Ans 1. 218

2. 219

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3. 216

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4. 217

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Q.40
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In a certain code language,
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A + B means ‘A is the son of B’,
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A – B means ‘A is the sister of B’,
A x B means ‘A is the father of B’,
A ÷ B means ‘A is the mother of B’.

Based on the above, how is P related to T if ‘P x Q ÷ R – S + T’?
Ans 1. Father’s father

2. Father’s brother

3. Mother’s father

4. Wife’s father

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Q.41 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.

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Counting to be done from left to right only.

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(Left) & ^ 7 \ % 8 < 1 $ + \ 6 % > > 6 / * # & & (Right)

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How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by another
number and also immediately followed by a symbol?
Ans 1. One

2. Three

3. Two

4. None

Q.42 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
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known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
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statements.

e m
e mStatements:

l as
s
Some poems are songs.

l a All songs are essays.
ag
ag Conclusions:
(I) Some poems are essays.
(II) All poems are essays.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

3. Only conclusion (II) follows.

4. Only conclusion (I) follows.

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Q.43 The unit digit of a three-digit number is two less than the tens digit, and the hundreds
digit is three more than the tens digit. What number is it if the total of the digits is 16?
Ans 1. 673

2. 574

3. 358

4. 853

Q.44 Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the
given series will complete the series.

ED_C J_FH _NKM TS_R Y_UW
Ans 1. AILPX

2. AGOPX

3. AIOPX

4. AIOPV

Q.45 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

XVR : ZZU
PQV : RUY
Ans 1. QUS : SXW

2. UTL : WXN

3. NNT : PRX

4. VRQ : XVT

Q.46 XDOL is related to IMZU in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, PNGV is related to AWRE. To which of the given options is WONW related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. HFXY

2. HXYF

3. HFYX

4. HXFY

Q.47 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statement(s) is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
Some clocks are frames.
Some frames are paintings.

Conclusions:
(I) Some clocks are paintings.
(II) All paintings are frames.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows.

2. Only conclusion (II) follows.

3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Q.48 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

911 912 914 917 921 ?
Ans 1. 926

2. 924

3. 925

4. 927

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 28 of 60

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Q.49 Gimmy ranked 8th from the bottom and 9th from the top in his class. How many
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students are there in his class?

. Ans 1. 15
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se 2. 16

3. 18 ag l
4. 17

Q.50 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

ONE QPF SRG UTH ?
Ans 1. WWI

2. WXI
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3. WVJ
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4. WVI
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s e l a
Q.51
l a
Abhisht starts from Point A and drives 5 km towards north. He then takes a right turn,
ag
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drives 6 km, turns right and drives 10 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 11 km.
He takes a final right turn, drives 5 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance)
and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns
are 90 degrees turns only unless specified)
Ans 1. 6 km to the west

2. 5 km to the west

3. 5 km to the east

4. 6 km to the east

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Q.52 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is
placed at MN as shown below.

e m
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ag

Ans

1.

m
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m.co s e m
s e g l a
g l a 2.
a
a
3.

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.co m
4.

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s e l a
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a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 29 of 60

Q.53 In a certain code language, 'review the bill' is coded as 'tk jb zb' and 'bill was paid' is
coded as 'ab tm tk'. How is 'bill' coded in the given language?
Ans 1. tk

2. zb

3. jb

4. tm

Q.54 Each of C, O, M, I, N, G and S has an exam on a different day of a week, starting from
Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week. G has exam on the first day of the
week. Only five people have exam after S. Only three people have exam between C and
M. Only three people have exam between I and S. O has exam on some day before M
and on some day after N. How many people have exam before C?
Ans 1. One

2. Three

3. Four

4. Two

Q.55 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels
or their position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. XCH

2. FKP

3. QVA

4. MPW

Q.56 K, L, M, N, O, and P are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. K sits to the
immediate right of N. M sits third to the right of K. Only P sits between K and O. What is
the position of L with respect to K?
Ans 1. Third to the right

2. Second to the right

3. Second to the left

4. Immediate left

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 30 of 60

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Q.57 Identify the option that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically
m
complete the series.

. co s e m
m a
se ag l

Ans

1.

m
m .co
m .co s em
s e l a
l a ag
ag
2.

3.

m
m .co
s e
g la
4. a

Q.58 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

XGM GPV PYE YHN ?
Ans 1. HYU
m
m
2. HQW
.co
m.co 3. HWQ
s e m
s e 4. HQI
g l a
g l a a
a Q.59 Each of the digits in the number 6847521 is arranged in the ascending order from left to
right. The position(s) of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in
the original number?
Ans 1. One

2. Two

3. Three

4. None

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 31 of 60

Q.60 In a certain code language,

'A + B' means ‘A is the sister of B’,
'A – B' means ‘A is the brother of B’,
'A × B' means ‘A is the wife of B’ and
'A ÷ B' means ‘ A is the father of B’.

How is P related to T if ‘P + Q × R − S ÷ T’?
Ans 1. Mother's brother's wife's sister

2. Father's brother's wife's sister

3. Mother's brother's wife's mother

4. Father's brother's wife's mother

Q.61 In a certain code language, 'eat more fruits' is coded as 'lo tk jo' and 'fruits are
expensive' is coded as 'jo bk mb'. How is 'fruits' coded in the given language?
Ans 1. tk

2. jo

3. mb

4. lo

Q.62 Select the option in which the numbers share the same relationship as that shared by
the given pair of numbers.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13, can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(60, 5, 12)
(72, 8, 9)
Ans 1. 46, 8, 6

2. 24, 5, 6

3. 36, 9, 3

4. 56, 7, 8

Q.63 ROPE is related to TSRI in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, NEST is related to PIUX. To which of the following is FAIL related, following
the same logic?
Ans 1. HWKH

2. JCMN

3. DEHP

4. HEKP

Q.64 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
Some pens are sketch.
No sketch is colour.
All colours are water.
Conclusions:
I) No pen is water.
II) Some sketches are water.
III) Some water is not sketch.
Ans 1. Only III conclusion follows

2. Either conclusion II or III follows

3. Only I conclusion follows

4. Both conclusion I and II follow

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 32 of 60

m
.co
Q.65 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
m
. co 201 202 204 207 211 ?

s e m
m Ans 1. 218
a
se 2. 215
ag l
3. 216

4. 217

Q.66 Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a
group. Which is the letter-cluster that does NOT belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
positions in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. ISC

m
.co
2. LEO
m
.co m
3. PZJ

m s e
4. OYI

s e l a
l a ag
ag
Q.67 If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
56183472, what will be difference between the highest and lowest digits in the number
thus formed?
Ans 1. 6

2. 7

3. 8

4. 4

Q.68 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows. Counting to
m
.co
be done from left to right only. (All numbers are single-digit numbers only.)

m
(Left) 2 7 4 9 3 5 7 6 4 5 6 4 1 9 5 1 3 5 8 4 2 7 8 4 2 6 (Right)

s e
la
How many such even digits are there each of which is immediately preceded by an even

g
digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?
Ans 1. Four
a
2. Three

3. Two

4. One

Q.69 Mr. Tqr starts from Point A and drives 23 km towards North. He then takes a right turn,
drives 7 km, turns right and drives 9 km. He then takes a left turn, drives 13 km, turns
right and drives 22 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 24 km. He takes a final
right turn, drives 8 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards
m
.co
which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90 degree
m
.co
turns only unless specified.)

e m
s
Ans 1. 8 km to the North

e m l a
l as 2. 4 km to the West

ag
ag 3. 4 km to the East

4. 8 km to the South

Q.70 Seven friends C, D, E, P, Q, R and S are sitting in a straight line facing north. Only three
people sits to the right of D. Only one person sits to the left of Q. C sits immediately to
the right of S. Only four people sit between C and Q. P sits some place to the left of R
but some place to the right of E. How many people sit between E and R?
Ans 1. One

2. None

m .
.co
3. Two

e m
4. Three

e m l as
l as ag
g
Section : General Awareness
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 33 of 60

Q.71 The Oilfields (Regulation and Development) Amendment Bill, 2024, introduced in Rajya
Sabha in August 2024 expands definition of mineral oils to include which of the
following?
Ans 1. Crude oil and diesel

2. Biofuels and ethanol

3. Coal and lignite

4. Petroleum and natural gas

Q.72 Harmonium is a ___________ instrument made of wood, metal, brass and cloth.
Ans 1. string

2. wind

3. electronic

4. percussion

Q.73 On 7 October 2024, International Finance Corporation (IFC) and Axis Bank have
partnered for a loan of how many million to promote green and blue finance in India?
Ans 1. $700 million

2. $500 million

3. $1200 million

4. $300 million

Q.74 Who was the painter of the 1859 painting 'Relief of Lucknow'?
Ans 1. Thomas Jones Barker

2. Colin Campbell

3. James Outram Park

4. Joseph Noel Paton

Q.75 What was India’s per capita GDP for 2023-24, as reported by the National Statistical
Office?
Ans 1. ₹2,50,000

2. ₹1,80,000

3. ₹2,11,725

4. ₹3,00,000

Q.76 Which of the following literary works of Sangam period has been considered as a
collection of the oldest surviving Tamil Poetry?
Ans 1. Patinenmelkanakku

2. Ettuthokai

3. Pattuppattu

4. Manimekhlai

Q.77 Which river is known as the 'Sorrow of Bihar' due to its frequent course changes?
Ans 1. River Ghaghara

2. River Yamuna

3. River Ganga

4. River Kosi

Q.78 Which of the following statements best describes isomerism in chemistry?
Ans 1. The formation of compounds with identical chemical properties but different chemical formulas

2. The phenomenon where different elements have the same number of protons

3. The occurrence of compounds with the same molecular formula but different chemical properties

4. The process by which a compound changes its state of matter

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 34 of 60

m
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Q.79 What was a major criticism of the agricultural strategy adopted during India’s “Green
m
Revolution”?

. co
Ans 1. It focused on non-irrigated regions.
s e m
m a
se l
2. It solved micronutrient deficiencies among the poor.

3. It benefited all farmers equally.
ag
4. It primarily benefited large landowners, increasing economic disparities.

Q.80 The government extended 'Samarth' (Capacity Building Scheme in Textile Sector) by
_____ in October 2024.
Ans 1. five years

2. two years

3. six years
m
4. three years
m .co
Q.81
m .co
What event in April 2024 highlighted the deficiencies in Kotak Mahindra Bank's IT
s em
infrastructure?
s e l a
Ans
l a
1. A service disruption in the bank's Core Banking System
ag
ag
2. A decline in customer deposits

3. A security breach of customer data

4. A failure to meet loan disbursement targets

Q.82 What is the expected trend in credit growth for Banks and NBFCs in FY25, according to
the ICRA report released on 24 October 2024?
Ans 1. A steady slowdown

2. A sharp decline
m
.co
3. No change

4. A sharp increase
e m
las
Q.83
g
What was a significant limitation of the Indian financial system before the enactment of
the Banking Companies Act, of 1949?
a
Ans 1. There was no comprehensive statutory regulation for commercial banks in India.

2. Cooperative banks were banned in rural areas until the late 20th century.
3. The Reserve Bank of India did not have the authority to control monetary policy.

4. The Companies Act of 1913 required high cash reserves for banks, limiting their growth.

Q.84 What is the minimum required experience as an advocate or pleader for a person to be
eligible for appointment as a district judge?
m
.co
Ans 1. Five Years
m
.co m
2. Seven Years

m s e
s e 3. Three Years

g l a
g l a 4. Ten Years
a
a Q.85 Which of the following statements is/are correct in the context of Vedic Brahamans?

I. Aitareya Brahmana was associated with Rigveda.
II. Panchavimsha Brahmana was associated with Samveda.
Ans 1. Only II

2. Both I and II

3. Neither I nor II

4. Only I
m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 35 of 60

Q.86 Which of the following languages was/were used in proclamations calling people to join
the 1857 Revolt?
Ans 1. English

2. Sanskrit

3. Hindi, Urdu and Persian

4. Arabic and Hindi

Q.87 Which of the following states is the leading producer of jute in India?
Ans 1. Madhya Pradesh

2. Punjab

3. West Bengal

4. Bihar

Q.88 Spain won its ______ UEFA European Championships title in history as it beat England
2-1 in the Euro Cup 2024 final on 15 July 2024.
Ans 1. third

2. fourth

3. fifth

4. second

Q.89 Who was the official democratic candidate for the US presidential elections, 2024?
Ans 1. Kamala Harris

2. Hillary Clinton

3. Donald Trump

4. Joe Biden

Q.90 In 2024, which Indian IT company announced the establishment of a new AI-Cloud lab in
Singapore to advance innovations in artificial intelligence and cloud computing?
Ans 1. HCL Tech

2. TCS

3. Infosys

4. Wipro

Q.91 Which radiation is emitted when a stream of accelerating electrons strikes a metal
target?
Ans 1. X-ray

2. γ-ray

3. Cathode ray

4. α-ray

Q.92 What was the main focus of the first Five-Year Plan?
Ans 1. Infrastructure development

2. Industrial development

3. Green revolution

4. Agricultural development

Q.93 Who is the Chief Executive Officer of the Union Territory of Delhi?
Ans 1. The Lieutenant Governor

2. The Chief Minister

3. The Prime Minister

4. The President of India

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 36 of 60

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Q.94 During which Five-Year Plan did the focus shift towards industrialisation rather than
m
agriculture?

. co
Ans 1. Third Five-Year Plan
s e m
m a
se l
2. Fifth Five-Year Plan

3. First Five-Year Plan
ag
4. Second Five-Year Plan

Q.95 Where was the Battle of Chinhat in 1857 fought?
Ans 1. Near Lucknow

2. Near Kolkata

3. Near Rawalpindi

m
.co
4. Near Satara

m
Q.96
.co
With reference to the climate of India, the ‘Mango Showers’ phenomenon is associated

m
with which states of India?
s em
s e l a
ag
Ans 1. Bihar and Jharkhand

l a
ag
2. Kerala and Karnataka

3. Maharashtra and Gujarat

4. West Bengal and Odisha

Q.97 Which of the following is a characteristic of rural settlements in India?
Ans 1. Limited access to infrastructure

2. Economic activities are mainly based on tertiary sector

3. High population density
m
.co
4. High-rise buildings

e m
Q.98
s
The 36th Amendment Act of the Indian Constitution, 1975, incorporated which of the
following as a part of India?
la
Ans 1. Dadra and Nagar Haveli
ag
2. Goa

3. Puducherry

4. Sikkim

Q.99 In the Community Development Programme by the Government of India, __________
were identified as the development unit and an infrastructure of technical and
administrative staff provided to implement development programmes in different
sectors.
m
m .co
Ans 1. villages

m.co 2. districts

s e m
s e 3. individuals

g l a
g l a 4. a block of villages
a
a Q.100 What are the names of the three supercomputers developed under the National
Supercomputing Mission, and inaugurated by PM Modi, in September 2024?
Ans 1. PARAM Pravega

2. PARAM Shivay

3. PARAM Rudra

4. PARAM Ananta

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 37 of 60

Q.101 The Prime Minister of India is the Chairman of which of the following Constitutional
bodies?
Ans 1. Election Commission of India

2. Comptroller and Auditor General

3. Union Public Service Commission

4. Inter-State Council

Q.102 Oxygen is an essential element for all life forms on Earth. Its atomic number is:
Ans 1. 10

2. 6

3. 12

4. 8

Q.103 Padma Shri (2019) Sirivennela Seetharama Sastry is a renowned lyricist from _____.
Ans 1. Tamil Nadu

2. Kerala

3. Telangana

4. Maharashtra

Q.104 Which of the following options is true about the Nyayadhikari appointed to Gram
Nyayalayas?
Ans 1. The Nyayadhikari is only responsible for administrative functions, not judicial work.

2. The Nyayadhikari can be appointed from any field, including administrative services.

3. The Nyayadhikari must be a judicial officer with the same salary and powers as a First Class Magistrate.

4. The Nyayadhikari is appointed only from retired government officers.

Q.105 To increase the force between two charges from 25 N to 100 N, one should:
Ans 1. reduce the distance between the charges by one-fourth

2. reduce the distance between the charges by half

3. increase the distance between the charges twofold

4. increase the distance between the charges fourfold

Q.106 Published in January 2024, the book ‘Ek Samandar, Mere Andar’ was written by
__________, who also worked as the Deputy CEO at Brahmos Aerospace.
Ans 1. Atul Dinkar Rane

2. Sanjeev Kumar Joshi

3. Chandrabhan 'Rahi'

4. Ashok K Banker

Q.107 From which site of the Indus Valley Civilisation was the ‘Dancing Girl’, a bronze figurine,
found?
Ans 1. Mohenjo-daro

2. Lothal

3. Harappa

4. Rakhigarhi

Q.108 The fertile alluvial soils of the Great Indian Plains are mostly suited for the cultivation
of:
Ans 1. coffee and tea

2. cotton and tobacco

3. pulses and oilseeds

4. rice and wheat

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 38 of 60

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Q.109 Athletes of which of the following disciplines were inducted into the Khelo India
m
co
Scheme in India in October 2024?
. e m
m
Ans 1. Cricket
as
se 2. Wrestling

3. Judo ag l
4. Boxing

Q.110 In August 2024, the bilateral air exercise 'Udara Shakti 2024' was conducted between
the Indian Air Force (IAF) and the Royal Air Force of which country?
Ans 1. France

2. Canada

3. Japan
m
4. Malaysia
m .co
m .co s em
Q.111
e
Infrastructure primarily refers to which of the following?

s l a
a ag
Ans 1. Only government buildings
l
ag
2. Facilities and systems necessary for economic activities

3. Educational degrees

4. Cultural events

Q.112 By how much did ICICI Bank’s net profit rise in Q3 2024 compared to the previous year?
Ans 1. 23.6 %

2. 26%

m
3. 18%

4. 22%

m .co
s e
la
Q.113 According to the Indian Constitution, who can remove the members of the State Public
Service Commission?
Ans
ag
1. The Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission

2. The Chief Minister of the concerned state

3. The Governor

4. The President of India

Q.114 In which of the following years, was the founder of Sikhism, Sri Guru Nanak Dev, born?
Ans 1. 1469

2. 1425
m
m .co
.co
3. 1532

e m
e m
4. 1576

l as
l asQ.115 In which year was the 42nd Amendment in the Indian Constitution passed?
ag
ag Ans 1. 1974

2. 1978

3. 1980

4. 1976

Q.116 Where did the sepoys go after their mutiny in Meerut?
Ans 1. Delhi

2. Bareilly
m .
3. Kanpur
m .co s e m
s e l a
ag
4. Lucknow

g l a
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 39 of 60

Q.117 The Moderate leaders demanded simultaneous ICS examinations in
__________________.
Ans 1. India and England

2. India and Canada

3. India and United States of America

4. India and Australia

Q.118 Which of the following is a recognised tribe of the state of Himachal Pradesh?
Ans 1. Birhore

2. Chenchu

3. Bhil

4. Gaddi

Q.119 The Great Indian Plains are primarily formed by which river system?
Ans 1. Krishna-Godavari

2. Kaveri-Periyar

3. Indus-Ganga-Brahmaputra

4. Mahanadi-Narmada-Tapi

Q.120 The combination of alleles at specific gene locations on an organism's chromosomes,
representing its genetic constitution, is known as ______.
Ans 1. phenotype

2. double helix

3. genotype

4. DNA

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 40 of 60

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co
m m .co
m . s e
se g l a
Exam Date 09/03/2025
a
Centre Name iON Digital Zone iDZ Kovilambakkam
Exam Time 4:00 PM - 5:30 PM
* Note
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.
m
m .co
Section : Arithmetic
m .co s em
s e l a
a ag
Q.1 2 men can complete a piece of work in 18 days while 6 women can do it in 6 days. In
l
ag
how many days can 3 women and 6 men complete it?
Ans 1. 6 days

2. 4 days

3. 1 day

4. 8 days

Q.2 In what ratio should sugar costing ₹71 per kg be mixed with sugar costing ₹22 per kg so
that by selling the mixture at ₹41.6 per kg, there is a profit of 30%?
Ans 1. 10 : 39
m
.co
2. 11 : 37

3. 12 : 41
e m
4. 12 : 37
las
Q.3 ag
Two solid cubes each of volume 8,000 cm3 are joined end to end. Find the cost of paint
the resulting cuboid all around at the rate of ₹25 per 100 cm2.
Ans 1. ₹1,100

2. ₹1,140

3. ₹1,060

4. ₹1,000

m
.co
Q.4 Evaluate: 41 - [21 - {11 - (15 - 8 ÷ 2 × 3)}]
m
.co
Ans 1. 25

e m
e m 2. 28

l as
l as 3. 23
ag
ag 4. 30

Q.5 When an item is sold for if ₹3,510, it earns 17% profit on the cost price. The cost price is
_____.
Ans 1. ₹3,000

2. ₹2,914

3. ₹596

4. ₹1,500

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 41 of 60

Q.6
Find the value of

Ans 1. 4974

2. 4973

3. 4977

4. 4987

Q.7 The value of

Ans 1. 6.96

2. 15.51

3. 9.89

4. 6.82

Q.8 The marked price of a mobile phone was ₹18,500. A man bought the same for ₹13,000
after getting two successive discounts, the first at 24%. What was the second discount
rate (correct to two places of decimals)?
Ans 1. 9.25%

2. 6.25%

3. 7.54%

4. 8.36%

Q.9 The price of an article was increased by x%. Later the new price was decreased by x%.
If the latest price was ₹1, then what was the original price of the article?
Ans
1. ₹

2. ₹

3. ₹

4. ₹100

Q.10 The sum of 8 numbers is 720. Find their average.
Ans 1. 88

2. 89

3. 91

4. 90

Q.11 The monthly incomes of two friends Mahesh and David, are in the ratio 5 : 7
respectively and each of them saves ₹75000 every month. If the ratio of their monthly
expenditure is 2 : 3, find the monthly income of Mahesh(in ₹).
Ans 1. 376000

2. 374000

3. 375000

4. 525000

Q.12 A 320 m long train crosses a man walking at a speed of 9.4 km/h in the opposite
direction in 24 seconds. What is the speed (in km/h) of the train ?
Ans 1. 38.6

2. 43.9

3. 36.3

4. 34.4

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 42 of 60

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Q.13 A sum, when invested at 10% simple interest per annum, amounts to ₹5040 after 2
m
years. What is the simple interest (in ₹) on the same sum at the same rate of interest in

. co 2 years?

s e m
m Ans 1. 420
a
se 2. 840
ag l
3. 1680

4. 3360

Q.14 By selling an article for ₹115, a man loses 45%. At what price (in ₹) should he sell it to
gain 32%?
Ans 1. 266

2. 286

m
.co
3. 276

m
.co m
4. 296

m s e
Q.15
s e
A girl goes to school at a speed of 10 km/hr. She comes back with a speed of 15 km/hr.
l a
a ag
Find her average speed for the whole journey.
l
ag
Ans 1. 3 km/h

2. 14 km/h

3. 12 km/h

4. 16 km/h

Q.16 What is the smallest number that when decreased by 9 is divisible by 24, 33, 42 and 56?
Ans 1. 1,758

2. 1,875
m
.co
3. 1,857

4. 1,785
e m
las
Q.17
Ans
If 27 : y :: y : 75, find the positive value of y.
1. 49 ag
2. 53

3. 40

4. 45

Q.18 An Uber bike covers a distance of 644 km in 23 hours. What is its speed in km/h?
Ans 1. 29

m
.co
2. 28
m
.co m
3. 24

m s e
s e
4. 37

g l a
g l a Q.19 The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 78 and the third a
a Ans
number is 127. Find the average of the remaining two numbers?
1. 186

2. 205

3. 187

4. 206

Q.20 If 40% of k is 10 less than 2400% of 15, then k is:

m .
Ans 1. 915

2. 855

m .co s e m
3. 835
s e l a
4. 875
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 43 of 60

Q.21 Nitin can do a piece of work in 7 hours. Pravin can do it in 42 hours. With the assistance
of Rishi, they completed the work in 3 hours. In how many hours can Rishi alone do it?
Ans 1. 5

2. 8

3. 6

4. 7

Q.22 Simplify the expression:

Ans 1. 0.442

2. 0

3. 0.490

4. 0.333

Q.23 In covering a distance of 126 km, Anirudh takes 5 hours more than Burhan. If Anirudh
doubles his speed, then he would take 4 hour less than Burhan. Anirudh's speed is:
Ans 1. 5 km/h

2. 2 km/h

3. 7 km/h

4. 15 km/h

Q.24 On dividing 346024 by a certain number, the quotient is 2435 and the remainder is 254.
Find the divisor.
Ans 1. 152

2. 142

3. 122

4. 132

Q.25 The average of first 121 even numbers is
Ans 1. 122

2. 123

3. 122.5

4. 121.5

Q.26 Ramu's field is in the shape of a trapezoid. If the lengths of its parallel sides are 534
metres and 712 metres, and the distance between the parallel sides is 310 metres, then
what is the area (in m2) of Ramu’s field?
Ans 1. 1,93,130

2. 1,30,193

3. 1,91,330

4. 1,03,139

Q.27 If you give ₹4,000 to your friend for 2 years at an interest rate of 5%, compounded
annually. How much money (in ₹) will your friend return after 2 years?
Ans 1. 8,820

2. 4,410

3. 441

4. 44,410

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 44 of 60

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Q.28 The ages of Himani and Pushpraj are in the ratio of 9 : 5 respectively. After 5 years the
m
ratio of their ages will be 7 : 4. What is the difference in their present ages?

. co
Ans 1. 60
s e m
m a
se l
2. 48

3. 47
ag
4. 68

Q.29 The HCF and LCM of two natural numbers are 12 and 72, respectively. What is the
average of the two numbers if one of the numbers is 24?
Ans 1. 60

2. 12

3. 36
m
4. 30
m .co
Q.30
m .co s em
The value of

s e is ______.
l a
Ans 1. 800
l a ag
2. 400 ag
3. 200

4. 600

Q.31 Radhika invested a sum of money at a compound interest of 40% per annum
compounding half-yearly for 18 months. If the amount received by Radhika at the end of
18 months is ₹51,840, then what was the sum of money (in ₹) invested by Radhika?
Ans 1. 30,000

m
.co
2. 29,500

3. 29,000
e m
4. 30,500
las
Q.32 ag
Pinki can craft a designer pot in 900 minutes while Sneha can do the same work in 20
hours. If they work together, the craft work can be completed in:
Ans 1. between 8 hours and 9 hours

2. exactly 8 hours

3. exactly 9 hours

4. more than 9 hours

m
Q.33 In what ratio must a seller mix two varieties of teas costing ₹80 and ₹120 per kg

.co
respectively so as to get a mixture worth ₹100 per kg?

m
.co
Ans 1. 1 : 1

e m
e m 2. 3 : 5

l as
l as 3. 1 : 2
ag
ag 4. 2 : 1

Q.34 A refrigerator is marked at ₹18,000. A store offers a discount of 30% on the marked
price. If a customer uses a voucher for an additional ₹1,000 off after the discount, what
is the final price?

Ans 1. ₹13,000

2. ₹14,000

3. ₹11,600

m .
.co m
4. ₹12,600

m s e
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 45 of 60

Q.35 The volume (in cm3) of a wire of diameter 10 cm and length 28 m is:

Ans 1. 221000

2. 220500

3. 220100

4. 220000

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.36 Seven colleagues B, C, E, F, I, J, and M are sitting around a circular table facing the
centre. C sits second to the left of B and B sits to the immediate left of F. Only two
persons sit between F and J. E is the immediate neighbour of I and F. Who are the
immediate neighbours of M?
Ans 1. C and J

2. B and E

3. C and B

4. C and E

Q.37 Seven boxes D, E, F, H, I, J and K are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. Only two boxes are kept between E and J. Only I is kept above K. No box is
kept below J. D is kept at some place below H but at some place above F. Which box is
kept third above F?
Ans 1. D

2. H

3. F

4. E

Q.38 Ayush starts from Point A and drives 8 km towards the west. He then takes a right turn,
drives 7 km, turns right and drives 12 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 9 km. He
takes a final right turn, drives 4 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
90° turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 2 km to the south

2. 3 km to the south

3. 2 km to the north

4. 3 km to the north

Q.39 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

7 12 25 41 65 92 ?
Ans 1. 142

2. 122

3. 172

4. 127

Q.40 In a certain code language, 'WCIM' is coded as '5-25-19-15' and 'PSBQ' is coded as '12-
9-26-11'. What is the code for 'ELZT' in the given code language?
Ans 1. 24-18-4-9

2. 23-16-2-8

3. 21-14-3-6

4. 22-15-1-7

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 46 of 60

m
.co
Q.41 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
m
given in the statement(s) is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly

. co known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).
s e m
m a
se Statements:
All mugs are pots.
ag l
All containers are pots.

Conclusions:
(I) Some mugs are containers.
(II) Some pots are containers.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

2. Only conclusion (I) follows.

3. Only conclusion (II) follows.

m
.co
4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
m
Q.42
.co
What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
m s em
s e l a
ag
23, 34, 56, 89, 133, ?

l a
ag
Ans 1. 186

2. 184

3. 182

4. 188

m
m .co
s e
g la
a

m
m .co
m.co s e m
s e g l a
g l a a
a

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 47 of 60

Q.43 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at MN as
shown below.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.44 Each of the digits in the number 9362145 is arranged in ascending order from left to
right. What will be the sum of the digits which are second from the left and third from
the right in the number thus formed?
Ans 1. 12

2. 7

3. 8

4. 10

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 48 of 60

m
.co
Q.45 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
m
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to

. co that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
s e m
m a
se l
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. FAE
ag
2. NIM

3. KFI

4. GBF

Q.46 In a certain code language, ‘widely spread disease’ is coded as 'kt nv bp’ and ‘pandemic
disease outbreak’ is coded as ‘th po nv’. How is ‘disease’ coded in the given language?
Ans 1. bp

m
.co
2. nv
m
.co m
3. th

m s e
4. kt

s e l a
l a ag
ag
Q.47 If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
3842675, how many digits will appear more than once in the new number thus formed?
Ans 1. Two

2. One

3. Three

4. None

Q.48 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
m
.co
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
e m
Some bats are shoes.
las
g
All shoes are gloves.
Some gloves are helmets.

Conclusions:
a
(I) All helmets are shoes.
(II) All gloves are bats.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

3. Only conclusion (II) follows.

4. Only conclusion (I) follows.
m
m .co
.co
Q.49 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
e m
e mthat group?

l as
s
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their

l a position in the letter-cluster.)
ag
ag Ans 1. NSX

2. INS

3. LOV

4. GLQ

Q.50 GLRQ is related to CHNM in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
the same way, JPTX is related to FLPT. To which of the given options is WMKG related,
following the same logic?

m .
Ans 1. UKIE

2. KGWM

m .co s e m
3. SIGC
s e l a
4. VLJF
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 49 of 60

Q.51 Each of E, M, P, L, O, Y and S has an exam on a different day of a week, starting from
Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week. Only one person has exam after L.
Only one person has exam between O and L. M has exam immediately before P. Y has
exam on one of the days after S. E has exam immediately after P. How many people
have exam between Y and E?
Ans 1. Zero

2. Three

3. Two

4. One

Q.52 In a certain code language, ‘let us play’ is coded as ‘ke ro gi’, ‘let me go’ is coded as ‘ma
lu ke’ and ‘play with me’ is coded as ‘ho gi lu’. How is ‘go’ coded in the given language?
Ans 1. lu

2. gi

3. ke

4. ma

Q.53 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All trunks are peanuts.
Some grains are trunks.
No crows are trunks.

Conclusions:
(I) Some grains are not crows.
(II) Some peanuts are not grains.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

2. Only conclusion (II) follows.

3. Only conclusion (I) follows.

4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Q.54 In a certain code language,
A + B means ‘A is the mother of B’,
A − B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
A × B means ‘A is the wife of B’,
and A ÷ B means ‘A is the father of B’.

How is R related to P if ‘Q + R × S ÷ T × P’?
Ans 1. Father's mother

2. Wife's mother

3. Mother

4. Mother's mother

Q.55 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) @ * $ 3 8 9 % + 7 > 6 # < % % ? 6 2 $ / 6 (Right)

How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol
and also immediately followed by a symbol?
Ans 1. Three

2. Two

3. One

4. Four

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 50 of 60

m
.co
Q.56 In a certain code language,
m
A * B means ‘A is the wife of B’

. co A > B means ‘A is the brother of B’
A ; B means ‘A is the father of B’
s e m
m a
se l
A - B means ‘ A is the sister of B’

Based on the above, how is R related to T if 'R ; O - H > I * T’?
ag
Ans 1. Wife's sister

2. Wife's mother

3. Wife's daughter

4. Wife's father

Q.57 Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given
series to make it logically complete?
m
KLR −1 MKT −6 OJV −15 QIX −26 ?
m .co
Ans 1. SHA −37

m.co s em
2. SIY −39
s e l a
l a ag
ag
3. SHZ −39

4. SUZ −37

Q.58 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

77 93 113 139 173 ?
Ans 1. 209

2. 229

3. 217

m
.co
4. 237

e m
Q.59
s
Select the term from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in
the following series.
la
Ans
LSF2, JPJ9, HMN18, FJR29, ?
1. EHW40 ag
2. EGU40

3. DGV42

4. DHW42

Q.60 Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a row, facing north. D sits third from
the left end of the row. Only two people sit to the right of B. A is the immediate
neighbour of G and B. F sits to the immediate right of E.
m
.co
How many people sit to the right of C?

m
.co
Ans 1. Two

e m
e m
2. Four

l as
l as 3. Five

ag
ag 4. Three

Q.61 Alex starts from Point A and drives 9 km towards East. He then takes a left turn, drives 5
km, turns left and drives 11 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 7 km. He takes a
final left turn, drives 2 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards
which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90 degree
turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 3 km to the North

2. 2 km to the South

m .
3. 3 km to the South

4. 2 km to the North

m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 51 of 60

Q.62 P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Only one
person sits between U and Q when counted from the right of U. Only one person sits
between Q and T. Only one person sits between U and V. Only two people sit between P
and T. Only one person sits between S and V. How many people sit between U and S
when counted from the left of S?
Ans 1. 4

2. 1

3. 2

4. 3

Q.63 Each of the digits in the number 2846359 is arranged in ascending order from left to
right. The position of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in the
original number?
Ans 1. Four

2. Three

3. One

4. Two

Q.64 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

BGLQ HMRW NSXC TYDI ?
Ans 1. ZOJE

2. ZEJO

3. ZOEJ

4. ZEOJ

Q.65 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers
are single digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) 5 3 1 4 8 7 5 8 4 1 2 7 6 4 7 2 3 5 9 2 5 4 1 9 7 3 6 (Right)

How many such odd digits are there each of which is immediately preceded by an even
digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?
Ans 1. More than three

2. Two

3. Three

4. One

Q.66 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

KPY : LQZ
WHR : XIS
Ans 1. SWB : TYD

2. GMT : FLS

3. ATO : BUP

4. GKD : IMF

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 52 of 60

m
.co
Q.67 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of ‘?’ will logically
m
complete the series.

. co s e m
m a
se ag l

Ans

1.

m
m .co
m .co s em
s e l a
a ag
2.
l
ag

3.

m
m .co
s e
la
4.

ag
Q.68 In three of the following four number pairs, the numbers are related in the same way
and thus form a group. Which number pair DOES NOT belong to that group?
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /
subtracting /multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and
then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 4 : 64

m
.co
2. 8 : 512
m
.co m
3. 6 : 212

m s e
s e
4. 10 :1000

g l a
g l a Q.69 Select the triad that follows the same pattern as the one followed by the two triads a
a given below. Both triads follow the same pattern.

NT-PV-RU
LR-NT-PS
Ans 1. IP-LR-NO

2. IP-LS-NO

3. JP-LR-NO

4. JP-LR-NQ

m .
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 53 of 60

Q.70 Refer to the following series and answer the question (all numbers are single digit
numbers only).

(Left) 1 9 9 2 7 6 3 3 8 2 9 4 8 4 1 8 5 2 5 6 2 (Right)

How many such odd digits are there each of which is immediately preceded by an odd
digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?
Ans 1. One

2. Two

3. Three

4. Four

Section : General Awareness

Q.71 In October 2024, Surinder Singh Choudhary was appointed Deputy Chief Minister of
which State/UT?
Ans 1. Delhi

2. Lakshadweep

3. Haryana

4. Jammu and Kashmir

Q.72 Newborns receive the BCG vaccine at birth. BCG stands for ____.
Ans 1. Basal Cell Carcinoma

2. Bladder Cancer Gene

3. Bacterial Capsular Genes

4. Bacillus Calmette-Guerin

Q.73 Under the British Colonial rule, what accounted for most of India’s exports by the
1850s?
Ans 1. Raw materials like raw cotton, opium and indigo

2. Spices and tea

3. Manufactured goods

4. Processed goods like fine cotton and silk

Q.74 Military Exercise SHAKTI was conducted between India and ________ in 2024.
Ans 1. France

2. Kazakhstan

3. Germany

4. Japan

Q.75 From which site of the Indus Valley Civilisation was a design on a pot which seems to
tell the story of the thirsty crow, who finds a clever way to drink water at the bottom of
the pot, found?
Ans 1. Harappa

2. Mohenjo-daro

3. Rakhigarhi

4. Lothal

Q.76 Area under constant velocity – time curve equals __________ of the object over a given
time interval.
Ans 1. final velocity

2. acceleration

3. displacement

4. momentum

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 54 of 60

m
.co
Q.77 Actor-politician Pawan Kalyan, who was appointed as the Deputy Chief Minister of
m
Andhra Pradesh in June 2024, belongs to which political party?

. co
Ans 1. Telugu Desam Party
s e m
m a
se l
2. Communist Party of India (M)

3. Jana Sena Party
ag
4. YSR Congress Party

Q.78 The National Commission for Scheduled Castes is constituted under which Article?
Ans 1. Article 338

2. Article 348 A

3. Article 338 B

m
.co
4. Article 349

m
Q.79
.co
Name the classical language in which the ancient grammar book Tolkappiyam was
written.
m s em
s e l a
ag
Ans 1. Odia

l a
ag
2. Prakrit

3. Tamil

4. Sanskrit

Q.80 In which of the following states is Gangaur festival celebrated by the women folk to
please Goddess Parvati?
Ans 1. Gujarat

2. Jharkhand

m
.co
3. Uttarakhand

4. Rajasthan

e m
Q.81
las
In which of the following Indian states is the Sardar Sarovar Dam built?
Ans 1. Gujarat
ag
2. Assam

3. Karnataka

4. Rajasthan

Q.82 With respect to the National Green Tribunal (NGT), which of the following statements is
correct regarding the NGT’s jurisdiction and the role of high courts?
Ans 1. NGT decisions can only be appealed to the Supreme Court, bypassing high courts entirely.

m
.co
2. NGT is subordinate to the high courts in terms of territorial jurisdiction.
m
.co m
3. NGT has exclusive jurisdiction, and high courts cannot hear cases related to the environment.

m s e
s e
4. NGT decisions are not subject to judicial review.

g l a
g l a Q.83 On hearing about which of the following on 4 February 1922, did Mahatma Gandhi go on a
a Ans
a five-day fast and suspend the Non-cooperation Movement?
1. Noakhali riots

2. Jallianwala Bagh massacre

3. Kakori conspiracy

4. Chauri Chaura Incident

Q.84 With regards to the Constitutional Amendment Bill, which of the following is correct?

m .
Ans 1. It is mandatory to be passed in either house of Parliament to become an Act.

.co
2. It is mandatory to be passed in Lok Sabha only to become an Act.

m s e m
e
3. It is mandatory to be passed in both houses of Parliament to become an Act.
s l a
l a
4. It is mandatory to be passed in Rajya Sabha only to become an Act.
g ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 55 of 60

Q.85 Which of the following statements is/are correct in the context of Harappan religious
practices?

I. Harappans used to worship female goddesses associated with fertility.
II. Harappans also worshipped male gods such as Pashupati.
Ans 1. Neither I nor II

2. Only II

3. Only I

4. Both I and II

Q.86 Which is the longest tributary of the river Ganga?
Ans 1. Kosi

2. Yamuna

3. Gandak

4. Ghaghara

Q.87 General Service Enlistment Act was passed in which of the following years?
Ans 1. 1852 AD

2. 1854 AD

3. 1856 AD

4. 1857 AD

Q.88 How many kilometres of National Highway length were planned for development under
Phase-I of Bharatmala Pariyojana, as per the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways?
Ans 1. 34,800 km

2. 30,200 km

3. 28,500 km

4. 36,500 km

Q.89 The men's hockey team received a cash prize of what amount for each player from
Hockey India after winning bronze medal in 2024 Olympics?
Ans 1. ₹5 lakh

2. ₹7.5 lakh

3. ₹15 lakh

4. ₹20 lakh

Q.90 In addition to Awadh, which of the following were the other territories annexed by the
British under various pretexts?
Ans 1. Mysore and Hyderabad

2. Bengal and Punjab

3. Assam and Nagaland

4. Jhansi and Satara

Q.91 Which of the following factors primarily contributed to the increase in headline inflation
in June 2024, in India?
Ans 1. Rise in service charges

2. Increase in manufacturing costs

3. Sharp increase in prices of vegetables, pulses, and edible oils

4. Increase in fuel prices

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 56 of 60

m
.co
Q.92 Consider a copper cylinder at room temperature. What happens to the resistivity of a
m
copper cylinder as its temperature increases?

. co
Ans 1. Decreases
s e m
m a
se l
2. First decreases and then increases

3. Increases
ag
4. Remains constant

Q.93 Which of the following legislative acts led to the establishment of Fast Track Special
Court (FTSCs) in India?
Ans 1. Indian Penal Code (IPC) of 1860

2. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012

3. The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2018
m
m
4. Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015
.co
Q.94
m.co
Which of the following was the most significant development after the revolt of 1857?
s e m
s e l a
ag
Ans 1. Indian people dropped the idea of liberating themselves.

l a
ag
2. Indians started reorganising themselves for another armed revolt.

3. Indian people formed associations, societies, and organisations which led to the formation of Indian National Congress.

4. Indian people formed close relationship with the British empire.

Q.95 Which river forms an estuary before merging into the Arabian Sea?
Ans 1. Narmada

2. Mahanadi

3. Godavari
m
.co
4. Ganga

e m
Q.96
s
Which of the following is an antifertility drug synthesised from estrogen derivative that
is used in combination with progesterone derivative?
la
Ans 1. Soframicine
ag
2. Novestrol

3. Terpineol

4. Chloroxylenol

Q.97 Which pass is used to access Leh from Manali?
Ans 1. Zoji La

2. Karakoram Pass
m
m
3. Nathu La
.co
m.co 4. Baralacha La
s e m
s e g l a
g l a Q.98 Which agricultural product(s) was India famous for exporting during the colonial
period? a
a Ans 1. Wheat

2. Rice

3. Coffee

4. Spices

Q.99 Avani Lekhara, who created history in August 2024 by becoming the first Indian woman
to win two gold medals at the Paralympics, belongs to which of the following
disciplines?
m .
.co m
Ans 1. Para swimming

2. Para shooting
m s e
s e l a
a ag
3. Para powerlifting

g l
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 57 of 60

Q.100 Which of the following cities emerged as the electronic capital of India?
Ans 1. Tiruchirappalli

2. Gurugram

3. Bengaluru

4. Goa

Q.101 Which of the following Acts had changed the designation of Governor General to
Viceroy?
Ans 1. Indian Council Act, 1861

2. India Regulating Act, 1773

3. Government of India Act, 1833

4. Government of India Act, 1858

Q.102 The British police attacked Lala Lajpat Rai during a peaceful demonstration against the
_______ in 1928.
Ans 1. Simon Commission

2. Hindu casteism

3. unjust taxes during famine

4. British salt monopoly

Q.103 What major operation did authorities conduct in May regarding India's gold reserves?
Ans 1. Increasing gold deposit schemes domestically

2. Selling gold reserves on the London bullion market

3. Bringing gold reserves back from the Bank of England

4. Transferring gold to the Bank for International Settlements

Q.104 The book ‘Sutta Pitaka’ contains the words of which religious preacher?
Ans 1. Guru Nanak Dev

2. Buddha

3. Surdas

4. Mahavira

Q.105 With respect to Directive Principles of State Policy under the Indian Constitution, the
organiastion of village panchayat is a/an:
Ans 1. Gandhian Principle

2. Intellectual Principle

3. Socialist Principle

4. Neo-liberal Principle

Q.106 Within the nucleus of eukaryotic cells, which of the following structures contains the
tightly coiled genetic material?
Ans 1. Golgi Apparatus

2. Chromosomes

3. Mitochondria

4. Ribosomes

Q.107 In June 2024, which country observed a series of anti-government and pro-democracy
protests known as the quota reform movement?
Ans 1. Sri Lanka

2. Pakistan

3. Bangladesh

4. Nepal

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 58 of 60

m
.co
Q.108 India's first solar mission, Aditya-L1, completed its first halo orbit around the Sun-
m
Earth L1 point on ______ .
. co
Ans 1. 12 July 2024
s e m
m a
se 2. 22 July 2024

3. 23 July 2024 ag l
4. 2 July 2024

Q.109 Which country was India’s largest trading partner in 2023-24?
Ans 1. Germany

2. China

3. Japan

m
.co
4. USA

m
.co
Q.110 Researchers of which of the following Indian Institutes of Technology (IIT) have

m s em
developed a nano-sensor to swiftly detect Cytokines, crucial proteins in disease

s e
progression, in April 2024?
l a
Ans
l a
1. IIT Hyderabad
ag
ag
2. IIT Jodhpur

3. IIT Kharagpur

4. IIT Madras

Q.111 Which infrastructure project ongoing in 2024 aims to improve India’s highways and
logistics sector?
Ans 1. Smart Cities Mission

m
2. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana

3. Bharatmala Pariyojana

m .co
4. Swachh Bharat Mission
s e
g la
a
Q.112 How many states in India had a bicameral legislature as of 2022?
Ans 1. 14

2. 5

3. 10

4. 6

Q.113 Which sector was most neglected during British rule in India?
Ans 1. Infrastructure sector
m
.co
2. Industrial sector
m
.co m
3. Secondary sector

m s e
s e 4. Primary sector

g l a
g l a Q.114 Which of the following cities was NOT included in the July 2024 round of the Reserve a
a Ans
Bank of India's Consumer Confidence Survey?
1. Lucknow

2. Mumbai

3. Ranchi

4. Kochi

Q.115 In July 2024, Asia’s first health research-related 'Pre-clinical Network Facility' under the
Coalition of Epidemic Preparedness Innovations (CEPI) was inaugurated in which city?
m .
.co m
Ans 1. Bengaluru

m s e
2. Faridabad

s e l a
a ag
3. Pune

g l
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