SLIET SET 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key B.E. Lateral Entry SET-III Group D

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SLIET SET 2025
Question Paper · B.E.
Lateral Entry SET-III
Group D
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SLIET SET 2025 Question Paper B.E. Lateral Entry SET-III Group D
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SLIET SET 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key B.E. Lateral Entry SET-III Group D

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PaperCode: 2004 Paper Name: 2004-B.E. (LATERAL ENTRY) (SET III)-GROUP D Set Name: Original

Q-1 Aditya-L1 is dedicated mission of ISRO to study ------.

A Moon B Mars

C Jupiter D Sun
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Q-2 The Indus water treaty which has recently been suspended was between India and ---------.

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A China

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C Bangladesh
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Q-3 Cellular jail is located in --------.

A Goa B Shaheed dweep

C Pune D Sri Vijaya Puram

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Q-4
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The ratio of Sun’s distance from earth to the diameter of Sun is approximately ---------.

100
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A B
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C 108 D 112

Q-5 As per the latest data released by the IMF World Economic Outlook, position of India among World largest economies is
expected to be at ------------ in May/June 2025.

A 4th B 5th

C 6th D 3rd

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What is the missing number in sequence 4,8,14,22,32,--------?
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Q-6

A
as 42 B 44
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C 46 D 48

Q-7 Choose the correct passive form of the sentence given below:
Had the police arrested the burglar.

A Had the burglar been arrested by the B Have the burglar been arrested by the police.
police.

C The burglar has been arrested by the police.

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D Had the burglar was arrested by the police.
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I can’t find my _____ bag. For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit gl
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Q-8
A lose loosing
B Question Paper with Answer Key B.E. Lateral Entry SET-III Group D
SLIET SET 2025
C lost D left

Q-9 Identify the word which is similar in the meaning to the phrase (in inverted commas) of the sentence:
When she heard the news, she was “like a dog with two tails”.

A very greedy B very enthusiastic

C very morose D very happy

Q-10 Let's wait until it _______ raining.

A stops B stopped

C stopping D stop

Q-11 Which element has the largest atomic radius?

A Li B Na

C F D I

Q-12

A reduction B oxidation

C Loss of electron D no change

Q-13 The correct order of orbitals in which electrons are filled is?

A 3d, 4s, 4p, 4d B 4s, 3d, 4p, 5s

C 5s, 4p, 3d, 4d D 3d, 4p, 4s, 4d

Q-14 Which of the following is incorrect about ‘s’ orbitals?

A They are spherical in shape B They are found in all principal energy levels

C They can only hold one electron D None of these

Q-15 Which pair of metals has the same electronic configuration

A Cr³⁺, Fe³⁺ B Mn²⁺, Fe³⁺

C V³⁺, Cr³⁺ D Mn²⁺, Ni²⁺

Q-16 The hybridisation of S in SF₆ molecule is
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SLIET SET 2025
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C
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Q-17 Among the following compounds which one is most ionic?

A BeS B BCl₃

C MgCl₂ D Al₂O₃

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Which element has the highest first ionization energy?
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A O
. c B N
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C C D B

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Q-19 The chemical formula of ammonium phosphate is

A (NH₄)PO₄ B (NH₄)₂PO₄

C (NH₄)₃PO₄ D None of these

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Arrange the following in increasing order of their bond order He₂, O₂ , N₂ and NO

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Q-20

A He₂˂O₂ ˂N₂˂ NO B He₂˃O₂˃N₂ ˃NO

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C He₂˂N₂˂ NO ˂O₂

l as D He₂˂O₂˂NO ˂N₂

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Q-21 Which of the following is scalar physical quantity?

A Velocity B Acceleration

C Speed D Momentum

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Q-22 Newton’s first law of motion is also known as:

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A Law of inertia B Law of acceleration

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Law of action-reaction Law of gravitation
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C D

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a Q-23 If m is mass of the displaced object, x is displacement and k is spring constant, then the restoring force (F) in SHM
(Simple harmonic motion) is given by:

A F = kx B F = -kx

C F = ma D F = mv

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Q-24 The distance between two consecutive crests or troughs in a transverse wave is called

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A Amplitude

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B Frequency
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C Time period
s D Wavelength
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SLIET SET 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key B.E. Lateral Entry SET-III Group D

Q-25 The ability of material to return to its original state after deformation is called:

A Plasticity B Elasticity

C Ductility D Malleability

Q-26 Bernoulli’s principle is based on the conservation of...

A Mass B Momentum

C Charge D Energy

Q-27 The majority charge carriers in p-type semiconductor are....

A Electrons B Holes

C Protons D Positrons

Q-28 The process of adding impurities to a semiconductor is called

A Diffusion B Ionization

C Doping D Recombination

Q-29 Which quantum number is used to find energy of electron in an energy level

A Principle quantum number (n) B Azimuthal quantum number (l)

C Magnetic quantum number (m) D Spin quantum number (s)

Q-30 Which of the following is not emitted during a radioactive decay?

A Alpha particle B Gamma rays

C Beta particle D Neutron

Q-31 How many different ways can a team of five people be formed from a total of ten people so that two specific people are
included in each team ?

A 56 B 55

C 57 D 58

Q-32

A B

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D Question Paper with Answer Key B.E. Lateral Entry SET-III Group D
SLIET SET 2025
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Q-33

A B

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C D

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Q-34
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A 2,4 B 4,1

C 4,2 D 2,2

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Q-35

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A B

C D

Q-36 If the mean of certain set of data is 25 and variance is 16, then the coefficient of variance is
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A 15 B 16
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17 18
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C D

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A a=4,b=1 B a=1,b=4

C a=-4,b=1 D a=4,b=-4

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SLIET SET 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key B.E. Lateral Entry SET-III Group D
Q-38

A 6/5 B 5/6

C (-5)/6 D (-6)/5

Q-39

A B

C D

Q-40 If a line has direction ratios 2,-1,-2, determine its direction cosines

A B

C D

Q-41 Poisson’s ratio is defined as the ratio of

A Axial stress to lateral strain B Lateral strain to axial strain

C Axial strain to lateral strain D Lateral stress to axial stress

Q-42 A mild steel specimen is under uniaxial tensile stress. Young modulus and yield stress for mild steel are 2 x 10⁵ MPa
and 250 MPa, respectively. The maximum amount of strain energy per unit volume that can be stored in this specimen
without a permanent set is

A 0.156 N-mm/mm³ B 156 N-mm/mm³

C 1.56 N-mm/mm³ D 15.6 N-mm/mm³

Q-43 For a simple supported beam on two end supports, the bending moment is the maximum

A Always at the mid-span B Where there is no shear force

C Usually on the supports D Where the deflection is maximum

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Q-44 In a composite section under axial loading, the deformation

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A Same for all materials B Zero

C Different for each material D Infinite

Q-45 A prismatic bar of uniform cross-section is subjected to axial load. The stress is

A Uniform throughout the section B Varying along the length

C Zero at the center D Maximum at the ends
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Q-46
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A material is called isotropic if
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It has different properties in all directions
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B It has the same properties in all
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It has no elasticity D
directions

It has no plasticity

Q-47 A steel bar 2 m long, 20 mm wide and 15 mm thick is subjected to a tensile load of 30 kN. If Poisson’s ratio is 0.25 and
young’s modulus is 200 GPa, an increase in volume will be

A 160 mm³ B 150 mm³

C 140 mm³ D
m
130 mm³

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A uniformly distributed load (UDL) has
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Q-48

A Point load at the center B Load distributed over the entire span

C Load acting at a single point D Zero reaction

Q-49 Shear force at the midpoint of a simply supported beam under a UDL is

A Maximum B Minimum

C Zero D Depends on beam length
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s e Deflection in a simply supported beam under UDL is maximum at
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Q-50

gA Support B End a
a C Anywhere D Center

Q-51 If an element of a stressed body is in a state of pure shear with a magnitude of 96 N/mm², the magnitude of
maximum principal stress at that location is

A 125 N/mm² B 76 N/mm²

C 114 N/mm²
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D 96 N/mm²
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Q-52 The neutral axis of a beam is the axis where SLIET SET 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key B.E. Lateral Entry SET-III Group D

A Maximum stress occurs B Minimum stress occurs

C Zero stress occurs D Shear stress is maximum

Q-53 A singly reinforced beam is reinforced in

A Tension zone only B Compression zone only

C Both tension and compression zones D None of the above

Q-54 The purpose of lateral ties in a column is to

A Provide confinement to the core concrete B Resist bending

C Increase deflection D Reduce load carrying capacity

Q-55 Which type of footing is used for heavy column loads?

A Isolated footing B Combined footing

C Raft footing D Strap footing

Q-56 Correction due to sag in tape is always

A Added B Subtracted

C Ignored D None of the above

Q-57 The most accurate method of linear measurement is

A Pacing B Chain surveying

C Tacheometry D Electronic distance measurement (EDM)

Q-58 The instrument used for setting out right angles in chain surveying is

A Dumpy level B Optical square

C Theodolite D Plane table

Q-59 In a surveyor’s compass, the readings are taken in:

A Whole circle bearing B Quadrantal bearing

C None of these D Both WCB and QB

Q-60 Local attraction in compass surveying occurs due to:

A Human error B Instrumental defects
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SLIET SET 2025
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a
A benchmark is used for
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Q-61
A Measuring distances B Establishing reference elevation

C Determining angles D None of these

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Q-62 The rise and fall method in leveling is used to

A Calculate elevations
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B Measure angles
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C Find distances
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Q-63 ag
A negative declination means that the magnetic meridian is towards

A East of the true meridian B West of the true meridian

C North of the true meridian D South of the true meridian

Q-64 Which part of a theodolite helps in focusing the cross-hairs?

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A Telescope B Vertical clamp

C Diaphragm D Eyepiece

s em Correct Answer : D

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Q-65 ag
Swinging the telescope in a theodolite means rotating it

A Vertically B Horizontally

C Both horizontally and vertically D None of these

Q-66 Which of the following is NOT a classification of roads as per IRC?

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A Expressways B National Highways

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C Regional Highways D Village Roads

m s e Correct Answer : C

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a Q-67

A
The three main elements of a traffic system are

Vehicles, Roads, Environment B Roads, Vehicles, Traffic Control Devices

C Roads, Drivers, Vehicles D Roads, Traffic Signs, Signals

Q-68 Which traffic study is conducted to determine the number of vehicles passing a point?

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A Spot speed study B Traffic volume study
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C Origin-destination study
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PCU stands for SLIET SET 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key B.E. Lateral Entry SET-III Group D
Q-69

A Passenger Car Unit B Public Car Unit

C Parking Capacity Unit D Peak Congestion Unit

Q-70 The penetration test on bitumen determines its

A Softening point B Hardness

C Ductility D Viscosity

Q-71 CBR test is used to evaluate

A Traffic Volume B Road Maintenance Needs

C Strength of Subgrade Soil D Speed of Vehicles

Q-72 While designing a hill road with a ruling gradient of 6 %, if a sharp horizontal curve of 50 m radius is encountered; the
compensated gradient at the curve as per the Indian Roads Congress specifications should be

A 5.5 B 4.5

C 5.0 D 6.0

Q-73 The standard gauge in Indian Railways is

A 1.676 m B 1.000 m

C 0.610 m D 1.435 m

Q-74 The major factor affecting pavement design is

A Wind speed B Temperature

C Traffic load D Rainfall

Q-75 Expansion joints are provided in

A Flexible pavements B Rigid pavements

C Gravel roads D None of these

Q-76 Which type of foundation is suitable for black cotton soil?

A Raft foundation B Well foundation

C Isolated footing D Pile foundation

Q-77 The thickness of mortar in brick masonry should be
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A
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SLIET SET 2025
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C
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Q-78 Which bond is the strongest in brick masonry?

A English bond B Flemish bond

C Stretcher bond D Header bond

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The process of leveling the surface before laying flooring is called
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A Compacting
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C Grouting D Tamping

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Q-80 The process of compacting concrete is done to

A Remove air voids B Increase setting time

C Reduce hydration D Increase weight

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The ultimate load capacity of a 10 m long concrete pile of square cross-section 500 mm x 500 mm driven into a

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Q-81
homogeneous clay layer having an undrained cohesion value of 40 kPa is 700 kN. If the cross-section of the pile is

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reduced to 250 mm x 250 mm and the length of the pile is increased to 20 m, the ultimate load capacity will be
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A 722.5 kN
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C 1400 kN
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Q-82 What is the ideal water-cement ratio for concrete?

A 0.20 B 0.40

C 0.80 D 1.00

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Q-83
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The shear strength of soil depends on

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A
s e Cohesion B
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Angle of internal friction

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C
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Q-84 Permeability of soil is measured using

A Permeameter B Oedometer

C Pycnometer D None of these

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Q-85 The two criteria for the determination of allowable bearing capacity of a foundation are

A Bond failure and shear failure
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C Settlement and shear failure Compression failure and tensile failure
D Question Paper with Answer Key B.E. Lateral Entry SET-III Group D
SLIET SET 2025

Q-86 Compressibility of a fluid is defined as

A Change in density with pressure B Change in volume with temperature

C Ratio of mass to volume D Resistance to flow

Q-87 Water flows through a 100 mm diameter pipe with a velocity of 0.015 m/sec. If the kinematic viscosity of water is 1.13
x 10⁻⁶ m²/sec, the friction factor of the pipe material is

A 0.032 B 0.048

C 0.015 D 0.027

Q-88 Two samples of water A and B have pH values of 4.4 and 6.4 respectively. Then how many times sample A is more
acidic than sample B?

A 100 B 200

C 50 D 150

Q-89 In a BOD test, 5 ml of waste is added to 295 ml of aerated pure water. Initial dissolved oxygen (DO) content of the
diluted sample is 7.8 mg/l. After 5 days of incubation at 20°C, the DO content of the sample is reduced to 4.4 mg/l.
The BOD of the waste water is

A 204 B 196

C 200 D 190

Q-90 Pascal’s Law states that

A Pressure increases with depth in a fluid B A change in pressure applied to an
enclosed fluid is transmitted
undiminished throughout the fluid

C The pressure at any point in a fluid is always D None of these
the same

Q-91 A simple manometer is used to measure

A Absolute pressure B Gauge pressure

C Differential pressure D Atmospheric pressure

Q-92 An imaginary curve drawn through a flowing fluid in such a way that the tangent to it at any point gives the direction of
flow at that point is

A Streakline B Streamline

C Pathline D Streamtube
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SETinfinite
2025 Question
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B.E. Lateral Entry SET-III Group D

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Q-93 For a steady incompressible laminar flow between stationary plates, the shear stress variation is

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A Liner with zero value at the centre B Quadratic with zero value at the centre

C Liner with zero value at the plates D Quadratic with zero value at the plates

Q-94 For laminar flow, the Reynolds number should be

A Less than 2000 B Between 2000 and 4000

C More than 4000 D Zero
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Q-95 Water hammer occurs due to
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A
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Sudden opening of a valve
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B Sudden closure of a valve
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C
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Slow opening of a valve D Friction loss in pipes

Q-96 Pitot tube is used to measure

A Static pressure B Total pressure

C Velocity of fluid D Flow rate

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Q-97 An agricultural land of 437 ha is to be irrigated for a particular crop. The base period of the crop is 90 days and the

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total depth of water required by the crop is 105 cm. If rainfall of 15 cm occurs during the base period, the duty of

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irrigation water is

A 864 ha/cumec B 486 ha/cumec

C 52 ha/cumec D 556 ha/cumec

Q-98 The direct runoff hydrograph of a storm obtained from a catchment is triangular in shape and has a base period of 80
hours. The peak flow rate is 30 m³/sec and catchment area is 86.4 km². The rainfall excess that has resulted the
above hydrograph is

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A 10 cm B 5 cm
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C 9 cm D 14 cm

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agQ-99 Bernoulli’s theorem is based on the conservation of

Mass Energy
A B

C Momentum D Volume

Q-100 Which one is not a unit of pressure?

A Pascal

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B N/m²
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C kg/m³
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