Rajasthan BSTC 2026 Question Paper Shift I Set A English Medium

FOR RAJASTHAN BSTC EXAM PREPARATION

Rajasthan BSTC 2026
Question Paper · Shift I
Set A English Medium
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT

Rajasthan BSTC 2026 Question Paper Shift I Set A English Medium

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as Number of Pages: 24 a g
Q. P. B. Series
i`"Bksa dh la[;k % 24

Question Paper Booklet No.
ETC - I A

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Roll No. (In Figures)
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O.M.R. Answer Sheet No.

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Shift : I
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a % 600 a
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Time : Three Hours
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Maximum Marks : 600 EETYTEC - 26

egÙoiw
gÙoiw.kZ vuqn’s k %& Important Instructions:-
1- iz’u&i= iqfLrdk esa funsZ’kksa lfgr dqy 24 i`"B gSAa bl 1. The Question Paper Booklet (Q.P.B.) contains a total
iqfLrdk esa iz’u la[;k 1 ls iz’u la[;k 200 rd dqy number of 24 pages including instructions. There are
nks lkS iz’u eqfnzr gSAa iz’u&i= iqfLrdk ds izR;sd 200 questions in all from question no. 1 to question

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Hkkx&v] c] l ,oa n esa 50 iz’u gSAa ^Hkkx&n^ ds nks Hkkx no. 200 printed in this booklet. There are 50

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gSAa blesa iz’u la[;k 151 ls iz’u la[;k 170 rd vaxzt s h questions in each Section – A, B, C & D of Q.P.B.

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ds gS]a tks lHkh ds fy, vfuok;Z gaSA iz’u la[;k 171 ls ‘Section–D’ has two parts in it. In this Section

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question no. 151 to 170 are of English and
iz’u la[;k 200 rd ds fy, vH;FkhZ dks fgUnh ;k laLÑr

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compulsory for all. For question no. 171 to 200
esa ls fdlh ,d dk p;u djuk gSA iz’u&i= iqfLrdk
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candidate has to select either Hindi or Sanskrit. Any

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ds lEcU/k esa fdlh Hkh f’kdk;r ij ijh{kk izkjEHk gksus complaint regarding the Question Paper Booklet will
ds 10 feuV ds Hkhrj gh fopkj fd;k tk;sxkA be entertained within 10 minutes from the
2- laLÑr esa izo’s k pkgus okys ^Hkkx&n^ esa laLÑr dk gh commencement of the Exam.
p;u djsAa laLÑr rFkk lkekU; nksuksa dk p;u djus 2. Candidates seeking admission in Sanskrit have to opt
okys Hkh laLÑr fo"k; dk gh p;u djsAa Sanskrit in ‘Section–D’. The candidates who have
applied for both Sanskrit and General will also opt
3- iz’uksa ds mÙkj nsus ds fy, vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj&i=d ds Sanskrit only.
i`"B Hkkx ij fn;s x;s funsZ’kksa dk ikyu djsAa 3. Follow the Instructions given at the back of O.M.R.
Answer Sheet for answering questions.
4- ijh{kkFkhZ bl iz’u&i= iqfLrdk dk Øekad ,oa lhjht
4. The candidate should fill in the serial no. and

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vks-,e-
,e-vkj-
vkj- mÙkj&i=d esa fu/kkZfjr LFkkuksa ij vo’; Hkjs]a

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series of this Question Paper Booklet in the
vU;Fkk mldk ijh{kk ifj.kke ?kksf"kr ugha gks ldsxk vkSj

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O.M.R. Answer Sheet at the proper places,

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mlds fy, og Lo;a mÙkjnk;h gksxkA
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otherwise his/her result will not be declared and

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NOTE:-

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1- lHkh iz’u vfuok;Z gSAa

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1. All questions are compulsory.
2- Hkkx v] c] l ,oa n ds izR;sd iz’u ds fy, 3 vad

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2. Each question carries 3 marks in Section A, B, C

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fu/kkZfjr gSAa & D.
3- udkjkRed vadu ugha gksxkA 3. No negative marking will be there.
4- vks-,e-,e-vkj-
vkj- mÙkj
mÙkj i=d esa mÙkj vafdr djus vkSj 4. Use Black/Blue ball point pen only to answer
okafNr lwpuk vafdr djus ds fy, dkyk@uhyk questions and to fill in information required
ckWy ikWbUV isu gh bLrseky djsAa in the O.M.R. Answer Sheet.

mÙkj&i=d esa nks izfr;k¡ gSa & ewy izfr vkSj dkcZu izfrA ijh{kk lekfIr ij ijh{kk d{k NksMu+ s ls iwoZ ijh{kkFkhZ mÙkj&i=d dh
nksuksa izfr;k¡ oh{kd dks lkSix
sa ]s ijh{kkFkhZ Lo;a dkcZu izfr vyx ugha djsAa oh{kd mÙkj&i=d dh ewy izfr dks vius ikl tek dj]
dkcZu izfr dks ewy izfr ls dV ykbu ls eksM+ dj lko/kkuhiwoZd vyx dj ijh{kkFkhZ dks lkSix sa ]s ftls ijh{kkFkhZ vius lkFk ys
tk;sxa As ijh{kkFkhZ dks mÙkj&i=d dh dkcZu izfr izo’s k izfØ;k iw.kZ gksus rd lqjf{kr j[kuh gksxhA

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MENTAL ABILITY
1. In an MNC, 1000 employees are randomly selected. 500 like tea, 380 like coffee and 120 like both tea
& coffee. Match the following -
1. How many people like only tea? (i) 760

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2. How many people like only coffee? (ii) 640

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3. How many people like neither tea nor coffee? (iii) 240

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4. How many people like only one of tea or coffee? (iv) 260

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gl (2)-(ii), (3)-(iii), (4)-(iv), (5)-(v)
5. How many people like at least one of the beverages? (v) 380

(A) a
(1)-(i), (B) (1)-(v), (2)-(iv), (3)-(iii), (4)-(ii), (5)-(i)
(C) (1)-(ii), (2)-(iii), (3)-(i), (4)-(v), (5)-(iv) (D) (1)-(iii), (2)-(i), (3)-(ii), (4)-(iv), (5)-(v)
2. Find the set among the four sets which is like the given set -
13 : 20 : 27
(A) 3 : 11 : 18 (B) 18 : 25 : 32 (C) 18 : 27 : 72 (D) 7 : 14 : 28

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In a certain language DEBU is coded as 45221 and MANSI is coded as 13114199. In the same

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3.
language RAJVEER is coded as -
(B) 17111222555 m (C) 18011252581
Find a pair similar to “ARROW : BOW”la
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(A) 16100225588 (D) 18110225518

ag: Knife (C) Bullet : Rifle
4. -
(A) Football : Hand (B) Salad (D) Smoke : Water
5. Find the next term of the following series -
ADA, EHE, ILI, ....................
(A) JKJ (B) GJG (C) MPM (D) JHJ
6. Four words have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while the fourth one is

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different. Choose the odd one out -

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(A) Feeling (B) Joy (C) Anxiety (D) Anger

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7. Insert the missing number in the following -

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75 30 55 ?

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35 41 67
(A) 35 (B) 40 (C) 45 (D) 50
8. Choose the odd pair of words -
(A) Cow : Calf (B) Dog : Bitch
(C) Lion : Cub (D) Tortoise : Baby tortoise

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9. Find the missing term in the second group -
AEJO : BFKP : : CGLQ : ………
(A) ENSY (B) DLNP (C) DHMR (D) FMPV
10. Ravi said to Seeta, “Your mother is the daughter of my grandmother”. How are Ravi and Seeta related
to each other?
(A) Uncle - Niece (B) Father - Daughter
(C) Cousin (D) Mother - Son
11. Which option figure will come in place of the question mark?

?
Pot Plant Thread ?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Needle Dress Scissors Cotton
12. A, P, R, X, S and Z are sitting in a row. S and Z are in the centre, A and P are at the ends. R is sitting
to the left of A. Who is sitting to the right of P?
(A) S (B) X (C) Z (D) R
13. Choose the best alternative -
125 : 216 : : ………. : 512
(A) 260 (B) 300 (C) 312 (D) 343
14. ‘Engineer’ is related to ‘Production’ in the same way as ‘Doctor’ is related to -
(A) Cure (B) Hospital (C) Body (D) Surgery
15. Which one is different among the following?
(A) WhatsApp (B) Skype (C) Snapchat (D) Linkedin
16. Which of the following diagram indicates the best relation between a teacher, a writer and an artist?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

17. Identify the number that fits in the given pattern -
16, 81, 256, 625, 1296, ………….
(A) 2401 (B) 2405 (C) 2409 (D) 2415

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as 18. Study the diagram given below and answer the following question - a g
Artists
25 4 17
Players
22 3
8 Doctors

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30

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How many doctors are both players and artists?

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(A) 22 (B) 8 (C) 3 (D) 30

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19. Which of the following does not belong to the group?

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(A) ZA (B) XC (C) VE (D) MG
20. In the following question, find out the missing number -

42 17

37 19

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(A) 30 (B) 25 (C) 27 (D) 31

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21. If Aprajit is Bhumi’s brother and Bhumi is Chaitnaya’s sister, then what is the relation of Chaitnaya
to Aprajit?
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22.
(A) Brother (B) Mother
a (C) Father
Find the correct alternative for the following question -
(D) Sister

Cow : Bull : : Mare : ……….
(A) Animal (B) Dog (C) Horse (D) Meat
23. How many triangles are in the given figure?

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ag 24. Complete
(B) 8 (C) 10 (D) 12
the following series -
5040, 720, 120, 24, ............, 2, 1
(A) 8 (B) 7 (C) 6 (D) 5
25. What will come next in the following series?

………………

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(A) (B) (C) (D)

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26. Introducing ‘Aman’, Rekha said, “His wife is the only daughter of my father”. How is Aman related
to Rekha?
(A) Brother-in-law (B) Husband (C) Father (D) Son-in-law
27. Ajit is the father of Bhavini, who is the daughter of Chitra and Chitra is the daughter of Parul. How is
Ajit related to Parul?
(A) Son (B) Daughter (C) Son-in-law (D) Daughter-in-law
28. If ‘Y’ says that his mother is the only daughter of X’s mother, then how is ‘X’ is related to ‘Y’?
(A) Uncle (B) Brother (C) Cousin brother (D) Maternal uncle
29. Introducing a boy, a girl said, “He is the son of the daughter of the father of my uncle”. How is the
boy related to the girl?
(A) Sister (B) Brother (C) Sibling (D) Son
30. There are six members G, H, I, J, N, O in a family in which there are three ladies and one married
couple. G is the mother of I and J is the son of I. Husband of G is H and I is his son while O is his
daughter. The group of ladies include -
(A) N, W, I (B) G, H, I (C) N, O, G (D) G, N, J
31. If Bittu says, “Aarti’s mother is the only daughter of my mother”, then how is Bittu related to Aarti?
(A) Maternal uncle (B) Paternal uncle (C) Grandfather (D) Father
32. If ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘–’ means ‘+’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ‘–’, then –
20 + 10 × 20 ÷ 4 – 10 has a value of -
(A) 8 (B) 16 (C) 32 (D) 17
33. If E = 5 and BAT = 23, then MUG = …………….
(A) 41 (B) 53 (C) 57 (D) 62
34. Find out the missing number -

5 10 ?
3 4 6 8 9 12

(A) 15 (B) 18 (C) 20 (D) 13
35. If ACE = 15 and BDF = 48, then what will be HJL?
(A) 960 (B) 710 (C) 698 (D) 250
36. Use the same relationship to find the second analogy of the second pair -
16 : 2 : : 256 : …………….
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 5 (D) 7

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A clock is started at 1. By 30 minutes past 5, how many degrees has the hour hand turned through?

(A) 115° (B) 135° (C) 140° (D) 155°

38. Find the word that can be formed from the letters of the given word -

PRAGMATIC

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(A) GUITAR (B) AGMARK (C) GAME (D) MAGIC

39.
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One morning, Hritik walks 2 km towards East, then turns right and walks 3 km, then turns left and
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walks 2 km. Which direction is he facing now?

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(A) South
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40. If ‘blue’ is called ‘green’, ‘green’ is called ‘white’, ‘white’ is called ‘red’, ‘red’ is called ‘black’, then

what is the color of clear sky?

(A) Blue (B) Green (C) White (D) Black

41. The sum of ages of X, Y and Z is 45 years. What is Y’s age?

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Statements: (I) Y is 12 years older than X.

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(II) Z is 15 years old.

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(A) Only statement (I) is sufficient to answer the question.
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(B) Only statement (II) is sufficient to answer the question.

(C) Both statements (I) and (II) are sufficient to answer the question.

(D) Both statements (I) and (II) are insufficient to answer the question.

42. What is the last letter of the word which is formed by rearranging the following letters?

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C, P, A, O, E, C, K (A bird)

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E K (C) P (D) C

43.. A cyber-attack hits a major city’s network, crippling services.
(A) (B)

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a (I) The authorities should immediately shut down all networks.

(II) The IT team should identify and fix the vulnerability.

(A) Only (I) follows (B) Only (II) follows

(C) Neither (I) nor (II) follows (D) Both (I) and (II) follow

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44. If VOTER = 41352, HEATER = 743654, TEASER = 645834, then which number represents “S”?
(A) 1 (B) 5 (C) 8 (D) 7
45. Statements (I) and (II) are given below, read them and select the correct answer -
Statements: (I) Online shopping has increased significantly.
(II) Many local retail shops are shutting down.
(A) Statement (I) is the cause and Statement (II) is its effect.
(B) Statement (II) is the cause and Statement (I) is its effect.
(C) Both the statements (I) and (II) are independent causes.
(D) Both the statements (I) and (II) are effects of independent causes.
46. Find the total number of squares in the given figure -

(A) 10 (B) 14 (C) 12 (D) 16
47. Which one will replace the question mark?
A1 B5 C9
D13 E17 ?
G7 H11 I15

(A) F21 (B) G22 (C) H23 (D) I24

48. Find the next term in the following series -
3F, 6G, 11I, 18L, ……….
(A) 21O (B) 25N (C) 25P (D) 27P
49. The total of the ages of P, Q and R is 90 years. What was the total of their ages five years ago?
(A) 70 years (B) 75 years (C) 80 years (D) 85 years
50. How many 7’s are there in the given series which are immediately preceded by 6 but not immediately
followed by 8?
3, 4, 8, 7, 6, 1, 5, 6, 7, 8, 4, 9, 6, 7, 5
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

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Part-B
GENERAL AWARENESS OF RAJASTHAN
51. Who is the author of ‘Gaon Ar Amma’, a Rajasthani poetry book which won the
Sahitya Akademi Award for the year 2024?
(A) Ambika Dutt (B) Mukut Maniraj

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(C) Bhanwar Singh Samour (D) Meethesh Nirmohi

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52. What is Humseedho?

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(A) Song sung by Bhils (B) Song sung by Meenas

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(C) Song sung by Manganiyars (D) Song sung by Langas
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53.
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Identify the correct group of Folk-Deities in Rajasthan worshiped as the Five Peers -
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(A) Pabuji, Tejaji, Kallaji, Gogaji, Devnarayanji
(B) Devnarayanji, Ramdevji, Harbuji, Mallinathji, Kallaji
(C) Gogaji, Pabuji, Ramdevji, Mehaji, Harbuji
(D) Pabuji, Mallinathji, Mehaji, Gogaji, Tejaji
54. To which genre of Folk-Theatre of Rajasthan, ‘Turra Kalangi’ is related?
(A) Khyal (B) Tamasha (C) Rammat (D) Swang
55. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Gindad’ dance –

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(I) It is a famous folk dance of Shekhawati region.
(II) It is performed by males only.
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(A) Only (I) is correct (B) Only (II) is correct
(C) Both (I) and (II) are correct
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56. Who among the following court musicians of Jaipur wrote the book named ‘Swar Sagar’?
(A) Bhatt Dwarkanath (B) Devarshi Bhatt
(C) Ali Bhagwan (D) Chand Khan
57. On the second day of Holi (Dhulandi), where does the ‘Badshah ki Sawari’ procession take place?
(A) Churu (B) Bhilwara (C) Bhinmal (D) Beawar
58. Among the following temples of Rajasthan, which one is NOT related to the
‘Bhumij Style of Temple-Architecture’?

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(A) Mahanaleshwar, Mainal (B) Samadhishwar Mandir, Chittorgarh

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(C) Bhand Devara, Baran (D) Surya Mandir, Ranakpur

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59. To which style of painting, the great painter of Rajasthan Mordhwaj Nihalchand was related?

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(A) Bikaner style (B) Jodhpur style (C) Bundi style (D) Kishangarh style

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60. Which present day districts came under the ‘Jangladesh’ in the Mahabharata period?
(A) Bikaner - Nagaur (B) Udaipur - Jodhpur
(C) Alwar - Jaipur (D) Alwar - Bharatpur
61. The Shahrukh Khan starrer movie ‘Paheli’ was based on which of these Rajasthani writer’s story?
(A) ‘Duvidha’ by Vijaydan Detha
(B) ‘Ek Beendani Do Beend’ by Nathmal Joshi
(C) ‘Manjhal Raat’ by Laxmi Kumari Chundawat

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(D) ‘Jog Sanjog’ by Yadvendra Sharma Chandra
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62. Moriya, Loor, Kood, Mandal are dances of -
(A) Garasiya (B) Bhil (C) Gurjar (D) Kalbeliya
63. Which award did Pandit Vishwa Mohan Bhatt get in 1994 for his album ‘A Meeting by the River’?
(A) Sangeet Natak Akademi Award (B) Padma Shri
(C) Grammy Award (D) Kalidas Samman
64. Which of these women freedom fighters was expelled from Bundi for her political and social reform
activities?
(A) Nagendra Bala (B) Janaki Devi Bajaj
(C) Shanta Trivedi (D) Anjana Devi Chaudhari
65. Which fort is built on the Songiri hills on the banks of Sukadi river?
(A) Gagron Fort (B) Bhainsrorgarh Fort
(C) Jalore Fort (D) Siwana Fort
66. Who among the following founded ‘Veer Bharat Samaj’?
(A) Jamnalal Bajaj (B) Motilal Tejawat
(C) Manikya Lal Verma (D) Vijay Singh Pathik
67. Identify the correct group of places of Rajasthan, which were invaded by Sultan Alauddin Khilji -
(A) Chittor, Jodhpur, Sirohi (B) Ranthambore, Chittor , Jalore
(C) Jodhpur, Jalore, Chittor (D) Sirohi, Ranthambore, Jodhpur
68. Identify the three places where battles were fought between Marathas and Rajput states during
1787 to 1800 on the issue of collection of Chauth -
(A) Hurda, Rajmahal, Tunga (B) Bundi, Malpura, Ajmer
(C) Tunga, Patan, Malpura (D) Bagru, Patan, Jaipur
69. Who among the following emperor awarded the title of ‘Rao’ to Rajput warrior of Nagaur
Amar Singh Rathore?
(A) Akbar (B) Jahangir (C) Shah Jahan (D) Aurangzeb
70. The last Rajputana state to enter into a treaty with the British was -
(A) Udaipur (B) Kota (C) Sirohi (D) Jaisalmer
71. Identify the incorrect pair of archaeological site of Rajasthan and the river nearby -
(A) Bagor – Kothari (B) Sunari – Kantali
(C) Nagari - Berach (D) Noh – Banganga
72. In which month the Pushkar Fair is organised?
(A) Shravan (B) Pausha (C) Kartik (D) Bhadrapad
73. Which among the following archaeological sites of Rajasthan was excavated by the
Swedish Archaeological Team during 1952-54?
(A) Rang Mahal (B) Jodhpura (C) Ganeshwar (D) Bhinmal

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as 74. A set of twin stepwells known as ‘Nagar Sagar Kund’ is situated at - a g
(A) Dausa (B) Bundi (C) Kota (D) Chittorgarh
75. Remains of which Empire have been found in excavations done at ‘Bijak ki Pahadi’?
(A) Mauryan Empire (B) Gupta Empire (C) Chola Empire (D) Pandya Empire
76. Which one of the following forts is NOT located in Karauli district?

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(A) Timangarh (B) Shergarh (C) Devgiri (D) Untgiri

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77. Which of these things from Rajasthan has NOT been given a GI (Geographical Indicator) tag?

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(A) Bikaneri Bhujia (B) Kota Doria

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(C) Blue Pottery of Jaipur (D) Rajasthan Ravan Hattha
78.
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Identify the incorrect pair of District and Product under ODOP scheme -
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(A) Baran - Mango (B) Ajmer - Rose
(C) Churu - Groundnut products (D) Sikar - Onion
79. Consider the following statements regarding Census 2011 of Rajasthan -
(I) Out of total population of Rajasthan, 24.9% people lived in urban area.
(II) Female Literacy Rate in Rajasthan was 60.1%.
(A) Only (I) is correct (B) Only (II) is correct

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(C) Both (I) and (II) are correct (D) Neither (I) nor (II) is correct

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80. The second highest peak of Aravalli Mountain Range in Rajasthan is -

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(A) Achalgarh (B) Sajjangarh (C) Jarga (D) Ser
81.
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Identify the incorrect pair of Dam and the River on which it has been constructed -
(A) Meja Dam – Kothari River
(C) Nahar Sagar Dam – Nagadi River a g (B) Matrikundia Dam – Banas River
(D) Fateh Sagar Dam – Berach River
82. Identify the correct group of Fresh water lakes of Rajasthan -
(A) Pichola, Fateh Sagar, Panchbhadra (B) Jaisamand, Deedwana, Nakki
(C) Rajsamand, Siliserh, Kolayat (D) Sambhar, Lunkaransar, Ana Sagar
83. Among the following, which river is NOT a tributary of Chambal river?
(A) Kali Sindh (B) Banganga (C) Banas (D) Parvati
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84. ‘Inya Parvat’ is related to whom?

85.. co (A) Bhil (B) Garasiya (C) Meena
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(D) Gurjar

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Johad, Khadin and Jhalra are methods of -
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las (A) Water conservation
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(B) Soil conservation

ag (C) Wildlife conservation (D) Seed conservation
86. Which mineral is taken out in Giral mine in Barmer and Matasukh and Kasnau mines in Nagaur?
(A) Bentonite (B) Gypsum (C) Lignite (D) Limestone
87. Which constitutional body has been created to review the financial position of the Panchayats and
make recommendations to the Governor under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992?
(A) Rajasthan State Planning Board (B) State Finance Commission

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(C) Panchayat Samiti (D) Zila Parishad
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88. Which of these freedom fighters was a member of Rajya Sabha from 1954 to 1960?
(A) Balwant Singh Mehta (B) Master Adityendra
(C) Jainarayan Vyas (D) Manikya Lal Verma
89. Who among the following persons has NOT been a full-time Speaker in the
Rajasthan Legislative Assembly?
(A) Narottam Lal Joshi (B) Ramkishor Vyas
(C) Niranjan Nath Acharya (D) Gulab Chand Kataria
90. Who among the following did NOT hold the office of Rajasthan’s Chief Minister during the decade
of 1990s (1990 to 1999)?
(A) Hari Dev Joshi (B) Shiv Charan Mathur
(C) Bhairon Singh Shekhawat (D) Ashok Gehlot
91. Identify the Governor of Rajasthan during whose tenure President’s Rule under Article 356 was only
proclaimed, NOT revoked -
(A) Raghukul Tilak (B) Hukum Singh
(C) M. Chenna Reddy (D) Bali Ram Bhagat
92. In which form, Ajmer was categorised in the First Schedule of the Constitution which commenced
on 26th January, 1950?
(A) Part - A State (B) Part - B State
(C) Part - C State (D) Union Territory
93. In the ‘Viksit Rajasthan @2047’, by the year 2029 state aims to achieve economy worth of -
(A) $275 Billion (B) $325 Billion
(C) $350 Billion (D) $450 Billion
94. During 2024-25 in Rajasthan, which sector has contributed highest in ‘Gross State Value Addition’,
at current prices?
(A) Agriculture (B) Industry (C) Infrastructure (D) Services
95. According to the data of 2022-23, which position did Rajasthan have in Soybean production?
(A) First (B) Second (C) Third (D) Fourth
96. Which goddess is worshipped in ‘Sanjhi Art’?
(A) Parvati (B) Lakshmi (C) Saraswati (D) Sita
97. Who among the following players from Rajasthan received the Arjuna Award in the year 2025?
(A) Sakshi Kumari (B) Mona Agrawal
(C) Om Prakash Mitharwal (D) Sundar Singh Gurjar
98. Who among the following has never been the Leader of Opposition of
Rajasthan Legislative Assembly?
(A) Bhairon Singh Shekhawat (B) Haridev Joshi
(C) Vasundhara Raje (D) Ashok Gehlot
99. Jaisingh Suri is the writer of which of the following book?
(A) Raj Prashasti (B) Hammir Mad Mardan
(C) Kirtistambh Prashasti (D) Gyan Manjari
100. Who among the following is associated with ‘Eki Movement’?
(A) Motilal Tejawat (B) Manikya Lal Verma
(C) Naynu Ram Sharma (D) Kunj Bihari Lal Modi

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TEACHING APTITUDE AND ATTITUDE
101. Which of the following is NOT an element of teaching-learning process?
(A) Teacher (B) Learner (C) Parents (D) Curriculum
102. When a teacher wants to give some information to the students, which communication skill will be
used?

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(A) Speaking and Writing (B) Speaking and Reading

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(C) Reading and Writing (D) Speaking and Listening

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103. Identify the kind of discipline which is most effective for inculcating social sensitivity among
students.
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(A) Impressionistic discipline (B) Repressionistic discipline

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(C) Emancipationistic discipline (D) Self-discipline
104. Social sensitivity is the ability to -
(A) Understand the feelings and thoughts of others
(B) Talk about others
(C) Perceive signs of social interaction
(D) Recognize social attitude
105. A primary school teacher’s professional attitude mainly reflects which quality?
(A) Personal comfort (B) Commitment towards students

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(C) Financial benefits (D) Social status

.
106. The Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009 made CCE mandatory for which classes?

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(A) Classes I to V (B) Classes VI to VIII
(C) Classes I to VIII
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107. Which would be the best way to develop creativity of students in the classroom?
(A) Speech on ways to develop creativity (B) Give examples of creativity
(C) Encourage for creative thinking (D) Hands-on activity to develop creativity
108. When a teacher wants students to excel in map making, then which teaching strategy will be used for
this?
(A) Lecture (B) Demonstration (C) Drill work (D) Role play
109. Which leadership style encourages followers to recognize their potential?

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(A) Primitive leadership (B) Inspirational leadership

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(C) Transactional leadership (D) Bureaucratic leadership

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110. Which of the following is NOT a feature of continuous evaluation in CCE?

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(A) Regular assessment (B) Frequency of unit testing
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las (C) Evaluation as one-time event (D) Diagnosis of learning gaps
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Professional attitude of teacher helps most in -
(A) Maintaining discipline (B) Improving student learning
(C) Reducing workload (D) Increasing holidays
112. ‘Message should have all the needed information.’ This basic Principle of Communication Skill is
related to which of the following?
(A) Clarity (B) Conciseness (C) Completeness (D) Concreteness
113. Which of the following is NOT a quality of a creative child?

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(A) Intelligence (B) Dependence (C) Self-assertive (D) Original thoughts
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114. In the process of learning, reward is which type of incentive given by the teacher to the students?
(A) Extrinsic (B) Intrinsic (C) Biogenic (D) Physiologic
115. A professionally committed teacher believes that teaching is -
(A) a job (B) a social responsibility
(C) a source of livelihood (D) a source of power
116. A student’s self-composed poem indicates which element of creativity?
(A) Originality (B) Flexibility (C) Elaboration (D) Fluency
117. Which of the following method is used to receive information from the sender?
(A) Listening (B) Speaking (C) Telling (D) Writing
118. Which factor negatively affects a teacher’s professional attitude?
(A) Continuous training (B) Motivation
(C) Job dissatisfaction (D) Student participation
119. According to Educational Psychology, professional attitude affects -
(A) Only teachers (B) Only administration
(C) Teaching-learning process (D) School building
120. Social sensitivity in teaching mainly involves -
(A) Strict discipline (B) Understanding of learner’s background
(C) Content completion (D) Examination control
121. Gender bias in education leads to -
(A) Social injustice (B) Equal opportunities
(C) Inclusive growth (D) Balanced development
122. Maintaining a positive classroom climate is the responsibility of -
(A) Students (B) School administration
(C) Teachers (D) Parents
123. A teacher as a facilitator means -
(A) Guiding learners in learning process (B) Giving ready-made answers
(C) Dominating classroom (D) Limiting student’s interaction
124. Active listening means -
(A) Hearing without response (B) Interrupting the speaker
(C) Understanding and responding (D) Ignoring the message
125. Communication is a process of -
(A) Exchanging ideas and information (B) Giving orders
(C) Writing messages only (D) Listening only
126. CCE aims at reducing -
(A) Learning opportunities (B) Teacher’s role
(C) Examination stress (D) Student participation
127. The role of a teacher in fostering creativity is to -
(A) Impose rules strictly (B) Provide ready-made answer
(C) Focus on memorization (D) Encourage exploration and questioning
128. Divergent thinking is closely related to what?
(A) Creativity (B) Intelligence (C) Memory (D) Habit formation
129. Which method is most suitable for value education?
(A) Lecture Method (B) Drill Method
(C) Dictation Method (D) Story-telling Method

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(A) takes decision alone (B) encourages participation
(C) maintains strict control (D) avoids responsibility
131. The purpose of Formative Assessment is to -
(A) Rank students (B) Judge final result
(C) Increase competition (D) Improve learning process

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Which of the following term does NOT describe Nature of Learning?

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132.

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(A) Process (B) Product (C) Purposive (D) Continuous
133.
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Which of the following option describes the role of a teacher in developing social sensitivity among
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students?
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(A) Administrator (B) Manager (C) Checker (D) Motivator
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134. Social Sensitivity is -
(A) The ability to empathize with others
(B) The ability to understand the condition of others
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
135. Which of the following statement indicates that students are sensitive?
(A) They have the capability to understand feelings and thoughts through Verbal expressions
only.
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(B) They have the capability to understand feelings and thoughts through Non-verbal
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expressions only.

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(C) They have the ability to accept own self and others on the basis of their own biases.

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(D) They have the ability to understand feelings and thoughts through Verbal and Non-verbal

136.
expressions.
a
Which of the following is the core component of professional attitude of a teacher?
(A) Bias and belief (B) Choice and opinion
(C) Choice and belief (D) Belief and behaviour
137. For heterogeneous and widely dispersed audience, which of the following communication type is
suitable?
(A) Interpersonal communication (B) Intrapersonal communication

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(C) Group communication (D) Mass communication

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138. What does the term “Evaluation” mean?

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(A) Measurement (B) Value judgement

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(C) Measurement & value judgement (D) Neither measurement nor value judgement

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The term “Formative Evaluation” is concerned with -

ag (A) Assessment of students in the beginning of instructions
(B) Assessment of students during the instructional process
(C) Assessment of students after the instructional process
(D) Assessment of students at the end of the term
140. Miss Neena asked the students to explain how newspaper can be used differently. Rehan wins this
game stating 15 ways in which newspaper may be used differently. Miss Neena addressed which
component of creativity by this game?

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(A) Fluency (B) Flexibility (C) Originality (D) Elaboration

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141. A teacher as a leader of a class is successful when even in his absence -
(A) students of the class are busy talking to each other.
(B) students are sitting quietly in class.
(C) students are busy doing their own work.
(D) students are busy in games.
142. As a classroom leader, to create a fear-free environment, you will plan your lesson in which of the
following manner?
(A) To provide information which students can learn
(B) To engage students in discussion and enquiry
(C) To ensure that students do self-study and learn
(D) To deliver a lecture which students can listen
143. Which of the following is an essential characteristic required for an effective leader?
(A) Power (B) Inheritance (C) Initiative (D) Position
144. Which of the following statements is NOT correct with reference to learning?
(A) All children are naturally motivated to learn.
(B) Children learn in a variety of ways.
(C) All children are capable of learning.
(D) Learning cannot take place without mediation.
145. Communication that takes place between two or more persons establishing a communicative
relationship is known as -
(A) Intrapersonal communication (B) Interpersonal communication
(C) Public relations communication (D) Directing
146. A successful teacher is one who -
(A) motivates the students for learning.
(B) completes the course before time.
(C) helps the students in preparing notes.
(D) does not believe in failing the students.
147. What would you like to do for assessing the development of affective and psychomotor aspects of
your students?
(A) Administer a Psychological test
(B) Test them by Psychiatrist
(C) Organise Literary, Cultural, Sports activities continuously
(D) Administer achievement test
148. A person’s ability to solve problems in multiple ways, is known as -
(A) Fluency (B) Flexibility (C) Originality (D) Elaboration
149. When a student in your class does not show interest, then you will -
(A) punish him. (B) send him out of the class.
(C) try to find reason behind this. (D) will leave him to his fate.
150. A student in your class generally asks unique questions, then you will -
(A) ask him/her to keep quiet.
(B) scold him/her for asking questions repeatedly.
(C) recognize the creativity behind his/her unique questions.
(D) tell him/her to meet separately.

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Part-D
LANGUAGE PROFICIENCY : ENGLISH
Read the following passage and answer the questions 151-154 -
A British survey found that 44 percent of firms, which started to use robots met with initial failure
and 22 percent abandoned them altogether, mainly because of inadequate technological know-how

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and skills at all plant levels.

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Robotisation is by and large a viable proposition. These machines can work round the clock, raise

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output, protect the quality and industrial competitiveness.

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Certain production jobs, mostly simple or hazardous ones, are irretrievably lost to robotics. Thus,
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spot welders, spray painters, cleaners, machine loaders, grinding and polishing machine operators
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are endangered species.
151. What does the writer say regarding initial failure?
(A) 50 percent are using robots.
(B) British companies stopped the use of robots.
(C) 22 percent have abandoned the use of robots.
(D) All of the above
152. What do you mean by ‘robotisation’?

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(A) Making robots (B) Marketing robots

.
(C) Introduction of robots (D) Replacement of humans with robots

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153. ‘A viable proposition’ is -
(A) a workable idea
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(B) a fanciful idea

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(C) an imaginative idea (D) an endangered idea
154. Robots are a substitute for -
(A) planners (B) production workers
(C) motor cars (D) endangered species
155. Find out the correct spelling -
(A) Variagated (B) Variegated (C) Varegated (D) Varigated
156. Which of the following Question Tag is correct for the sentence?

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We’re doing it the right way, ……..

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(A) aren’t we? (B) are we? (C) do we? (D) don’t we?

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157. Complete the sentence with suitable Articles.

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His car struck……..….tree; you can still see……….…mark on…….…..tree.
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(A) a, the, the (B) the, the, the (C) a, a, the
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(D) a, a, a

ag Find out the word with correct spelling -
(A) Supperannuation (B) Superanuation (C) Supperanuation (D) Superannuation
159. Identify the one underlined expression (A, B, C or D) that must be changed in order to correct the
sentence.
wants has prefer
None of the children to be in the group that B to stay inside because everyone to go outside
A C
play
and D .

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(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D

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160. Mark the most appropriate one-word substitution for the following -
‘Undue favour shown by a person in power to his relatives.’
(A) Misanthrope (B) Flagrant (C) Perquisition (D) Nepotism
161. Find the Synonym for ‘Veracity’ -
(A) Audacity (B) Perfection (C) Judgement (D) Truth
162. Find the Antonym for ‘Acquit’ -
(A) Convict (B) Disclose (C) Adjudge (D) Imprison
163. Which of the following means ‘a middle course’?
(A) By the way (B) Through communication
(C) Via media (D) The right order
164. Correct the following sentence –
If I were you, I will never give up.
(A) If I was you, I will never give up. (B) If I were you, I was never give up
(C) If I were you, I would never give up. (D) If I were you, I will never have give up.
165. Complete the following sentence –
If you answer the questions correctly...................
(A) You were the winner (B) You could be the winner
(C) You have been the winner (D) You could have been the winner
166. Which Connective is correct?
................. he is intelligent, he is humble.
(A) Although (B) But (C) Yet (D) As well as
167. Put the following into indirect speech:
Rahul asked Raj, “Why have you not allowed the book to be published?”
(A) Rahul asked Raj that why have the book not been published.
(B) Rahul asked Raj why he had not allowed the book to be published.
(C) Rahul asked Raj why was the book not published.
(D) Rahul asked Raj why they have not allowed the book to be published.
168. Which part has error in it?
Despite for her protests/I decided/to buy the saree/which she did not like.
(A) Despite for her protests (B) I decided
(C) to buy the saree (D) which she did not like
169. Choose the compound sentence -
(A) You must take rich diet to gain weight.
(B) You must take rich diet or you will not gain weight.
(C) You must take rich diet in order to gain weight.
(D) You will gain weight by taking rich diet.
170. Complete the sentence with suitable Article:
France is ......... European country.
(A) a (B) an (C) the (D) no article

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Hkkx&n
Hkk"kk ;ksX;rk % fgUnh
171. ^^paæek^* dk i;kZ;okph ugha gS &
(A) fgeka’kq (B) lq/kka’kq (C) jkds’k (D) e;w[k
172. fuEu esa ls fdl fodYi esa lHkh 'kCn ijLij i;kZ;okph ugha gS\a

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(A) ek/ko] nkeksnj] eqdaqn (B) piyk] fof’k[k] fogx

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(C) ujs’k] eghi] eghifr (D) vkfnR;] fnokdj] ÁHkkdj
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173. ^^ddZ’k^* 'kCn dk foykse 'kCn gS &

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(A) e/kqj (B) ldZl (C) fu"Bqj (D) dlwjokj

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174. buesa ls fdl fodYi esa ijLij foykse 'kCn ugha gS\a
(A) vuUr&lkUr (B) vFk&vkfn (C) vxzt&vuqt (D) vK&foK
175. ^^’osr&Losn^* ;qXe 'kCnksa dk lgh vFkZ gS &
(A) lQ+n s &/kkxk (B) lQ+n s &dku (C) lQ+n s &ilhuk (D) lQ+ns &lHkk
176. buesa ls fdl fodYi esa ijLij foykse 'kCn ugha gS\a
(A) mRd"kZ&vid"kZ (B) mRFkku&iru (C) mn~/kr&fouhr (D) b"V&vHkh"V
177. ^^o"kkZ] rqe xkuk xkvksA** okD; fdl izdkj dk gS\
(A) fo/kkukFkZd (B) vkKkFkZd (C) bPNkFkZd (D) ladsrkFkZd
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178. ^^rM+kd&rM+kx^* 'kCn ;qXe dk lgh vFkZ gS &

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(A) tYnh&rkykc (B) nqcZy&rkykc (C) tYnh&rxM+k (D) rkykc&tYnh

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179. ftl okD; esa nks ;k nks ls vf/kd lk/kkj.k okD; ;k iz/kku miokD; ;k lekukf/kdj.k miokD;]

a
(B) feJ okD;
g
fdlh la;kstd 'kCn ls tqM+s gks]a mls dgrs gSa &
(A) lk/kkj.k okD; (C) la;qDr okD; (D) laKk miokD;
180. buesa ls v’kq) 'kCn dkSulk gS\
(A) egS’o;Z (B) pØik.kh (C) yko.; (D) dof;=h
181. v’kq) 'kCn gS &
(A) nqjkoLFkk (B) æohHkwr (C) uwiqj (D) vUR;k{kjh
182. fdl fodYi ds lHkh 'kCn 'kq) gS\a

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(A) uhjksx] ozrkUr (B) vR;qfDr] T;ksRLuk (C) nqO;Zlu] vuqx`g (D) }Un] le`)

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fuEu esa ls 'kq) okD; gS &
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183.

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(A) csVksa esa ;q) gks x;kA

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(B) bl xhr dh nks&pkj yfM+;k¡ lquk nksA

gla (C) fVfÏ;ksa dh eaMyh lkjh Qly pV dj xbZA
a 184.
(D) xksfy;ksa dh ckSNkj ds lkeus dksbZ fVd u ldkA
buesa ls v’kq) okD; dkSulk gS\
(A) ;s esjs gh gLrk{kj gSAa (B) og viuh /kqu esa tk jgk FkkA
(C) I;kl ds ekjs mldk izk.k fudy x;kA (D) mldh Hkqtk,¡ ?kqVuksa rd yEch gSAa
185. buesa ls 'kq) okD; gS &
(A) eSu a s rqEgkjh cgqr izrh{kk dhA (B) esjs dks nks fuca/k fy[kus gSaA

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(C) ge jkr esa Hkkstu [kkrs gSAa (D) ckyd feBkbZ vkSj nw/k ihdj lks x;kA

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186. ^^[kVkbZ esa iM+uk^* eqgkojs dk vFkZ gksrk gS &
(A) yM+kbZ esa ekjs tkuk (B) ekjs&ekjs fQjuk
(C) dke gksus esa nsjh ;k lang s gksuk (D) lkQ&lkQ ckr dguk
187. eqgkojs vkSj muds vFkZ dh n`f"V ls lgh fodYi ugha gS &
(A) ukdksa pus pckuk&[kwc rax djuk (B) fuU;kuos dk Qsj&vuqHko 'kwU; gksuk
(C) ixM+h mNkyuk&vieku djuk (D) nwt dk pk¡n&dfBukbZ ls n’kZu nsuk
188. ^^bZVa dh ysuh] iRFkj dh nsuh^* yksdksfDr dk vFkZ gksrk gS &
(A) ftldh djuh mlh dks Qy feyrk gSA (B) le; chr tkus ij dke djukA
(C) nq"Vrk ds cnys vkSj vf/kd nq"VrkA (D) tSlk O;fDr oSlh vkoHkxrA
189. ^^FkksM+h oLrq ls cM+k dke ugha gks ldrkA** dks n’kkZus okyh yksdksfDr gS &
(A) pwgksa dh ekSr] fcYyh dk [ksyA (B) pwgs dk cPpk fcy gh [kksnrk gSA
(C) pksV~Vh dqfr;k tysfc;ksa dh j[kokyhA (D) pwgksa ds pke ls dgha uxkM+s e<+s tkrs gSAa
190. ^^of.kXoxZ^* 'kCn esa laf/k gS &
(A) xq.k laf/k (B) v;kfn laf/k (C) O;atu laf/k (D) folxZ laf/k
191. laf/k foPNsn dh n`f"V ls lgh fodYi ugha gS &
(A) lu~ + p; = lap; (B) fde~ + pu = fdapu
okd~ + e; = ok³~e;
(C) (D) "kV~ + eq[k = "k.eq[k
192. fdl fodYi esa xyr laf/k gS\
(A) rr~ + yhu = rYyhu (B) rr~ + fgr = rf)r
(C) r`"k + uk = r`"uk (D) ,d + ,d = ,dSd
193. ^egkS"k/k^ 'kCn esa dkSulh laf/k gS\
(A) o`f) (B) xq.k (C) nh?kZ (D) ;.k
194. }a} lekl dk mnkgj.k gS &
(A) uhydaB (B) diM+& s yÙks (C) f=Hkqou (D) egktu
195. mnwZ milxZ ls cuk 'kCn gS &
(A) v/kdPpk (B) vkSxqu (C) lqMkSy (D) ckdk;nk
196. ^^bdrhl^* 'kCn esa dkSulk lekl gS\
(A) cgqczhfg (B) f}xq (C) deZ/kkj; (D) }U}
197. fdl 'kCn esa ^*fu^* milxZ ugha gS\
(A) fueXu (B) fu’py (C) fuokj.k (D) fu"ks/k
198. ^*vH;kxr^* 'kCn esa dkSulk milxZ gS\
(A) vHkh (B) vH; (C) vfHk (D) v
199. ^*yk?ko** 'kCn esa izR;; gS &
(A) v (B) o (C) vo~ (D) ?ko~
200. ^*thrus dh bPNk^* dgykrh gS &
(A) fyIlk (B) ftxh"kk (C) cqHkq{kk (D) ftthfo"kk

[Series-A] [EETYTEC-26 (English)] Page 20 of 24 [2001]
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co m .
. s e
em l a

as Hkkx&n a g
Hkk"kk ;ksX;rk % laLÑre~
171. oxkZ.kka izFkek&r`rh;&iapek% ;.k’p &
(A) vYiizk.kk% (B) Lofjrk% (C) foÑrk% (D) egkizk.kk%
172. vp~ izR;kgkjs v;a o.kZ% u ifjx.;rs &

m
co
_ (B) y` (C) g (D) m

om .
(A)

.c
173. dL; o.kZL; mPpkj.kLFkkua nUrks"BefLr\
e m
em l a s
s
(A) rdkjL; (B) odkjL; (C) ydkjL; (D) edkjL;

l a a g
g
174. Li’kZo.kkZuka la[;k Hkofr &
(A) a24 (B) 25 (C) 26 (D) 20
175. ^jke* 'kCnL; :ia ukfLr &
(A) jkeS% (B) jkes.k (C) jkekuke~ (D) jke;ks%
176. ^jek* 'kCnL; r`rh;kfoHkDrs% ,dopus :ia Hkofr &
(A) jek;k (B) jek;k% (C) jek;S (D) je;k

m
c. o(C) i’;re~
177. ^n`’k~^ /kkrks% yksV~ydkjs e/;eiq#"k&f}opus :iefLr &

m&
(A) i’;r (B) i’;r% (D) i’;Fk%

s e
(B) Hkfo";fr la
178. ^vl~^ /kkrks% y³~ydkjs izFkeiq#"kSdopus :ia L;kr~
(A) vLrq
a g (C) vfLr (D) vklhr~
179. ^u`r~* /kkrks% y³~ydkjs e/;eiq#"kL; f}opus :ia Hkofr &
(A) vu`R;sre~ (B) vu`R;e~ (C) vu`R;r (D) vu`R;re~
180. ^LFkk^ /kkrks% yksV~ydkjs e/;eiq#"kcgqopus :ia Hkofr &
(A) fr"Br% (B) fr"BFk% (C) fr"BFk (D) fr"Br
181. ^LFkk* /kkrks% fof/kfyX-ydkjs e/;eiq#"ks cgqopus :ia Hkofr\

m
m c. o
(A) fr"Bs;e~ (B) fr"Bso (C) fr"Bs;q% (D) fr"Bsr

c. o 182. ^nk* /kkrks% yV~ydkjs izFkeiq#"kL; f}opus :ie~ vfLr &
s em(D) nRFk
s em la
ag
(A) nRFk% (B) nRFks (C) nÙk%

gla
a
183. ^vUo;%^ bR;= milxZ% orZrs &
(A) vu~ (B) vuq (C) vUo (D) vu
184. ^/kheku~^ bR;fLeu~ ins izÑfrizR;;kS Lr% &
(A) /kh + erqi~ (B) /kh + Drorq (C) /kh + 'kkup~ (D) /kh + 'kr`
185. xk;d% bfr ins d% izR;;%\
D;i~ (B) ;r~ (C) .oqy~ (D) .;r~
c
(A)

m .
c. o s e m
m
[Series-A] [EETYTEC-26 (English)] Page 21 of 24 [2001]
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Page 21 of 24

186. ^^nsoS’o;Ze~^^ inL; lfU/kfoPNsn% fu.ksZ;% &
(A) nso + ,s’o;Ze~ (B) nsoh + ,’o;Ze~ (C) nso + ,’o;Ze~ (D) nsoh + ,s’o;Ze~
187. v] ,] vks bfr o.kkZuka dk laKk\
(A)xq.k&laKk (B) loZuke&laKk (C) o`f)&laKk (D) vi`Dr&laKk
188. ^i†pxoe~^ bfr inL; leqfpra foxzgokD;a fde~\
(A) i†p xkoks ;L; l% re~ (B) i†p xoka lekgkj%
(C) i†pkuka xokuka lekgkj% (D) i†pkuka xoka lekgkj%
189. v/kLrus"kq ^^jksxeqDr%^^ bR;fLeu~ ins iz;qDrleklL; uke fde~\
(A) r`rh;k&rRiq#"k% (B) prqFkhZ&rRiq#"k% (C) iapeh&rRiq#"k% (D) lIreh&rRiq#"k%
190. ^vkRek^ bfr 'kCnL; fda fyXe~\
(A) iqfa yXe~ (B) L=hfyXe~ (C) mHk;fyXe~ (D) uiqaldfyXe~
191. fyXn`"V~;k 'kq)okD;efLr &
(A) bne~ ee iqLrde~A (B) b;e~ ee iqLrde~A
(C) v;e~ ee iqLrd%A (D) bne~ ee iqLrdk%A
192. ^^l% ------------------------------------ ckfydka i`PNfrA^^ bR;fLeu~ fjDrLFkkus mi;qDr% 'kCn% d%\
(A) bea (B) bes (C) b;e~ (D) beka
193. ^^jkK% iq#"k%^^ bR;= d% lEcU/k%\
(A) tU;tudHkko% (B) dk;Z&dkj.kHkko% (C) LoLokfeHkko% (D) tkfrO;fDrHkko%
194. ^xoka Ñ".kk cgq{khjk^ bR;fLeu~ mnkgj.ks izo`Ùklw=efLr &
(A) "k"Bh gsrqiz;ksxs (B) dr`d Z eZ.kks% Ñfr (C) ;r’p fu/kkZj.ke~ (D) DrL; p orZekus
195. ^tVkfHkLrkil%* bR;fLeu~ okD;s r`rh;k&fo/kk;da lw=efLr\
(A) gsrkS (B) bRFkaHkwry{k.ks (C) ;sukXfodkj% (D) /kqzoeik;s
196. ^vUrjs.k^ vO;;L; ;ksxs foHkfDr% iz;qT;rs &
(A) r`rh;k (B) f}rh;k (C) prqFkhZ (D) iapeh
197. ^bRFkEHkwry{k.ks^ lw=L;ksnkgj.ka orZrs &
(A) izk;s.k ;kfKd% (B) iq.;su n`"Vks gfj%
(C) n.Msu ;fr% (D) ukuk uk;kZ fu"Qyk yksd;k=k
198. vk/kkjL; laKk Hkofr &
(A) lEcU/klaKk (B) viknkulaKk (C) dj.klaKk (D) vf/kdj.klaKk
199. fu"ks/kkFkZdL; ^vye~^ bfr inL; ;ksxs foHkfDrHkZofr &
(A) f}rh;k (B) prqFkhZ (C) r`rh;k (D) iapeh
200. ^ijk + ft^ /kkrq;ksxs viknkulaKd% Hkofr &
(A) bZfIlr% (B) vlg~;ks·FkZ% (C) izh;ek.k% (D) mÙke.kZ%
------------------------------------------------

[Series-A] [EETYTEC-26 (English)] Page 22 of 24 [2001]
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 22 of 24

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as jQ dk;Z ds fy, txg@Space for Rough Work a g

m
om . co
.c e m
e m l a s
l a s ag
ag

m
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a

m
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c. o s e m
s em la
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a

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c. o s e m
m
[Series-A] [EETYTEC-26 (English)] Page 23 of 24 [2001]
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g l a
Page 23 of 24

jQ dk;Z ds fy, txg@Space for Rough Work

[Series-A] [EETYTEC-26 (English)] Page 24 of 24 [2001]
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 24 of 24