HP Post Basic B.Sc Nursing 2024 Question Paper

Entrance Exam
2024

QUESTION
PAPER

Atal Medical & Research University, H.P.
(A State Govt. University)
(SLBS Govt. Medical College & Hospital Campus, Ner Chowk, Mandi, H.P.)
Website:- www.amruhp.ac.in , Email: [email protected], Phone No. 01905-243967

Answer keys
for Post Basic B. Sc. Nursing Entrance test
held on 7th July, 2024
Morning Shift (10:00 AM to 12:00 Noon)

If a candidate does not satisfy with the key answers, he/she can make
representation with documentary proof to the COE, Atal Medical and Research
University, HP, at Nerchowk, Distt. Mandi, HP-175008 through email on
[email protected] up to 09.07.2024 by 05:00 PM and thereafter, no
representation will be entertained under any circumstances.

Sd/-
(Dr. Parveen Kumar Sharma)
Controller of Examinations
Atal Medical & Research University, HP,
Ner Chowk, Distt. Mandi.

Page 1 of 15

(To be filled by the candidate) Booklet S. No. ____________________

Roll No. (In figures) ____________________________________________________________________

Roll No. (In words) _____________________________________________________________________

_____________________________________________________________________________________

Name of the Candidate : _________________________________________________________________

Father’s Name : ________________________________________________________________________

Center of Examination : _________________________________________________________________

Total No. of Questions : 100

Paper Code- 2402
Time Allowed : 2 Hours Maximum Marks : 100
IMPORTANT NOTE:

(i) OMR Answer Sheet will be supplied by the Examination Centre Superintendent for answering the
questions.
(ii) Use Blue/Black Ink/ Ball Pen only, to darken the appropriate circle in the OMR Answer Sheet.
(iii) Darken one circle deeply for each question in the OMR Answer Sheet, as faintly darkened circle
might be rejected by the Optical Scanner.
(iv) Darkening of more than one circle shall be rejected by the scanner. Over-writing, cutting, erasing
or use of White Fluid is not allowed.
(v) Before dealing with the question paper, fill-up the required information with Blue/Black Ball Pen
correctly both in the Question Booklet and in the OMR Answer Sheet.
(vi) Do not fold the OMR Answer Sheet nor put any mark here and there to avoid rejection by the
Optical Scanner.
(vii) Write Roll. No. carefully on the OMR Answer Sheet and darken the appropriate circle properly.
(viii) Each question carries One Mark. There will be No Negative Marking.
(ix) Use of Calculator is not allowed.
(x) Rough work be done on the sheet(s) at the end.
(xi) MOBILE TELEPHONES (EVEN ON SWITCH-OFF MODE) AND SUCH OTHER ELECTRONIC DEVICES ARE
NOT ALLOWED INSIDE THE EXAMINATION HALL.
(xii) The question paper-booklet will be retained by the candidate after the entrance test is over.
(xiii) Question No. 1-20 is of Medical Surgical Nursing including Anatomy, Physiology, Nutrition,
Pharmacology & Microbiology, 21-40 is of Psychiatric Nursing including Fundamentals of
Nursing, 41-60 is of Paediatrics Nursing, 61-80 is of Midwifery & Gynaecology and 81-100 is
of Community Health Nursing subjects.
Page 2 of 15

Post Basic B. Sc. Nursing
Medical Surgical Nursing including 5. Longest muscle in the body is
Anatomy, Physiology, Nutrition, a. Biceps
Pharmacology & Microbiology b. Triceps
c. Sartorius
1. An opening of the surgical wound d. Quadriceps
edge is called Answer: c. Sartorius
a. Wound evisceration
6. Stimulation of the parasympathetic
b. wound rupture nerve on the digestive system results
c. Wound approximation in
d. Wound dehiscence a. Decreased GI motility
Answer d. wound dehiscence b. Decreased dilatation of the
portal veins branches
2. Stab wound for a drainage system is c. Increased gastrointestinal
known as secretions
a. incision d. Increased tone of the sphincter
b. puncture muscles
c. cautery Answer: c. increased GI
d. laceration secretions
Answer: b. puncture
7. Identify the clinical manifestation of
3. Immediate treatment of anaphylaxis duodenal ulcer among the following
is a. Hematemesis will be present
a. Adrenaline b. Patient is generally
b. Benzyl penicillin malnourished
c. Hydrocortisone c. Pain occurs 1-2 hours after the
d. Atropine meals
Answer a. Adrenaline d. Food may relieve the pain
Answer d. food may relieve the
4. Forgotten muscle is pain
a. Supraspinatus
b. Infraspinatus 8. The corrective surgery for the
c. Subscapularis Hirschsprung disease is
d. Teres minor a. Pyloroplasty
Answer . c. subscapularis b. Kasai procedure
c. Duhamel procedure
d. Pyeloplasty
Answer c. Duhamel procedure
Page 3 of 15

13.The rule of nine is
9. Increased level of unconjugated a. A tool used to assess the
bilirubin is because of the problem eyesight of a person
with the following organ b. An allergy identification test
a. liver c. A chart used to assess the area
b. small intestine of body burnt
c. bone marrow d. A tool used to assess the
d. spleen nutritional deficiency
Answer a. liver Answer c. Chart to assess the
body burnt area
10.Bluish discoloration or ecchymosis
around the umbilicus is known as 14. Untreated cellulitis may lead to the
a. Homans sign following condition
b. Kernig sign a. Septicaemia /septic shock
c. Cullens sign b. Wound injury
d. Osiander sign c. Evisceration
Answer: c Cullen’s sign d. Loss of body surface area
Answer a. Septicaemia
11.true about the Reye’s syndrome is
a. occurs in children when they 15.Laryngospasm is seen in:
were given aspirin when they have a. Hyper responsiveness of
bad flu and chickenpox airway to varying stimuli
b. Fatty infiltration of the liver and b. Repeated traumatic attempts of
then degeneration endotracheal intubation
c. The syndrome often begin with c. After GA
vomiting the quickly followed by d. All the above
irritable and aggressive Answer d. All the above
behaviours
d. All the above 16.The full form of DASH diet is
Answer d. all the above a. Dietary allowances to stop
hypertension
12.Drug of choice for the mass treatment b. Dietary aid to stop
of trachoma is hypertension
a. sulphonamides c. Dietary approach to stop
b. chloramphenicol hypertension
c. Azithromycin d. Dietary assistance to stop
c. Penicillin hypertension
Answer: c Azithromycin Answer ; c. Dietary approach
to stop hypertension
Page 4 of 15

17.Mr Siddappa has been received from c. Vigorously massage the area
OT by the PICU nurse after the after the injection
coronary artery bypass graft d. All the above
procedure. Which of the following Answer: b Rotate injection site
intervention would be appropriate to
prevent early complications 20.A lethargic client who has fever
a. Employing leg exercises and vomiting, headache and nurse has to
turning him in bed every two prepare him for which one of the
hours following procedures
b. Keeping him from ambulating a. Blood culture
until the day after surgery b. Lumber puncture
c. Keeping him cool with the c. CAT Scan
light patient body cover to d. Ultrasound
prevent elevated temperature Answer: b. Lumber puncture
d. Positioning him in bed with
pillows placed under his knees Psychiatric Nursing including
to improve venous return Fundamentals of Nursing

Answer a. Employing leg 21. Behaviour therapy includes all of
exercises and turning him in these except:
bed every two hours (a) Cognitive therapy
(b) Systematic desensitization
18.Mr Rahul has undergone renal (c) Aversion therapy
transplant. Which of the following (d) ECT
assessment indicate the possibility of Answer D
organ rejection
a. Sudden weight loss 22. Lithium is drug of choice in
b. Shock (a) Depression
c. Tenderness or pain (b) Bipolar Disorder
d. Polyurea (c) Schizophrenia
Answer c. Tenderness or pain (d) Phobia
Answer B
19.The nurse is teaching a client to self-
administer insulin, the instruction 23. Bulimia nervosa is a type of :
should include teaching the client to (a) Anxiety disorder
a. Inject the needle at 45-degree (b) Depression
angle (c) Eating disorder
b. Rotate injection site (d) Schizophrenia
Answer C
Page 5 of 15

24. To treat alcoholic client, the drug of (b) Philippe Pinel
choice is: (c) Auguste comte
(a) Haloperidol (d) Sigmund Freud
(b) Diazepam Answer B
(c) Fluoxetine
(d) Disulfiram 29. ECT is refered as:
Answer D (a) Somatic therapy
(b) Behaviour therapy
25. Delirium is a psychiatric disorder (c) Psychotherapy
included in : (d) Occupational therapy
(a) Organic brain disorders Answer A
(b) Personality disorders
(c) Eating disorders 30. The Indian Lunacy Act was
(d) Anxiety disorders established in:
Answer A (a) 1947
(b) 1987
26. Primary symptoms of schizophrenic (c) 1912
disorder are: (d) 1985
(a) Associative looseness Answer C
(b) Autism
(c) Ambevalence 31. Childhood disorder known as
(d) All of these enuresis means:
Answer D (a) Sleepwalking
(b) Stammering
27. Correct sequence of nursing (c) Lack of bowel control
process: (d) Bedwetting
(a) Planning, Implementation, Answer D
Assessment, Evaluation
(b) Implementation,Evaluation, 32. Intelligence quotient (IQ) less than
Planning, Assessment 20 is known as:
(c) Assessment,Planning, (a) Severe mental retardation
Implementation, Evaluation (b) Profound mental retardation
(d) Reevaluation, Planning, (c) Moderate mental retardation
Assessment, Implementation (d) Mild mental retardation
Answer C Answer B

28. Who is known as the father of 33. According to Maslow's hierarchy of
psychiatry: human needs, the highest level is:
(a) Albert Einstein (a) Physiologic needs
Page 6 of 15

(b) Safety and security (d) Bradypnea
(c) Belongingness and affection Answer C
(d) Self-actualization
Answer D 38. In Glasgow coma scale of a
conscious person, what will be the
34. Full form of ASHA is: maximum total score:

(a) Accredited social home activist (a) 0
(b) Accommodated service and (b) 3
health associate (c) 8
(c) Accredited social health activist (d) 15
(d) Accredited social health Answer D
acknowledgment
Answer C 39. Medical asepsis is used in:

(a) Dressing changes
35. The "TNAI" was established in: (b) Catheterization
(c) Daily hygiene
(a) 1908 (d) Surgery
(b) 1947 Answer C
(c) 1950
(d) 1978 40. Lithotomy position is used for
Answer A operations on:

36. First step of any communication (a) Vagina
process is: (b) Perineum
(c) Anal canal
(a) Goal setting (d) All of these
(b) Encoding process Answer D
(c) Problem statement
(d) Intervention Paediatrics Nursing
Answer B
41. Early neonatal period is considered
37. Increased respiratory rate is called: for the first

(a) Tachycardia (a) 30 days of life
(b) Bradycardia (b) 42 days of life
(c) Tachypnea (c) 1 to 15 days of life

Page 7 of 15

(d) 1 to 7 days of life (b) Family planning and health
Ans d education
(c) both a and b
(d) none of the above
42. Birth weight usually gets double by Ans c
the age of 46. Types of breast milk are

(a) 3 months (a) Foremilk and hind milk
(b) 6 months (b) Transition milk and mature milk
(c) 9 months (c) both a and b
(d) 12 months (d) none of the above
Ans b Ans c

43. Baby’s usually achieve neck holding 47. Anterior fontanel gets closed by the
at the age of age of

(a) 2 months (a) 1- 2 months
(b) 3 months (b) 4-6 months
(c) 5 months (c) 9- 12 months
(d) 6 months (d) 12-18 months
Ans b Ans d
48. Flag sign is observed in

44. Baby friendly hospital Initiative (a) Hydrocephalus
(B.F.H.I) was developed jointly by (b) Marasmus
WHO and UNICEF and launched in (c) Kwashiorkor
the year (d) Meningitis
Ans c
(a) 2005 49. Jaundice in neonates occurring
(b) 1985 within 24 hours of birth is known as
(c) 1991 (a) Pathological jaundice
(d) 1980 (b) Physiological jaundice
Ans c (c) Breast milk jaundice
(d) Breast feeding jaundice
45. Which of following are components Ans a
of under-five clinic
50. Which of following is a cyanotic
(a) Growth monitoring and care in heart disease
illness (a) Atrial septal defect
Page 8 of 15

(b) Tetralogy of Fallot (d) United Nations International
(c) Patent ductus arteriosus Collaborative Emergency Fund
(d) Ventricular septal defect Ans a
Ans b

55. Exclusive breast feeding should be
51. Which of following sign are elicited done for first
in meningitis
(a) 6 months
(a) Kernig sign (b) 8 months
(b) Brudzinski sign (c) 9 months
(c) both a and b (d) 12 months
(d) none of the above Ans a
Ans c
56. All of the following symptoms can
52. Which of following is sign of be observed in nephrotic syndrome
dehydration in neonates except

(a) Depressed fontanel (a) Anasarca
(b) Bulging fontanel (b) Hydrocephalus
(c) Hypocalcaemia (c) Proteinuria
(d) Hypercalcemia (d) Hypalbuminaemia
Ans a Ans b

53. Late onset of neonatal sepsis occurs 57. Children can draw the circle by the
(a) Before 72 hours of birth age of
(b) After 72 hours of birth
(c) Within 24 hours of birth (a) 1 year
(d) Before 12 hours of birth (b) 2 years
Ans b (c) 3 years
(d) 4 years
54. Expanded form of UNICEF Ans c

(a) United Nations International 58. All of the following reflexes are
Children’s Emergency Fund temporary reflexes except
(b) United Nations International
Children’s Education Fund (a) Blinking reflex
(c) United Nations International (b) Rooting reflex
Collaborative Education Fund (c) Moro’s reflex
Page 9 of 15

(d) Doll’s eye reflex 63. The full dilation of the cervix is :
Ans a a) 8cm
b) 9cm
59. Three Cs observed in c) 10cm
tracheoesophageal fistula include d) 12cm
all of following except Answer: c) 10cm.

(a) Cirrhosis 64.Which decidual layers, in later stages
(b) Coughing forms placenta:
(c) Choking a) Decidua Basali
(d) Cyanosis b) Decidua Capsularis
Ans a c) Decidua parietali
d) None of the above
60. Vitamin D deficiency can result Answer: a) Decidua Basalis
in
65.Which type of lochia should the nurse
(a) Rickets expect to find in a client on 2nd day
(b) Scurvy postpartum::
(c) Pellagra a) Foul-smelling
(d) Edema b) Lochia rubra
Ans a c) Lochia alba
d) Lochia serosa
Midwifery & Gynaecology Answer: b) Lochia rubra
61. A woman is considered to be a
menopause if she has experienced 66.A client is complaining of painful
cessation of her menses for period of : uterine contractions ,or after pains ,on
a) 6 months post partum day -2 .which of the
b) 12 months following conditions would increase the
c) 18 months severity of afterpains is :
d) 24 months a) Bottle feeding
Answer :b) 12 months b) Diabetes
c) Multiple gestation
62. During sitting the weight of the d) Primiparity
whole body bears on: Answer: c) Multiple gestation
a) Ischial tuberosities
b) Iliac crest
c) .Ischial spine 67.According to WHO the weight of the
d) .None of the above healthy newborn is :
Answer: a) Ischial tuberosities a) 3kg
Page 10 of 15

b) 2.5kg 72. Procidentia means:
c) 2kg a) Fistula
d) 4kg b) Uterine prolapse
Answer : b) 2.5kg c) polyps
d) fibroids
68. Ideal time for Cu-T insertion is : Answer: : b) uterine prolapse
a) 2-3 days following menstruation
b) 7 days after menstruation 73. Which hormone is responsible for
c) 2-3 days prior to menstruation pernicious vomiting
d) During menstruation a) h CG
Answer: a) 2-3 days following b) Prolactin
menstruation c) Estrogen
d) FSH
69. Oral pill of Govt supply: Answer: a) hCG
a) Mala N
b) Mala D 74. A mother at 18 weeks gestation came
c) Progestin only pill to the hospital with complains of
d) Postcoital pill painless slight vaginal bleeding that is
Answer: a) Mala N bright red in Colour and stops
spontaneously, the condition is known as
70. Vasectomy is a procedure done on a :
male for sterilization. The organ a) Inevitable abortion
involved in this procedure is : b) Threatened abortion
a) Prostate gland c) Septic abortion
b) Seminal vesicle d) Complete abortion
c) testes Answer: b) Threatened abortion
d) Vas deferens 75. When the cord is slipped down below
Answer: d) Vas deferens the presenting part and lies in front of it
in the intact bag of membranes is called
71.The Nurse is monitoring the client :
with a history of stillborn infants. The a) Cord prolapse
nurse is aware that a non-stress test can b) Cord presentation
be ordered for this client:- c) Occult prolapse
a) Determine lung maturity d) None of the above
b) Measure fetal activity Answer: a) Cord presentation.
c) Show the effect of contraction of fetal
heart rate 76. Chadwick sign means :
d) Measure the well- being of fetus a) Bluish discolouration of the vagina
Answer : b) measure fetal activity b) Pulsation felt in the vagina
Page 11 of 15

c) Softening of the cervix (c) Storage
d) Intermittent uterine contractions (d) Filtration
Answer: a) Bluish discolouration of the Answer:-(c)
vagina
82. Headquarter of UNICEF is situated
77. Which of the following is not STD: in:-
a) Herpes (a) Geneva
b) Candida (b) New York
c) Echinococcus (c) New Delhi
d) Gonorrhea (d) Rome
Answer: c) Echinococcus Answer:-(b)

78. The most common site of genital TB 83. First referral unit is:-
in woman is: (a) CHC
a) Fallopian tubes (b) PHC
b) Uterus (c) Sub-Centre
c) Cervix (d) District Hospital
d) Vagina Answer:-(a)
Answer: a) fallopian tubes
84. The Main focus for organizing home
79. Tocolytics drugs are used to: visit is:-
a) Induce contractions (a) Demography survey
b) Inhibit uterine contractions (b) Inspection of home environment
c) Cervical dilation (c) Prevention and control of disease
d) All of the above (d) Checking work of other nurses
Answer: b) inhibit uterine contractions. Answer:-(b)

80. The action of PGE2 is: 85. AIDS is a: -
a) Cervical dilation (a) Viral disease
b) Myometrial contractions (b) Bacterial disease
c) Stimulation of uterus (c) Fungal disease
d) None of the above (d) Protozoal disease
Answer: a )cervical dilation Answer:-(a)

Community Health Nursing 86. Polio vaccine is prepared from: -
81. First step in the process of water (a) Toxoid
purification at large scale:- (b) Aerobic bacteria
(a) Boiling (c) Killed organism
(b) Disinfection (d) Live attenuated organism
Page 12 of 15

Answer:-(d) (d) Low death rate
Answer:-(b)
87. Nutritional intervention and lifestyle
modification is an example for:- 92. Which organization is often
(a) Tertiary prevention responsible for coordinating global
(b) Primary prevention disease surveillance efforts:-
(c) Primordial prevention (a) UNICEF
(d) Secondary prevention (b) NASA
Answer:-(b) (c) WHO
(d) UNESCO
88. In communication process response Answer:-(c)
from a receiver to sender is known as:-
(a) Message 93. What is the example of secondary
(b) Encoding source of data collection:-
(c) Channel (a) Observations
(d) Feedback (b) Experiments
Answer:-(d) (c) Interviews
(d) Census data
89. One of the major cause of maternal Answer:-(d)
mortality in India is:-
(a) Unsafe abortion 94. The Crude birth rate (CBR) measure
(b) Haemorrhage the number of births per :-
(c) Sepsis (a) 1000 live births
(d) Obstructed labor (b) 1000 population
Answer:-(b) (c) 100 live births
(d) 1 lakh population
90. What is the term for the ability of a Answer:-(b)
microorganism to cause disease:-
(a) Immunity 95. Primary purpose of vital statistics
(b) Vaccination surveillance is:-
(c) Antibiosis (a) To monitor demographic events like
(d) Pathogenesis births and deaths
Answer:-(d) (b) To access the effectiveness of health
care treatments
91. Which factor can lead to a decline in (c) To predict future disease outbreaks
population of a country:- (d) To track the spread of infectious
(a) High morbidity rate disease
(b) Low fertility rate Answer:-(a)
(c) High birth rate
Page 13 of 15

96. What is the best method to dispose Answer:-(b)
hospital waste:-
(a) Incineration
(b) Chemical treatment
(c) Dumping
(d) Composting
Answer:-(a)

97. Janani suraksha yojna was launched
on:-
(a) 5th April 2005
(b) 12th April 2005
(c) 1st April 2005
(d) 5th April 2007
Answer:-(b)

98. Which of the following disease is not
transmitted by air borne droplets:-
(a) Tuberculosis
(b) Measles
(c) Chicken pox
(d) Poliomyelitis
Answer:-(d)

99. Which concepts of health views
heath as a state of balance and harmony
in all aspects of an individuals life:-
(a) Ecological concepts
(b) Psycho social concept
(c) Holistic concepts
(d) Biomedical concepts
Answer:-(c)

100. Second generation Intra-uterine
device example is:-
(a) Lippes loop
(b) Cu-T 380A
(c) Progestasert
(d) LNG-20 (Mirena)
Page 14 of 15

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