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KUET 2021 Question Paper M.Sc. Nanotechnology

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Page 1

FOR KUET EXAM PREPARATION

KUET 2021
Question Paper · M.Sc.
Nanotechnology
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT

KUET 2021 Question Paper M.Sc. Nanotechnology

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

Page 2

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Sr. No. .............................

ENTRANCE TEST-2021
SCHOOL OF BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES

A .com
NANOTECHNOLOGY

om
Question Booklet Series

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Total Questions : 60

em a s
Time Allowed : 70 Minutes Roll No. :

a s g l
glnecessary
Instructions for Candidates :
aBooklet and
fill upathe
1. Write your Entrance Test Roll Number in the space provided at the top of this page of Question
information in the spaces provided on the OMR Answer Sheet.
2. OMR Answer Sheet has an Original Copy and a Candidate’s Copy glued beneath it at the top. While making
entries in the Original Copy, candidate should ensure that the two copies are aligned properly so that the
entries made in the Original Copy against each item are exactly copied in the Candidate’s Copy.
3. All entries in the OMR Answer Sheet, including answers to questions, are to be recorded in the Original Copy
only.

m
c. o
4. Choose the correct / most appropriate response for each question among the options A, B, C and D and
darken the circle of the appropriate response completely. The incomplete darkened circle is not correctly

mcircle of correct/most appropriate response. In no case
read by the OMR Scanner and no complaint to this effect shall be entertained.
5. Use only blue/black ball point pen to darkenethe
l a s
6. Do not darken more than one circle a
g
gel/ink pen or pencil should be used.
of options for any question. A question with more than one darkened
response shall be considered wrong.
7. There will be ‘Negative Marking’ for wrong answers. Each wrong answer will lead to the deduction of
0.25 marks from the total score of the candidate.
8. Only those candidates who would obtain positive score in Entrance Test Examination shall be eligible for
admission.

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9. Do not make any stray mark on the OMR sheet.

m
c. 11.o Rough work, if any, should be done on the blank sheets provided with the question
e m booklet.
10. Calculators and mobiles shall not be permitted inside the examination hall.

s
em 12. OMR Answer Sheet must be handled carefully and it should not be foldedgorlamutilated in which case it will not
las a
ag be evaluated.
13. Ensure that your OMR Answer Sheet has been signed by the Invigilator and the candidate himself/herself.
14. At the end of the examination, hand over the OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator who will first tear off the
original OMR sheet in presence of the Candidate and hand over the Candidate’s Copy to the candidate.

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Part—A : Chemistry
1. At NTP (293.15K, 1atm), 10 g of a gas occupies 2 5. The rise of a liquid in a capillary tube is due to :
litre. At what temperature will the volume become
(A) Surface Tension
double, at the same pressure and for the same quantity
of gas ? (B) Osmosis
(A) 293.15 K (C) Diffusion

(B) -293.15°C (D) Viscosity

(C) 586.30 K 6. For the ideal gas, the maximum work produced in the
reversible isothermal expansion from volume V1 to
(D) 586.30 °C volume Vf is given by :
2. If the mean free path of a gas at 760 torr is , what (A) nRT ln (Vf /V1)
will be its value at 5 atm pressure ?
(B) – Cv (T2-T1)
(A) /5
(C) -U-Q
(B) 5
(D) – nRT ln (Vf /V1)
(C) 5/760
7. In which of the following cases the reaction is not
(D)  2 spontaneous ?
3. The temperature at which the second virial coefficient (A) H is positive and S is also positive
of a real gas is zero is called : (TS > H)
(A) Critical temperature (B) H is negative and S is also negative
(B) Boiling point (-TS < - H)

(C) Boyle temperature (C) H is positive and S is negative

(D) Eutectic point (D) H is negative and S is positive
8. Helmholtz Free energy A is expressed as :
4. Which of the following is correct ?
(A) A = U+TS
(A) Coefficient of Viscosity of liquids increases with
increasing temperature, while that of gases (B) A= H+TS
decreases with temperature
(C) A= H–TS
(B) Coefficient of Viscosity of liquids decreases with
(D) A = U–TS
increasing temperature, while that of gases
increases with temperature 9. G° is related to equilibrium constant by :
(C) Coefficient of Viscosity of both, liquids and (A) G° = –RT lnK
gases, decreases with increasing temperature (B) G° = –RT ln (1/K)
(D) Coefficient of Viscosity of both, liquids and (C) G° = RT log K
gases, increases with increasing temperature
(D) G° = –RT (1/lnK)

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10. For a system of water and water vapor co-existing in 14. Free energy change (G) is related to the e.m.f of a
equilibrium the number of degree of freedom is : cell (E ) as :

(A) 1 (A) G = - (RT/nF) ln E
(B) 2 (B) G = - nFE/RT

m
(C) 3

co
(C) G = - nFEd
(D) 4
.c om (D) E = -nFE
e m .
e m l a s
s g
11. The ratio of the ionic mobilities of M+ and X- ions is 15. Zinc is coated over iron to prevent rusting of iron

l a a
ag
0.75. If the speed of M+ ions is found to be 3.0 m s–1; because :
the speed of X- ions is ?
(A) It is cheaper than iron
(A) 1.3 m s–1
(B) E° (Zn2+, Zn) = E° (Fe2+, Fe)
(B) 2.3 m s–1
(C) E° (Zn2+, Zn) > E° (Fe2+, Fe)
(C) 2.5 m s–1
(D) E° (Zn2+, Zn) < E° (Fe2+, Fe)

m
c. o
(D) 4.0 m s–1
16. The molecular geometry of BF3 and SF6 is :

em (A) Both trigonal planar
12. If for a solution of an electrolyte, t+ is the transport
number of the cation, then the transport number of
l a s
the anion t- is equal to :
a g (B) Both trigonal pyramidal
(A) t+ /2
(C) Trigonal planar and Octahedral, respectively
(B) 1+ t+
(D) Trigonal pyramidal and trigonal planar,
(C) 1– t+ respectively
(D) (1 – t+)/2

m
17. Lattice Energy of ionic compound is calculated by

omIs always positive c. o
13. The transference number of an ion : using :

c. (A) e m
em (B) Is always negative la s
(A) Hess’s Law

las ag
g
(B) Kirchoff’s equation

a (C) Can be positive as well as negative (C) Born-Haber cycle

(D) Is always zero (D) Carnot cycle

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18. Which one of the atoms listed below has the largest 22. The CFSE of [Co(NH3)6]3+ :
value for its electron affinity ? (A) –0.40
(A) O (B) –1.20
(C) –2.4O (+2P)
(B) He
(D) –1.80 (+3P)
(C) Cr
23. The value of the spin-only magnetic moment (eff ) for
(D) F [Cr(NH3)6]3+ is :

19. For which one of the processes below is H largest (A) 0
in magnitude ? (B) 3.87 BM
(C) 4.90 BM
(A) Be+ (g)  Be2+ (g) + e–
(D) 5.92 BM
(B) Be2+(g)Be3+ (g) + e–
24. The ligand field strength is in order of CN– > NH3 >
(C) B2+(g)B3+ (g) + e– H2O. So the relative size of CFSE () and energy of

(D) C(g)C+(g) + e– light absorbed will be :
(A) [Ti(NH3)6]3+ > [Ti(H2O)6]3+ > [Ti(CN)6]3–
20. In accordance with Fajan’s rules, the covalent
(B) [Ti(CN)6]3– > [Ti(NH3)6]3+ > [Ti(H2O)6]3+
character in ionic compounds will be :
(C) [Ti(CN)6]3– > [Ti(H2O)6]3+ > [Ti(NH3)6]3+
(A) Large in case of small charge on the cation, large (D) [Ti(H2O)6]3+ >[Ti(NH3)6]3+ > [Ti(CN)6]3–
size of cation and small size on anion
25. Which of the carbocations will be most stable ?
(B) Small in case of high charge on the cation, small (A) Vinyl carbocation
size of cation and large size on anion (B) Cyclopropyl carbocation

(C) Large in case of high charge on the cation, small (C) Trimethyl carbocation
size of cation and large size on anion (D) Phenyl carbocation
26. Which of the following structures represent the same
(D) Cannot be predicted stereoisomer ?

21. The systematic name of [Co(en)2Cl2]NO3 is :

(A) Dichlorobis(ethylenediamine)cobaltate(II) nitrate

(B) Bis(ethylenediamine) dichlorocobalt(III) nitrate
(A) A and B
(C) Bis(ethylenediamine) dichlorocobalt(II) nitrate (B) B and C
(C) A, B and C
(D) Dichlorobis(ethylenediamine)cobalt(III) nitrate
(D) A and C

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27. Which of the following compounds is not aromatic? 30. Identify the product(s) formed in the following
reaction :

(A)

(B)
m
co
(A) R1 OH

.c om (B) R2 – OH
e m .
s
(C)

e m l a
s
(C) Both (A) and (B)

l a ag
ag
(D) None of these
(D)
31. Which of these compounds is most reactive towards
28. What type of reaction do alkynes undergo across the electrophilic aromatic substitution ?
triple bond ?
(A) Benzene
(A) Elimination reaction (B) Phenol
(B) Substitution reaction (C) Toluene

m
(C) Addition reaction

co
(D) Nitrobenzene

.
em
(D) Halogenation 32. What reagents would you use to complete Nitration

s
of benzene ?

l a
29. Identify the correct product(s) formed :

a g
(A) Conc. HNO3 + conc. H2SO4
(B) Conc. HNO3
(C) Anhydrous AlCl3 + Ph-NO2
(D) Conc. H2SO4 + Oleum

m
m c. o
c. o s e m
s em (A) A la
gla ag
a (B) B
(C) A and B
(D) None of these

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Part—B: Biology

33. Which of the following proteins contains quaternary 37. Which cell organelle reduces the number of other
structure ? organelles ?

(A) Myoglobin (A) Oxysome

(B) Insulin (B) Lysosome

(C) Chymotrypsin (C) Mitochondria

(D) Hemoglobin (D) None of the above

34. Which one of the following substance represents 38. Which has a single membrane covering ?
carbohydrate ?
(A) Mesosomes
(A) Glycerol
(B) Golgi apparatus
(B) Sucrose
(C) Mitochondria
(C) Waxes
(D) Centrosomes
(D) Sphingomyelin
39. Which of the following characteristic feature resembles
35. Vitamin, that prevents rupturing of the blood vessels in bacteria and viruses ?
and bleeding is called as :
(A) Binary fission
(A) Vitamin E
(B) Ribosomes in cytoplasm
(B) Vitamin C
(C) Conjugation
(C) Vitamin K
(D) Nucleic acid as genetic material
(D) Vitamin B2
40. Which of the following special class of proteins is
36. The hyperchromic effect refers to : responsible for import of Vitamin B12 into gram
negative bacteria ?
(A) An increase in the absorbance of light at 260 nm
upon denaturation of DNA (A) Tubulins
(B) A change in the optical rotator dispersion of DNA (B) Porins
solution upon heating
(C) Integrins
(C) An increase in the absorbance of light at 260 nm
upon denaturation of RNA (D) Adhesins

(D) An increase in the absorbance of light at 260 nm
when DNA-RNA hybrids are annealed

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41. The minimum length of cistron in base pairs which 45. Which one of the following would not be used in
synthesizes a polypeptide of 50 amino acids is : preparing recombinant DNA ?

(A) 50 bp (A) Plasmids

(B) 100 bp (B) Phages

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co
(C) 150 bp (C) Restriction enzymes

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(D) 190 bp (D) DNA polymerase III

e m l a
l a s
42. The process of coding of the message from DNA to 46. Which one of the following DNA polymerase of
ag
RNA is :
a g prokaryotes have both 3-5’ and 5-3’ exonuclease
activity ?
(A) Replication
(A) DNA Pol II
(B) Translation
(B) DNA Pol III
(C) Transcription
(C) DNA Pol I

m
(D) Transformation

. co
(D) Both (B) and (C)

em
43. Gene which is responsible for the synthesis of

a s
polypeptide chain is called as :

l
47. Which polymerase made widespread use of PCR
(A) Promoter gene
a g possible ?

(B) Structural gene (A) DNA polymerase I

(C) Operator gene (B) Taq polymerase

(D) Regulator gene (C) DNA polymerase

m
44. How many promoters control the transcription in lac (D) Reverse transcriptase

omOne
operon of E. Coli ?
c. o
c. (A) m
48. In PCR deoxyoligonucleotide :

s e
s em (B) Two la
(A) Serves as primer

gla ag
a
(B) Serves as denaturant
(C) Three
(C) Helping polymerization
(D) Four
(D) Activate Taq polymerase

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49. The electrophoresis technique used for the separation 53. Which of the following amino acids are not suitable
of charged molecules was developed by : for gluconeogenesis ?

(A) Tiselius (A) Arginine and lysine

(B) Tswell (B) Leucine and isoleucine

(C) Alexander Reuss (C) Lysine and valine

(D) Oliver Smithies (D) Lysine and leucine

50. The force with which the particles must displace the 54. DiGeorge syndrome (DS) occurs sporadically due to
liquid media into which they sediment is called as : the deletion in chromosome at position :

(A) Fractional force (A) 22q11.2

(B) Buoyant force (B) 22q15.5

(C) Gravitational forces (C) 22q111.2

(D) Drag force (D) 22q119.2

51. Which one of the following technique does not involve 55. Which of the following substance inhibits the function
electrophoresis for the separation of biomolecules ? of enolase enzyme during glycolysis ?

(A) Dot blotting (A) Iodoacetate

(B) Southern blotting (B) Fluoride

(C) Northern blotting (C) Fluoroacetate

(D) Western blotting (D) Chloride

52. The Southern blotting is the technique used for the 56. Which of the following enzyme involved at substrate
level phosphorylation during Krebs cycle ?
detection of :
(A) Pyruvate kinase
(A) Protein
(B) Phosphofructokinase
(B) DNA
(C) Succinyl-CoA synthetase
(C) RNA
(D) Acetyl-CoA synthetase
(D) Both Protein & DNA

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57. In higher organisms the cell known for antigen 59. Primary lymphoid organs include :
processing is :
(A) Thymus and spleen
(A) Eosinophil
(B) Thymus and bone marrow
(B) Megakaryocyte
(C) Thymus, bone marrow and spleen
(C) T-cell

m
co
(D) Thymus, bone marrow, spleen and lymph nodes

om .
(D) Macrophage

.c e m
60. In response to allergens, the cells that release histamine

m a s
58. How many disulfide bound are present in a typical and other vasoactive substances are :

s e g l
a
immunoglobulin molecule ?

l a
(A) NK cells

ag
(A) 2-5
(B) Mast cells
(B) 6-9
(C) Macrophages
(C) 10-20
(D) Neutrophils
(D) 25-28

m
. co
s em
g l a
a

m
m c. o
c. o s e m
s em la
gla ag
a

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OR
Part—B: Physics
33. According to Einstein’s special theory of relativity, 37. The magnetic field due to current elements depends
laws of physics can be formulated based on : upon which of the following factors ?
(A) Inertial frame of reference (A) Current flowing through it
(B) Non inertial frame of reference
(B) Distance from it
(C) Both non and inertial frame of reference
(C) Its length
(D) Quantum state
34. When a particle is moving with a velocity of light c (D) All of the above
relative to S, its velocity as observed by an observer 38. “Total electric flux through any closed surface is
in the frame S’ is : equal to the charge enclosed by that surface.” This
(A) Zero is :
(B) 0.5 c (A) Gauss’s law
(C) 0.75 c
(B) Lenz’s law
(D) C
(C) Maxwell’s law
35. If A = 2i + 3j and B = –3i + 2j, the cross product
of A and B is : (D) Faraday’s law

(A) 5j 39. The power in an electromagnetic wave with electric
(B) 5i field and magnetic field intensities 12 and 6
respectively is :
(C) 13k
(D) –5k (A) 48

36. A stone of mass m tied to a string of length L is (B) 12
rotating along a circular path with constant speed v.
(C) 36
The torque on the stone is :
(D) 8
mv 2
(A)
L 40. The Biot-Savart’s law is a general modification of :

(B) Zero (A) Kirchoff’s law

mv (B) Ampere’s law
(C)
L
(C) Lenz’s law
m
(D) (D) Faraday’s law
L

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41. One kg of ice at 0ºc is melted and converted to 44. According to Stefan-Boltzman law a thermal
water at 0ºc. The change in entropy is : radiation for perfect radiator, the rate of radiant
(A) 29.3 cal/k energy per unit area is proportional to :

(B) 2.93 cal/k (A) The temperature of that radiator

(C) 2930 cal/k (B) The fourth power of the temperature of that

m
radiator

co
(D) 293 cal/k

om .
(C) The square of the temperature of the radiator

.c e m
42. In an ideal diatomic gas at an absolute temperature

m 45. If two SHMs (with same frequency)a acting s
(D) The cube of the temperature of that radiator
e gl by the
T, the internal energy per mole is equal to :

l a s simultaneously on a particle are a
g
5

a
(A) RT
T given
2
   
3 equations y1 = 2 sin  t   , y2 = 3sin  t  
(B) RT
T  6  3
2
then the resultant amplitude will be equal to :
3 (A) 4.939
(C) RT
T
4
(B) 4.859
1 (C) 4.975
m
(D) RT
T
o
.c When t wo o r mo r e no t es are so unded
2 (D) 4.639

m
e simultaneously, the combined note, producing a
43. A thermodynamical system undergoes a cyclic 46.

l a s
process as shown in figure. Work done in one
complete cycle is :
a g pleasant effect on the ear is called :
(A) Melody
(B) Discord
A(2P,vV) B(2P,2V)
(C) Harmony
(D) Diatonic
P
47. The monochromatic source of light in Young’s

m
D(P,V) C(p,2V)

c. o
double-slit experiment is replaced by a white-light

m
c. o m
source, now :

s e
em (A) 2PV la
(A) No fringes will be formed

s
V

la a g
g
(B) There will be central white fringe only

a (B) PV/2 (C) There will be a coloured central fringe only
(C) PV (D) There will be central white fringe flanked on
either side by a few coloured fringes
(D) Zero

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48. The overlapping of waves into the regions of 52. According to Schrodinger a particle is equivalent
geometrical shadow is : to a :
(A) Dispersion (A) A single-wave
(B) Polarization (B) Light wave
(C) Interference
(C) A wave-packet
(D) Diffraction
(D) Cannot behave as wave
49. Photoelectric current is of the order of :
53. If U is an up quark and D a down quark then the
(A) 106 A composition of a neutron is :
(B) 10 –6A (A) UUD

(C) 103 A (B) UUU

(D) 10 –3A (C) DDD
(D) UDD
50. Let uncertainty be x p = h. If the size of nucleus
is 10–15 m, the uncertainty in the momentum of 54. The Beta-decay is a process where a nucleus alters
proton remaining within the nucleus is of the order its ............ ratio to achieve greater stability.
–34
of (h = 6.62 × 10 J.sec) :
A
–19
(A)
(A) 6.62×10 kg m/s Z

(B) 6.62×10–49 kg m/s N
(B)
Z
(C) 10–23 kg m/s

(D) 6.62×10–29 kg m/s Z
(C)
A
51. The energies of a particle in box are given by :
Z
(A) Continuous spectrum (D)
N

n 2h 2 55. The threshold energy of gamma rays for Pair
(B) Production to take place is :
8ml 2
(A) > 1.02 Mev
2 2
h
(C) (B)  1.02 Mev
8ml 2
(C) = 1.02 Mev
nh (D) < 1.02 Mev
(D)
4l 2

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co m .
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as 56. During a negative Beta-decay : a g
58. What is Brillouin zone ?

(A) A neutron in the nucleus decays emitting an (A) A region of energy – space that encompasses
electron all of the unique values of energy

(B) An electron is already present within the (B) Another name for the unit cell of the crystal
nucleus is ejected (C) A region of k – space where the group velocity

o m
m . c
(C) An atomic electron is ejected is positive

.c o e m
s
(D) A part of binding energy of nuclei is converted (D) A region of k – space that contains all the

s em
into an electron unique solutions of the wave
g l a
equation

l a a
ag whether a material is :
57. As per the rough plot of the electric resistance of a 59. Thermal runaway is not encountered in FETs
solid. Define because :

×10–6 cm) (A) IDS has a negative temperature coefficient
(B) IDS has a positive temperature coefficient

 (C) IDS has a zero temperature coefficient
(D) The mobility of the carriers increases with


m
increase in temperature

. co
em
60. A single stage transistor amplifier with collector load

s
RC and emitter resistance RE has d.c. load of :

a
  T(K)
l
 

a g
(A) Rc
(A) Insulator
(B) RC + RE
(B) Metal
(C) RC || RE
(C) Semiconductor
(D) RC – RE
(D) Both metal and semiconductor

m
m c. o
c. o s e m
s em la
gla ag
a

SS-5442–A 13 [Turn over

m . c
c. o s e m
m a
se
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g l
Page 13 of 15

Page 15

ROUGH WORK

SS-5442–A 14

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Page 16

co m .
. s e
em l a

as ROUGH WORK a g

m
om . co
.c e m
e m l a s
l a s ag
ag

m
. co
s em
g l a
a

m
m c. o
c. o s e m
s em la
gla ag
a

SS-5442–A 15 [Turn over
38

m . c
c. o s e m
m a
se
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g l
Page 15 of 15

Document Details

Board / OrgUniversity of Kashmir
ExamKUET
TypeQuestion Paper
Pages16
Languageenglish
Updated22 Oct 2026

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