AMUEEE 2022 Question Paper

AMUEEE

Question Paper - 2022

This question paper has been compiled on the basis of actual question paper shared by
candidates after the exam. We have provided a typed version of the paper because the quality of
the scanned paper was not very good.

Chemistry

Q1. Acidity of diprotic acids in aqueous solution increases in the order?

A) 𝐻2𝑆 < 𝐻2𝑆𝑐 < 𝐻2𝑇𝑒
B) 𝐻2𝑆𝑐 < 𝐻2𝑆 < 𝐻2𝑇𝑒
C) 𝐻2𝑇𝑒 < 𝐻2𝑆 < 𝐻2𝑆𝑐
D) 𝐻2𝑆𝑐 < 𝐻2𝑇𝑒 < 𝐻2𝑆

Correct answer : A

Q2. The commercial name of "Calgon" is

A) Sodium aluminum sulphate
B) Peroxodisulphate
C) Sodium Sulphate decahydrate
D) Sodium hexametaphosphate

Correct answer : D

Q3. The correct order,of an.arrangement of the; group 14 elements with decrease in their
first ionization enthalpy is :

A) C>Si>Ge>Sn> Pb
B) C>Si >Ge>Pb> Sn
C) C>Si>Sn>Ge> Pb
D) C>Si>Pb>Sn>Ge

Q4. Which of the following oxoacids of phosphorus contains four P-OH bonds ?

A) Orthophosphoric acid
B) Metaphosphoric acid
C) Hypophosphoric acid
D) Hypophosphorous acid

Correct answer : C

Q5. Which one is used for titration with KmnO4in acidic medium?

A) HCL
B) 𝐻2𝑆𝑂4
C) 𝐻𝑁𝑂3
D) 𝐻𝐶𝐿𝑂4

Q6. When manganese dioxide is fused with KOH or 𝐾2𝐶𝑂3 in air, it gives :

A) Potassium manganate
B) Potassium Permanganate
C) Manganese heptoxide
D) Manganese Oxide

Correct answer : A

Q7. Which of the following alkaline earth metals are strong, Tendency towards the
formation of metal chloride hydrates ?

A) 𝐵𝑎𝐶𝑙2
B) 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑙2
C) 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑙2
D) 𝑆𝑅𝑐𝐶𝑙2

Q8. Which one of the following molecules is formed by p - p overlapping?

A) HCL
B) 𝐶𝑙2
C) 𝐻2𝑂

D) 𝑁𝐻3

Q9. Gadolinium belongs to the 4f series. Its atomic number is 64. Which of the following
is electronic configuration of gadolinium ?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Correct answer : A

Q10. The product in the following reaction is :

A)

B)

C)

D)

Correct answer : D

Q11. In the polysaccharides, the monosaccharides are linked to each other by :

A) Glycosidic linkage
B) Peptide linkage
C) Nucleoside linkage
D) Hydrogen bonding

Correct answer : A

Q12. Select the non - aromatic compound :

A)

B)

C)

D)

Correct answer : D

Q13. The IUPAC name of is :

A) 2 - Methyl 3 - bromohexanal
B) 2 - Methyl 3 - bromobutanal
C) 3 - bromo 2 - methylbutanal
D) 3 - bromo 2 - methylpentanal

Correct answer : D

Q14. The human body does not produce :

A) Vitamins
B) Enzymes
C) Proteins
D) Hormones

Correct answer : A

Q15. X will be :

A)

B)

C)
D) None of the above

Correct answer : A

Q16. Tincture iodine is :

A) aqueous solution of 𝐼2+ ether
B) alcoholic solution of 𝐼2 + water
C) solution of 𝐼2 in aqueous KI
D) aqueous solution of KI

Q17. During the following sequence of reactions:

The main product B formed is :

A) Salicylic acid
B) Salicylaldehyde
C) Benzoquinone
D) Aspirin

Correct answer : A

Q18. Which of the following react with phenol to give Bakelite :

A) HCHO
B) 𝐶𝐻3𝐶𝐻𝑂
C) (𝐶𝐻2𝐶𝐻0)2

D) 𝐶𝐻3𝐶0𝐶𝐻3

Correct answer : A

Q19. Which of the following alkyl halides is hydrolysed by SN2 mechanism?

A) 𝐶6𝐻 𝐶𝐻2𝐵𝑟
5
B) 𝐶𝐻3𝐵𝑟
C) 𝐻2𝐶 = 𝐶𝐻𝐶𝐻2𝐵𝑟
D) (𝐶𝐻3)3𝐵𝑟

Q20. In the reaction :

X will be :

A) 𝐻𝑁𝑂3
B) 𝑂2
C) 𝑂3
D) 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4

Correct answer : C

Q21. 3 — Phenyl propene on reaction with HBr gives (as a major product) :

A)

B)

C)

D)

Q22. Predict the product

A)

B)

C)

D)

Correct answer : A

Q23. How many chiral centres are present in natural penicillin ?

A) 3

B) 4
C) 5
D) 6

Q24. Which one of the following pair is not perfectly matched?

A) Clemmensen reduction

B) Wolff - kishner reduction

C) Rosenmund reduction

D) Stephen reduction

Q25. Name the reaction given below :

A) Finkelstein reaction
B) Swarts reaction
C) Etard reaction
D) Wurtz reaction

Q26. Pick-out the correct relationship :

A) Antibiotics ——> Bacterial infection ——> Ranitidine’
B) Antipyretics ——> Reduce body temperature > Paracetamol
C) Antiseptics ——> Wound infection ——> Saccharin

D) Tranquilisers ——> Psychotherapeutic agent ——» Phenolphthalein

Q27. Temperature coefficient of a reaction is ‘2’. When temperature is increased from
30°C to 90°C, the rate of reaction 1s increased by :

A) 60 times
B) 64 times
C) 150 times
D) 400 times

Q28. For the reaction , the rate i is directly proportional to [𝑁2𝑂5].
At 45 degree C, 90% of the 𝑁2𝑂5 reacts to 3600 seconds. The value of the rate constant is
:

−4 −1
A) 3. 20 * 10 𝑠𝑒𝑐
−3 −1
B) 3. 20 * 10 𝑠𝑒𝑐
−4 −1
C) 6. 40 * 10 𝑠𝑒𝑐
−3 −1
D) 6. 40 * 10 𝑠𝑒𝑐

Correct answer : C

Q29. In which of the following arrangements, the order is not according to the property
indicated against it :

3+ 2+
A) 𝐴𝑙 < 𝑀𝑔 <Na+<F increasing atomic size
B) B<C<N<O increasing first ionization energy *
C) I<Br<F<Cl increasing electron gain enthalpy
D) Li<Na<K<Rb increasing metallic Radii

−15
Q30. The ionic product of Ni(OH)2 is 2. 0 * 10 . The molar solubility of 𝑁𝑖(𝑂𝐻)2 in 0.10M
NaOH is :

−13
A) 2. 0 * 10

−14
B) 2. 0 * 10
−14
C) 1. 0 * 10
−15
D) 1. 0 * 10

Correct answer : A

Q31. The enthalpy of combustion of Methane, graphite and hydrogen at 298 K are
−1 −1 −1
890.3KJ mo𝑙 , -393.5 KJ mo𝑙 and -285.8 KJ mo𝑙 respectively. Enthalpy of formation
of 𝐶𝐻4(g) will be :

A) -74.8 KJ mol-1
B) -52.27 Kj mol-1
C) +74.8 KJ mol-1
D) +52.26 KJ mol-1

Correct answer : C

Q32. Crystal field stabilization energy for high spin d4 octahedral complex is :

A)

B)

C)

D)

Q33. The mass of Carbon present in 0.5 mole of 𝐾4[𝐹𝑒(𝐶𝑁)6] is :

A) 1.8 g
B) 18 g
C) 3.6 g
D) 36 g

Correct answer : D

Q34. According to kinetic theory gas , A gas molecules Travel between two successive

collisions :

A) In a circular path
B) In a wave path
C) In a Straight line path

D) With an accelerated velocity

Correct answer : C

Q35. The value of Van der Waals constant “a” for gases 𝑂2, 𝑁2𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑁𝐻3 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐶𝐻4 are 1.360,
2 −2
4.170 and 2.253 𝐿 atm mol𝑒 respectively, the gas which can be most like easily
liquefied is :

A) 𝑂2
B) 𝑁2
C) 𝑁𝐻3
D) 𝐶𝐻4

Correct answer : C

Q36. Camphor is often used in molecular mass determination because :

A) It has a very high cryoscopic constant
B) It is volatile
C) It is solvent for Organic substances
D) It is readily available

Correct answer : A

Q37. 𝐹𝑒3𝑂4 is ferrimagnetic at room temperature but at 850 K it becomes :

A) Diamagnetic
B) Paramagnetic
C) Ferromagnetic
D) Non magnetic

Q38. To get and type semiconductor, the impurity to be added to Si should have the
following number of valence electrons :

A) 1

B) 2
C) 3
D) 5

Correct answer : D

Q39. Poling process is used :

A) For removal 𝐶𝑢2𝑂from Cu
B) For removal of 𝐴𝑙2𝑂3 from Al
C) For removal of 𝐹𝑒2𝑂43 from Fe
D) For removal of 𝐶𝑢2𝑂 from 𝐶𝑢2𝑂2

Correct answer : A

Q40. A gas present in a cylinder filled with a frictionless piston expand against a
constant pressure of one atm from a volume of 2 litres to a volume of 6 L, in doing so it
absorb 800 J heat from surrounding, determine increase in internal energy of process :

A) 405.04 J
B) 6.81 J
C) 394.95 J
D) 1205.04 J

Correct answer : C

Q41. Which statement is false?

A) Van der Waals constant a is measure a magnitude of intermolecular attractive force with
in the gas .
B) At low temperature, intermolecular attraction is more significant and Van der Waals
constant a is high at low temperature.
C) Van der Waals constant a is independent of the pressure of the gas .
D) Van der Waal gas approximates ideal gas behavior when pressure approaches zero .

3
Q42. The resistance of a 0.1 N solution of a salt is found to be 2.5 x 10 Ohms, calculate
the equivalent conductance of solution:
−1
Cell constant = 1.15𝑐𝑚

−1 2 −1
A) 2.30𝑜ℎ𝑚 𝑐𝑚 𝑒𝑞𝑣𝑡

−1 2 −1
B) 4.60 𝑜ℎ𝑚 𝑐𝑚 𝑒𝑞𝑣𝑡
−1 2 −1
C) 5.23 𝑜ℎ𝑚 𝑐𝑚 𝑒𝑞𝑣𝑡
−1 2 −1
D) 0.98 𝑜ℎ𝑚 𝑐𝑚 𝑒𝑞𝑣𝑡

Q43. Borazine is :

A) 𝐵3𝑁3𝐻6
B) 𝐵2𝑁3𝐻6
C) 𝐵3𝑁2𝐻6
D) None of the above

Correct answer : A

Q44. When sodium is dissolved in liquid NH3, a solution of deep blue colour is formed,
the colour of the solution is due to :

A) Ammoniated electron
B) Sodium ion
C) Sodium amide
D) Ammoniated sodium ion

Correct answer : A

Q45. The respective number of bridging “CO” group in [𝐶𝑂2(𝐶𝑂2)] 𝑎𝑛𝑑 [𝑀𝑛2(𝐶𝑂)10is are :

A) 2, 0
B) 1, 0
C) 0, 1
D) 2, 2

Correct answer : A

Q46. One mole of 𝑃𝑑𝐶𝑙2. 4𝑁𝐻3, upon reaction with excess of 𝐴𝑔𝑁𝑂3 gives two moles of
AgCl, the coordination number of complex formed will be :

A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 3

Q47. The correct electron gain enthalpy trend is :

A) O<S<Se<Te<Po
B) O<S>Se>Te>Po-
C) O>S>Se>Te> Po
D) O<S>Se<Te> Po

Q48. is Tetrahedral in geometry. There is π bonding between Mn and Oxygen
by the overlap of :

A) p—p Orbitals
B) s—p Orbitals
C) p-d Orbitals
D) s—d Orbitals

Correct answer : C

Q49. The highest magnetic moment among the following coordinated compound is
shown by :

A) 𝐾4[𝑀𝑛(𝐶𝑁)6]
2+
B) [𝐹𝑒(𝐻2𝑜)6]
C) 𝐾2[𝑀𝑛𝐶𝑙4]
D) 𝑁𝑖(𝐶𝑂)4

Correct answer : C

Q50. The transaction metal oxide or Halides does not exist among the following is :

A) 𝑉2𝑂5
B) 𝑀𝑛𝐹5
C) 𝐶𝑟𝐹6
D) 𝑀𝑁2𝑂7

Physics

Q51. Two gasses having volume 11 and 21 are at the same temperature the ratio of the
average kinetic energy of the molecules in the two gasses :

A) 1:1
B) 1:2
C) 2:1
D) 3:2

Correct answer : A

Q52. Air is filled at 60 degree celsius in the vessels of open mouth, the vessels are
heated to a temperature T so that one/fourth part of air escapes. Assuming the volume of
the vessels remain constant, the volume value of T is :

A) 88 degree celsius
B) 444 degree celsius
C) 333 degree celsius
D) 171 degree celsius

Correct answer : D

Q53. One mole of an ideal Diatomic gas undergoes a transition from A to B along a path
AB as shown in the figure :

The change in internal energy of the gas during the transition is :

A) 20 KJ
B) -20 KJ
C) 16 KJ
D) -16 KJ

Q54. A particle is executing SHM along a straight line, its velocity at distance 𝑋1 𝑎𝑛𝑑𝑋2

mean position are 𝑉1 and 𝑉2 respectively its time period is :

A)

B)

C)

D)

Q55. Two organ pipes a and b of length 33 cm and 33.5 CM respectively produced 3 beats
per second when sounded together, the frequency of larger pipe is :

A) 223 Hz
B) 406 Hz
C) 198 Hz
D) 201 Hz

Correct answer : C

Q56. A wave is given by the equation

The
maximum amplitude of the produced stationary wave is :

A) 9 cm
B) 4.5 cm
C) 2.25 cm

D) 18 cm

Q57. A simple pendulum of length “L” is suspended from the roof of a trolley which
moves in a horizontal direction with an acceleration 𝑎, what will be the time period of the
pendulum? (take g to be acceleration due to gravity )

A)

B)

C)

D)

Q58. A string of force constant a is cut into length of ratio 1 : 2: 3, they are connected in
series and the new four constant is K'.If they are connected in parallel and force constant
is K’’, then K’ : K’’ is :

A) 1:6
B) 1:9
C) 1:11
D) 1:14

Correct answer : C

Q59. What speed should a Galaxy move with respect to so that the sodium lime at 5:89.0
nm is observed at 589.0 nm ?

A) 406 km/s
B) 106 km/s
C) 206 km/s
D) 306 km/s

Correct answer : D

Q60. Charges + q and -q are placed at point A and B respectively which are at a distance
2L apart, C is the midpoint between A and B the work done in moving a charge + Q along
the semicircle CRD is :

Q60. Charges + q and -q are placed at point A and B respectively which are at a distance
2L apart, C is the midpoint between A and B the work done in moving a charge + Q along
the semicircle CRD is :

A)

B)

C)

D)

Correct answer : D

Q61. In a region, the potential is represented by V(x,y,z) = 6x - 8xy -8y + 6yz, where V is
the volts and x,y,z are in meters. The electric force experienced by a charge of 2C
situated at a point (1,1,1) is :

A) 6 5𝑁
B) 30 N
C) 24 N
D) 4 35𝑁

Correct answer : D

Q62. The internal resistance of a 2.1 V cell which gives a current of 2.0A through a
resistance of 10 ohms is :

A) 0.8 ohm
B) 1.0 ohm
C) 0.2 ohm
D) 0.5 ohm

Correct answer : D

Q63. The charge flowing through a resistance R varies with time t as Q = at - bt2, where a
and b are positive constants. The total heat produced in R, between the time t = 0 to t =
a/2b, is :

A)

B)

C)

D)

Correct answer : C

Q64. In a network shown in figure each resistance is 1 ohm. The effective resistance
between A and B is :

A) 4/3 ohm
B) 3/2 ohm
C) 7 ohm
D) 8/7 ohm

Correct answer : D

Q65. A copper wire of diameter 1 cm has a resistance of 0.25 ohm . It is drawn under
pressure so that its diameter is reduced to 50%, The new resistance of the wire will be :

A) 2 ohm
B) 4 ohm
C) 6 ohm
D) 8 ohm

Q66. n number of resistances, each of r ohm, when connected in parallel give an
equivalent resistance of R ohm. If these resistances were connected in series, the
combination would have a resistance in ohm, equals to :

A) 𝑛2𝑅
B) 𝑅/𝑛2
C) R/n
D) nR

Correct answer : A

Q67. A wire carrying current I has the shape as shown in adjoining figure : linear part of
the wire are very long and parallel to x - axis while semicircular portion of radius R is
lying in Y -Z plane,> Magnetic field at point O is :

A)

B)

C)

D)

Correct answer : A

Q68. A long straight wire of radius “a” carries a steady current I. The current is uniformly
distributed over its cross-sections. Of magnetic field B and B’ , at radial distance a/2 and
2A respectively from the axis of the wire is :

A) 1
B) 4
C) 1/4
D) 1/2

Correct answer : A

Q69. The magnetic flux linked with a coil, in Webers, is given by the equation 2t2 + 3t +
14. The magnetic of the induced EMF at t = 3 seconds is :

A) 4 V
B) 9 V
C) 15 V
D) 20 V

Correct answer : C

Q70. The electric field part of an Electromagnetic wave in a medium is respected by

The wave is :

6
A) Moving along ( -ve) x - direction with frequency 2π * 10 Hz and wavelength 200 m
6
B) Moving along (+ve) x - direction with frequency 10 Hz and wavelength 100 m
6
C) Moving along (+ve) x - direction with frequency 10 Hz and wavelength 200 m
6
D) Moving along ( -ve) x - direction with frequency 2π * 10 Hz and wavelength 100 m

Correct answer : C

Q71. A circuit when connected to an AC source of 12 volt give a current of 0.2 A, the
same circuit when conducted to a DC source of 12 volt give a current of 0.4 A, the circuit
is :

A) Series LR
B) Series RC
C) Series LC
D) Series LCR

Correct answer : A

Q72. The potential difference across the resistance capacitance and inductance are 80 V
,40 V and 100 V respectively in a LCR circuit, the power factor of this circuit is :

A) 0.4
B) 0.5
C) 0.8
D) 1.0

Correct answer : C

Q73. A Conducting square frame of side a and a long straight wire carrying current I
located in the same plane as shown in the figure. The frame move to the right with a
constant velocity V.The EMF induced in the same will be proportional to :

A)

B)

C)

D)

Correct answer : D

Q74. The current I in the inductance is varying with time according to the plot shown in
the figure :

Which one of the following is the correct variation of voltage with time in the coil ?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Correct answer : D

Q75. A capacitor of capacitance C is connected across an AC source of voltage given by:

The displacement current between the plate of the capacitor would than be given by :

A)

B)

C)
D) None of the above

Correct answer : A

Q76. For a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in x - direction, which one of the
following combination gives the correct possible directions for electric field (E) and
magnetic field (B) respectively :

A)

B)

C)

D)

Correct answer : C

Q77. Two slits in Young’s experiments have widths in the ratio 1:25. The ratio of intensity

at the maxima and minima in the interference pattern is :

A) 5/I
B) 25/16
C) 9/4

D) 121/49

Correct answer : C

Q78. Two polaroids P1 and P2 are placed with their axis perpendicular to each other.
Unpolarised light Io is incident on P1. A third polarized P3 is kep in between P1 and P2
such that its axis makes an angle 45 degree with that of P1. The intensity of transmitted
light through P2 is :

A)

B)

C)

D)

Q79. A parallel Beam of monochromatic light of wavelength 5000A is incident normally
on a single narrow slit of width 0.01 mm, the light is focused by a convex lens on the
screen in the focal plane, the first minimum will be formed for the angle of diffraction
equal to :

A) 0 degree
B) 15 degree
C) 30 degree
D) 50 degree

Correct answer : C

Q80. The angular resolution of a 10 cm diameter telescope at the wavelength of 5000A is
:

−2
A) 6.1 x 10
−3
B) 6.1 x 10
−4
C) 6.1 x 10
−5
D) 6.1 x 10

Correct answer : C

Q81. What is the de Broglie wavelength associated with an electron moving with the
6
speed of 5.4 x 10 m/s ?

A) 0.135 nm
B) 0.335 nm
C) 0.935 nm
D) 1.235 nm

Correct answer : A

Q82. A old wooden tool is found to contain only 6.0% of (half life 5730 yr ) that a
sample of fresh wood would. Approximately how old is the tool? ( note :

A) 1432 yr
B) 2864 yr
4
C) 2.86 x 10 yr
4
D) 2.3 x 10 yr

Correct answer : D

Q83. A 7.2 Zener is used in the circuit shown in figure below and the load current is to
vary from 12 to 100 mA, find the value of series resistance R to maintain a voltage of 7.2
V across the load, the input voltage is constant at 12 V and the minimum current is 10
mA :

A) 13.5 ohm
B) 23.5 ohm
C) 33.5 ohm
D) 43.5 ohm

Correct answer : D

Q84. The error in the measurement of the radius of a sphere is 2%. What will be the
percentage error in the estimation of the volume of the sphere ?

A) 2%
B) 4%
C) 6%
D) 8%

Correct answer : C

Q85. A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate α for some time after which it
decelerates at a constant rate β to come to rest, if the total time elapsed is t seconds the
total distance traveled is :

A)

B)

C)
D) None of the above

Correct answer : C

Q86. The velocity displacement graph of a particle is showed in the figure below (in the
figure O refers to origin )

The acceleration displacement graph of the same particle is represented by :

A)

B)

C)

D)

Correct answer : C

Q87. Velocity of a particle is .It's position is X = zero at t = zero then it
displacement after unit t ( t = 1) would be :

A)

B)

C)

D)

Q88. A body travel for 15 second starting from rest with constant acceleration, if it travel
distance S1, S2 and S3 in the first 5 seconds, second 5 seconds and next 5 second
respectively, the relation between S1, S2 and S3 will be :

A) S1 = S2 = S3
B) 5S1 = 3S2 = S3
C) S1 = ⅓ S2 = ⅕ S3
D) S1 = ⅕ S2 = ⅓ S3

Correct answer : C

Q89. A rubber ball is released from a height of 5 m above the floor. Its bounces back
repeatedly, always rising to 85/100 of the height through which it falls again, what is the
average speed of the ball? (Take, g = 10 m/s2)

A) 3.0 m/s
B) 3.5 m/s
C) 2.0 m/s
D) 2.5 m/s

Correct answer : D

Q90. When a long is Spring is stretched by 2 cm It potential energy is U, if the spring is
stretched by 10 cm, the potential energy stored in it will be :

A) U/5
B) 5U
C) 10U
D) 25U

Correct answer : D

Q91. A ballet dancer has a moment of inertia of 4 kg/m2, when her arms reach her body

and 16 kg/m2 when her arms are stretched. When two arms are pressed against her body
,the speed of the dancer rotation is 12 round/second, then when the earth are crashed the
rotation speed becomes :

A) 1 round/s

B) 2 round/s
C) 3 round/s
D) 4 round/s

Correct answer : C

Q92. If Represent C.M . velocity of two particles of masses m1 and m2
respectively with m1 greater than m2, among the following which will be the correct
relation between their velocity :

A) =0

B)

C) <

D) >

Correct answer : C

Q93.A geostationary satellite is for orbiting around an arbitrary planet P at a height of 11
R above the surface of P, R being the radius of P. What is the time period of another
satellite (in hours) at a height of 2R from the surface of P, if the time period of a satellite
is 24 hour is :

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 5

Correct answer : C

Q94. The escape velocity of a projectile on the earth surface is 11.2 km per second. Body
is projected out with trice this speed, what will be the speed of the body far away from
the Earth ?ignore the presence of Sun and other planets :

A) 11.7 km/sec

B) 31.7 km/sec
C) 42.4 km/sec
D) 73.2 km/sec

Q95. If E be the energy required to raise a satellite to a height h above the surface of the
earth and E’ be the energy to put a same satellite into Orbit at that height then E/E’ is
equal to:

A)

B)

C)

D)

Correct answer : C

Q96. The period of revolution of a planet around the sun is 8 times that of B. The distance
of A from the sun is how many times greater than that of B from the Sun ?

A) 5
B) 4
C) 3
D) 2

Q97. Water rises in a capillary tube to a height of 2.0 cm. How much will the water rise
through another capillary tube radius is one third of the first tube ?

−2
A) 2 x 10 m
−2
B) 4 x 10 m
−2
C) 6 x 10 m
−2
D) 8 x 10 m

Correct answer : C

Q98. A Carnot engine having an efficiency of 1/10 as per heat engine, is used as a
refrigerator.If the work done on the system is 10 J, the amount of energy observed from
the Reservoir at low temperature is :

A) 01 J
B) 90 J
C) 99 J
D) 100 J

Q99. In the cyclic process shown in the adjoining PV diagram the work done is :

A)

B)

C)

D)

Correct answer : D

Q100. In an diabetic expansion of the air, the volume is increased by 4%. What is the
percentage change in temperature? ( For air γ = 1. 4)

A) 3.6%
B) 5.6%
C) 7.6%
D) 9.6%

Mathematics

Q101. If f (x) = 1+ ax, α ≠ 0 is the inverse of itself, then the value of α is:

A) -1
B) 1
C) 0
D) 2

Correct answer : A

Q102. The x and y axis are rotated to an angle π/4 radians after the origin to get new
access x’ and y’. The equation for the hyperbola 2xy = 9 in the new coordinate will be :

2
A) 𝑥' − 𝑦'2 = 9
B) 2x’y’ = 9
C) X’y’ = 1
D) None of the above

Correct answer : A

Q103. Locus of mid points of the chords of contact of x2 + y2 = 2 from the points of the
line 3x + 4y = 10 is the circle with Centre P. If O be the origin then OP is equal to :

A) ½
B) ⅓
C) ¼
D) 1

Correct answer : A

104. Point P(x, y) moves in x-y plane such that and

is a parameter. The locus of the point P is :

A) Circle
B) Ellipse

C) Unbounded parabola
D) Part of the parabola

Correct answer : D

105. If then
2 2
𝑎𝑥 + 𝑏𝑦 + 2ℎ𝑥𝑦 + 2𝑔𝑧𝑥 + 2𝑓𝑦𝑧 is :

A) (AB)C
B) (AC)B
C) A(BC)
D) None of the above

Correct answer : A

106. The number of 6 digit numbers that can be formed using the third digits 0, 1 and 2 is
:

5
A) 3 x 2
5
B) 2 x 3
6
C) 3
6
D) 2 x 3

2 2
Q107. Let α, β be the roots of 𝑥 − 𝑥+ p=0 and γ, δ be the roots of 𝑥 − 4𝑥 + 𝑞 = 0. If α, β
, γ, δare in G.P., then the integer values of P and q respectively are :

A) -2,3
B) -6,3
C) -6,-32
D) -2,-32

Correct answer : D

Q108. Solving the following equation for X and Y
3x + y -4z + 5w = 2
2x - 3y - 2z + 3w = 5
With w > z and 0 < w < 1, we get :

A) X < 1, y < 0
B) X < 1, y > 0
C) X < 0, y < 0
D) X > a, y > 0

Correct answer : A

Q109. If the r is equal to :

A) 24
B) 14
C) 7
D) 21

Correct answer : C

Q110. If

where
2 2
I2 denote the 2 x 2 identity matrix, then 13(𝑎 + 𝑏 ) is equal to :

A) 1
B) 0
C) 13
D) 2

Correct answer : C

Q111. The number of distinct value of θ satisfying 0 ≤ θ ≤ πand satisfying the equation
𝑠𝑖𝑛θ + 𝑠𝑖𝑛5θ = 𝑠𝑖𝑛 3θ is :

A) 6
B) 7
C) 8
D) 9

Correct answer : A

Q112. The value of the determinant

Where a > 0 and x,y,z ϵ 𝑅 is :

𝑥 𝑦 𝑧
A) 𝑎 𝑎 𝑎
B) 1
C) 0
D) None of these

Correct answer : C

Q113. If the value of the determinant is positive then :

A) Abc < -8
B) Abc > -8
C) Abc > -2
D) Abc > 1

Q114. Let Z be those complex number which satisfy |z+5|≤4 and

If the maximum value of then the value of is :

A) 32
B) 16
C) 64
D) 48

Correct answer : D

Q115. If and |W| = 1, then Z lies on :

A) A parabola
B) A straight line
C) A circle
D) An ellipse

Q116. Six Boys and six girls sit alone a line alternate alternately in x ways and along a
circle (again alternately in y ways) then :

A) X = y
B) Y = 12 x
C) X = 10y
D) X = 12 y

Correct answer : D

Q117. The range of the function f(x) = {|sin x| + |cos x|}, where [.] denotes the greatest
integer function, is :

A) {0}
B) {1}
C) {0,1}
D) {1, 3}

Q118. If is equal to :

A) 1
B) 2

C) 3
D) 4

Correct answer : D

Q119. The value of is equal to :

A) -1
B) 1
C) 0
D) e

Q120. The value of is :

A) π/2
B) x + π/4
C) x
D) 0

Q121. If f : R→ S defined by f(x) = sin x - 3𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑥 + 1 is onto, then the interval of S is :

A) [0,3]
B) [-1,1]
C) [0,1]
D) [-1,3]

Correct answer : D

Q122. Relation R in the set of all integral defined as xRy if and only if 2x + 5y is a
multiplied of 7 then R is :

A) Only reflexive
B) Reflexive and symmetric but not transitive

C) Reflexive and transitive but not symmetric
D) An equivalence relation

Correct answer : D

Q123. The following data was observed from a study of car complaints received from
360 respondents at Khan's Car Care Workshop, viz, engine problem, transmission
problem or mileage problem.Of those surveyed, there was no one who faced exactly two
of these problems. There were 180 respondents who faced engine problems, 240 who
faced transmission problems and 300 who faced mileage problems. How many of them
faced all the three problems ?

A) 90
B) 120
C) 180
D) 40

Correct answer : C

Q124. Let f : R —> R be defined by Then the range of f is :

A) (-1,1)-{10}
B) [-½,½]
C) R- [-½, ½]
D) R - [-1, 1]

Q125. Which of the following is the contrapositive of “if two triangles are identical than
these are similar”?

A) If two triangles are not similar then they are not identical
B) If two triangles are not identical then these are not similar
C) If two triangles are not identical then these are similar
D) If two Triangles are not similar then these are identical

Correct answer : A

Q126. A person throws two fair dice. He wins Rs 15 for throwing a doublet (same number
of the two dice) wins rupees 12 when the throw result in the sum of 9 and losses rupees 6
for any other outcome On The Throw. Then the expected gain/loss ( in Rupees ) of a

person is :

A) ½ gain
B) ¼ loss
C) ½ loss

D) 2 gain

Correct answer : C

Q127. The probability when a hand of 7 cards is dealt from a well shuffled deck of 52
cards, it contains all 4 kings is :

A) 9/1547
B) 1/1547
C) 46/7735
D) 1/7735

Correct answer : D

Q128. Suppose that it is 9 to 7 against of person A who is now 35 years of age living till
he is 65 and 3 to 2 against a person B now 45 living till he is 75, the chance, that one at
least of these two will be alive 30 years hence, is :

A) 53/80
B) 27/80
C) 15/16
D) 14/27

Correct answer : A

Q129. Let n be a two digit natural number if n is selected at random, then find the
𝑛
probability such that 2 − 2 is a multiple of 3 :

A) ¼
B) ½
C) ⅓
D) 0

Q130. A bag contains four one rupee coins, two 25 Paise coins and 5- 10 Paisa coins .In
how many ways can an amount, not less than rupees 1 be taken out from the bag?
(consider coins of the same denomination to be identical )

A) 71
B) 72
C) 73
D) 80

Correct answer : C

Q131. If the function
is continuous at x = 0, then the value of K is :

A) a+b
B) a-b
C) a/b
D) ab

Correct answer : A

Q132. If the sum of two unit vectors is a vector of length then the angle
between the two given vectors is :

A) 0
B) π/3
C) π/2
D) π/6

Correct answer : D

Q133. If the function is continuous at x = 0, then
the value of K is :

A) 0
B) 1

C) -1
D) e

Q134. If are unit factor such that is perpendicular to the plane of

and the angle between is is π/3, then | | is :

A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3

Correct answer : C

Q135. The gender solution of the D.E. is :

A)

B)

C)

D)

Correct answer : A

Q136. Let f : IR → IR be a differentiable function for all values of x and has the property
that f(x) and f’(x) have opposite signs for all values of x. Then :

A) f(x) is an increasing function
B) f(x) is a decreasing function
C) f’(x) is a decreasing function

D) |f(x)| is an increasing function

Correct answer : C

Q137. A particular solution of the differential equation (x - y)(dx + dy) = dx - dy given that
y(0) = -1, is :

A) Log |x-y| = x+y
B) Log|x-y| = x+y+1
C) Log|x-y| = x+y-1
D) Log|x-y| = x-y-1

Q138. Let f : IR → IR be a differentiable function .If the tangent drawn to the

curve at any point always lies below the curve, then :

A)

B)

C)
D) None of these

Correct answer : C

Q139. A stone is dropped into a quiet lake and waves move in a circle at a speed of 5
cm/second. At the instant when the radius of the circular wave is 10 cm, how fast is
enclosed ?

2
A) 10 π𝑐𝑚 /𝑠
2
B) 20 π𝑐𝑚 /𝑠
2
C) 50 π𝑐𝑚 /𝑠
2
D) 100 π𝑐𝑚 /𝑠

Correct answer : D

𝑦 2
Q140. If 𝑒 (𝑥 + 1) = 1, then (𝑑𝑦/𝑑𝑥) is equal to :

A)
B) 1/2
C) 0
D) 1

Correct answer : A

Q141. The value of is :

A)

B)

C)

D)

Correct answer : A

Q142. If then the value a and b are :

A) a = 1, b = -1
B) a = -1, b = 1
C) a = 1, b = 1
D) a = -1, b = -1

Q143. The area bounded by the curves y = cos x and y = sin x between the ordinates x = 0
and x = 3π/2 is :

A) 4 2 + 2

B) 4 2 − 2
C) 4 2 + 1
D) 4 2 − 1

Q144. The equation of planes in passing through the intersection of the planes x + 2y +
3z = 4 and 4x + 3y + 2z = -1 and the origin is :

A) 17x - 14y + 11z = 0
B) 17x + 14y - 11z = 0
C) -17x + 14y + 11z = 0
D) 17x + 14y + 11z = 0

Correct answer : D

Q145. A perpendicular is drawn from a point on the line (x-1)/2 = (y+1)/-1 = z/1 to the plane
x + y + z = 3 such that the food of the perpendicular Q also life on the plane x - y + z = 3
then the coordinate of Q are :

A) (1,0,2)
B) (2,0,1)
C) (-1,0,4)
D) (4,0,-1)

Q146. The line x/k = y/2 = z/-12 makes an isosceles triangle with the planes 2x + y + 3z -
1= 0 and x + 2y - 3z -1 = 0 if value of K is :

A) 1
B) -2
C) 3
D) 4

Q147. The area bounded by the curve y = sin-1 x and the lines x = 0, |y| = π/2 is :

A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) 16

Correct answer : A

Q148. The area under the curve y = (In x)/x2 from x = 1 to x = infinite is :

A) 1

B) Infinite
C) ½
D) ¼

Correct answer : A

2 2
Q149. The eccentricity of the ellipse 5𝑥 + 9𝑦 = 1 is :

A) ½
B) ⅘
C) ¾
D) ⅔

Correct answer : D

Q150. A plane meets the coordinate axis in A, B and C such that center of the triangle
ABC if the point (a,b,c) then equation of the plane is :

A) x/a + y/b + z/c = 1
B) x/a + y/b + z/c = 2
C) x/a + y/b + z/c = 3
D) None of these

Correct answer : C

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