HP Post Basic B.Sc Nursing 2026 Question Paper with Answer Key Paper Code 2602

FOR HP POST BASIC B.SC NURSING EXAM PREPARATION

HP Post Basic B.Sc
Nursing 2026
Question Paper · Paper
Code 2602
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT

HP Post Basic B.Sc Nursing 2026 Question Paper Paper Code 2602
INCLUDES

Answer Key

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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Atal Medical & ResearchaUniversity, H.P.
(A State Govt. University)
(SLBS Govt. Medical College & Hospital Campus, Ner Chowk, Mandi, H.P.)
Website:- www.amruhp.ac.in , Email: [email protected], Phone No. 01905-243967

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Answer Keys
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l a s Post Basic B. Sc. Nursing Course
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ag Paper Code- 2602
held on 2nd August, 2026
Morning Shift (11:00 AM to 01:00 PM)

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If a candidate does not satisfy with the key answers, he/she can make representation

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with documentary proof to the COE, Atal Medical and Research University, HP, at

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[email protected] up gtol 06.08.2026 by 05:00 PM and thereafter, no
Nerchowk, Distt. Mandi, HP-175008 through email on

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representation will be entertained under any circumstances.

-Sd/-

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(Dr. Rajesh Kumar)

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Controller of Examinations
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Atal Medical & Research University, HP,

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Ner Chowk, Distt. Mandi.
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(To be filled by the candidate) Booklet S. No. ____________________

Roll No. (In figures) ____________________________________________________________________

Roll No. (In words) _____________________________________________________________________

_____________________________________________________________________________________

Name of the Candidate : _________________________________________________________________

Center of Examination : _________________________________________________________________

Total No. of Questions : 100

Post Basic B. Sc. Nursing Entrance Test
Paper Code- 2602
Time Allowed : 2 Hours Maximum Marks : 100
IMPORTANT NOTE:
(i) OMR Answer Sheet will be supplied by the Examination Centre Superintendent for answering the
questions.
(ii) Use Blue/Black Ink/ Ball Pen only, to darken the appropriate circle in the OMR Answer Sheet.
(iii) Darken one circle deeply for each question in the OMR Answer Sheet, as faintly darkened circle might
be rejected by the Optical Scanner.
(iv) Darkening of more than one circle shall be rejected by the scanner. Over-writing, cutting, erasing
or use of White Fluid is not allowed.
(v) Before dealing with the question paper, fill-up the required information with Blue/Black Ball Pen
correctly both in the Question Booklet and in the OMR Answer Sheet.
(vi) Do not fold the OMR Answer Sheet nor put any mark here and there to avoid rejection by the Optical
Scanner.
(vii) Write Roll. No. carefully on the OMR Answer Sheet and darken the appropriate circle properly.
(viii) Each question carries One Mark. There will be No Negative Marking.
(ix) Use of Calculator is not allowed.
(x) No over-writing, cutting, erasing or use of white fluid is allowed.
(xi) Rough work be done on the sheet(s) at the end.
(xii) Mobile telephones (even on switch-off mode) and such other electronic devices are not allowed inside
the examination hall.
(xiii) The question paper-booklet will be retained by the candidate after the entrance test is over.
(xiv) The Carbon Copy of the OMR Answer Sheet may be retained by the candidate only after permission is
granted by the Invigilator.

Rough Page

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Medical Surgical Nursing d. Hypermagnesemia
ANSWER - c
1. A diabetic patient becomes sweaty,
confused, and irritable 1 hour after insulin
4. A patient receiving penicillin suddenly
administration. What is the nurse’s priority
develops wheezing, facial swelling, and
action?
hypotension. Which action has highest
a. Administer IV insulin
priority?
b. Check capillary blood glucose
a. Administer oral fluids
c. Encourage exercise
b. Stop the drug and prepare emergency
d. Prepare for dialysis
treatment
ANSWER –b
c. Continue medication slowly
d. Reassure the patient only
2. A patient with COPD receiving high-
ANSWER -b
flow oxygen becomes drowsy and difficult
to arouse. Which explanation is most
5. A patient with fracture complains of
appropriate?
severe pain despite analgesics. The
a. Oxygen toxicity causing alkalosis
extremity is pale and pulses are weak.
b. Suppression of hypoxic respiratory drive
Which complication requires immediate
c. Increased hemoglobin production
intervention?
d. Pulmonary embolism
a. Osteoporosis
ANSWER -b
b. Fat embolism
c. Compartment syndrome
3. A patient receiving furosemide
d. Arthritis
complains of weakness and palpitations.
ANSWER - c
ECG shows U waves. Which electrolyte
imbalance should the nurse suspect?
6. A patient with pulmonary tuberculosis
a. Hypernatremia
has stopped medications after symptom
b. Hypercalcemia
improvement. Which outcome is most
c. Hypokalemia
likely?

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a. Drug resistance and recurrence b. Hold medication and inform physician
b. Permanent immunity c. Encourage ambulation
c. Complete cure d. Repeat pulse after exercise
d. Reduced infectivity permanently ANSWER -b

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ANSWER - a

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10. A patient with stroke develops

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7. A patient develops coughing and wet voice during feeding.

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prolonged antibiotic What is the nurse’s priority action?
a the nurse suspect first?
condition should a. Continue feeding slowly
a. Viral gastroenteritis b. Encourage oral fluids
b. Food poisoning c. Keep patient NPO and assess swallowing
c. Clostridioides difficile infection d. Position patient flat

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d. Peptic ulcer disease ANSWER - c
ANSWER - c
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8. A patient with myocardial infarction
a decreased urine output while receiving
develops chest pain radiating to the left arm gentamicin. Which complication should
and sweating. Which nursing action should the nurse suspect?
be prioritized? a. Hepatotoxicity
a. Encourage walking b. Respiratory depression

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b. Restrict oxygen therapy c. Hyperglycemia
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c. Provide heavy meal
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d. Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
ANSWER - d as
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a 12. A patient with chronic kidney disease
9. A patient receiving digoxin has pulse has ECG changes with tall peaked T waves.
rate 48/min and complains of visual halos. Which imbalance is most likely?
What should the nurse do? a. Hypocalcemia

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a. Administer digoxin with food b. Hyperkalemia
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c. Hyponatremia d. Acute bronchospasm only
d. Hypoglycemia ANSWER - a
ANSWER -b
16. A diabetic patient is found unconscious
13. A hospitalized neutropenic patient with fruity breath odor and deep
develops fever. Which nursing intervention respirations. Which condition should the
is most important? nurse suspect?
a. Provide fresh flowers a. Hypoglycemia
b. Encourage raw fruits and salads b. Diabetic ketoacidosis
c. Restrict visitors with infection symptoms c. Stroke
d. Minimize hand hygiene d. Renal colic
ANSWER - c ANSWER -b

14. A patient receiving blood transfusion 17. A patient with hypertension suddenly
develops chills, fever, and back pain. What develops severe chest pain and unequal arm
should the nurse do first? BP readings. Which emergency should the
a. Slow the transfusion nurse suspect?
b. Stop transfusion immediately a. Angina
c. Elevate foot end b. Pulmonary embolism
d. Administer antipyretics only c. Aortic dissection
ANSWER -b d. Gastritis
ANSWER – c
15. A patient with COPD has barrel chest
and prolonged expiration. Which 18. A patient with severe infection
pathophysiological change best explains develops temperature 39°C, tachycardia,
this condition? hypotension, and elevated lactate. Which
a. Air trapping due to alveolar destruction condition is most likely?
b. Pulmonary edema a. Cardiogenic shock
c. Pleural fibrosis b. Septic shock

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c. Neurogenic shock C. Complete mental well-being
d. Hypoglycemia D. Social isolation
ANSWER -b Ans: C

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22. A patient says, “I am the Prime
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19. A postoperative patient has absent

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bowel sounds and abdominal distension.

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Which complication
suspect? a
B. Delusion of persecution
C. Illusion
a. Paralytic ileus
D. Hallucination
b. Appendicitis
Ans: A
c. Gastritis

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d. Hepatitis
ANSWER -a
c. 23.
s em stimulus. This is:
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20. A patient with head injury develops
a A. Illusion
unequal pupils and declining
B. Hallucination
consciousness. Which complication should
C. Delusion
the nurse suspect first?
D. Obsession
a. Hypoglycemia
Ans: B
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b. Pneumonia
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c. Hypocalcemia
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24. The most important
nursing is: a
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A. Drug administration
Mental Health Nursing B. Communication
21. Mental health is best defined as: C. Physical care
A. Absence of disease D. Documentation

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B. Ability to adjust with environment Ans: B
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B. Sadness
C. Aggression
25. A patient repeatedly washes hands due
D. Hallucination
to fear of contamination. This is:
Ans: B
A. Obsession
B. Compulsion
C. Phobia
29. Mania is characterized by:
D. Delusion
A. Low mood
Ans: B
B. Increased activity
C. Withdrawal
D. Fear
26. Anxiety is:
Ans: B
A. Fear of known object
B. Emotional response to stress
C. Mental illness
30. A suicidal patient should be:
D. Hallucination
A. Left alone
Ans: B
B. Observed closely
C. Discharged
D. Ignored
27. Phobia is:
Ans: B
A. Real danger
B. Irrational fear
C. Delusion
31. A patient believes others are trying to
D. Mood disorder
harm him. This is:
Ans: B
A. Delusion of persecution
B. Illusion
C. Obsession
28. A patient with depression is likely to
D. Compulsion
show:
Ans: A
A. Increased activity

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32. Illusion is: C. Diazepam
A. False belief D. Haloperidol
B. Misinterpretation of real stimulus Ans: B
C. False perception without stimulus

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D. Mood disorder

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36. Insight refers to:
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Ans: B

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A. Memory

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B. Awareness of illness

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33. The most important principle in C. Mood
psychiatric nursing is: D. Thinking
A. Discipline Ans: B
B. Trust
C. Punishment
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37. The best approach during hallucination
D. Isolation

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Ans: B

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a B. Argue
34. A patient is restless, sweating, and C. Present reality
fearful. This indicates: D. Ignore
A. Depression Ans: C
B. Anxiety

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38. Restraints are used only:
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D. Delusion

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A. For routine care

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B. For punishment
C. For safety
35. Which drug is used in bipolar D. For comfort
disorder? Ans: C
A. Fluoxetine

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B. Lithium
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39. Psychiatric rehabilitation aims at: 42. The first step in Neonatal
A. Cure only Resuscitation Program (NRP) is:
B. Social functioning (a) Chest compression
C. Isolation (b) Suctioning
D. Drug therapy (c) Warm and dry the baby
Ans: B (d)Give adrenaline
Answer: (c) Warm and dry the baby

43. Flag sign can be observed in which of
40. A good nurse-patient relationship is the following condition:
based on: (a) Rickets
A. Authority (b) Marasmus
B. Trust (c) Kwashiorkor
C. Fear (d) Obesity
D. Control Answer = (c) Kwashiorkor
Ans: B
44. Koplik’s spot can be observed in
which of the following condition:
Child Health Nursing
(a) Measles
(b) German Measles
41. Height of the infant gets double at the
(c) Mumps
age of:
(d) Chickenpox
(a) 2 years
Answer = (a) Measle
(b) 3 years
(c) 4 years
45. Coughing, choking and cyanosis is
(d) 5 years
observed in a neonate immediately after
Answer = (c) 4 years
birth condition could be:
(a) Tetralogy of Fallot
(b) Tracheooesophageal fistula

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(c) Transposition of great arteries (a) Height of children
(d) Atrial septal defect (b) Head circumference
Answer = (b) Tracheooesophageal (c) Chest circumference
fistula (d) Mid upper arm circumference

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Answer = (d) Mid upper sarm

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46. Anterior fontanel is closed by: circumference

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(a) 0-2 months 50. As per National Immunization
(b) 6-12 months schedule starting from 9 months of age
(c) 12 -18 months total recommended doses of vitamin A till
(d) 20 -24 months the age of 5 years are:
Answer = (c) 12 -18 months (a) 5 doses

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(b) 7 doses
47. Pentavalentvaccine contain:
c. (c)o 8 doses
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a
(a) DPT, Hib, Hepatitis B

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(b) OPV, MR, DPT
a Answer = (d) 9 doses
(c) IPV, MR, DPT
(d) None of the above 51. Logan bow is used in post operative
Answer = (a) DPT, Hib, Hepatitis B cases of:

(a) Pyloric stenosis
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48. Currant jelly stool is found in which of
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(b) Hydrocephalus
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the following condition:
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(c) Cleft lip

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(d) Club foot
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(c) Constipation
(d) Diarrhoea
52. Which of the following is cyanotic
Answer = (a) Intussusception
heart disease

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(a) ASD

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49. Shakirs tape is used to measure
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(b) TGA (d) 7.5 ml
(c) PDA Answer = (7.5 ml)
(d) VSD
Answer = (b) TGA 56. A child with burns is crying
continuously and has blister formation.
53. Breast milk contains which What is the priority nursing intervention?
immunoglobulin:
(a) Apply ice directly
(a) IgA (b) Maintain airway and fluid balance
(b) IgE (c) Give solid food immediately
(c) IgG (d) Restrict fluids
(d) IgM Answer: (b). Maintain airway and fluid
Answer (a) =IgA balance

54. The hallmark sign of meningitis is: 57. Pathological jaundice occurs within:
(a) Chest pain (a) 24 hours of birth
(b) Neck rigidity (b) 48 hours of birth
(c) Polyuria (c) Within 72 hours of birth
(d) Edema (d) On 3rd day of life
Answer: (b) Neck rigidity Answer = (a) 24 hours of birth
58. Scurvy in children can be caused by
deficiency of:
55. Calculate dose required for a child
(a) Vitamin A
when recommended dose of injection
(b) Vitamin B
cefixime is 750mg and available dose is
(c) Vitamin C
1gram in 10ml of injection.
(d) Vitamin D
(a) 6 ml Answer = (c) Vitamin C
(b) 6.5 ml
(c) 7 ml

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59. Which of the following reflex a) Oxytocin
disappear between 12months to 24 months b) Progesterone
of life. c) Prolactin
d) Estrogen
(a) Moro reflex

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Answer = c) Prolactin
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(b) Dolls eye reflex
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(c) Tonic neck reflex
c. o 63. Signs of magnesium toxicity are:
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(d) Babinski reflex m
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Answer = (d)lBabinski reflex a
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b) Respiratory depression
c) Oliguria
60. In leukemia the following occur d) All of the above
except
Answer = d) All of the above
(a) Decrease platelets

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64. The normal amount of amniotic fluid

c. atoterm is approximately:
(b) Increase white blood cell production

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(c) Liver remains normal

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(d) Normal bone marrow is replaced
a
b) 600-800 mL
with the blast cell
c) 800–1000 mL
Answer: (c) Liver remains normal
d) 2000 mL

Answer = b) 600–800 mL
Midwifery & Gynaecology

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65. Blood glucose testing during
co
61. The first stage of labor begins with:
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pregnancy is recommended at:

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(a) Delivery of baby
a) 6-12 weeks
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b) 12-16 weeks
a
d) Rupture of membranes
Answer = b) Onset of true labor pains c) 20-24 weeks
d) 24-28 weeks
62. The hormone responsible for milk

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production is: Answer = d) 24-28 weeks

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66. The most common cause of 70. The term gravida refers to:
postpartum hemorrhage is: a) Number of births
a) Uterine atony b) Number of pregnancies
b) Cervical tear c) Number of abortions
c) Retained placenta d) Number of living children
d) Infection Answer = b) Number of pregnancies
Answer = a) Uterine atony

67. Monochorionic monoamniotic twin
71. The first milk secreted after delivery is
occurs if division occurs:
called:
a) Before 24 hours
a) Mature milk
b) 1-4 days
b) Colostrum
c) 4-8 days
c) Foremilk
d) More than 8 days
d) Hindmilk
Answer = d) More than 8 days
Answer = b) Colostrum
68. The common symptom of ectopic
72. Which vitamin deficiency causes
pregnancy is:
neural tube defects in fetus?
a) Hypertension
a) Vitamin A
b) Severe abdominal pain
b) Vitamin C
c) Polyuria
c) Folic acid
d) Pedal edema
d) Vitamin D
Answer = b) Severe abdominal pain
Answer = c) Folic acid
69. The investigation commonly used for
73. A woman with BP 160/110 mmHg and
screening cervical cancer is:
convulsions during pregnancy is suffering
a) Mammography
from:
b) Pap smear
a) Placenta previa
c) Ultrasound
b) Eclampsia
d) CT scan
Answer = b) Pap smear

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c) Hydramnios a) Biparietal diameter
d) Anemia b) Suboccipitobregmatic diameter

Answer = b) Eclampsia c) Occipitofrontal diameter
d) Mentovertical diameter
74. The normal presentation of the fetus
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Answer = b) Suboccipitobregmatic
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during labor is:

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a) Breech presentation

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b) Shoulder presentation 78. Indication of heart diseases during

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c) Cephalic presentation pregnancy include:
d) Face presentation a) Progressive dyspnea
Answer = c) Cephalic presentation b) Chest pain
c) orthopnea
75. Quickening is usually felt by the

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mother at: d) All of the above
a) 4–6 weeks
c. o Answer = a) Progressive dyspnea
s em 79. The condition in which placenta
a
b) 8–10 weeks

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a
c) 16–20 weeks
partially or completely covers the cervical
d) 30–32 weeks
os is called:
Answer = c) 16–20 weeks
a) Abruptio placentae
76. The causes of physiological anemia in b) Placenta previa
pregnancy is a result of: c) Hydatidiform mole
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a) Hemodilution d) Polyhydramnios
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c. o s em previa
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b) Hemolysis Answer = b) Placenta

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80. Toxoplasmosis
a a) By eating infected raw or uncooked
Answer = a) Hemodilution
meat.
77. The fetal skull diameter presenting in a b) Through contact with infected cats and
well-flexed vertex presentation is: dogs faeces.

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c) Contaminated soil C. Put on an apron to protect her uniform
d) All of the above and fold it with the right side out before
putting it back into the bag.
Answer = d) All of the above D. At the end of the visit, fold the lining on
which the bag was placed, ensuring that the
contaminated side is on the outside.
Community Health Nursing Including
Ans:A
Research & Statistics
81. Which is the primary goal of
83. Which of the following is a natality
community health Nursing:
rate:
A. To support and supplement the efforts of
A. Crude birth rate
the medical profession in the promotion of
health and prevention of disease. B. Neonatal mortality rate
B. To enhance the capacity of individuals, C. Infant mortality rate
families and communities to cope with
D. General fertility rate
their health needs.
Ans: A
C. To increase the productivity of the
people by providing them with services that
will increase their level of health.
84. Inadequate intake by the pregnant
D. To contribute to national development woman of which vitamin may cause neural
through promotion of family welfare, tube defects:
focusing particularly on mothers and
A. Niacin
children
B. Riboflavin
Ans: B
C. Folic Acid
D. Thiamine
82. To maintain the cleanliness of the bag
and its contents, which of the following Ans: C
must the nurse do:
A.Wash his/her hands before and after 85. Which immunization produces a
providing nursing care to the family permanent scar:
members.
A. DPT
B.In the care of family member’s, as much
as possible, use only articles taken from the B. BCG
bag. C. Measles vaccination

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B. May 1st
D. Hepatitis B vaccination C. December 1st
Ans: B D. July 1st
Ans: A

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86. Polio vaccines stored in the refrigerator
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at the temperature of:
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90. First case come to the attention of the
A. -40 °C
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B. -20°C A. Index case
C. -30°C B. Primary care
D. -10°C C. Carrier
Ans: B D. All of these
Ans: A

omModifiable risk factors in case of
87. Koplik's spots are seen in:
c. 91.
em Hypertension include all, EXCEPT:
A. Rubella

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B. Rubeola
C. Typhoid a A. Salt intake
B. Alcohol intake
D. Chickenpox
C. Age
Ans: B
D. Obesity
Ans: C
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88. Poliomyelitis is transmitted through:

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A. Water
B.. Air s e
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92. A state of complete physical, mental

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and social well-being and not merely the
D. Vector absence of disease of infirmity” recently
socially and economic productive of life
Ans: A also included; this definition is given by:
A. UNESCO
89. WHO day is: B. WHO

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A.April 7th
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C. UNICEF
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D. UNFPA 96. Which committee was based on the
recommended ‘No private practice’ for
Ans:B
govt. doctor:
A. Mudaliar committee
93. Which of the following methods is
B. Chadha committee
used for the estimation of chlorine demand
of water: C. Kartarsingh committee
A. Chlorometer D. Jungalwalla committee
B. Horrock’apparatus Ans:D
C. Berkefeld filter
D. Double pot method 97. Mid year population refer to population
as on:
Ans:B
A. 31 December
B. 1 January
94. Under the School Health Programme,
deworming is typically carried out: C. 1 July
A. Monthly D. 30 June
B. Quarterly Ans: C
C. Biannually
D. Annually 98. Which of the following is vector borne
disease:
Ans:C
A. Diphtheria
B. JE
95. Which of the following refer to the first
referral unit (FRU): C. Typhoid
A. Subcenter D. Mumps
B. Primary Heallth Centre Ans: B
C. Community Health Centre
D. District hospital 99. WHO STEP approach is used for:
Ans:C A. Auto immune disorder
B. Immuno deficient diasease
C. NCD
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Ans: C

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D. Anganwadi
Ans:A

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