CAT 2024 Question Paper with Answer Key for Slot 2

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CAT 2024
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CAT 2024 Question Paper Slot 2

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Common Admission Test — Question Paper (Slot 2)

3 Sections • VARC · DI&LR · QA • 68 Questions • MCQ + TITA (Type In The Answer)

Instructions: Each section has its own question numbering. MCQs have four options — choose one. TITA questions have no
options; type the numeric/word answer. Reading-comprehension passages and DI&LR set data appear in shaded boxes above their
questions. The answer key is at the end.
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Section I — Verbal Ability & Reading Comprehension (VARC)
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24 questions
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READ THE PASSAGE AND ANSWER THE QUESTIONS THAT FOLLOW.

Recent important scientific findings have emerged from crossing the boundaries of scientific fields. They
stem from physicists collaborating with biologists, sociologists and others, to answer questions about
our world. But physicists and their potential collaborators often find their cultures out of sync. For one,
physicists often discard a lot of information while extracting broad patterns; for other scientists,
information is not readily disposed. Further, many non-physicists are uncomfortable with mathematical
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models. Still, the desire to work on something new and different is real, and there are clear benefits from

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the collision of views.
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laalternate summaries. Choose the option that best captures
1.
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The passage given below is followed by four
the essence of the passage.
A. Physicists have successfully buried their B. Large data sets and mathematical models in
differences on research methods applied in physics research combined with the research
other fields in their desire to find answers to methods of non-physicist collaborators have
baffling scientific questions. yielded important scientific findings.
C. Despite differences in their research styles, D. The desire to diversify their research and
physicists' research collaborations with m
answer important questions has led to several
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scholars from other disciplines have yielded .co
collaborations between physicists and other

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READ THE PASSAGE AND ANSWER THE QUESTIONS THAT FOLLOW.

The first phase of globalization occurred long before the introduction of either steam or electric
power...Chinese consumers at all social levels consumed vast quantities of spices, fragrant woods and
unusual plants. The peoples of Southeast Asia who lived in forests gave up their traditional livelihoods
and completely reoriented their economies to supply Chinese consumers ___(1)___ . These exchanges
of the year 1000 opened some of the routes through which goods and peoples continued to travel after
Columbus traversed the mid-Atlantic. ___(2)___. Yet the world of 1000 differed from that of 1492 in
important ways....the travellers who encountered one another in the year 1000 were much closer
technologically. ___(3)___. They changed and augmented what was already there since 1000.
___(4)___. If globalization hadn't yet begun, Europeans wouldn't have been able to penetrate the
markets in so many places as quickly as they did after 1492.

2. There is a sentence that is missing in the paragraph above. Decide where (option 1, 2, 3, or 4) the
following sentence would best fit. Sentence: [T]he Europeans did not invent globalization.
A. Option 3 B. Option 4
C. Option 2 D. Option 1

READ THE PASSAGE AND ANSWER THE QUESTIONS THAT FOLLOW.

Different from individuals, states conduct warfare operations using the DIME model–– "diplomacy,
information, military, and economics." Most states do everything they can to inflict pain and confusion
on their enemies before deploying the military. In fact, attacks on vectors of information are a well-worn
tactic of war and usually are the first target when the charge begins. It's common for telecom data and
communications networks to be routinely monitored by governments, which is why the open data
policies of the web are so concerning to many advocates of privacy and human rights. With the
worldwide adoption of social media, more governments are getting involved in low-grade information
warfare through the use of cyber troops. According to a study by the Oxford Internet Institute in 2020,
cyber troops are "government or political party actors tasked with manipulating public opinion online."
The Oxford research group was able to identify 81 countries with active cyber troop operations utilizing
many different strategies to spread false information, including spending millions on online advertising.

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3. The passage given below is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the option that best captures
the essence of the passage.
A. Governments primarily use the DIME model B. Following the DIME model, many
to deploy cyber troops who practise low-grade governments have taken advantage of open
information warfare, seeking to manipulate data policies of the web to deploy cyber troops
public opinion with the objective of inflicting who manipulate domestic public opinion,
pain and confusion on their enemies. using advertising and other strategies to
spread false information.
C. Using the DIME model, together with military D. As part of conducting information warfare as
operations, many governments per the DIME model, many governments
simultaneously conduct information warfare routinely monitor telecom data and
with the help of cyber troops and routinely communications networks, and use cyber
monitor telecom data and communications troops on social media to manipulate public
networks. opinion.

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READ THE PASSAGE AND ANSWER THE QUESTIONS THAT FOLLOW.

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[S]pices were a global commodity centuries before European voyages.g
relations, yet consumers had little knowledge of producers and vice versa. Desire for spices helped fuel
European colonial empires to create political, military and commercial networks under a single power.
Historians know a fair amount about the supply of spices in Europe during the medieval period – the
origins, methods of transportation, the prices – but less about demand. Why go to such extraordinary
efforts to procure expensive products from exotic lands? Still, demand was great enough to inspire the
voyages of Christopher Columbus and Vasco Da Gama, launching the first fateful wave of European
colonialism. . . .
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So, why were spices so highly prized in Europe in the centuries from about 1000 to 1500? One widely
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disseminated explanation for medieval demand for spices was that they covered the taste of spoiled

developed worldlof
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meat. . . . Medieval purchasers
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have been showng to serve as an anti-bacterial agent. Salting, smoking or drying meat were other means
of preservation. Most spices used in cooking began as medical ingredients, and throughout the Middle
Ages spices were used as both medicines and condiments. Above all, medieval recipes involve the
combination of medical and culinary lore in order to balance food's humeral properties and prevent
disease. Most spices were hot and dry and so appropriate in sauces to counteract the moist and wet
properties supposedly possessed by most meat and fish. . . .

Where spices came from was known in a vague sense centuries before the voyages of Columbus. Just

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how vague may be judged by looking at medieval world maps . . . To the medieval European
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imagination, the East was exotic and alluring. Medieval.maps often placed India close to the so-called
Earthly Paradise, the Garden of Eden described in e
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laperceptions of spices' relative scarcity and the reasons
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for their high prices. An example of the varying notions of scarcity is the conflicting information about
how pepper is harvested. As far back as the 7th century Europeans thought that pepper in India grew on
trees "guarded" by serpents that would bite and poison anyone who attempted to gather the fruit. The
only way to harvest pepper was to burn the trees, which would drive the snakes underground. Of course,
this bit of lore would explain the shriveled black peppercorns, but not white, pink or other colors.

Spices never had the enduring allure or power of gold and silver or the commercial potential of new
products such as tobacco, indigo or sugar. But the taste for spices did continue for a while beyond the m
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Middle Ages. As late as the 17th century, the English and the Dutch were struggling for control of the .co
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Spice Islands: Dutch New Amsterdam, or New York, was exchanged by the British for one of the
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happen, EXCEPT:
A. medieval maps would be used as navigational B. Europeans would doubt the story of pepper
aids. harvesting.
C. the price of spices would decrease. D. pepper would no longer be considered exotic.

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5. It can be inferred that all of the following contributed to a decline in the allure of spices, EXCEPT:
A. increase in the availability or spices. B. the development of refrigeration techniques.
C. changes in the system of medical treatment. D. changes in European cuisine.

6. In the context of the passage, the people who heard the story of pepper trees being guarded by snakes
would be least likely to arrive at the conclusion that
A. it is not advisable to go to India to harvest the B. this is why pepper is so hot.
pepper themselves.
C. pepper is costly for good reason. D. it is no surprise that the pepper supply is so
limited.

7. In the context of the passage, which one of the following conclusions CANNOT be reached?
A. India was colonised for its spices and gold. B. Tobacco was more marketable than spices.
C. Colonialism was motivated by the demand for D. The spice trade was a driver of colonial
spices. expansion.

8. Five jumbled up sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5), related to a topic, are given below. Four of them
can be put together to form a coherent paragraph. Identify the odd sentence and key in the number of
that sentence as your answer.

1. The UK is a world leader in developing cultivated meat and the approval of a cultivated pet food is
an important milestone.
2. If we’re to realise the full potential benefits of cultivated meat the government must invest in
research and infrastructure.
3. The first UK applications for cultivated meat produced for humans remain under assessment with
the Food Standards Agency.
4. The previous UK government had been looking at fast-tracking the approval of cultivated meat for
human consumption.
5. It underscores the potential for new innovation to help reduce the negative impacts of intensive
animal agriculture.

(TITA — type in your answer)

READ THE PASSAGE AND ANSWER THE QUESTIONS THAT FOLLOW.

Early in this century a young Breton schoolboy who preparing himself for a scientific career began to
notice a strange fact about hens in his father’s poultry yard.___ (1) ___. As they scratched the soil they
constantly seemed to be pecking at specks of mica, a siliceous material dotting the ground. ___ (2) ___.
No one could explain to Louis Kervran why the chickens selected the mica, or why each time a bird was
killed for the family cooking pot no trace of the mica could be found in its gizzard. ____ (3) ____. It
took Kervran many years to establish that the chickens were transmuting one element into another. ___
(4) ___.

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9. There is a sentence that is missing in the paragraph above. Decide where (option 1, 2, 3, or 4) the
following sentence would best fit. Sentence: Yet each day the flock produced eggs with calcareous shells
though they apparently had not ingested any calcium from land which was entirely lacking in limestone.
A. Option 4 B. Option 3
C. Option 2 D. Option 1

READ THE PASSAGE AND ANSWER THE QUESTIONS THAT FOLLOW.

The job of a peer reviewer is thankless. Collectively, academics spend around 70 million hours every year
evaluating each other’s manuscripts on the behalf of scholarly journals – and they usually receive no
monetary compensation and little if any recognition for their effort. Some do it as a way to keep abreast
with developments in their field; some simply see it as a duty to the discipline. Either way, academic
publishing would likely crumble without them.
In recent years, some scientists have begun posting their reviews online, mainly to claim credit for their
work. Sites like Publons allow researchers to either share entire referee reports or simply list the
journals for whom they've carried out a review....

The rise of Publons suggests that academics are increasingly placing value on the work of peer review
and asking others, such as grant funders, to do the same. While that’s vital in the publish-or-perish
culture of academia, there’s also immense value in the data underlying peer review. Sharing peer review
data could help journals stamp out fraud, inefficiency, and systemic bias in academic publishing.....

Peer review data could also help root out bias. Last year, a study based on peer review data for nearly
24,000 submissions to the biomedical journal eLife found that women and non-Westerners were vastly
underrepresented among peer reviewers. Only around one in every five reviewers was female, and less
than two percent of reviewers were based in developing countries. ... Openly publishing peer review data
could perhaps also help journals address another problem in academic publishing: fraudulent peer
reviews. For instance, a minority of authors have been known to use phony email addresses to pose as an
outside expert and review their own manuscripts....

Opponents of open peer review commonly argue that confidentiality is vital to the integrity of the review
process; referees may be less critical of manuscripts if their reports are published, especially if they are
revealing their identities by signing them. Some also hold concerns that open reviewing may deter
referees from agreeing to judge manuscripts in the first place, or that they'll take longer to do so out of
fear of scrutiny...

Even when the content of reviews and the identity of reviewers can’t be shared publicly, perhaps
journals could share the data with outside researchers for study. Or they could release other figures that
wouldn’t compromise the anonymity of reviews but that might answer important questions about how
long the reviewing process takes, how many researchers editors have to reach out to on average to find
one who will carry out the work, and the geographic distribution of peer reviewers.
Of course, opening up data underlying the reviewing process will not fix peer review entirely, and there
may be instances in which there are valid reasons to keep the content of peer reviews hidden and the
identity of the referees confidential. But the norm should shift from opacity in all cases to opacity only
when necessary.

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. c10. All of the following are listed as reasons why academics choose to reviewe mother scholars’ work EXCEPT:
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It is seen
B.
their own review work. community.
C. It helps them keep current with cutting-edge D. It is seen as an opportunity to expand their
ideas in their academic disciplines. influence in the academic community.

11. Based on the passage we can infer that the author would most probably support
A. greater transparency across the peer review B. publicising peer review data rather than the
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process in academic publishing. publication of actual reviews.
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C. preserving the anonymity of reviewers to D. more careful screening to ensure the
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protect them from criticism. recruitment of content-familiar peer
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According to the passage, which of the following is the only reason NOT given in favour of making peer
review data public?
A. It could address various inefficiencies and B. It would highlight the gender and race biases
fraudulent practices that continue in currently existing in the selection of
academic publishing process. reviewers.
C. It will deal with peer review fraud such as D. It can tackle the problem of selecting
authors publishing bogus reviews of their
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work. c. o academic writing.
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13.
g lato making peer reviews public for all the following reasons
According to the passage, some are opposed
EXCEPT that it a
A. deters reviewers from producing honest, if B. delays the manuscript evaluation process as
critical, reviews that are vital to the sound reviewers would take longer to write their
publishing process. reviews.
C. leaves the reviewers unexposed to D. makes reviewers reluctant to review
unwarranted and unjustified criticism or manuscripts, especially if these are critical of
comments from others. the submitted work.
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READ THE PASSAGE AND ANSWER THE QUESTIONS THAT FOLLOW.

The history of any major technological or industrial advance is inevitably shadowed by a less predictable
history of unintended consequences and secondary effects — what economists sometimes call
“externalities.” Sometimes those consequences are innocuous ones, or even beneficial. Gutenberg
invents the printing press, and literacy rates rise, which causes a significant part of the reading public to
require spectacles for the first time, which creates a surge of investment in lens-making across Europe,
which leads to the invention of the telescope and the microscope.

Oftentimes the secondary effects seem to belong to an entirely different sphere of society. When Willis
Carrier hit upon the idea of air-conditioning, the technology was primarily intended for industrial use:
ensuring cool, dry air for factories that required low-humidity environments. But...it touched off one of
the largest migrations in the history of the United States, enabling the rise of metropolitan areas like
Phoenix and Las Vegas that barely existed when Carrier first started tinkering with the idea in the early
1900s.

Sometimes the unintended consequence comes about when consumers use an invention in a surprising
way. Edison famously thought his phonograph, which he sometimes called “the talking machine,” would
primarily be used to take dictation....But then later innovators... discovered a much larger audience
willing to pay for musical recordings made on descendants of Edison's original invention. In other cases,
the original innovation comes into the world disguised as a plaything...the way the animatronic dolls of
the mid-1700s inspired Jacquard to invent the first “programmable” loom and Charles Babbage to
invent the first machine that fit the modern definition of a computer, setting the stage for the revolution
in programmable technology that would transform the 21st century in countless ways.

We live under the gathering storm of modern history’s most momentous unintended
consequence....carbon-based climate change. Imagine the vast sweep of inventors whose ideas started
the Industrial Revolution, all the entrepreneurs and scientists and hobbyists who had a hand in bringing
it about. Line up a thousand of them and ask them all what they had been hoping to do with their work.
Not one would say that their intent had been to deposit enough carbon in the atmosphere to create a
greenhouse effect that trapped heat at the surface of the planet. And yet here we are.

Ethyl (leaded fuel) and Freon belonged to the same general class of secondary effect: innovations whose
unintended consequences stem from some kind of waste by-product that they emit. But the potential
health threats of Ethyl (unleaded fuel) were visible in the 1920s, unlike, say, the long-term effects of
atmospheric carbon build up in the early days of the Industrial Revolution....

Indeed, it is reasonable to see CFCs (chlorofluorocarbons) as a forerunner of the kind of threat we will
most likely face in the coming decades, as it becomes increasingly possible for individuals or small
groups to create new scientific advances — through chemistry or biotechnology or materials science —
setting off unintended consequences that reverberate on a global scale.

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14. We can assume that the author would support all of the following views EXCEPT:
A. It has become far easier for people today to B. The emissions caused by the large-scale use of
bring out innovations with dire worldwide leaded fuel ought to have been addressed
consequences than it was earlier. earlier than they were.
C. The by-products of leaded fuel, rather than D. While technological advances in the past have
the fuel itself, were responsible for the build- had innocuous or beneficial outcomes, more
up of carbon-related gases in the atmosphere. recent advances have the potential to be more
threatening globally.

15. Which of the following best conveys the main point of the first paragraph?
A. The full impact of technological advances B. It is important to judge an invention not by its
cannot be estimated in the short run as the immediate outcomes, but by the holistic
ripple effects often extend far beyond the impact of its secondary effects.
original intent.
C. The secondary effects of most major D. The entire impact of a technological advance
technological advances in the past, especially should be evaluated by the boost its secondary
if they were unintended, have turned out to be effects gives to generating further
beneficial. technological advances.

16. The author lists all of the following examples as “externalities” of major technical advances EXCEPT:
A. build-up of chlorofluorocarbons in the B. extension of the phonograph to large-scale
atmosphere recording of music
C. cooling and de-humidifying of factories D. application of the Jacquard loom to modern
through air-conditioning IT programming

17. Carrier, Babbage, and Edison are mentioned in the passage to illustrate the author’s point that
A. these inventors could not have visualised the B. despite the original intention, the unintended
eventual impact of their inventions on society. consequences of their inventions were largely
beneficial.
C. inventions typically end up being used for D. the secondary effect of past inventions mostly
entirely different purposes than the intended resulted in the creation of new inventions.
ones.

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READ THE PASSAGE AND ANSWER THE QUESTIONS THAT FOLLOW.

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(...) There are three other common drivers for carnivore–human attacks,
preventable than others. Natural aggression-based conflicts – such as those involving females protecting
their young or animals protecting a food source – can often be avoided as long as people stay away from
those animals and their food.

Carnivores that recognise humans as a means to get food, are a different story. As they become more
reliant on human food they might find at campsites or in rubbish bins, they become less avoidant of
humans. Losing that instinctive fear response puts them into more situations where they could get into
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an altercation with a human, which often results in that bear being put down by humans. “A fed bear is a

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dead bear,” says Servheen, referring to a common saying among biologists and conservationists.
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attacks are quite rare, only accounting for 17% of attacks in North
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other animal it uses a
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Then there are animal attacks provoked by people taking pictures with them or feeding them in natural
settings such as national parks which often end with animals being euthanised out of precaution.
“Eventually, that animal becomes habituated to people, and [then] bad things happen to the animal. And
the folks who initially wanted to make that connection don’t necessarily realise that,” says Christine
Wilkinson, a postdoctoral researcher at UC Berkeley, California, who’s been studying coyote-human
conflicts.

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After conducting countless postmortems on all types of carnivore-human attacks spanning 75 years,
Penteriani’s team believes 50% could have been avoided if humans reacted differently. A 2017 study co-

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authored by Penteriani found that engaging in risky behaviour around large carnivores increases the
likelihood of an attack.
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Two of the most common risky behavioursaare parents leaving their children to play outside unattended
and walking an unleashed dog, according to the study. Wilkinson says 66% of coyote attacks involve a
dog. “[People] end up in a situation where their dog is being chased, or their dog chases a coyote, or
maybe they’re walking their dog near a den that's marked, and the coyote wants to escort them away,”
says Wilkinson.

Experts believe climate change also plays a part in the escalation of human-carnivore conflicts, but the

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correlation still needs to be ironed out. “As finite resources become scarcer, carnivores and people are
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an uptick in lion attacks in western India during a drought when lions and people
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dominated by vast rural landscapes and farmland, according to Penteriani’s research. “There are a lot of
working landscapes in the Global South that are really heterogeneous, that are interspersed with
carnivore habitats, forests and savannahs, which creates a lot more opportunity for these encounters,
just statistically,” says Wilkinson.

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18. According to the passage, which of the following scenarios would MOST likely exacerbate the frequency
of carnivore-human conflicts?
A. Unleashing dogs by pet owners in areas with B. Attempting to photograph wild animals from
known high concentrations of large within secured viewing areas in national
carnivores. parks and protected zones.
C. Addressing the impact of climate change on D. Implementing ‘food waste’ management
the availability of resources for wildlife. strategies to prevent wild animals being
attracted to human food sources.

19. Which of the following statements, if false, would be inconsistent with the concerns raised in the
passage regarding the drivers of carnivore-human conflicts?
A. Predatory attacks by carnivores are a common B. Human efforts to avoid risky behaviours
occurrence and have steadily increased over around large carnivores have proven effective
the past few decades. in reducing conflict incidents.
C. Carnivores lose their instinctive fear of D. Climate change has had negligible effects on
humans, when consistently exposed to human the frequency of carnivore-human
food sources. interactions in affected regions.

20. Given the insights provided by Penteriani’s research and Wilkinson's statement, which of the following
conclusions can be drawn about the relationship between landscape heterogeneity and human-
carnivore conflicts?
A. Low-income countries with vast, contiguous B. Homogeneous landscapes with uniform
wilderness areas are less prone to human- agricultural practices are more likely to
carnivore conflicts because these areas lack experience high rates of human-carnivore
the human presence necessary for such conflicts due to the predictability of resources.
encounters.
C. The diversity and interspersion of working D. Landscape heterogeneity, characterized by a
landscapes with carnivore habitats in rural mix of farmland and natural habitats,
areas increase the statistical probability of inherently reduces the chances of human-
encounters between humans and carnivores. carnivore conflicts by providing more refuge
for wildlife away from human activity.

21. According to the passage, what is a significant factor that contributes to the habituation of carnivores to
human presence?
A. The predatory perception of humans as B. The reduction in carnivores’ instinctive fear
potential prey within the carnivores’ food response, resulting from their reliance upon
chain. human-provided food.
C. The natural aggression exhibited by D. The increased scarcity of resources due to
carnivores, exacerbated by human climate change, forcing carnivores to venture
interference, particularly when they are outside their natural habitats in search of
safeguarding their offspring or food sources. sustenance.

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22. Five jumbled up sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5), related to a topic, are given below. Four of them
can be put together to form a coherent paragraph. Identify the odd sentence and key in the number of
that sentence as your answer.

1. No known real researcher of human behaviour would say that gender is all nature or all nurture.
2. The evidence for a biological basis for gender certainly doesn’t mean we should be complacent in
the face of sexism.
3. Many people are uncomfortable with the Idea that gender Is not purely a social construct.
4. Despite this empirical truth, researchers who study the biological basis of gender often face
political pushback.
5. There’s a political preference for gender to be only a reflection of social factors and so entirely
malleable.

(TITA — type in your answer)

READ THE PASSAGE AND ANSWER THE QUESTIONS THAT FOLLOW.

My fellow night owls, grab a strong cup of coffee and gather around: I have great news. ___(1)___. For
a long time, our kind has been unfairly maligned. Stereotyped as lazy and undisciplined. Told we ought
to be morning larks. Advised to go to bed early so we can wake before 5am and run a marathon before
breakfast like all high-flyers seem to do. Now, however, we are having the last laugh. ___(2)___. It may
be a tad more complicated than that. A study published last week, which you may have already seen
while scrolling at 1am, suggests that staying up late could be good for brain power. ___(3)___. Is this
study a thinly veiled PR exercise conducted by a caffeine-pill company? Nope, it’s legit. ___(4)___.
Research led by academics at Imperial College London studied data on more than 26,000 people and
found that “self-declared ‘night owls’ generally tend to have higher cognitive scores”.

23. There is a sentence that is missing in the paragraph above. Decide where (option 1, 2, 3, or 4) the
following sentence would best fit. Sentence: Science has officially crowned us superior to our early-
rising brethren.
A. Option 2 B. Option 4
C. Option 3 D. Option 1

READ THE PASSAGE AND ANSWER THE QUESTIONS THAT FOLLOW.

John Cleese told Fox News Digital that comedians do not have the freedom to be funny in 2022. “There’s
always been limitations on what they’re allowed to say,” Cleese said. “I think it’s particularly worrying at
the moment because you can only create in an atmosphere of freedom, where you're not checking
everything you say critically before you move on. What you have to be able to do is to build without
knowing where you’re going because you've never been there before. That’s what creativity is — you have
to be allowed to build. And a lot of comedians now are sitting there and when they think of something,
they say something like, ‘Can I get away with it? I don’t think so. So and so got into trouble, and he said
that, oh, she said that.’ You see what I mean? And that’s the death of creativity.”

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e mthe option that best captures
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a must not check what they think
Freedom and creativity are essential for
A. Comedians B.

comedy. Fear about offending people hinders and say. They must go where no one has gone
originality. before.
C. Comedians are being prevented from saying D. Creativity and critical thinking cannot work
what they want and that is the death of this together. Comedians must first be creative,
art form. and later be critical.

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Section II — Data Interpretation & Logical Reasoning (DI & LR)
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22 questions

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QUESTION NUMBERS 25 TO 29

The numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, and 10 are placed in ten slots of the following grid based on the
conditions below.

Column 1 Column 2 Column 3 Column 4
Row 1
Row 2
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Row 4
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Numbers in any row appear in an increasing
a order from top to bottom.
Numbers in any column appear in a decreasing
1 is placed either in the same row or in the same column as 10.
Neither 2 nor 3 is placed in the same row or in the same column as 10.
Neither 7 nor 8 is placed in the same row or in the same column as 9.
4 and 6 are placed in the same row.

25. What is the row number which has the least sum of numbers placed in that row?
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26.
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a II. 1 is placed in a slot in Row 4.
A. Only II B. Both I and II
C. Only I D. Neither I nor II

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27. Which of the following statements MUST be true?
I. 2 is placed in a slot in Column 2.
II. 3 is placed in a slot in Column 3.
A. Neither I nor II B. Only I
C. Both I and II D. Only II

28. For how many slots in the grid, placement of numbers CANNOT be determined with certainty?
(TITA — type in your answer)

29. What is the sum of the numbers placed in Column 4?
(TITA — type in your answer)

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QUESTION NUMBERS 30 TO 33

Schematic diagram of the walkways (straight lines) and three rectangular lakes (shaded) of the gated area.

The above is a schematic diagram of walkways (indicated by all the straight lines) and lakes (3 of them,
each in the shape of rectangles — shaded in the diagram) of a gated area. Different points on the
walkway are indicated by letters (A through P) with distances being OP = 150 m, ON = MN = 300 m, ML
= 400 m, EL = 200 m, DE = 400 m.

The following additional information about the facilities in the area is known.

The only entry/exit point is at C.
There are many residences within the gated area; all of them are located on the path AH and ML with
four of them being at A, H, M, and L.
The post office is located at P and the bank is located at B.

30. One resident whose house is located at L, needs to visit the post office as well as the bank. What is the
minimum distance (in m) he has to walk starting from his residence and returning to his residence after
visiting both the post office and the bank?
A. 3200 B. 3000
C. 3000 D. 2700

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. c31. One person enters the gated area and decides to walk as much as possible
e mbefore leaving the area
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without walking along any path more than once and always walking
a will he walk within the gated area?
he may cross a point multiple times. How much distance (in m)
A. 3200 B. 2800
C. 3000 D. 3800

32. One resident takes a walk within the gated area starting from A and returning to A without going
through any point (other than A) more than once. What is the maximum distance (in m) she can walk in
this way?
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(TITA — type in your answer)

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33.
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Visitors coming foremmorning walks are allowed to enter as long as they do not pass by any of theglas
g lado not cross any point (except C) more than once. What is the maximum distance
residences and a (in m)
that suchaa visitor can walk within the gated area?
(TITA — type in your answer)

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QUESTION NUMBERS 34 TO 37

An online e-commerce firm receives daily integer product ratings from 1 through 5 given by buyers. The
daily average is the average of the ratings given on that day. The cumulative average is the average of all
ratings given on or before that day.

The rating system began on Day 1, and the cumulative averages were 3 and 3.1 at the end of Day 1 and
Day 2, respectively. The distribution of ratings on Day 2 is given in the figure below.

Distribution of Ratings on Day 2 (number of buyers by rating).

The following information is known about ratings on Day 3.

100 buyers gave product ratings on Day 3.
The modes of the product ratings were 4 and 5.
The numbers of buyers giving each product rating are non-zero multiples of 10.
The same number of buyers gave product ratings of 1 and 2, and that number is half the number of
buyers who gave a rating of 3.

34. How many buyers gave ratings on Day 1?
(TITA — type in your answer)

35. What is the daily average rating of Day 3?
A. 3.6 B. 3.5
C. 3.0 D. 3.2

36. What is the median of all ratings given on Day 3?
(TITA — type in your answer)

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37. Which of the following is true about the cumulative average ratings of Day 2 and Day 3?
A. The cumulative average of Day 3 decreased B. The cumulative average of Day 3 increased by
from Day 2. more than 8% from Day 2.
C. The cumulative average of Day 3 increased by D. The cumulative average of Day 3 increased by
less than 5% from Day 2. a percentage between 5% and 8% from Day 2.

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 18 of 26

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m . c s em
se lB,a C, D, E, and F for 2019 and
QUESTION NUMBERS 38 TO 41

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The two plots below give the following information about six firms A,
2023.

PAT: The firm's profits after taxes in Rs. crores,
ES: The firm's employee strength, that is the number of employees in the firm, and
PRD: The percentage of the firm's PAT that they spend on Research and Development (R&D).
In the plots, the horizontal and vertical coordinates of point representing each firm gives their ES and
PAT values respectively. The PRD values of each firm are proportional to the areas around the points
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representing each firm. The areas are comparable between the two plots, i.e., equal areas in the two plots
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represent the same PRD values for the two years.

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PAT (Rs. crores) versus ES for firms A–F, for 2019 (top) and 2023 (bottom); bubble area is proportional to PRD.

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 20 of 26

38. Assume that the annual rate of growth in PAT over the previous year (ARG) remained constant over the
years for each of the six firms. Which among the firms A, B, C, and E had the highest ARG?
A. Firm E B. Firm B
C. Firm A D. Firm C

39. The ratio of the amount of money spent by Firm C on R&D in 2018 to that in 2023 is closest to
A. 5:6 B. 9:5
C. 5:9 D. 9:4

40. Which among the firms A, C, E, and F had the maximum PAT per employee in 2023?
A. Firm C B. Firm A
C. Firm F D. Firm E

41. Which among the firms C, D, E, and F had the least amount of R & D spending per employee in 2023?
A. Firm E B. Firm D
C. Firm F D. Firm C

QUESTION NUMBERS 42 TO 46

Eight gymnastics players numbered 1 through 8 underwent a training camp where they were coached by
three coaches - Xena, Yuki, and Zara. Each coach trained at least two players. Yuki trained only even
numbered players, while Zara trained only odd numbered players. After the camp, the coaches evaluated
the players and gave integer ratings to the respective players trained by them on a scale of 1 to 7, with 1
being the lowest rating and 7 the highest.

The following additional information is known.

Xena trained more players than Yuki.
Player-1 and Player-4 were trained by the same coach, while the coaches who trained Player-2,
Player-3 and Player-5 were all different.
Player-5 and Player-7 were trained by the same coach and got the same rating. All other players got a
unique rating.
The average of the ratings of all the players was 4.
Player-2 got the highest rating.
The average of the ratings of the players trained by Yuki was twice that of the players trained by Xena
and two more than that of the players trained by Zara.
Player-4's rating was double of Player-8's and less than Player-5's.

42. What best can be concluded about the number of players coached by Zara?
A. Exactly 2 B. Either 2 or 3
C. Exactly 3 D. Either 2 or 3 or 4

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. c43. What was the rating of Player-7? e m
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44. What was the rating of Player-6?
(TITA — type in your answer)

45. For how many players the ratings can be determined with certainty?
(TITA — type in your answer)

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Who all were the players trained by Xena?
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Section III — Quantitative Ability (QA)
22 questions

47. A company has 40 employees whose names are listed in a certain order. In the year 2022, the average
bonus of the first 30 employees was Rs. 40000, of the last 30 employees was Rs. 60000, and of the first

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10 and last 10 employees together was Rs. 50000. Next year, the average bonus of the first 10 employees

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increased by 100%, of the last 10 employees increased by 200% and of the remaining employees was
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unchanged. Then, the average bonus, in rupees, of all the 40 employees together in the year 2023 was
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C. 95000 a D. 85000

48. When is divided by 11, the remainder is
A. 10 B. 1
C. 6 D. 5

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A. B.

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g la 50. A vessel contained a certain amount of a solution of acid and water. When
a 2 litres of water was added to
a it, the new solution had 50% acid concentration. When 15 litres of acid was further added to this new
solution, the final solution had 80% acid concentration. The ratio of water and acid in the original
solution was
A. B.

C. D.

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51.
If , then equals

(TITA — type in your answer)

52. Anil invests Rs 22000 for 6 years in a scheme with 4% interest per annum, compounded half-yearly.
Separately, Sunil invests a certain amount in the same scheme for 5 years, and then reinvests the entire
amount he receives at the end of 5 years, for one year at 10% simple interest. If the amounts received by
both at the end of 6 years are equal, then the initial investment, in rupees, made by Sunil is
A. 20860 B. 20808
C. 20480 D. 20640

53. Amal and Vimal together can complete a task in 150 days, while Vimal and Sunil together can complete
the same task in 100 days. Amal starts working on the task and works for 75 days, then Vimal takes over
and works for 135 days. Finally, Sunil takes over and completes the remaining task in 45 days. If Amal
had started the task alone and worked on all days, Vimal had worked on every second day, and Sunil
had worked on every third day, then the number of days required to complete the task would have been
(TITA — type in your answer)

54. A bus starts at 9 am and follows a fixed route every day. One day, it traveled at a constant speed of 60
km per hour and reached its destination 3.5 hours later than its scheduled arrival time. Next day, it
traveled two-thirds of its route in one-third of its total scheduled travel time, and the remaining part of
the route at 40 km per hour to reach just on time. The scheduled arrival time of the bus is
A. 10:30 pm B. 7:00 pm
C. 7:30 pm D. 9:00 pm

55. A function maps the set of natural numbers to whole numbers, such that
for all and for every prime number . Then, the value of
is
A. 8191 B. 2047
C. 4095 D. 1023

56. The sum of the infinite series

is equal to

A. B.

C. D.

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 23 of 26

57. A fruit seller has a stock of mangoes, bananas and apples with at least one fruit of each type. At the
beginning of a day, the number of mangoes make up 40% of his stock. That day, he sells half of the
mangoes, 96 bananas and 40% of the apples. At the end of the day, he ends up selling 50% of the fruits.
The smallest possible total number of fruits in the stock at the beginning of the day is
(TITA — type in your answer)

58. Bina incurs 19% loss when she sells a product at Rs. 4860 to Shyam, who in turn sells this product to
Hari. If Bina would have sold this product to Shyam at the purchase price of Hari, she would have
obtained 17% profit. Then, the profit, in rupees, made by Shyam is
(TITA — type in your answer)

59. Three circles of equal radii touch (but not cross) each other externally. Two other circles, X and Y, are
drawn such that both touch (but not cross) each of the three previous circles. If the radius of X is more
than that of Y, the ratio of the radii of X and Y is
A. B.

C. D.

60. If and satisfy the equations and , then equals
A. 20 B. 10
C. 15 D. 5

61. The roots of the equation , satisfy . The value of , is

A. 16 B. 4
C. 1 D. 9

62. All the values of satisfying the inequality are

A. B.
or or
C. D.
or or

63. When Rajesh's age was same as the present age of Garima, the ratio of their ages was . When
Garima's age becomes the same as the present age of Rajesh, the ratio of the ages of Rajesh and Garima
will become
A. B.

C. D.

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 24 of 26

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. e m paths, between Q and S
c64. P, Q, R and S are four towns. One can travel between P and Q along 3sdirect
m la is no direct path between P and S,
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along 4 direct paths, and between P and R along 4 direct paths. There
while there are few direct paths between Q and R, and betweenaR and S. One can travel from P to S
either via Q, or via R, or via Q followed by R, respectively, in exactly 62 possible ways. One can also
travel from Q to R either directly, or via P, or via S, in exactly 27 possible ways. Then, the number of
direct paths between Q and R is
(TITA — type in your answer)

65. The coordinates of the three vertices of a triangle are: , , and . Then the radius of the in
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circle of the triangle is
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(TITA — type in your answer)

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66.
g
If , and are lapositive real numbers such that and ag ,
a
then the greatest possible integer value of is
(TITA — type in your answer)

67. If and are real numbers such that , then the value of is
(TITA — type in your answer)

68.
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ABCD is a trapezium in which AB is parallel to CD. The sides AD and BC when extended, intersect at
c
. ABCD is 6 cm, then the perimeter, in cm, of
point E. If cm,
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A. 8
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C. 9 7 D.

Answer Key

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Section I — Verbal Ability & Reading Comprehension
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Q.No 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

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Ans C A D B A B A 4 B D

ag Q.No 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

Ans A D C D A C A A D C

Q.No 21 22 23 24

Ans B 2 A A

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Section II — Data Interpretation & Logical Reasoning

Q.No 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34

Ans 4 B A 2 26 A D 5100 3500 150

Q.No 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44

Ans A 4 D A B A B A 4 5

Q.No 45 46

Ans 6 C

Section III — Quantitative Ability

Q.No 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56

Ans C D B B 11 B 139 C C A

Q.No 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66

Ans 340 2160 B C B D B 7 2 14

Q.No 67 68

Ans 7 A

MCQ answers are the correct option letter (A–D). TITA answers are the numeric/sequence value.

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 26 of 26