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FOR KUET EXAM PREPARATION
KUET 2021
Question Paper · M.Sc.
Microbiology
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT
KUET 2021 Question Paper M.Sc. Microbiology
Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests
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Sr. No. .............................
ENTRANCE TEST-2021
SCHOOL OF BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES
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MICROBIOLOGY
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Question Booklet Series
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Total Questions : 60
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Time Allowed : 70 Minutes Roll No. :
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g l a Instructions for Candidates :
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a Entrance Test Roll Number in the space provided at the top of this page of Question Booklet
1. Write your
and fill up the necessary information in the spaces provided on the OMR Answer Sheet.
2. OMR Answer Sheet has an Original Copy and a Candidate’s Copy glued beneath it at the top. While
making entries in the Original Copy, candidate should ensure that the two copies are aligned properly
so that the entries made in the Original Copy against each item are exactly copied in the Candidate’s
Copy.
3. All entries in the OMR Answer Sheet, including answers to questions, are to be recorded in the Original
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Copy only.
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4. Choose the correct / most appropriate response for each question among the options A, B, C and D and
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darken the circle of the appropriate response completely. The incomplete darkened circle is not correctly
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read by the OMR Scanner and no complaint to this effect shall be entertained.
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5. Use only blue/black ball point pen to darken the circle of correct/most appropriate response. In no case
gel/ink pen or pencil should be used.
6. Do not darken more than one circle of options for any question. A question with more than one darkened
response shall be considered wrong.
7. There will be ‘Negative Marking’ for wrong answers. Each wrong answer will lead to the deduction
of 0.25 marks from the total score of the candidate.
8. Only those candidates who would obtain positive score in Entrance Test Examination shall be eligible
for admission.
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9. Do not make any stray mark on the OMR sheet.
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10. Calculators and mobiles shall not be permitted inside the examination hall.
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aor mutilated in which case it
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11. Rough work, if any, should be done on the blank sheets provided with the question
gla a
a will not be evaluated.
13. Ensure that your OMR Answer Sheet has been signed by the Invigilator and the candidate himself/
herself.
14. At the end of the examination, hand over the OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator who will first tear off
the original OMR sheet in presence of the Candidate and hand over the Candidate’s Copy to the candidate.
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1. Classification of viruses by David Baltimore 5. Identify the gene responsible for the evolutionary
is based on differences in : relationship between the taxonomic groups :
(A) The envelope proteins on the surface of (A) 16S rRNA
viruses
(B) 23S rRNA
(B) The modes of transmission of viruses
(C) 5S rRNA
(C) The pathways required to synthesize virus
(D) 18S rRNA
mRNA
6. Select the pleomorphic bacteria
(D) Host cell receptors used by viruses
(A) Mycobacteria
2. The typical coronavirus structure is :
(A) An icosahedral large pleomorphic virus (B) Corynebacterium
(B) Large regimented barrel shaped virus (C) Streptococcus
(C) Club shaped glycoprotein spikes protrude (D) Pseudomonas
through a lipid bilayer 7. Growth requirement for mycoplasma :
(D) An icosahedral structure with an envelope (A) Nitrogen
3. Target of the antibiotics on micro organisms is (B) Carbon
mainly due to :
(C) Cholesterol
(A) Inhibition of cell-wall synthesis
(D) Glucose
(B) Damage to the cytoplasmic membrane
8. Double-stranded DNA is found in which viruses ?
(C) Inhibition of nucleic acid and protein
synthesis (A) Poliomyelitis
(D) All of the above (B) Influenza viruses
4. Which of the following is an unusual feature of (C) Pox viruses
the replication cycle in coronaviruses ? (D) None of the above
(A) The RNAs all terminate in a common 3' 9. Which of the following is a parasitic algae ?
end and produce nested set with the genome.
(A) Sargassus
(B) They take advantage of recombination with
the long RNA genome (B) Cladophora
(C) They are not highly mutable (C) Oedogonium
(D) They use capped cellular mRNA’s (D) Celphaleuros
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10. Laminarin is an energy storage material 14. Clearances of antigens by antibodies involve :
characteristic of :
(A) Neutralization and agglutination
(A) Chlorophyta
(B) Opsonisation and complement activation
(B) Chrysophyta
(C) Precipitation
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(C) Phaeophyta
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(D) All of the above
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(D) Pyrrophyta
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15. Hypervariable region of antibody consists of :
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11. Mark the incorrect statement concerning Giardia
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lamblia :
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site
(A) G. Lamblia has both a trophozoite and cyst
stage in its life cycle (B) 50-100 amino acids that form antigen
(B) G. Lamblia is transmitted by the fecal oral binding site
route from both human and animal sources (C) 5-10 amino acids that form antibody binding
(C) G. Lamblia causes hemolytic anemia site
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(D) G. Lamblia can be diagnosed by the string (D) A part of constant region of heavy and
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test
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12. Identify the organ associated for defence in
protozoans :
a g of reaction based on Kirchhoff equation ?
(A) Statocysts (A) Molecularity
(B) Trichocysts
(B) Temperature
(C) Otocysts
(C) Pressure
(D) Nematocysts
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(D) Volume
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13. Secondary metabolites such as penicillin from
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17. Chemical dissociation is :
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mold are produced during the :
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(A) Exothermic
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(B) Reversible
(C) Log phase (C) Endothermic
(D) Decline phase (D) Reversible and endothermic
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18. The principle laws of photochemistry are : 21. Which of the following processes are
thermodynamically reversible ?
(A) Grothus-Draper and Stark-Einstein law
(A) Throttling
(B) Raoult’s and Dalton’s law
(B) Constant volume and constant pressure
(C) Raoult’s and Henry’s law
(C) Hyperbolic and pV = C
(D) Lambert’s and Beer’s law
(D) Isothermal and adiabatic
19. Which of the following will result in deviation 22. Mark the enzyme necessary for the below
from Beer’s law ? mentioned biochemical reaction : Triglyceride
i. Change in a refractive index of medium + 3H2O —→ Glycerol + Fatty acids
(A) Lipase
ii. Dissociation of analyte on dilution
(B) Zymase
iii. Polychromatic light
(C) Glycerol phosphate dehydrogenase
iv. Path length of cuvette.
(D) Glycerol kinase
(A) i, ii and iii
23. Identify the physical property differ for each of
(B) ii, iii and iv a pair of enantiomers ?
(C) i, iii and iv (A) Boiling point and melting point
(D) i, ii and iv (B) Index of refraction
20. Mark the incorrect statement : (C) Solubility in ethanol
(A) First step in photochemistry is excited state (D) Direction of rotation of plane-polarized
light
(photo excitation)
24. Which of the following statements about an
(B) When a molecule or atom in the ground
enzyme is incorrect ?
state (S0) absorbs light, one electron is
(A) An enzyme is usually a large protein
excited to a higher orbital level
(B) An enzyme changes the equilibrium constant
(C) It is possible for the excited state S1 to
of a reaction
undergo spin inversion
(C) An enzyme is a catalyst for biological
(D) Photochemical reactions are caused by reactions
absorption of ultraviolet only
(D) An enzyme is a chiral molecule
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25. Catalase is found exclusively in : 29. Major role of carbohydrates as a component of
the cell membrane is :
(A) Lysosomes
(A) Adhesion
(B) Peroxisomes
(B) Locomotion
(C) Golgi apparatus
(C) Recognition
(D) Mitochondria
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(D) Reception
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26. Substrate level phosphorylation in glycolysis 30. mtDNA is considered as one of the best marker
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is : tool for population biologist and evolutionary
l a biologist. The reason for this :
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(A) Conversion of Glucose to Glucose-6-
(A) Mitochondrial DNA undergo spontaneous
phosphate
mutation
(B) Conversion of Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
(B) Mitochondrial DNA can be easily isolated
to 1, 3-Bisphosphoglycerate
(C) Mitochondrial genes are specified to mtDNA
(C) Conversion of Dihydroxyacetone phosphate
(D) Absence of genetic recombination in mtDNA
to Glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate
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31. Which one of the following properties of
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(D) Conversion of 1, 3-Bisphosphoglycerase telomerase is different from that of DNA
to 3-Phosphoglycerate
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polymerase ?
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27. Identify the organelle involved in apoptosis : (A) Telomerase requires a template to direct
the addition of nucleotides
(A) Lysosome
(B) Telomerase can only extend a 3 -OH end
(B) Mitochondria of DNA
(C) ER (C) Telomerase does not carry out lagging strand
synthesis
(D) Golgi
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(D) Telomerase acts in a processive manner
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28. The origin of polytene chromosome (as giant
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32. During development, if a cell has committed to
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a particular fate, it is said to be :
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(C) Mitosis (C) Determined
(D) Meiosis (D) Differentiated
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33. Which of the following statements is incorrect 36. Identify the vector using in human genome
about topoisomerases as a potential anticancer project :
drug target ?
(A) Cosmid vectors
(A) As cancer cells are rapidly growing cells,
they usually contain higher level of (B) Yeast artificial chromosomes
topoisomerases.
(C) Phagemid vector
(B) The transient DNA breaks created by
topoisomerases are usually converted to (D) Yeast episomal plasmids
permanent breaks in the genome in the 37. Which one of the following fungi is the most
presence of topoisomerase targeted drugs.
serious threat in a bone marrow transplant unit ?
(C) As cancer cells often have impaired DNA
(A) Candida albicans
repair pathways, they are more susceptible
towards topoisomerase targeted drugs. (B) Aspergillus
(D) The drugs which specifically target (C) Blastomyces
topoisomerases, usually to do not affect
normal fast growing cells. (D) Cryptococus
34. Nitric oxide synthase is responsible for 38. Enzymes responsible for alcoholic fermentation :
generation of nitric oxide, an important signaling
(A) Zymase
molecule. The substrate for this enzyme is :
(B) Ketolase
(A) Glycine
(B) Lysine (C) Peroxidase
(C) Histidine (D) Oxidase
(D) Arginine 39. Monoclonal antibodies are associated with the
35. Which one of the following is not a name of :
neurotransmitter ?
(A) Burnet
(A) Adrenaline
(B) Medwar
(B) Histidine
(C) Milstein kohler
(C) Glutamate
(D) Histamine (D) Owen
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40. The ability of a pathogen to spread in the host 44. Which one of the following is the correct order
tissues after establishing the infection is known of electron transport during light reaction in the
as : thylakoid membrane of chloroplast ?
(A) Adhesion (A) P680 → Cytochrome b6f → PC → PQ
(B) Invasiveness (B) P680 → PC → Cytochrome b6f → PQ
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(C) Toxigenicity (C) P680 → PQ → PC → Cytochrome b6f
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(D) None of these
e enzyme is defective in 45. The C carbon cycle is a CO concentrating
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l— a fatal genetic disorder in mechanism evolved to reduce photorespiration.
41. Which of the following
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infants ?
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galactosemia
The following are stated as important features
of the C4 pathway :
(A) Glucokinase
i. The leaves of C4 plants have Kranz anatomy
(B) Galactokinase
that distinguishes mesophyll and bundle
(C) Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase sheath cells.
(D) UPD-Galactose 4-epimerase
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ii.
In the peripheral mesophyll cells,
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42. Gluconeogenesis occurs in the liver because of
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pyruvate carboxylase yielding a four-carbon
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the presence of :
(A) Phosphofructokinase
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iii. In the inner layer of mesophyll, NAD-malic
(B) Pyruvate carboxylase
enzyme decarboxylates four-carbon acid
(C) Glucose 6 phosphatase and releases CO2.
(D) Glucokinase iv. CO2 is again re-fixed through Calvin cycle
43. Emergence of unique functional heavy chain- in the bundle sheath cells.
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only antibodies in which of the following
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Which one of the following combinations is
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animals ? correct ?
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(A) i, iii and iv
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(B) i, ii and iii
(C) Pigeon (C) i, ii and iv
(D) Mice (D) i, iii and iv
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46. Given below are names of phytohormones in 49. Identify the food chain type :
column I and their associated features/effects/ Dead animals → blowfly maggot → maggots
functions in column II : → frog → snake
I II (A) Detrital food chain
(a) Auxin (i) Delayed leaf (B) Decomposer food chain
senescence
(C) Predator food chain
(b) Gibberellins (ii) Epinastic bending of
(D) Grazing food chain
leaves
50. Point out the ‘K’ selected species :
(c) Cytokinin (iii) Polar transport
(A) Aspergillus
(d) Ethylene (iv) Removal of seed
dormancy (B) Human
Select the correct set of combinations from the (C) Taraxacum
options given below : (D) Grass
(a) (b) (c) (d) 51. The middle region of thermal stratification,
(A) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) showing the vertical temperature change is
called :
(B) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(A) Mesolimnion
(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(B) Epilimnion
(D) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(C) Metalimnion
47. Which one of the following is used for Targeting
Induced Local Lesions in Genomes (TILLING) ? (D) Hypolimnion
(A) T-DNA tagging by Agrobacterium-mediated 52. The purpose of Lincoln index is to measure :
transformation (A) Population mortality rate
(B) Transposon tagging using Ac/Ds elements (B) Population natality rate
(C) Mutagenesis with ethylmethane sulphonate (C) Population size
(D) Protoplast transportation by electroporation (D) Population density
48. Lake zone having phytoplanktons in abundance : 53. The workers of cement factory are prone to :
(A) Littoral zone (A) Leukemia
(B) Benthic zone (B) Bone marrow diseases
(C) Limnetic zone (C) Asbestosis
(D) Profundal zone (D) Cytosilicosis
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54. The Yak (ox) and the Bharal are found in : 58. The result of a statistical test, denoted p, shall
(A) Uttarakhand be interpreted as follows :
(B) Himachal Pradesh (A) The null hypothesis h 0 is rejected if
(C) Jammu and Kashmir p < 0.05
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(D) Ladakh (B) The null hypothesis h 0 is rejected if
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55. Which of the following statements is true about p > 0.05
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the Air Quality Index ?
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(C) The alternate hypothesis h1 is rejected if
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(A) It indicates the colour of the air.
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p > 0.05
(B) It predicts ozone levels in your area. (D) The null hypothesis h 0 is accepted if
(C) It determines the intensity of sound and p < 0.05
sound pollution.
59. The value of Chi-square will be zero when :
(D) It estimates air pollution mainly sulphur
content in the air. (A) Expected frequency is less than the observed
frequency
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c. o(B) Expected frequency is equal to the observed
56. Algal productivity in fresh water lakes is limited
by the availability of inorganic ions of :
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frequency
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(A) Carbon
(B) Nitrogen
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(C) Phosphorus observed frequency
(D) All of the above (D) Expected frequency is greater than the
57. Select the wrong statement regarding correlation : observed frequency
(A) In case of positive correlation, the two 60. Identify the statistical test to validate the statement
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(B) In case of negative correlation, the two
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(A) Student’s t-test
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(B) Regression analysis
vary in between –1 to +1
(C) Pearson correlation coefficient test
(D) The calculated r value “0.075” indicates
strong positive correlation (D) ANOVA
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ROUGH WORK
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