Rajasthan BSTC 2026 Question Paper Shift I Set D English Medium

FOR RAJASTHAN BSTC EXAM PREPARATION

Rajasthan BSTC 2026
Question Paper · Shift I
Set D English Medium
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT

Rajasthan BSTC 2026 Question Paper Shift I Set D English Medium

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as Number of Pages: 24 a g
Q. P. B. Series
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Question Paper Booklet No.
ETC - I D

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Roll No. (In Figures)
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O.M.R. Answer Sheet No.

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Shift : I
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Time : Three Hours
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Maximum Marks : 600 EETYTEC - 26

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gÙoiw.kZ vuqn’s k %& Important Instructions:-
1- iz’u&i= iqfLrdk esa funsZ’kksa lfgr dqy 24 i`"B gSAa bl 1. The Question Paper Booklet (Q.P.B.) contains a total
iqfLrdk esa iz’u la[;k 1 ls iz’u la[;k 200 rd dqy number of 24 pages including instructions. There are
nks lkS iz’u eqfnzr gSAa iz’u&i= iqfLrdk ds izR;sd 200 questions in all from question no. 1 to question

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Hkkx&v] c] l ,oa n esa 50 iz’u gSAa ^Hkkx&n^ ds nks Hkkx no. 200 printed in this booklet. There are 50

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gSAa blesa iz’u la[;k 151 ls iz’u la[;k 170 rd vaxzt s h questions in each Section – A, B, C & D of Q.P.B.

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ds gS]a tks lHkh ds fy, vfuok;Z gaSA iz’u la[;k 171 ls ‘Section–D’ has two parts in it. In this Section

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question no. 151 to 170 are of English and
iz’u la[;k 200 rd ds fy, vH;FkhZ dks fgUnh ;k laLÑr

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compulsory for all. For question no. 171 to 200
esa ls fdlh ,d dk p;u djuk gSA iz’u&i= iqfLrdk
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candidate has to select either Hindi or Sanskrit. Any

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ds lEcU/k esa fdlh Hkh f’kdk;r ij ijh{kk izkjEHk gksus complaint regarding the Question Paper Booklet will
ds 10 feuV ds Hkhrj gh fopkj fd;k tk;sxkA be entertained within 10 minutes from the
2- laLÑr esa izo’s k pkgus okys ^Hkkx&n^ esa laLÑr dk gh commencement of the Exam.
p;u djsAa laLÑr rFkk lkekU; nksuksa dk p;u djus 2. Candidates seeking admission in Sanskrit have to opt
okys Hkh laLÑr fo"k; dk gh p;u djsAa Sanskrit in ‘Section–D’. The candidates who have
applied for both Sanskrit and General will also opt
3- iz’uksa ds mÙkj nsus ds fy, vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj&i=d ds Sanskrit only.
i`"B Hkkx ij fn;s x;s funsZ’kksa dk ikyu djsAa 3. Follow the Instructions given at the back of O.M.R.
Answer Sheet for answering questions.
4- ijh{kkFkhZ bl iz’u&i= iqfLrdk dk Øekad ,oa lhjht
4. The candidate should fill in the serial no. and

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,e-vkj-
vkj- mÙkj&i=d esa fu/kkZfjr LFkkuksa ij vo’; Hkjs]a

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series of this Question Paper Booklet in the
vU;Fkk mldk ijh{kk ifj.kke ?kksf"kr ugha gks ldsxk vkSj

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O.M.R. Answer Sheet at the proper places,

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mlds fy, og Lo;a mÙkjnk;h gksxkA
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otherwise his/her result will not be declared and

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NOTE:-

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1- lHkh iz’u vfuok;Z gSAa

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1. All questions are compulsory.
2- Hkkx v] c] l ,oa n ds izR;sd iz’u ds fy, 3 vad

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2. Each question carries 3 marks in Section A, B, C

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fu/kkZfjr gSAa & D.
3- udkjkRed vadu ugha gksxkA 3. No negative marking will be there.
4- vks-,e-,e-vkj-
vkj- mÙkj
mÙkj i=d esa mÙkj vafdr djus vkSj 4. Use Black/Blue ball point pen only to answer
okafNr lwpuk vafdr djus ds fy, dkyk@uhyk questions and to fill in information required
ckWy ikWbUV isu gh bLrseky djsAa in the O.M.R. Answer Sheet.

mÙkj&i=d esa nks izfr;k¡ gSa & ewy izfr vkSj dkcZu izfrA ijh{kk lekfIr ij ijh{kk d{k NksMu+ s ls iwoZ ijh{kkFkhZ mÙkj&i=d dh
nksuksa izfr;k¡ oh{kd dks lkSix
sa ]s ijh{kkFkhZ Lo;a dkcZu izfr vyx ugha djsAa oh{kd mÙkj&i=d dh ewy izfr dks vius ikl tek dj]
dkcZu izfr dks ewy izfr ls dV ykbu ls eksM+ dj lko/kkuhiwoZd vyx dj ijh{kkFkhZ dks lkSix sa ]s ftls ijh{kkFkhZ vius lkFk ys
tk;sxa As ijh{kkFkhZ dks mÙkj&i=d dh dkcZu izfr izo’s k izfØ;k iw.kZ gksus rd lqjf{kr j[kuh gksxhA

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MENTAL ABILITY
1. Introducing ‘Aman’, Rekha said, “His wife is the only daughter of my father”. How is Aman related
to Rekha?
(A) Brother-in-law (B) Husband (C) Father (D) Son-in-law

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2. ‘Engineer’ is related to ‘Production’ in the same way as ‘Doctor’ is related to -

m is coded as 45221 and MANSI is coded as 13114199. In the samem.co
In a certain language oDEBU
(A) Cure (B) Hospital (C) Body (D) Surgery
3.
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language RAJVEER. is coded as - s e
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a “S”?
l= 41352, HEATER = 743654, TEASER = 645834, then which number represents
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(A) 16100225588 (B) 17111222555 (C) 18011252581 (D) 18110225518
4.
(A) 1
a
If VOTER
(B) 5 (C) 8 (D) 7
5. Find the set among the four sets which is like the given set -
13 : 20 : 27
(A) 3 : 11 : 18 (B) 18 : 25 : 32 (C) 18 : 27 : 72 (D) 7 : 14 : 28
6. How many 7’s are there in the given series which are immediately preceded by 6 but not immediately

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followed by 8?
3, 4, 8, 7, 6, 1, 5, 6, 7, 8, 4, 9, 6, 7, 5
c. (C)
(A) 1 (B) 2
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Statements: (I) Online shopping hasgincreased significantly.
7. Statements (I) and (II) are given below, read them and select the correct answer -

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(II) Many local retail shops are shutting down.
(A) Statement (I) is the cause and Statement (II) is its effect.
(B) Statement (II) is the cause and Statement (I) is its effect.
(C) Both the statements (I) and (II) are independent causes.
(D) Both the statements (I) and (II) are effects of independent causes.

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8. If ACE = 15 and BDF = 48, then what will be HJL?

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9. coWhat is the last letter of the word which is formed by rearranging the following
c
. letters?
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(A) 960 (B) 710 (C) 698 (D) 250

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(B) K (C) P (D) C

(A) 10 (B) 14 (C) 12 (D) 16

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11. Complete the following series -
5040, 720, 120, 24, ............, 2, 1
(A) 8 (B) 7 (C) 6 (D) 5
12. A cyber-attack hits a major city’s network, crippling services.
Courses of action would be -
(I) The authorities should immediately shut down all networks.
(II) The IT team should identify and fix the vulnerability.
(A) Only (I) follows (B) Only (II) follows
(C) Neither (I) nor (II) follows (D) Both (I) and (II) follow
13. If Bittu says, “Aarti’s mother is the only daughter of my mother”, then how is Bittu related to Aarti?
(A) Maternal uncle (B) Paternal uncle (C) Grandfather (D) Father
14. If ‘Y’ says that his mother is the only daughter of X’s mother, then how is ‘X’ is related to ‘Y’?
(A) Uncle (B) Brother (C) Cousin brother (D) Maternal uncle
15. If Aprajit is Bhumi’s brother and Bhumi is Chaitnaya’s sister, then what is the relation of Chaitnaya
to Aprajit?
(A) Brother (B) Mother (C) Father (D) Sister
16. Use the same relationship to find the second analogy of the second pair -
16 : 2 : : 256 : …………….
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 5 (D) 7
17. Identify the number that fits in the given pattern -
16, 81, 256, 625, 1296, ………….
(A) 2401 (B) 2405 (C) 2409 (D) 2415
18. Choose the best alternative -
125 : 216 : : ………. : 512
(A) 260 (B) 300 (C) 312 (D) 343
19. Study the diagram given below and answer the following question -
Artists
25 4 17
Players
22 3
8 Doctors
30

How many doctors are both players and artists?
(A) 22 (B) 8 (C) 3 (D) 30

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as 20. Find the next term of the following series - a g
ADA, EHE, ILI, ....................
(A) JKJ (B) GJG (C) MPM (D) JHJ
21. In an MNC, 1000 employees are randomly selected. 500 like tea, 380 like coffee and 120 like both tea
& coffee. Match the following -

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1. How many people like only tea? (i) 760

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c. o like neither tea nor coffee? m
2. How many people like only coffee? (ii) 640

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empeople like only one of tea or coffee? a
3. How many people (iii) 240

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4. How many (iv) 260
5.
ag many people like at least one of the beverages? (v) 380

(A) (1)-(i), (2)-(ii), (3)-(iii), (4)-(iv), (5)-(v) (B) (1)-(v), (2)-(iv), (3)-(iii), (4)-(ii), (5)-(i)
(C) (1)-(ii), (2)-(iii), (3)-(i), (4)-(v), (5)-(iv) (D) (1)-(iii), (2)-(i), (3)-(ii), (4)-(iv), (5)-(v)
22. If E = 5 and BAT = 23, then MUG = …………….
(A) 41 (B) 53 (C) 57 (D) 62
23. Which one will replace the question mark?

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A1 B5 C9

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D13 E17 ?
G7 H11 I15
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(A) F21 (B) G22 a g (C) H23 (D) I24
24. Find the next term in the following series -
3F, 6G, 11I, 18L, ……….
(A) 21O (B) 25N (C) 25P (D) 27P
25. Find a pair similar to “ARROW : BOW” -

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(A) Football : Hand (B) Salad : Knife (C) Bullet : Rifle (D) Smoke : Water

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26.

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Which option figure will come in place of the question mark?

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las ?
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ag Pot Plant Thread ?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Needle Dress Scissors Cotton

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27. Ravi said to Seeta, “Your mother is the daughter of my grandmother”. How are Ravi and Seeta related

to each other?

(A) Uncle - Niece (B) Father - Daughter

(C) Cousin (D) Mother - Son

28. Introducing a boy, a girl said, “He is the son of the daughter of the father of my uncle”. How is the

boy related to the girl?

(A) Sister (B) Brother (C) Sibling (D) Son

29. There are six members G, H, I, J, N, O in a family in which there are three ladies and one married

couple. G is the mother of I and J is the son of I. Husband of G is H and I is his son while O is his

daughter. The group of ladies include -

(A) N, W, I (B) G, H, I (C) N, O, G (D) G, N, J

30. Which of the following diagram indicates the best relation between a teacher, a writer and an artist?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

31. Find the correct alternative for the following question -

Cow : Bull : : Mare : ……….

(A) Animal (B) Dog (C) Horse (D) Meat

32. A clock is started at 1. By 30 minutes past 5, how many degrees has the hour hand turned through?

(A) 115° (B) 135° (C) 140° (D) 155°

33. One morning, Hritik walks 2 km towards East, then turns right and walks 3 km, then turns left and

walks 2 km. Which direction is he facing now?

(A) South (B) North (C) West (D) East

34. Four words have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while the fourth one is

different. Choose the odd one out -

(A) Feeling (B) Joy (C) Anxiety (D) Anger

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as 35. a g
If ‘blue’ is called ‘green’, ‘green’ is called ‘white’, ‘white’ is called ‘red’, ‘red’ is called ‘black’, then
what is the color of clear sky?
(A) Blue (B) Green (C) White (D) Black
36. Find out the missing number -

5 10
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3 4 6 8 9 12

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(A) 15 (B) 18 (C) 20 (D) 13
37.
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l (I) Y is 12 years older than X.
The sum of ages of X, Y and Z is 45 years. What is Y’s age?
a
a
Statements:
(II) Z is 15 years old.
(A) Only statement (I) is sufficient to answer the question.
(B) Only statement (II) is sufficient to answer the question.
(C) Both statements (I) and (II) are sufficient to answer the question.

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(D) Both statements (I) and (II) are insufficient to answer the question.

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38. How many triangles are in the given figure?

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(A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 10 (D) 12
39. Find the missing term in the second group -

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. FMPV
AEJO : BFKP : : CGLQ : ………

c. o(A) ENSY e m
m Ajit is the father of Bhavini, who is the daughter of Chitra and Chitra islathes daughter of Parul. How is
(B) DLNP (C) DHMR (D)

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40.

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Ajit related to Parul?
(A) Son (B) Daughter (C) Son-in-law (D) Daughter-in-law
41. What will come next in the following series?

………………
(A) (B) (C) (D)

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42. Insert the missing number in the following -

20 75 30 55 ? 85

35 41 67
(A) 35 (B) 40 (C) 45 (D) 50
43. Choose the odd pair of words -
(A) Cow : Calf (B) Dog : Bitch
(C) Lion : Cub (D) Tortoise : Baby tortoise
44. A, P, R, X, S and Z are sitting in a row. S and Z are in the centre, A and P are at the ends. R is sitting
to the left of A. Who is sitting to the right of P?
(A) S (B) X (C) Z (D) R
45. In the following question, find out the missing number -

16
42 17

37 19

? 22
26
(A) 30 (B) 25 (C) 27 (D) 31
46. Find the word that can be formed from the letters of the given word -
PRAGMATIC
(A) GUITAR (B) AGMARK (C) GAME (D) MAGIC
47. Which of the following does not belong to the group?
(A) ZA (B) XC (C) VE (D) MG
48. The total of the ages of P, Q and R is 90 years. What was the total of their ages five years ago?
(A) 70 years (B) 75 years (C) 80 years (D) 85 years
49. If ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘–’ means ‘+’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ‘–’, then –
20 + 10 × 20 ÷ 4 – 10 has a value of -
(A) 8 (B) 16 (C) 32 (D) 17
50. Which one is different among the following?
(A) WhatsApp (B) Skype (C) Snapchat (D) Linkedin

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GENERAL AWARENESS OF RAJASTHAN
51. In the ‘Viksit Rajasthan @2047’, by the year 2029 state aims to achieve economy worth of -
(A) $275 Billion (B) $325 Billion
(C) $350 Billion (D) $450 Billion
52. Which mineral is taken out in Giral mine in Barmer and Matasukh and Kasnau mines in Nagaur?
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(A) Bentonite (B) Gypsum (C) Lignite (D) Limestone

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53. Among the following, which river is NOT a tributary of Chambal river?

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(A) Kali Sindh
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(B) Banganga (C) Banas (D) Parvati
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54.
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During 2024-25 in Rajasthan, which sector has contributed highest in ‘Gross State Value Addition’,
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at current prices?
(A) Agriculture (B) Industry (C) Infrastructure (D) Services
55. Who among the following players from Rajasthan received the Arjuna Award in the year 2025?
(A) Sakshi Kumari (B) Mona Agrawal
(C) Om Prakash Mitharwal (D) Sundar Singh Gurjar
56. Who among the following court musicians of Jaipur wrote the book named ‘Swar Sagar’?
(A) Bhatt Dwarkanath (B) Devarshi Bhatt

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(C) Ali Bhagwan (D) Chand Khan

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57. Which goddess is worshipped in ‘Sanjhi Art’?

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(A) Parvati (B) Lakshmi (C) Saraswati (D) Sita
58.
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Identify the correct group of Fresh water lakes of Rajasthan -
(A) Pichola, Fateh Sagar, Panchbhadra
(C) Rajsamand, Siliserh, Kolayat
a (B) Jaisamand, Deedwana, Nakki
(D) Sambhar, Lunkaransar, Ana Sagar
59. Which among the following archaeological sites of Rajasthan was excavated by the
Swedish Archaeological Team during 1952-54?
(A) Rang Mahal (B) Jodhpura (C) Ganeshwar (D) Bhinmal
60. In which form, Ajmer was categorised in the First Schedule of the Constitution which commenced
on 26th January, 1950?
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(A) Part - A State (B) Part - B State

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(C) Part - C State (D) Union Territory

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61.
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The Shahrukh Khan starrer movie ‘Paheli’ was based on which of these Rajasthani writer’s story?

las (A) ‘Duvidha’ by Vijaydan Detha
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ag (B) ‘Ek Beendani Do Beend’ by Nathmal Joshi
(C) ‘Manjhal Raat’ by Laxmi Kumari Chundawat
(D) ‘Jog Sanjog’ by Yadvendra Sharma Chandra
62. Identify the three places where battles were fought between Marathas and Rajput states during
1787 to 1800 on the issue of collection of Chauth -
(A) Hurda, Rajmahal, Tunga (B) Bundi, Malpura, Ajmer
(C) Tunga, Patan, Malpura (D) Bagru, Patan, Jaipur

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63. To which genre of Folk-Theatre of Rajasthan, ‘Turra Kalangi’ is related?
(A) Khyal (B) Tamasha (C) Rammat (D) Swang
64. The second highest peak of Aravalli Mountain Range in Rajasthan is -
(A) Achalgarh (B) Sajjangarh (C) Jarga (D) Ser
65. In which month the Pushkar Fair is organised?
(A) Shravan (B) Pausha (C) Kartik (D) Bhadrapad
66. Moriya, Loor, Kood, Mandal are dances of -
(A) Garasiya (B) Bhil (C) Gurjar (D) Kalbeliya
67. Who among the following founded ‘Veer Bharat Samaj’?
(A) Jamnalal Bajaj (B) Motilal Tejawat
(C) Manikya Lal Verma (D) Vijay Singh Pathik
68. A set of twin stepwells known as ‘Nagar Sagar Kund’ is situated at -
(A) Dausa (B) Bundi (C) Kota (D) Chittorgarh
69. Identify the incorrect pair of Dam and the River on which it has been constructed -
(A) Meja Dam – Kothari River (B) Matrikundia Dam – Banas River
(C) Nahar Sagar Dam – Nagadi River (D) Fateh Sagar Dam – Berach River
70. Which of these things from Rajasthan has NOT been given a GI (Geographical Indicator) tag?
(A) Bikaneri Bhujia (B) Kota Doria
(C) Blue Pottery of Jaipur (D) Rajasthan Ravan Hattha
71. Who among the following has never been the Leader of Opposition of
Rajasthan Legislative Assembly?
(A) Bhairon Singh Shekhawat (B) Haridev Joshi
(C) Vasundhara Raje (D) Ashok Gehlot
72. Who among the following did NOT hold the office of Rajasthan’s Chief Minister during the decade
of 1990s (1990 to 1999)?
(A) Hari Dev Joshi (B) Shiv Charan Mathur
(C) Bhairon Singh Shekhawat (D) Ashok Gehlot
73. Identify the correct group of Folk-Deities in Rajasthan worshiped as the Five Peers -
(A) Pabuji, Tejaji, Kallaji, Gogaji, Devnarayanji
(B) Devnarayanji, Ramdevji, Harbuji, Mallinathji, Kallaji
(C) Gogaji, Pabuji, Ramdevji, Mehaji, Harbuji
(D) Pabuji, Mallinathji, Mehaji, Gogaji, Tejaji
74. Identify the correct group of places of Rajasthan, which were invaded by Sultan Alauddin Khilji -
(A) Chittor, Jodhpur, Sirohi (B) Ranthambore, Chittor , Jalore
(C) Jodhpur, Jalore, Chittor (D) Sirohi, Ranthambore, Jodhpur
75. Which present day districts came under the ‘Jangladesh’ in the Mahabharata period?
(A) Bikaner - Nagaur (B) Udaipur - Jodhpur
(C) Alwar - Jaipur (D) Alwar - Bharatpur

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as 76. Who among the following persons has NOT been a full-time Speaker in thea g
Rajasthan Legislative Assembly?
(A) Narottam Lal Joshi (B) Ramkishor Vyas
(C) Niranjan Nath Acharya (D) Gulab Chand Kataria
77. Johad, Khadin and Jhalra are methods of -
(A) Water conservation (B) Soil conservation

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(C) Wildlife conservation (D) Seed conservation

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78. Who among the following is associated with ‘Eki Movement’?

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(A) Motilal Tejawat (B) Manikya Lal Verma

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(C) Naynu Ram Sharma (D) Kunj Bihari Lal Modi
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79. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Gindad’ dance –
(I) It is a famous folk dance of Shekhawati region.
(II) It is performed by males only.
(A) Only (I) is correct (B) Only (II) is correct
(C) Both (I) and (II) are correct (D) Neither (I) nor (II) is correct
80. Which award did Pandit Vishwa Mohan Bhatt get in 1994 for his album ‘A Meeting by the River’?
(A) Sangeet Natak Akademi Award (B) Padma Shri
(C) Grammy Award (D) Kalidas Samman

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81. Identify the incorrect pair of District and Product under ODOP scheme -

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(A) Baran - Mango (B) Ajmer - Rose

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(C) Churu - Groundnut products (D) Sikar - Onion
82.
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Which one of the following forts is NOT located in Karauli district?

83.
(A) Timangarh (B) Shergarh
a (C) Devgiri
Jaisingh Suri is the writer of which of the following book?
(D) Untgiri

(A) Raj Prashasti (B) Hammir Mad Mardan
(C) Kirtistambh Prashasti (D) Gyan Manjari
84. Which fort is built on the Songiri hills on the banks of Sukadi river?
(A) Gagron Fort (B) Bhainsrorgarh Fort
(C) Jalore Fort (D) Siwana Fort

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85. On the second day of Holi (Dhulandi), where does the ‘Badshah ki Sawari’ procession take place?

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(A) Churu (B) Bhilwara (C) Bhinmal (D) Beawar

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86. What is Humseedho?

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Song sung by Bhils (B) Song sung by Meenas

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(C) Song sung by Manganiyars (D) Song sung
the following temples of Rajasthan, which one is NOT related to the
‘Bhumij Style of Temple-Architecture’?
(A) Mahanaleshwar, Mainal (B) Samadhishwar Mandir, Chittorgarh
(C) Bhand Devara, Baran (D) Surya Mandir, Ranakpur
88. ‘Inya Parvat’ is related to whom?
(A) Bhil (B) Garasiya (C) Meena (D) Gurjar

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89. Who is the author of ‘Gaon Ar Amma’, a Rajasthani poetry book which won the
Sahitya Akademi Award for the year 2024?
(A) Ambika Dutt (B) Mukut Maniraj
(C) Bhanwar Singh Samour (D) Meethesh Nirmohi
90. Identify the incorrect pair of archaeological site of Rajasthan and the river nearby -
(A) Bagor – Kothari (B) Sunari – Kantali
(C) Nagari - Berach (D) Noh – Banganga
91. Which constitutional body has been created to review the financial position of the Panchayats and
make recommendations to the Governor under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992?
(A) Rajasthan State Planning Board (B) State Finance Commission
(C) Panchayat Samiti (D) Zila Parishad
92. The last Rajputana state to enter into a treaty with the British was -
(A) Udaipur (B) Kota (C) Sirohi (D) Jaisalmer
93. Consider the following statements regarding Census 2011 of Rajasthan -
(I) Out of total population of Rajasthan, 24.9% people lived in urban area.
(II) Female Literacy Rate in Rajasthan was 60.1%.
(A) Only (I) is correct (B) Only (II) is correct
(C) Both (I) and (II) are correct (D) Neither (I) nor (II) is correct
94. Remains of which Empire have been found in excavations done at ‘Bijak ki Pahadi’?
(A) Mauryan Empire (B) Gupta Empire (C) Chola Empire (D) Pandya Empire
95. Identify the Governor of Rajasthan during whose tenure President’s Rule under Article 356 was only
proclaimed, NOT revoked -
(A) Raghukul Tilak (B) Hukum Singh
(C) M. Chenna Reddy (D) Bali Ram Bhagat
96. To which style of painting, the great painter of Rajasthan Mordhwaj Nihalchand was related?
(A) Bikaner style (B) Jodhpur style (C) Bundi style (D) Kishangarh style
97. Which of these women freedom fighters was expelled from Bundi for her political and social reform
activities?
(A) Nagendra Bala (B) Janaki Devi Bajaj
(C) Shanta Trivedi (D) Anjana Devi Chaudhari
98. Who among the following emperor awarded the title of ‘Rao’ to Rajput warrior of Nagaur
Amar Singh Rathore?
(A) Akbar (B) Jahangir (C) Shah Jahan (D) Aurangzeb
99. Which of these freedom fighters was a member of Rajya Sabha from 1954 to 1960?
(A) Balwant Singh Mehta (B) Master Adityendra
(C) Jainarayan Vyas (D) Manikya Lal Verma
100. According to the data of 2022-23, which position did Rajasthan have in Soybean production?
(A) First (B) Second (C) Third (D) Fourth

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TEACHING APTITUDE AND ATTITUDE
101. A successful teacher is one who -
(A) motivates the students for learning.
(B) completes the course before time.
(C) helps the students in preparing notes.

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(D) does not believe in failing the students.

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102. When a teacher wants to give some information to the students, which communication skill will be

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used?

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(A) Speaking and Writing (B) Speaking and Reading

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(C) Reading and Writing (D) Speaking and Listening
103. ‘Message should have all the needed information.’ This basic Principle of Communication Skill is
related to which of the following?
(A) Clarity (B) Conciseness (C) Completeness (D) Concreteness
104. Communication is a process of -
(A) Exchanging ideas and information (B) Giving orders
(C) Writing messages only (D) Listening only
105. Which method is most suitable for value education?

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(A) Lecture Method (B) Drill Method

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(C) Dictation Method (D) Story-telling Method

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What does the term “Evaluation” mean?
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(A) Measurement (B) Value judgement

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(C) Measurement & value judgement
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A person’s ability to solve problems in multiple ways, is known as -
(A) Fluency (B) Flexibility (C) Originality (D) Elaboration
108. Miss Neena asked the students to explain how newspaper can be used differently. Rehan wins this
game stating 15 ways in which newspaper may be used differently. Miss Neena addressed which
component of creativity by this game?
(A) Fluency (B) Flexibility (C) Originality (D) Elaboration

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109. A student’s self-composed poem indicates which element of creativity?

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(A) Originality (B) Flexibility (C) Elaboration (D) Fluency

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110. In the process of learning, reward is which type of incentive given by the teacher to the students?

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(A) Extrinsic (B) Intrinsic (C) Biogenic
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(D) Physiologic

las When a student in your class does not show interest, then you will -
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(C) try to find reason behind this.
(B) send him out of the class.
(D) will leave him to his fate.
112. The role of a teacher in fostering creativity is to -
(A) Impose rules strictly (B) Provide ready-made answer
(C) Focus on memorization (D) Encourage exploration and questioning
113. Which of the following method is used to receive information from the sender?
Listening (B) Speaking (C) Telling (D) Writing
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(A)

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114. According to Educational Psychology, professional attitude affects -
(A) Only teachers (B) Only administration
(C) Teaching-learning process (D) School building
115. Which of the following term does NOT describe Nature of Learning?
(A) Process (B) Product (C) Purposive (D) Continuous
116. Which of the following is the core component of professional attitude of a teacher?
(A) Bias and belief (B) Choice and opinion
(C) Choice and belief (D) Belief and behaviour
117. Gender bias in education leads to -
(A) Social injustice (B) Equal opportunities
(C) Inclusive growth (D) Balanced development
118. Professional attitude of teacher helps most in -
(A) Maintaining discipline (B) Improving student learning
(C) Reducing workload (D) Increasing holidays
119. Identify the kind of discipline which is most effective for inculcating social sensitivity among
students.
(A) Impressionistic discipline (B) Repressionistic discipline
(C) Emancipationistic discipline (D) Self-discipline
120. Maintaining a positive classroom climate is the responsibility of -
(A) Students (B) School administration
(C) Teachers (D) Parents
121. The purpose of Formative Assessment is to -
(A) Rank students (B) Judge final result
(C) Increase competition (D) Improve learning process
122. The Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009 made CCE mandatory for which classes?
(A) Classes I to V (B) Classes VI to VIII
(C) Classes I to VIII (D) Classes IX to XII
123. A professionally committed teacher believes that teaching is -
(A) a job (B) a social responsibility
(C) a source of livelihood (D) a source of power
124. Which of the following is NOT a quality of a creative child?
(A) Intelligence (B) Dependence (C) Self-assertive (D) Original thoughts
125. A primary school teacher’s professional attitude mainly reflects which quality?
(A) Personal comfort (B) Commitment towards students
(C) Financial benefits (D) Social status
126. Which leadership style encourages followers to recognize their potential?
(A) Primitive leadership (B) Inspirational leadership
(C) Transactional leadership (D) Bureaucratic leadership
127. Which of the following option describes the role of a teacher in developing social sensitivity among
students?
(A) Administrator (B) Manager (C) Checker (D) Motivator
128. Which would be the best way to develop creativity of students in the classroom?
(A) Speech on ways to develop creativity (B) Give examples of creativity
(C) Encourage for creative thinking (D) Hands-on activity to develop creativity

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as 129. A student in your class generally asks unique questions, then you will - a g
(A) ask him/her to keep quiet.
(B) scold him/her for asking questions repeatedly.
(C) recognize the creativity behind his/her unique questions.
(D) tell him/her to meet separately.
130. Social sensitivity in teaching mainly involves -

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(A) Strict discipline (B) Understanding of learner’s background

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(C) Content completion (D) Examination control

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131. A democratic leader generally -

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(A) takes decision alone (B) encourages participation
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(C) maintains strict control (D) avoids responsibility
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132. What would you like to do for assessing the development of affective and psychomotor aspects of
your students?
(A) Administer a Psychological test
(B) Test them by Psychiatrist
(C) Organise Literary, Cultural, Sports activities continuously
(D) Administer achievement test
133. For heterogeneous and widely dispersed audience, which of the following communication type is
suitable?

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(A) Interpersonal communication (B) Intrapersonal communication

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(C) Group communication (D) Mass communication

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The term “Formative Evaluation” is concerned with -
a
134.

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(A) Assessment of students in the beginning of instructions

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(B) Assessment of students during the instructional process
(C) Assessment of students after the instructional process
(D) Assessment of students at the end of the term
135. CCE aims at reducing -
(A) Learning opportunities (B) Teacher’s role
(C) Examination stress (D) Student participation
136. Which of the following is NOT an element of teaching-learning process?

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(A) Teacher (B) Learner (C) Parents (D) Curriculum

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137. As a classroom leader, to create a fear-free environment, you will plan your lesson in which of the

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following manner?

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(A) To provide information which students can learn
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(D) To deliver a lecture which students can listen
138. A teacher as a leader of a class is successful when even in his absence -
(A) students of the class are busy talking to each other.
(B) students are sitting quietly in class.
(C) students are busy doing their own work.

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students are busy in games.
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(D)

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139. Which of the following is NOT a feature of continuous evaluation in CCE?
(A) Regular assessment (B) Frequency of unit testing
(C) Evaluation as one-time event (D) Diagnosis of learning gaps
140. Which of the following statements is NOT correct with reference to learning?
(A) All children are naturally motivated to learn.
(B) Children learn in a variety of ways.
(C) All children are capable of learning.
(D) Learning cannot take place without mediation.
141. Social sensitivity is the ability to -
(A) Understand the feelings and thoughts of others
(B) Talk about others
(C) Perceive signs of social interaction
(D) Recognize social attitude
142. A teacher as a facilitator means -
(A) Guiding learners in learning process (B) Giving ready-made answers
(C) Dominating classroom (D) Limiting student’s interaction
143. Social Sensitivity is -
(A) The ability to empathize with others
(B) The ability to understand the condition of others
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
144. Which factor negatively affects a teacher’s professional attitude?
(A) Continuous training (B) Motivation
(C) Job dissatisfaction (D) Student participation
145. Which of the following is an essential characteristic required for an effective leader?
(A) Power (B) Inheritance (C) Initiative (D) Position
146. Active listening means -
(A) Hearing without response (B) Interrupting the speaker
(C) Understanding and responding (D) Ignoring the message
147. Communication that takes place between two or more persons establishing a communicative
relationship is known as -
(A) Intrapersonal communication (B) Interpersonal communication
(C) Public relations communication (D) Directing
148. Divergent thinking is closely related to what?
(A) Creativity (B) Intelligence (C) Memory (D) Habit formation
149. When a teacher wants students to excel in map making, then which teaching strategy will be used for
this?
(A) Lecture (B) Demonstration (C) Drill work (D) Role play
150. Which of the following statement indicates that students are sensitive?
(A) They have the capability to understand feelings and thoughts through Verbal expressions
only.
(B) They have the capability to understand feelings and thoughts through Non-verbal
expressions only.
(C) They have the ability to accept own self and others on the basis of their own biases.
(D) They have the ability to understand feelings and thoughts through Verbal and Non-verbal
expressions.

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LANGUAGE PROFICIENCY : ENGLISH
Read the following passage and answer the questions 151-154 -
A British survey found that 44 percent of firms, which started to use robots met with initial failure
and 22 percent abandoned them altogether, mainly because of inadequate technological know-how
and skills at all plant levels.

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Robotisation is by and large a viable proposition. These machines can work round the clock, raise

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output, protect the quality and industrial competitiveness.

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Certain production jobs, mostly simple or hazardous ones, are irretrievably lost to robotics. Thus,
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spot welders, spray painters, cleaners, machine loaders, grinding and polishing machine operators
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l mean by ‘robotisation’?
151. What dogyou
are endangered species.
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(A) aMaking robots (B) Marketing robots
(C) Introduction of robots (D) Replacement of humans with robots
152. What does the writer say regarding initial failure?
(A) 50 percent are using robots.
(B) British companies stopped the use of robots.
(C) 22 percent have abandoned the use of robots.

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(D) All of the above

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153. ‘A viable proposition’ is -

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(A) a workable idea (B) a fanciful idea
(C) an imaginative idea
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(D)
s an endangered idea

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154. Robots are a substitute for -
(A) planners (B) production workers
(C) motor cars (D) endangered species
155. Find out the word with correct spelling -
(A) Supperannuation (B) Superanuation (C) Supperanuation (D) Superannuation
156. Which Connective is correct?
................. he is intelligent, he is humble.
(A) Although (B) But (C) Yet (D) As well as

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157. Identify the one underlined expression (A, B, C or D) that must be changed in order to correct the

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c. oNone of the children to be in the group that em
sentence.

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wants

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has prefer

a
to stay inside because everyone to go outside

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A B C

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play

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D

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(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
158. Find the Antonym for ‘Acquit’ -
(A) Convict (B) Disclose (C) Adjudge (D) Imprison
159. Complete the following sentence –
If you answer the questions correctly...................
(A) You were the winner (B) You could be the winner
(C) You have been the winner (D) You could have been the winner

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160. Correct the following sentence –
If I were you, I will never give up.
(A) If I was you, I will never give up. (B) If I were you, I was never give up
(C) If I were you, I would never give up. (D) If I were you, I will never have give up.
161. Which part has error in it?
Despite for her protests/I decided/to buy the saree/which she did not like.
(A) Despite for her protests (B) I decided
(C) to buy the saree (D) which she did not like
162. Which of the following means ‘a middle course’?
(A) By the way (B) Through communication
(C) Via media (D) The right order
163. Complete the sentence with suitable Article:
France is ......... European country.
(A) a (B) an (C) the (D) no article
164. Mark the most appropriate one-word substitution for the following -
‘Undue favour shown by a person in power to his relatives.’
(A) Misanthrope (B) Flagrant (C) Perquisition (D) Nepotism
165. Put the following into indirect speech:
Rahul asked Raj, “Why have you not allowed the book to be published?”
(A) Rahul asked Raj that why have the book not been published.
(B) Rahul asked Raj why he had not allowed the book to be published.
(C) Rahul asked Raj why was the book not published.
(D) Rahul asked Raj why they have not allowed the book to be published.
166. Find the Synonym for ‘Veracity’ -
(A) Audacity (B) Perfection (C) Judgement (D) Truth
167. Find out the correct spelling -
(A) Variagated (B) Variegated (C) Varegated (D) Varigated
168. Complete the sentence with suitable Articles.
His car struck……..….tree; you can still see……….…mark on…….…..tree.
(A) a, the, the (B) the, the, the (C) a, a, the (D) a, a, a
169. Which of the following Question Tag is correct for the sentence?
We’re doing it the right way, ……..
(A) aren’t we? (B) are we? (C) do we? (D) don’t we?
170. Choose the compound sentence -
(A) You must take rich diet to gain weight.
(B) You must take rich diet or you will not gain weight.
(C) You must take rich diet in order to gain weight.
(D) You will gain weight by taking rich diet.

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Hkk"kk ;ksX;rk % fgUnh
171. ^^[kVkbZ esa iM+uk^* eqgkojs dk vFkZ gksrk gS &
(A) yM+kbZ esa ekjs tkuk (B) ekjs&ekjs fQjuk
(C) dke gksus esa nsjh ;k lang s gksuk (D) lkQ&lkQ ckr dguk
172. eqgkojs vkSj muds vFkZ dh n`f"V ls lgh fodYi ugha gS &
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(A) ukdksa pus pckuk&[kwc rax djuk (B) fuU;kuos dk Qsj&vuqHko 'kwU; gksuk

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(C) ixM+h mNkyuk&vieku djuk (D) nwt dk pk¡n&dfBukbZ ls n’kZu nsuk

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a
^^o"kkZ] rqe xkuk xkvksA** okD; fdl izdkj dk gS\
e
173.

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(A) fo/kkukFkZd (B) vkKkFkZd (C) bPNkFkZd (D) ladsrkFkZd
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ag
174. fdl fodYi esa xyr laf/k gS\
(A) rr~ + yhu = rYyhu (B) rr~ + fgr = rf)r
(C) r`"k + uk = r`"uk (D) ,d + ,d = ,dSd
175. ^^paæek^* dk i;kZ;okph ugha gS &
(A) fgeka’kq (B) lq/kka’kq (C) jkds’k (D) e;w[k
176. ^egkS"k/k^ 'kCn esa dkSulh laf/k gS\
(A) o`f) (B) xq.k (C) nh?kZ (D) ;.k

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177. buesa ls 'kq) okD; gS &
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(A) eSu a s rqEgkjh cgqr izrh{kk dhA (B) esjs dks nks fuca/k fy[kus gSaA

s
(C) ge jkr esa Hkkstu [kkrs gSAa (D) ckyd feBkbZ vkSj nw/k ihdj lks x;kA

g l a
ftl okD; esa nks ;k nks ls vf/kd lk/kkj.k okD; ;k iz/kku miokD; ;k lekukf/kdj.k miokD;]
a
178.
fdlh la;kstd 'kCn ls tqM+s gks]a mls dgrs gSa &
(A) lk/kkj.k okD; (B) feJ okD; (C) la;qDr okD; (D) laKk miokD;
179. ^^ddZ’k^* 'kCn dk foykse 'kCn gS &
(A) e/kqj (B) ldZl (C) fu"Bqj (D) dlwjokj
180. fdl 'kCn esa ^*fu^* milxZ ugha gS\
(A) fueXu (B) fu’py (C) fuokj.k (D) fu"ks/k

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181. ^*thrus dh bPNk^* dgykrh gS &

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(A) fyIlk (B) ftxh"kk (C) cqHkq{kk (D) ftthfo"kk

c. o182. ^^rM+kd&rM+kx^* 'kCn ;qXe dk lgh vFkZ gS &
s e m
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e183.
(A) tYnh&rkykc (B) nqcZy&rkykc (C) tYnh&rxM+k
la
(D) rkykc&tYnh

las buesa ls v’kq) 'kCn dkSulk gS\
ag
ag (A) egS’o;Z (B) pØik.kh (C) yko.; (D) dof;=h
184. ^^FkksM+h oLrq ls cM+k dke ugha gks ldrkA** dks n’kkZus okyh yksdksfDr gS &
(A) pwgksa dh ekSr] fcYyh dk [ksyA (B) pwgs dk cPpk fcy gh [kksnrk gSA
(C) pksV~Vh dqfr;k tysfc;ksa dh j[kokyhA (D) pwgksa ds pke ls dgha uxkM+s e<+s tkrs gSAa
185. ^^bdrhl^* 'kCn esa dkSulk lekl gS\
(A) cgqczhfg (B) f}xq (C) deZ/kkj; (D) }U}

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186. ^^’osr&Losn^* ;qXe 'kCnksa dk lgh vFkZ gS &
(A) lQ+n s &/kkxk (B) lQ+n s &dku (C) lQ+n s &ilhuk (D) lQ+ns &lHkk
187. fuEu esa ls fdl fodYi esa lHkh 'kCn ijLij i;kZ;okph ugha gS\a
(A) ek/ko] nkeksnj] eqdaqn (B) piyk] fof’k[k] fogx
(C) ujs’k] eghi] eghifr (D) vkfnR;] fnokdj] ÁHkkdj
188. v’kq) 'kCn gS &
(A) nqjkoLFkk (B) æohHkwr (C) uwiqj (D) vUR;k{kjh
189. ^^bZV
a dh ysuh] iRFkj dh nsuh^* yksdksfDr dk vFkZ gksrk gS &
(A) ftldh djuh mlh dks Qy feyrk gSA (B) le; chr tkus ij dke djukA
(C) nq"Vrk ds cnys vkSj vf/kd nq"VrkA (D) tSlk O;fDr oSlh vkoHkxrA
190. buesa ls v’kq) okD; dkSulk gS\
(A) ;s esjs gh gLrk{kj gSAa (B) og viuh /kqu esa tk jgk FkkA
(C) I;kl ds ekjs mldk izk.k fudy x;kA (D) mldh Hkqtk,¡ ?kqVuksa rd yEch gSAa
191. }a} lekl dk mnkgj.k gS &
(A) uhydaB (B) diM+&
s yÙks (C) f=Hkqou (D) egktu
192. ^*vH;kxr^* 'kCn esa dkSulk milxZ gS\
(A) vHkh (B) vH; (C) vfHk (D) v
193. ^^of.kXoxZ^* 'kCn esa laf/k gS &
(A) xq.k laf/k (B) v;kfn laf/k (C) O;atu laf/k (D) folxZ laf/k
194. buesa ls fdl fodYi esa ijLij foykse 'kCn ugha gS\a
(A) mRd"kZ&vid"kZ (B) mRFkku&iru (C) mn~/kr&fouhr (D) b"V&vHkh"V
195. mnwZ milxZ ls cuk 'kCn gS &
(A) v/kdPpk (B) vkSxqu (C) lqMkSy (D) ckdk;nk
196. buesa ls fdl fodYi esa ijLij foykse 'kCn ugha gS\a
(A) vuUr&lkUr (B) vFk&vkfn (C) vxzt&vuqt (D) vK&foK
197. fuEu esa ls 'kq) okD; gS &
(A) csVksa esa ;q) gks x;kA
(B) bl xhr dh nks&pkj yfM+;k¡ lquk nksA
(C) fVfÏ;ksa dh eaMyh lkjh Qly pV dj xbZA
(D) xksfy;ksa dh ckSNkj ds lkeus dksbZ fVd u ldkA
198. fdl fodYi ds lHkh 'kCn 'kq) gS\a
(A) uhjksx] ozrkUr (B) vR;qfDr] T;ksRLuk (C) nqO;Zlu] vuqx`g (D) }Un] le`)
199. laf/k foPNsn dh n`f"V ls lgh fodYi ugha gS &
(A) lu~ + p; = lap; (B) fde~ + pu = fdapu
(C) okd~ + e; = ok³~e; (D) "kV~ + eq[k = "k.eq[k
200. ^*yk?ko** 'kCn esa izR;; gS &
(A) v (B) o (C) vo~ (D) ?ko~

[Series-D] [EETYTEC-26 (English)] Page 20 of 24 [2001]
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co m .
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as a g
Hkkx&n
Hkk"kk ;ksX;rk % laLÑre~
171. ^n`’k~^ /kkrks% yksV~ydkjs e/;eiq#"k&f}opus :iefLr &
(A) i’;r (B) i’;r% (C) i’;re~ (D) i’;Fk%
172. ^bRFkEHkwry{k.ks^ lw=L;ksnkgj.ka orZrs &

m
(A) izk;s.k ;kfKd% (B) iq.;su n`"Vks gfj%

om . co
(C) n.Msu ;fr% (D) ukuk uk;kZ fu"Qyk yksd;k=k

.c e m
173. ^vUrjs.k^ vO;;L; ;ksxs foHkfDr% iz;qT;rs &
(A) r`rh;k
e m (B) f}rh;k (C) prqFkhZ (D) iapeh
l a s
174.
l a s
^nk* /kkrks% yV~ydkjs izFkeiq#"kL; f}opus :ie~ vfLr &
ag
ag
(A) nRFk% (B) nRFks (C) nÙk% (D) nRFk
175. oxkZ.kka izFkek&r`rh;&iapek% ;.k’p &
(A) vYiizk.kk% (B) Lofjrk% (C) foÑrk% (D) egkizk.kk%
176. v] ,] vks bfr o.kkZuka dk laKk\
(A) xq.k&laKk (B) loZuke&laKk (C) o`f)&laKk (D) vi`Dr&laKk
177. vk/kkjL; laKk Hkofr &
(A) lEcU/klaKk (B) viknkulaKk (C) dj.klaKk (D) vf/kdj.klaKk

m
dL; o.kZL; mPpkj.kLFkkua nUrks"BefLr\
co
178.

.
(A) rdkjL; (B) odkjL; (C) ydkjL; (D) edkjL;

s em
179. ^tVkfHkLrkil%* bR;fLeu~ okD;s r`rh;k&fo/kk;da lw=efLr\
(A) gsrkS (B) bRFkaHkwry{k.ks
g l a (C) ;sukXfodkj% (D) /kqzoeik;s
180. fyXn`"V~;k 'kq)okD;efLr &
a
(A) bne~ ee iqLrde~A (B) b;e~ ee iqLrde~A
(C) v;e~ ee iqLrd%A (D) bne~ ee iqLrdk%A
181. ^xoka Ñ".kk cgq{khjk^ bR;fLeu~ mnkgj.ks izo`Ùklw=efLr &
(A) "k"Bh gsrqiz;ksxs (B) dr`d Z eZ.kks% Ñfr (C) ;r’p fu/kkZj.ke~ (D) DrL; p orZekus
182. ^^jkK% iq#"k%^^ bR;= d% lEcU/k%\

m
(A) tU;tudHkko% (B) dk;Z&dkj.kHkko% (C) LoLokfeHkko% (D) tkfrO;fDrHkko%

m c. o
183. ^jek* 'kCnL; r`rh;kfoHkDrs% ,dopus :ia Hkofr &

. co (A) jek;k (B) jek;k%
e m
(C) jek;S (D) je;k

em
184. vp~ izR;kgkjs v;a o.kZ% u ifjx.;rs &
l a s
s
la 185. ^u`r~* /kkrks% y³~ydkjs e/;eiq#"kL; f}opus :ia Hkofr &
(A) _ (B) y`
a g (C) g (D) m

ag
(A) vu`R;sre~ (B) vu`R;e~ (C) vu`R;r (D) vu`R;re~
186. ^^l% ------------------------------------ ckfydka i`PNfrA^^ bR;fLeu~ fjDrLFkkus mi;qDr% 'kCn% d%\
bea
(A) (B) bes (C) b;e~ (D) beka
187. ^vUo;%^ bR;= milxZ% orZrs &
(A) vu~ (B) vuq (C) vUo (D) vu

m . c
c. o s e m
m
[Series-D] [EETYTEC-26 (English)] Page 21 of 24 [2001]
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Page 21 of 24

188. xk;d% bfr ins d% izR;;%\
(A) D;i~ (B) ;r~ (C) .oqy~ (D) .;r~
189. ^ijk + ft^ /kkrq;ksxs viknkulaKd% Hkofr &
(A) bZfIlr% (B) vlg~;ks·FkZ% (C) izh;ek.k% (D) mÙke.kZ%
190. Li’kZo.kkZuka la[;k Hkofr &
(A) 24 (B) 25 (C) 26 (D) 20
191. ^i†pxoe~^ bfr inL; leqfpra foxzgokD;a fde~\
(A) i†p xkoks ;L; l% re~ (B) i†p xoka lekgkj%
(C) i†pkuka xokuka lekgkj% (D) i†pkuka xoka lekgkj%
192. v/kLrus"kq ^^jksxeqDr%^^ bR;fLeu~ ins iz;qDrleklL; uke fde~\
(A) r`rh;k&rRiq#"k% (B) prqFkhZ&rRiq#"k% (C) iapeh&rRiq#"k% (D) lIreh&rRiq#"k%
193. ^LFkk^ /kkrks% yksV~ydkjs e/;eiq#"kcgqopus :ia Hkofr &
(A) fr"Br% (B) fr"BFk% (C) fr"BFk (D) fr"Br
194. ^LFkk* /kkrks% fof/kfyX-ydkjs e/;eiq#"ks cgqopus :ia Hkofr\

(A) fr"Bs;e~ (B) fr"Bso (C) fr"Bs;q% (D) fr"Bsr
195. ^vl~^ /kkrks% y³~ydkjs izFkeiq#"kSdopus :ia L;kr~ &
(A) vLrq (B) Hkfo";fr (C) vfLr (D) vklhr~
196. ^/kheku~^ bR;fLeu~ ins izÑfrizR;;kS Lr% &
(A) /kh + erqi~ (B) /kh + Drorq (C) /kh + 'kkup~ (D) /kh + 'kr`
197. ^vkRek^ bfr 'kCnL; fda fyXe~\
(A) iqfa yXe~ (B) L=hfyXe~ (C) mHk;fyXe~ (D) uiqaldfyXe~
198. fu"ks/kkFkZdL; ^vye~^ bfr inL; ;ksxs foHkfDrHkZofr &
(A) f}rh;k (B) prqFkhZ (C) r`rh;k (D) iapeh
199. ^^nsoS’o;Ze~^^ inL; lfU/kfoPNsn% fu.ksZ;% &
(A) nso + ,s’o;Ze~ (B) nsoh + ,’o;Ze~ (C) nso + ,’o;Ze~ (D) nsoh + ,s’o;Ze~
200. ^jke* 'kCnL; :ia ukfLr &
(A) jkeS% (B) jkes.k (C) jkekuke~ (D) jke;ks%
------------------------------------------------

[Series-D] [EETYTEC-26 (English)] Page 22 of 24 [2001]
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 22 of 24

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ag

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[Series-D] [EETYTEC-26 (English)] Page 23 of 24 [2001]
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jQ dk;Z ds fy, txg@Space for Rough Work

[Series-D] [EETYTEC-26 (English)] Page 24 of 24 [2001]
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 24 of 24