Karnataka 2nd PUC Model Question Paper 2026 for Biology

SAMPLE PAPER

Karnataka
Board
Model Paper

GOVERNMENT OF KARNATAKA
KARNATAKA SCHOOL EXAMINATION AND ASSESSMENT BOARD
6TH CROSS, MALLESHWARAM, BENGALURU – 560 003
2025 -26 II PU MODEL QUESTION PAPER –1
SUBJECT: BIOLOGY (36) MAXIMUM MARKS: 70
TIME: 03 HOURS NUMBER OF QUESTIONS: 44
General Instruction:
 This Question paper consists of four parts A, B, C, D and E
 Part – A consists of I and II and Part D consists of V and VI
 All the parts are compulsory
 The answers for Part – A, written in the first two pages of the answer
booklet are only considered for evaluation
 Part – E consists of questions for visually challenged students only

PART – A
I. Select the correct alternative from the choices given below: 15 x 1 = 15
1. Statement I: Pollination does not guarantee the transfer of right type of pollen
Statement II: Compatible pollen – pistil interaction guarantee double
fertilization
a) Both statements I and statement II are correct
b) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
2. The secondary oocyte formation from primary oocyte occurs in which of the
follicle?
a) Primary b) Secondary
c) Tertiary d) Graafian
3. Progenies with AB and O blood groups are not possible from which of the
following mating parents?

2025-26 II PU BIOLOGY (36) MODEL QUESTION PAPER -1 FROM KSEAB Page 1 of 8

a) O x AB b) AB x B c) AB x AB d) AB x A
4. Another chemical name for the nitrogenous base thymine is
a) 2-Methyl uracil b) 3- Methyl uracil
c) 4-Methyl uracil d) 5- Methyl uracil
5. Select the correct match:
Australian marsupials Placental mammals
a) Spotted cuscus Flying squirrel
b) Spotted cuscus Bobcat
c) Spotted cuscus Anteater
d) Spotted cuscus Lemur
6. Which of these ancient men protected their body with hide and buried their
dead?
a) Homo habilis b) Neanderthal
c) Dryopithecus d) Homo erectus
7. Human Immuno Deficiency virus replicates in
a) B - cells b) NK– cells
c) Helper T - cells d) PMNL
8. The drug which is depressant and slowdown body function is
a) Smack b) Crack
c) Hashish d) Charas
9. Saccharomyces cerevisiae commonly called brewer’s yeast is used for
fermenting malted
a) Pulses b) Cereals c) Fruits d) Vegetables
10. In the year 1963, the two enzymes responsible for restricting the growth of
bacteriophage in E. coli were isolated. One of them cut DNA and the other
added the group
a) Methyl b) Ethyl c) Phosphate d) Hydroxyl
11. Which of the following is the correct representation of primer annealing step in
PCR?

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12. Given below are steps in the gene therapy of a patient with Adenosine
deaminase (ADA) deficiency
I. Lymphocytes are grown in a culture outside the human body
II. Lymphocytes are altered with a functional ADA gene
III. Lymphocytes are collected from the blood of the patients
IV. The genetically modified lymphocytes are infused back into the patient
Which of the following show the correct order that those steps must occur?
a) II – I – III – IV b) III – IV – II – I
c) III – I – II – IV d) IV – III – I – II
13. The organisms that reproduce only once in their life time
a) Oysters b) Pelagic fish
c) Salmon fish d) Hippocampus
14. The decomposers especially abundant in the bottom of the pond are
a) Only fungi b) Only bacteria
c) Only fungi and bacteria d) Flagellates, fungi, bacteria
15. The IUCN Red list (2004) documented the extinction of species in the last 500
years include
a) 847 b) 784 c) 874 d) 478
II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word/Words from those given
below: 5x1=5
(Amoebiasis, richness, Nostoc, ovulation, colostrum, diversity)
16. The initial few days of milk produced after parturition is -----------

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17. Oral pills as contraceptive effectively function by inhibiting ------------- .
18. Symptoms of constipation, abdominal pain and cramps associated with disease
----------.
19. Cyanobacteria is an autotrophic microbe widely distsributed in aquatic and
terrestrial habitats can fix atmospheric nitrogen is -----------.
20. Alexander Van Humboldt observed that within a region, species ------------
increased with increasing explored area but up to certain limit.

PART - B
III. Answer any FIVE of the following questions in 3 – 5 sentences wherever
applicable: 5 x 2 = 10
21. Draw a labeled diagram of mature 2 celled pollen grain
22. Mention any four assisted reproductive technique that can be advised to
couples with infertility problems.
23. Recombinants obtained in both Mendelian and Morgan experiment. Yet, the
processes involved are different comment.
24. Name the methodologies used in Human genome sequencing.
25. Name the evolution of any two plant forms through geological periods from
tracheophyte ancestors.
26. Describe briefly the primary treatment of sewage
27. Differentiate between ex-situ and in-situ conservation.

PART - C
IV. Answer any FIVE of the following questions in 40 – 80 words each wherever
applicable: 5 x 3 = 15
28. Draw a neat labeled diagram of monocot embryo.
29. What is menstrual cycle? Mention one pituitary and one ovarian hormone that
play a role in menstrual cycle.
30. Write any three principles to be followed by people to be free from sexually
transmitted infections.

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31. Draw a labeled diagram of Stanley Miller’s experiment in relation to chemical
origin of life
32. Name the causative organism of the following diseases;
a) Filariasis b) Ringworm c) Malaria
33. Mention the uses of following bioactive agents;
a) Streptokinase b) Cyclosporin-A c) Statins
34. Describe the steps of decomposition that operate simultaneously on the
detritus.

PART – D
V. Answer any FOUR of the following questions in about 200 – 250 words each
wherever applicable: 4 x 5 = 20
35. Draw a labeled diagrammatic sectional view of the human male reproductive
system and label the given parts; Testes, Seminal vesicles, Glans penis,
Epididymis, Urethra.
36. Represent schematically the results of two gene interaction by taking seed
shape and seed colour in pea plant.
37. DNA is genetic material in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes, yet the packaging
process in their cells is not same. Explain.
38. a) Differentiate innate immunity and acquired immunity 2
b) Mention the cells involved in accomplishing the acquired immunity? 1
c) Refer to the below given diagram and answer the questions;

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i) Name the molecules trapped in the lymph nodes responsible for the
activation of lymphocytes that bind to the ‘A’ and ‘B’ site 1
ii) What does H2 L2, in an antibody represent? 1
39. a) Explain the process of preparation of competent host for transformation with
recombinant DNA.
b) Refer to the given diagram of pBR322 and answer the question that follows

a) Mention the restriction enzymes that can be used for insertional inactivation
of antibiotic resistant genes 2
b) How many cloning sites are present in the given pBR322? 1
40. Genetically modified plants have been developed through core techniques of
biotechnology. How are these genetically modified plants useful to humans
41. a) Write an equation to calculate the population density at the time’t’. 1
b) Population density fluctuates due to change in four basic processes. Mention
and define these four basic processes. 4

VI. Answer any ONE of the following questions in about 200 –250 words each
wherever applicable: 1x 5 = 5
42. a) Complete the given tabular column with respect to male and female
gametophyte of angiosperms for the mentioned character 4
Character Mature Male Mature Female
gametophyte gametophyte
i) Number of cells present in
ii) Number of gametes present in
iii) Type of cell division involved in

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the development of
iv) Ploidy of the cells of
b) Which advantage offered by seeds help angiosperms to adapt to changing
environmental conditions? 1
43. Mendelian disorders may be autosomal or sex-linked, dominant or recessive,
homozygous or heterozygous. Pedigree symbols are used to analyze these
disorders in human population. Mention the genotypes for the following
pedigree symbols.

a) Autosomal dominant –

b) Autosomal recessive –

c) Sex – linked dominant –

d) Sex – linked recessive –

44. Justify the below given statement:
a) “RNA polymerase cannot transcribe a gene by itself”. 2
b) “Transcription and translation are separated by site and not coupled in
eukaryotes”. 2
c) Which RNA polymerase enzyme involved in the transcription of 5s rRNA.
1
PART – E
(For Visually Challenged Students Only)
11. The chemical nature of the primer used in the polymerase chain reaction 1
a) Ribonucleotides b) deoxyribonulceosides
c) Ribonucleosides d) deoxyribonucleotides
32. Enlist the steps of recombinant DNA technology. 3
38. c) Name the cells involved in humoral and cell-mediated immune response
2

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43. a) Mention the salient features of Down’s syndrome 2
b) Write the karyotype of Down’s syndrome 2
c) What is the cause of Down’s syndrome? 1

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