KUET 2023 Question Paper M.Sc. Geology

FOR KUET EXAM PREPARATION

KUET 2023
Question Paper · M.Sc.
Geology
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT

KUET 2023 Question Paper M.Sc. Geology

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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ENTRANCE TEST-2023
SCHOOL OF ENVIRONMENTAL AND EARTH SCIENCES

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APPLIED GEOLOGY

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Question Booklet Series

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Total Questions : 60
Time Allowed :
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70 Minutes Roll No. :
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g a Test Roll Number in the space provided at the top of this page of Question a
l information Instructions for Candidates :

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1. Write your Entrance Booklet and
fill up the necessary in the spaces provided on the OMR Answer Sheet.
2. OMR Answer Sheet has an Original Copy and a Candidate’s Copy glued beneath it at the top. While making
entries in the Original Copy, candidate should ensure that the two copies are aligned properly so that the
entries made in the Original Copy against each item are exactly copied in the Candidate’s Copy.
3. All entries in the OMR Answer Sheet, including answers to questions, are to be recorded in the Original Copy
only.

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4. Choose the correct / most appropriate response for each question among the options A, B, C and D and
darken the circle of the appropriate response completely. The incomplete darkened circle is not correctly

mcircle of correct/most appropriate response. In no case
read by the OMR Scanner and no complaint to this effect shall be entertained.

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5. Use only blue/black ball point pen to darken the

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6. Do not darken more than one circle ofaoptions for any question. A question with more than one darkened
gel/ink pen or pencil should be used.

response shall be considered wrong.
7. There will be ‘Negative Marking’ for wrong answers. Each wrong answer will lead to the deduction of
0.25 marks from the total score of the candidate.
8. Only those candidates who would obtain positive score in Entrance Test Examination shall be eligible for
admission.

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9. Do not make any stray mark on the OMR sheet.

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10. Calculators and mobiles shall not be permitted inside the examination hall.

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em12. OMR Answer Sheet must be handled carefully and it should not be folded orglmutilated
a in which case it will not
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11. Rough work, if any, should be done on the blank sheets provided with the question

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be evaluated.
13. Ensure that your OMR Answer Sheet has been signed by the Invigilator and the candidate himself/herself.
14. At the end of the examination, hand over the OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator who will first tear off the
original OMR sheet in presence of the Candidate and hand over the Candidate’s Copy to the candidate.

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1. The second most abundant element in the solar system 7. The terrestrial planet in the solar system that displays
is: retrograde rotation is:
(A) Hydrogen (A) Mercury
(B) Helium (B) Venus
(C) Iron (C) Mars
(D) Oxygen (D) Uranus
2. Which of the following is not a metamorphic rock? 8. The conversion of anhydrite to gypsum is an example
of ________.
(A) Anthracite
(A) Oxidation
(B) Schist
(B) Hydration
(C) Eclogite
(C) Carbonation
(D) Puddingstone
(D) Hydrolysis
3. The Love waves generated during an earthquake are:
9. Which of the following is the non-radioactive isotope
(A) Compressional waves
of lead (Pb)?
(B) Shear waves
(A) Pb204
(C) Longitudinal waves
(B) Pb208
(D) Transverse waves
(C) Pb210
4. The oldest eon in the Geological time scale is named:
(D) Pb207
(A) Archaean
10. Badland topography generally occurs in:
(B) Proterozoic (A) Calcareous rocks in humid region
(C) Hadean (B) Shale in arid region
(D) Phanerozoic (C) Clay in sub-humid region
5. The correct sequence of thrust faults encountered as (D) Calcareous rock in arid region
we move from South to North in the Himalayas is:
11. Which one of the following would indicate the
(A) MFT-MBT-MCT presence of a former glacial lake?
(B) MBT-MFT-MCT (A) Loess
(C) MCT-MBT-MFT (B) Varved clay
(D) MFT-MCT-MBT (C) Till
6. Which of the following matches with respect to (D) Outwash sands
Goldschmidt’s classification of chemical elements is 12. Which of the following is not an erosional feature of
incorrect? karst topography?
(A) Atmophile-Oxygen (A) Blind valleys
(B) Lithophile-Lithium (B) Lapies
(C) Chalcophile-Cadmium (C) Poljes
(D) Siderophile-REE (D) Dripstones

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13. Match the geomorphic features with their 18. Identify the tectosilicate mineral from the Mohs’ scale
environments of formation : of hardness, which produces clay mineral due to
Feature Environment chemical weathering.
P. Tombolo 1. Aeolian (A) Orthoclase
Q. Moulin 2. Fluvial
(B) Quartz
R. Zeugen 3. Galcial

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(C) Talc

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S. Billabong 4. Coastal

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(D) Topaz

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(A) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-l

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19. Match the following minerals with their appropriate

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(B) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-l

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physical properties seen in hand specimen.

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(C) P-4, Q-3, R-l, S-2

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(D) P-3, Q-4, R-l, S-2 P. Pyroxene 1. Pearly lustre
14. Diamond exhibits _______ cleavage while pyroxenes Q. Calcite 2. Rhombohedral cleavage
show _______ cleavage.
R. Garnet 3. Prismatic habit
(A) Cubic, prismatic
S. Muscovite 4. Perfect dodecahedral form
(B) Octahedral, cubic
(A) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
(C) Octahedral, prismatic
(D) Cubic, pyramidal (B) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-l

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15. In the interference figure of an uniaxial mineral, the (C) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-l

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melatope indicates:

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(A) Position of optic axis

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20.

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(B) Position of optic normal forming silicate minerals is correct?
(C) Vibration direction of ordinary ray
(A) Sorosilicates have an Si:O ratio of 2:7.
(D) The direction along which mineral is elongated
(B) Phyllosilicates are minerals having isolated silica
16. The phenomenon of double refraction is shown by:
tetrahedra linked by divalent cations
(A) Isotropic minerals
(B) Uniaxial and biaxial minerals (C) All amphiboles crystallise in monoclinic system

(C) Uniaxial minerals (D) Zeolite minerals like laumontite, analcite,

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(D) Biaxial minerals wairakite, heulandite etc. are essentially

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. properties of a mineral
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ionosilicates.

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17. Most of the rock forming silicates are studied under

s ecross nicols?
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________ light microscopy while most of the ore 21. Which of the following optical

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forming minerals are studied under _______ light

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is seen exclusively under

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microscopy.

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(A) Body color
(A) Transmitted, reflected
(B) Pleochroism
(B) Reflected, transmitted
(C) Transmitted, transmitted (C) Interference color

(D) Reflected, reflected (D) Cleavage plane

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22. Muscovite crystallizes in the _________ system. 27. The most abundant volatile that is present within
(A) Tetragonal magmatic liquids is:
(A) Water vapor
(B) Hexagonal
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Isometric
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Monoclinic
(D) Sulphur dioxide
23. Which of the following is not a silicate mineral?
28. Which of the following volcanic eruptions is the most
(A) Augite dangerous?
(B) Apatite (A) Hawaiian
(C) Andalusite (B) Vesuvian
(D) Anorthite (C) Strombolian
24. Which of the following processes does not help in (D) Pelean
‘magmatic differentiation’? 29. Select the rock that is not a metamorphic one.
(A) Assimilation with the surrounding country rocks (A) Biotite gneiss
(B) Staurolite schist
(B) Fractional crystallization
(C) Chert
(C) Mingling with other magmas
(D) Quartzite
(D) Equilibrium crystallization
30. Select the correct order of metamorphic rocks with
25. The system of classification of igneous rocks in which increasing grade of metamorphism.
the constituent minerals of an igneous rock are (A) Slate, schist, phyllites, gneiss, migmatite
considered both chemically and qualitatively:
(B) Slate, phyllites, gneiss, schist, migmatite
(A) Dunham classification (C) Slate, schist, gneiss, phyllites, migmatite
(B) Shands classification (D) Slate, phyllites, schist, gneiss, migmatite
(C) CIPW classification 31. Which one of the following sedimentary structures is
(D) IUGS classification formed by liquefaction?
26. Match the following: (A) Graded bedding
Texture Rocks (B) Longitudinal scour
(C) Convolute lamination
A. Rapakivi texture 1. Dolerites
(D) Flute cast
B. Ophitic texture 2. Komatites
32. Which of the following sedimentary rocks is most
C. Spinifex texture 3. Granites prone to chemical weathering?
(A) A-l, B-2, C-3 (A) Sandstone
(B) A-3, B-2, C-l (B) Shale
(C) A-3, B-l, C-2 (C) Limestone
(D) A-l, B-3, C-2 (D) Conglomerate

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33. Choose the sandstone that is mineralogical and textural 38. The number of alpha ( a ) particles emitted to produce
immature. a daughter isotope of 206 Pb from a parent isotope
of 238 U by radioactive decay is:
(A) Quartz arenite
(A) 2
(B) Quartz wacke
(B) 4
(C) Arkose

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(C) 6

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(D) Feldspathic wacke

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(D) 8

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34. Most of the coal deposits of India belong to

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39. Airy’s model of isostasy :

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_________ Era.

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(A) Requires mountains to have higher density than

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(A) Paleozoic

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the oceanic crust
(B) Mesozoic (B) Requires mountains to have lower density than
(C) Cenozoic the oceanic crust
(D) Mesozoic-Cenozoic boundary (C) Requires mountains to have the same density
35. The supergene enrichment process that commonly as oceanic crust
enhances the grade of primary copper deposits is (D) Does not consider the densities of mountain and
essentially a _______ process. oceanic crust

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40. Parallel magnetic reversal patterns observed on the

c. o(A) Formation of new crust in the geologic past
(A) Contact metasomatic
ocean floor near mid-oceanic ridges suggest the:

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(B) Metamorphic

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(C) Weathering

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(D) Hydrothermal
(C) Origin of Earth’s magnetic field in the inner core
36. ‘Cockade ore’ is formed when:
(D) Non-uniform movement of tectonic plates in the
(A) Ore is arranged in successive layers geologic past
(B) Small crystals develop haphazardly within 41. Earth’s main magnetic field is generated due to:
cavities (A) Magnetic material present in the crust
(C) Fissure fillings are composed of alternate bands (B) Inter planetary interactions

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of quartz and altered country rocks (C) Electric current present in the outer core

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(D) Breccia fragments are surrounded by crusts

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(D) Polar wandering

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37. Arrange the elements Fe, O, H, He, Si in decreasing 42. The sum of specific yield and specific retention in an

las order of their abundance in the solar system. aquifer is called:
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(B) He>H>Si>O>Fe
(A) Transmissivity
(B) Storativity
(C) H>He>O>Fe>Si (C) Porosity
(D) Si>Fe>H>He>O (D) Hydraulic conductivity

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43. A confined aquifer of cross sectional area (A) has a 47. In an outcrop of an intensely folded and
hydraulic gradient of 5 * 10-3 and its coefficient of metamorphosed terrain, a geologist measures the dip
of the bedding to be 70 degrees whereas the dip of
permeability is 2 m/day. 250 m3 of water is collected
the axial planar foliation is about 35 degrees. What
from the aquifer over a period of 24 hours. What is
should be the most plausible interpretation?
the value of ‘A’ in m2 ?
(A) It is the normal limb of an overturned fold
(A) 2500
(B) It is the overturned limb of an overturned fold
(B) 25000 (C) It is a recumbent fold
(C) 250 (D) It is an upright non-plunging fold
(D) 25 48. In which of the following tectonic settings are the
44. According to fold classification by interlimb angle, highest mountain chains and thickest crust found?

ones with interlimb angle of 100 degrees would be (A) Island arc

classified as: (B) Continental arc
(C) Continental collision
(A) Gentle
(D) Transcurrent
(B) Open
49. Which of the following is associated with a divergent
(C) Isoclinal
plate boundary?
(D) Tight (A) Ridge
45. Tabular cross-bedding is formed due to the migration (B) Trench
of ________ . (C) Island arc
(A) 2D dunes only (D) Accretionary prism
(B) 2D ripples and dunes 50. Find the odd one out.

(C) 3D ripples only (A) Murex
(B) Nerita
(D) 3D ripples and dunes
(C) Turbo
46. A shallow focus earthquake strikes near a
(D) Venus
seismological observatory. A seismologist first
51. Aristotle’s lantern present in some echinoids is an
observes _______ on the seismograph.
apparatus for _______ .
(A) P - waves
(A) Reproduction
(B) S - waves (B) Respiration
(C) Rayleigh waves (C) Chewing
(D) Love waves (D) Aiding the water circulatory system

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52. The Paleozoic Po Formation is exposed in the 57. Rapid mass movement of water saturated regolith is
______. called:
(A) Spiti Basin (A) Landslide
(B) Kashmir-Liddar Valley (B) Creep
(C) Kumaon-Garhwal (C) Solifluction

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(D) Nepal (D) Earth flow

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53. The shortest period of the Paleozoic is: 58. The valency of iron in hematite is_______.

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(A) 2

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(A) Ordovician

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(B) Silurian

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(C) Cambrian (C) 4

(D) Permian (D) 5

54. Choose the Archaean stratigraphic unit from the 59. Which of the following oil field in NOT located in the
western part of India?
following:
(A) Bombay High
(A) Cuddapah Supergroup
(B) Ankleshwar
(B) Erinpura Granite
(C) Gandhar

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(C) Haimanta Group

60..coMatch the tectonic units listed in Group I with their
(D) Moran
(D) Bababudan Group

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s Group I
55. Choose the youngest stratigraphic unit from those
given :
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Group II
(A) Lameta Beds
P. Continent-oceanic 1. Himalayas
(B) Garbyang Fm. lithosphere convergence
(C) Barakar Fm. Q. Continent-continent 2. Andes
(D) Bhuj Fm. collision
56. The mass movement process in which cohesive blocks R. Continental rift system 3. Japanese islands
of earth move on a failure plane with concave-up S. Oceanic-oceanic 4. East Africa
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geometry, is known as:

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lithosphere convergence

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(A) Debris flow
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(A) P-2, Q-l, R-4, S-3

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(B) Creep (B) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-l
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(C) P-3, Q-4, R-l, S-2

a (D) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

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ROUGH WORK

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