Karnataka 2nd PUC Model Question Paper 2025 for Chemistry

ACADEMIC YEAR

2025

Karnataka
Board
Model Paper

SUBJECT: CHEMISTRY-34 BLUE PRINT-1 CLASS: II PUC

Question Paper Part Question Type Number of Questions Marks

PART - A MCQ’s 15/15 15/15

PART - A Fill in the blanks 05/05 05/05

PART -B Short Answer (SA = 02 Marks) 03/05 06/10

PART - C Short Answer (SA = 03 Marks) Inorganic Chemistry 03/05 09/15

PART - C Short Answer (SA = 03 Marks) Physical Chemistry 02/04 06/12

PART- D Long Answer (LA = 05Marks) 04/06 20/30

PART - E Short Answer (SA = 03Marks) Numerical problems 03/06 09/18

Total 35/46 70/105

WEIGHTAGE

Objectives Number of Questions Marks Percentage

Remember 18 40 ≈ 40%

Understanding 13 32 ≈ 30%

Apply 06 12 ≈ 10%

Hots 09 21 ≈ 20%

Total 46 105 100%

II PU CHEMISTRY BLUE PRINT FOR MODEL PAPER -1 (24-25) Page 1

SUBJECT: CHEMISTRY (34) BLUE PRINT-1 CLASS: II PUC
LOTS (≈ 80%) HOTS (≈ 20%)
Chapter/

Number of
Content domain/ Remember (≈ 40%) Understand (≈ 30%) Apply (≈ 10%)

Marks
Unit/ Theme VSA SA SA LA VSA SA SA LA VSA SA SA LA VSA SA SA LA

hours
1M 2M 3M 5M 1M 2M 3M 5M 1M 2M 3M 5M 1M 2M 3M 5M

Physical Chemistry
1. Solutions 14 12 1 1 1NP 1 1 1NP

2. Electrochemistry 14 13 1 1 1 1NP 1NP

3. Chemical Kinetics 14 12 1 1 1 1NP 1NP

Inorganic Chemistry
4. The d & f - Block
12 10 1 1 1 1 1
Elements
5.
12 11 1 1 1 1 1
Coordination
Compounds
Organic Chemistry
6. Haloalkanes and
10 09 1 1 1 1
Haloarenes
7. Alcohols,
12 10 1 1 1 1 1
Phenols and
Ethers
8. Aldehydes,
14 12 1 1 1 1
Ketones and
Carboxylic Acids
9. Amines 08 07 1 1 1

10. Biomolecules 10 09 1 1 1 1

Total Teaching 9 4 12 15 4 6 12 10 3 09 4 12 5
Hours & Marks 120 105

Total Questions 46 09 02 04 03 04 03 04 02 03 00 03 00 04 00 04 01

1. Weightage = Total marks/Number of teaching hours = 105/120 = 0.875 (i.e., 0.875marks for each hour)
2. Choice = out of 46 Questions only 35 Questions are to be answered.
Note: NP = Numerical Problems; VSA = Very Short Answer (MCQ’s and Fill in the Blanks); SA= Short Answer; LA = Long Answer

II PU CHEMISTRY BLUE PRINT FOR MODEL PAPER -1 (24-25) Page 2

GENERAL GUIDE LINES:
1. Questions should not be vague and ambiguous. Answers or concept should be available in the prescribed NCERT text book
or based on the contents in the prescribed text book.
2. Intermixing of questions of different units is not allowed. 5 marks question may be framed as (3+2) as far as possible.
3. Avoid questions from:
a. Drawings involving 3D diagrams
b. The boxed materials with deep yellow bar in the text book are to bring additional life to the topic and are non-evaluative.
4. Questions on numerical data given in the form of appendix, numbered tables containing experimental data and life history of
scientists given in the chapters should be avoided.
5. Frame the questions in such a way to strictly avoid ½ mark evaluation (or avoid value points for ½ marks.).
6. While framing Physical chemistry units (Unit 1, 2 & 3) questions for Part -A, B and C should not be Numerical problems. The
Numerical Problems of these Units should be framed only in Part-E. This division is done to make for the students to learn and
attempt to solve the Numerical Problems.
7. Application and HOTS (Higher Order Thinking Skills) questions can be selected from any chapter without changing the weightage of the
chapter.

II PU CHEMISTRY BLUE PRINT FOR MODEL PAPER -1 (24-25) Page 3

GOVERNMENT OF KARNATAKA
KARNATAKA SCHOOL EXAMINATION & ASSESSMENT BOARD
MODEL QUESTION PAPER – 1
Class: II Year PUC Academic Year: 2024-25
Subject: Chemistry (34) Maximum Marks: 70
Time: 3.00 Hours No. of Questions: 46
Instructions
1. Question paper has FIVE parts. All parts are compulsory.
2. a. Part-A carries 20 marks. Each question carries 1 mark.
b. Part-B carries 06 marks. Each question carries 2 marks.
c. Part-C carries 15 marks. Each question carries 3 marks.
d. Part-D carries 20marks. Each question carries 5 marks.
e. Part-E carries 09 marks. Each question carries 3 marks.
3. In Part-A questions, first attempted answer will be considered for awarding marks.
4. Write balanced chemical equations and draw neat labeled diagrams and graphs wherever necessary.
5. Direct answers to the numerical problems without detailed steps and specific unit for final answer will
not carry any marks.
6. Use log tables and simple calculator if necessary (use of scientific calculator is not allowed).
7. For a question having circuit diagram/figure/ graph/ diagram, alternate questions are given at the end of question
paper in a separate section for visually challenged students.
PART-A
I. Select the correct option from the given choices. 15 ×1 = 15
1. The role of CO2 in Kolbe’s reaction is
a) acts as catalyst b) act as nucleophile
c) act as weak electrophile d) act as strong electrophile.
2. In DNA, the linkage between different nitrogenous bases is
a) phosphate linkage b) glycosidic linkage
c) peptide linkage d) hydrogen bonding.
3. The complex PtCl2.4NH3Br2 is treated with excess of AgNO3 solution, two mole of AgBr is
precipitated. The primary and secondary valence of this complex is
a) 6 and 1 b) 6 and 2
c) 4 and 6 d) 3 and 6
4. Statement I: Enantiomers are non-superimposable mirror images on each other.
Statement II: A racemic mixture shows zero optical rotation.
Identify the correct statement
a) Both statement I and II are correct
b) Both statement I and II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
d) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.
5. The most stable manganese compound is
a) Mn2O7 b) MnF4 c) MnO2 d) MnSO4

II PU CHEMISTRY (34) MODEL PAPER 24-25 Page1

6. Among the following alkyl benzenes which one will not give the benzoic acid on oxidation with
acidic KMnO4 solution.

a) b)

c) d)

7. An ambidentate ligand is
a) Cl– b) CN–
c) OH– c) NO +2
8. The Eo of Fe2+/Fe, Zn2+/Zn and Sn2+/Sn are –0.44 V, –0.76 V and –0.14 V respectively. Which
metal/s is/are act as sacrificial electrode to protect iron from rusting?
a) Both Zn and Sn b) Zn only
c) Sn Only d) neither Zn nor Sn.
9. The chemical name of phosgene is
a) chromyl chloride b) triphenylphosphine
c) phosphorusoxychloride d) carbonyl chloride.
10. In a solution containing non-volatile solute, the mole fraction of solvent is 0.9. The relative lowering
of vapour pressure is
a) 1 b) 0.1
c) 0.9 d) 1.1
11. All natural and artificial radioactive decay of unstable nuclei take place by
a) zero order kinetics b) half order kinetics
c) first order kinetics d) second order kinetics
12. Match the following
List-I List-II
A) Glucocorticoids i) Responsible for development of secondary female characteristics.
B) Mineralocorticoids ii) Responsible for preparing the uterus for implantation of fertilised egg
C) Testosterone iii) Control carbohydrates metabolism
D) Estradiol iv) Responsible for development of secondary male characteristics.
v) Control level of excretion of water and salt by kidney.
a) A-(iv), B- (v), C-(ii), D-(i) b) A-(iii), B-(v), C-(iv), D-(i)
c) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(v), D-(iv) d) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
13. p-Aminoazobenzene is prepared from benzenediazonium chloride and aniline in
a) acidic medium b) basic medium
c) neutral medium d) both acidic and basic medium.

II PU CHEMISTRY (34) MODEL PAPER 24-25 Page2

14. The chemicals used to convert commercial alcohol into denatured alcohol are
a) CuSO4 and Pyrolidine b) Cu2S and Pyrolidine
c) CuSO4 and Pyridine d) Cu2S and Pyridine.
15. During osmosis, the solvent molecules are moving from
a) Hypotonic solution to hypertonic solution
b) Hypertonic solution to hypotonic solution
c) Higher concentrated solution to lower concentrated solution
d) Higher osmotic pressure solution to lower osmotic pressure solution.
II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word from those given in the brackets:
(aldehydes, phenol, fluorobenzene, decreases, greater, benzene) 5×1= 05
16. The melting point of interstitial compound is ________ than the pure metal.
17. Benzenediazonium fluoroborate on heating decomposes to give_________
18. The simplest hydroxy derivative of benzene is _________
19. When a non-volatile solute is added to the pure solvent, the freezing point of solvent______
20. Ozonolysis of alkenes followed by reaction with zinc dust and water gives ____
PART-B
III. Answer ANY THREE of the following. Each question carries two marks. 3 × 2 = 06
21. Explain Swartz reaction with an example.
22. Write the reactions show that glucose contains a) five hydroxyl groups b) aldehyde group.
23. Define half-life period of a reaction. Write the relationship between half-life period and initial
concentration of zero order reaction.
24. Write the reactions involved in preparation of phenol from cumene.
25. Iron (III) catalyses the reaction between iodide and persulphate ions in the reaction:
2I− + S2O82− ⎯⎯
→ I2 + 2SO42− .
Explain the catalytic action of catalyst iron (III) by using chemical reactions.
PART-C
IV. Answer ANY THREE of the following. Each question carries three marks. 3 × 3 = 09
26. Study of actinoids elements is more difficult? Give any three reasons.
27. For the complex, Mercury (I) tetrathiocyanato-S-cobaltate (III)
a) What is coordination number of Co.
b) Identify the ligand present in this complex.
c) Does ionization isomer for the following compound exist?
28. A student of 2nd PU performs two trails of reactions between KI and KMnO4. In first trail student
add small amount of acid to reaction mixture and in second trail student forgot to add acid to reaction
mixture. Then student observed that different colour was obtained in first and second trail. Give
reason for above observation. Write the possible chemical reactions to both the trails.
29. Define Crystal field splitting. Sketch the energy level diagram for the crystal field splitting of d-
orbital in a tetrahedral complex.
30. What is the significance of synergic effect in metal carbonyls? How many bridged and non-bridged
CO (carbonyl) ligands are present in octacarbonyldicobalt (0) complex compound?

II PU CHEMISTRY (34) MODEL PAPER 24-25 Page3

V. Answer ANY TWO of the following. Each question carries three marks. 2 × 3 = 06
31. Direct measurement of conductivity of ionic solutions by Wheatstone bridge is not possible. Give
reasons. Suggest a remedy to resolve it.
32. For the reaction R(s) → P(g), the potential energy diagram is given below:

60

PE (KJ)
R
20

P
5

Time
By observing the above diagram, answer the following.
a) What is the value of activation energy of the reaction?
b) What is the value of ΔH of the reaction?
c) Draw potential energy diagram for the reaction P(g) → R(s).
33. State Faraday’s II law of electrolysis. Mention any two factors which determines the product of
electrolysis.
34. Name the two components present in binary solution. Which component determines the physical
state of binary solution?
PART-D
VI. Answer ANY FOUR of the following. Each question carries five marks. 4 × 5 = 20
35. a) How do you distinguish between primary, secondary and tertiary amines by using Hinsberg’s
reagent with chemical equations involved?
b) Give the preparation of p-hydroxyazobenzene. (3+2)
36. a) Between methanal and ethanal, which would undergo aldol condensation? Write the
chemical reaction involved in it.
b) Although phenoxide ion has more number of resonating structures than carboxylate ion,
carboxylic acid is a stronger acid than phenol. Why? (3+2)
37. a) What is peptide bond? Give an example for dipeptide.
b) What are oxidoreductase enzymes? Name the enzyme that catalyses hydrolysis of
maltose into glucose
c) Give any one main natural source of Vitamin K? (2+2+1)
38. a) Complete the following equation:
H CH3
i) HBr

H H

Na
ii) dry ether
Cl

iii) i.NaOH, 623K, 300 atm
+
ii. H

II PU CHEMISTRY (34) MODEL PAPER 24-25 Page4

b) Explain Saytzeff rule with an example. (3+2)
39. a) Give the chemical equation for the Conversion of propanenitriles into corresponding ketones by
using phenyl magnesium bromide. Write the IUPAC name of the product.
b) Explain Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky (HVZ) reaction with an example. (3+2)
40. a) Write the reaction involved in the mechanism of acid catalyzed dehydration of alcohol
to alkene.
b) Explain the preparation of anisole by Williamson synthesis. (3+2)
PART–E
(NUMERICAL PROBLEMS)
VII. Answer ANY THREE of the following. Each question carries three marks. 3 × 3 = 09
41. Show that in a first order reaction, time required for completion of 99.9% is 10 times of half-life
(t1/2) of the reaction.
42. A 5% solution (w/w) of cane sugar (C12H22O11) in water has freezing point of 271 K. calculate the
freezing point depression constant. Given freezing point of pure water is 273.15 K.
43. The molar conductivity of 0.025 mol L–1 methanoic acid is 46.1 S cm2 mol–1. Calculate its degree
of dissociation. Given  o(H+ ) = 349.6 S cm 2 mol −1 and  o(HCOO− ) = 54.6 S cm 2 mol−1 .

44. Henry’s law constant for the molality of methane in benzene at 298 K is 4.27 × 105 mm Hg.
Calculate the mole fraction of methane in benzene at 298 K under 760 mm Hg.
45. Two electrolytic cells A and B containing solutions of AgNO3 and CuSO4 respectively are
connected in series. A steady current of 1.5 amperes was passed through them until 1.45 g of silver
is deposited at the cathode of cell A. How long did the current flow and What mass of copper was
deposited? [Atomic mass of copper = 63.5 and silver = 108].
(1.28  103 )K
46. The rate constant of a reaction is given by: log k = 13.25 − . Calculate the activation
T
energy and pre-exponential factor (A).

PART – F
(For visually challenged students only)
32. Give any three factors which affect a rate of reaction. 3

II PU CHEMISTRY (34) MODEL PAPER 24-25 Page5

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