PU MET 2021 Question Paper

Question Booklet Series: A Question Booklet Serial No.: 100288

M.E.T. - 2021
Important: Please consult your Admit Card/Roll No. slip before filling your Roll
Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet.

Roll No. (In Figure) (In Words)

O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No.

Signature of Candidate: _ Signature ofInvigilator: _

Time: 2 Hours Number of Questions: 120 Maximum Marks: 120

DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL ON THE BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO.

INSTRUCTIONS:
1. Write your Roll No. on the Questions Booklet and also on the OMR Answer Sheet in the space provided and
nowhere else.
2. Enter the Question Booklet Serial No. on the OMR Answer Sheet. Darken the corresponding bubbles with Black
Ball Point/Black Gel Pen. -
3. Do not make any identification mark on the Answer Sheet or Question Booklet.
4. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 120 Questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the Assistant
Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of Test.
5. Each question has four alternative answers (A,B,C,D) of which only one is correct. For each question, darken
only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet with Black
Ball Point/Black Gel Pen. There shall be negative marking for wrong answer, ¼ of the marks of the
question will be deducted for every wrong answer.
6. If you do not want to answer a question, leave all the bubbles corresponding to that question blank in the Answer
Booklet. No marks will be deducted in such cases.
7. Darken the bubbles in the OMR Answer Sheet according to the Serial No. of the question given in the Question
Booklet.
8. If you want to change an already marked answer, erase the shade in the darkened bubble completely.
~- For rough work only the blank sheet at the end of the Question Booklet be used.
10. The Answer Sheet is designed for computer evaluation. Therefore, if you do not follow the instructions given on
the Answer Sheet, it may make evaluation by the computer difficult. Any resultant loss to the candidate on the
above account, i.e. not following the instructions completely, shall be of the candidate only. '
11. 20 minutes per hour extra would be given to the visually handicapped/Pw D Candidates.
12. After the test, hand over the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet to the Assistant Superintendent on duty.
13. In no case the Answer Sheet, the Question Booklet, or its part or any material copied/noted from this Booklet is
to be taken out of the examination hall. Any candidate found doing so would be expelled from the examination.
14. A candidate who creates disturbance of any kind or changes bis/her seat or is found in possession of any paper

possibly of any assistant or found giving or receiving assistant or found using any other unfair means during the
examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent/Observer whose decision shall
be final.
15. Communication equipment such as mobile phones, pager, wireless set, scanner, camera or any
electronic/digital gadget etc., is not permitted inside the examination hall. Use of calculators is not allowed.
16. The candidates will not be allowed to leave the Examination Hall/Room before the expiry of half of the allotted
time.

(SET-A)
1. A number 15 is divided into three parts which are in AP and the sum of their squares is
83. Find the smallest number?
A) 5 B) 3 C) 6 D) 8

2. How many natural numbers between 300 to 500 are multiples of 7?
A) 29 B) 28 C) 27 D) 30

3. The average of the first five multiples is:
A) 20 B) 24 C) 28 D) 30

4. Average marks obtained by a student in 3 papers are 52 and in the fourth paper he obtains i
60 marks. Find his new average:
A) 54 B) 52 C) 55 D) 53.5

5. Find the average increase rate if increase in the population in the first year is 30% and
that in the second year is 40%.
A) 41 B) 56 C) 40 D) 38

6. The average age of Ram and Shyam is 20 years. Their average age five years hence will
be:
A) 12 B) 24 C) 25 D) 50

7. 30 oranges and 75 apples were purchased for Rs. 510. If the price per apple was Rs. 2,
then the average price of orange is:
A) 10 B) 12 C) 14 D) 15

8. The population of a village is 1, 00,000. The rate of increase is 10% per annum. Find the
population at the start of the third year:
A) 1,18,800 B) 1,20,000 C) 1,21,000 D) 1,33,100

9. In a mixture of 80 litres of milk and water 25% of the mixture is milk. How much water
should be added to the mixture so that milk becomes 20% of the mixture
A) 15 litres B) 20 litres C) 24 litres D) 25 litre

10. Arvind can cover a certain distance in 1 hour 24 min by covering two -third of the
distance at 4 kmph. The total distance is?
A) 5km B) 6km C)8km D) 9.2km

11. The marked price of machine is Rs. 620, Due to off season a 15% discount is allowed. \
The selling price of the machine is?
A) Rs. 427 B) Rs. 527 C) Rs. 537 D) Rs. 547

12. If 54+4 3=2, 60+5 l = 10, then 62+ 72=?

A) 20 B) 9 C) 30 D) 18

13. If 16-2 =2, 9-3 = 0, 81-1 = 8, then what is 64-4 =?
A)6 B)8 C) 4 D) 2

14. By selling a watch for Rs. 495, a shopkeeper incurs a loss of l 0%. Find the cost price of
the watch for the shopkeeper:
A) Rs. 545 B) Rs. 550 C) Rs. 555 D) Rs. 565

15. If a compound interest on a certain sum of 2 years is Rs. 21. What could be the simple
interest?
A) Rs. 16 B) Rs. 18 C) Rs. 18.5 0)20

16. The speeds of the three cars are in the ratio of 2: 3: 4. The ratio between the times taken
by these cars to travel the same distance is:
A) 2: 3 : 4 B) 4 : 3 : 2 C) 4 : 3: 6 D) 6: 4 :3

17. Raju can do 25% of a piece of work in 5 days. How many days will he take to complete
the work ten times?
A) I 50 Days B) 200 Days C) 250 Days D) 300 Days

18. MATHEMATICS= 12345123678, then MAHATMA=?
A) 124125341 B) 1242312 C) 12345678 D) 12345123

19. Deepak is the brother of Ravi. Rekha is the sister of Atul. Ravi is the son of Rekha. Then
how is Deepak related to Rekha?
A) Son B) Brother C) Nephew D) Brother-in-Law

20. Two people were walking in opposite directions. Both of them walked 6 miles forward
then took right and walked 8 miles. How far is each from starting positions?
A) 14 miles and 14 miles B) 10 miles and 10 miles
C) 6 miles and 6 miles D) 12 miles and 12 miles

21. A train travelling at 36 krnph crosses a platform in 20 seconds and a man standing on the
platform in 10 seconds. What is the length of the platform metres?
A) 300 metres B) 240 Metres C) 200 metres D) 100 metres

22. The radius of the wire is decreased to one third and its volume remains the same. The
new length is how many times the original length?
A) 2 Times B) 4 Times C) ~ Times D) 9 Times

23. Fill in the blanks: 49 : 16 : : 169 : ?
A) 86 B) 96 C) 100 D) 101

24. If 10% of a number is subtracted from it, the result is 1800. The number is:
A) 1900 B) 1920 C)2000 0)2140

25. A and B can run 200 metres in 22 and 25 seconds respectively. How far is B from the '
finishing line when A reaches it?
A) 8 M B) 12 M C) 17 M D) 24 M

26. ASEAN was established in the year:
· A) 1967 B) 1969 C) 1971 D) 1973

(2)

27. KYOTO PROTOCOL is related to:
A) Competition B) Environmental Protection
C) Consumer Protection D) Atomic Energy

28. A combination of Printing & Dyeing in a Textile Company is an example of:
A) Vertical Combination B) Horizontal Combination
C) Circular Combination D) Backward Combination

29. OPEC was established in Iraq in the year:
A) 1959 B) 1960 C) 1961 D) 1962

30. Which of the following is named as World Capital of Architecture for 2020?
A) Paris B) Melbourne C) Greece D) Rio-De- Janerio

31. Renukaji Dam Multipurpose project will be constructed on the river:
A) Godavari B) Krishna C) Yamuna DjSom

32. Asian Development Outlook is an annual publication of:
A) Asian Development Bank B) IMF
C) World Bank D) UNCTAD

33. Har Modh Par Ped Campaign is associated with:
A) Increasing Dense Forest Cover B) Promoting Exports
C) Tree Plantation with Agricultural Crops D) Increasing Bio-fuel production

34. Dhronacharya Award is given to which field?'
A) Literature B) Education C) Sports D) Music

35. Going Online as Leaders, a mission to empower women is launched by:
A) Google B) Face book C) Microsoft D) Twitter

36. SEZ Act was passed in the year:
A) 2005 B) 2007 C) 2009 D) 2011

37. Kalapani Border issue is between which countries;
A) India and Bhutan B) India and Nepal
C) India and Bangladesh D) Bhutan and Bangladesh

38. Global Economic Prospects Report is released by:
A) IMF B) World Bank
C) World Economic Forum D) UNCTAD

39. International Labour Organisation was established in:
A) 1919 B) 1920 C) 1921 D) 1922
'
40. Informal Communication network within the organisation is known as:
A) Inter-Personal Communication B) Intra- Personal Communication

C) Mass Communication D) Grapevine Communication

(3)

41. The acronym HTML stands for:
A) High Transfer Machine Language B) High Transmission Markup Language
C) Hypertext Markup Language D) Hyper Mediamark Language

42. Extrocular vision seen recently in new is:
A) Ability to see objects which are very far B) Age related disease
C) Eyes with refractive error D) Ability to see without eyes

43. Famous Dada Saheb Phalke Award is given for an exemplary work in the field of:
A) Cinema B) Education C) Sports D) Science

44. Consumer Protection Act was passed in the year:
A) 1984 B) 1985 C) 1986 D) 1987

45. The biggest Planet is:
A) Venus B) Mars C) Mercury D) Jupiter

46. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India was established in:
A) 2006 B) 2007 C) 2008 D) 2009

47. Operation Peace Spring recently in news was conducted by:
A) Saudi Arabia B) USA C) Turkey D) Yemen

48. The practice of KURK.I was banned by the Punjab Government, KURK.I refers to:
A) Stubble Burnings
B) A Drug
C) Remove Unemployment
D) Attachment of farmers by banks in case of non-payment of loan

49. Ashok is heavier than Gopal, Mahesh is lighter than Jayesh, Prashant is heavier than
Jayesh but lighter than Gopal. Who is the heaviest?
A) Ashok B) Jayesh C) Prashant D) Gopal

50. If COLD is written as ALHY, IRON may be written as:
A) GUKI B) GUSI C) GOKI D) GKUI

51. 'Coal" is related to "Heat" in the same way "Wax" is related to:
A) Light B) Fire C) Energy D) Honey

Directions for Question Nos. 52 to 56. Choose the option closest in meaning to the word given.
52. Low-Key:
A) Official B) Secret C) Subdued D) Complicated
'
53. Transitory:
A) Short- Lived B) Idle C) Unexpected D) Clear

54. Super facial:
A) Aged B) Proud C) Unusually Fine D) Shallow

(4)

55. Sage:
A) Wise Man B) Tale C) Era D) Fool

56. Utopia:
A) Holiday Home B) Music C) Perfect State D) Vacant

Directions for Question Nos. 57 to 61. Questions given in the following have· a definite
relationship. Tick the choice with similar relationship.

57. Tree: Environment: .
A) Oxygen: Gas B) Water: Fish C) Star: Space D) Antiseptic: Wound

58. Shock: Nerves:
A) Mountain: Valley B) Cold: Chest C) Nail: Chamber D) Soap : Body

59. Canal: Irrigation:
A) Well: Desert B) Road: Accidents C) Sky : Space D) School : Education

60. Scalp: Hair:
A) Curtain: Window B) Cloth: Table C) Earth: Grass D) Shoe : Foot

61. Rose: Pink:
A) Man: Brain B) Earth: Sun C) Ring : Round D) Book: Knowledge

Directions for Question Nos. 62 to 66. Choose the option which is the antonym of the word
mentioned below.

62. Amusing:
A) Silent B) Later C) Boring D) Nice

63. Ambiguity:
A) Lucidity B) Basal C) Lovable D) Necessity

64. Ameliorate:
A) Mar B) West C) Stuff D) Fade

65. Candour:
A) Frankness B) Cunning C) Ingenuous D) Sincere

66. Inclination:
A) Propensity B) Liking C) Attenuated D) Aversion

67. Seven points lie on a circle. How many chords can be drawn by joining these points? '
A) 22 B) 23 C) 21 D) 24

68. Four dogs and three pups stand in a queue. The probability that they will stand in an
alternate positions is:

A) 1/34 B) 1/35 C) 1/17 D) 1/68

(5)

69. From 6 gentleman and 4 ladies, a committee of 5 is to be formed. In how many ways it
can be done ifthere is no restriction in its formation?
A) 256 B) 246 C) 252 D) 260

70. "DARK" is related to "FEAR" in the same way "HONESTY" is related to:
A) Treachery B) Victory C) Money D) Trust

Directions for Question Nos. 71 to 75. Read the passage below and answer all the questions
mentioned below:
Culture is the cultivation of a plant _or garden, not the eradication of is roots, it is an
understanding of the roots and seeds, their patient care and instructed nourishment. Culture is not
knowledge, nor is it art; still less it acquaintance with literature and art. By culture I mean first of
all what the anthropologists mean; the way of the life of a particular people living together in one
place. That culture is made visible in their arts, in their social system, in their habits and custom,
in their religion. It is an aggregate of customs, institutions, manners, standards, tastes, morals and
beliefs. Now these are transmitted rather by the family than by the school; hence when family
life fails to play its part, we must expect our culture to deteriorate. It is a delusion to think that
the maladies of the modem world can be put right by a system of instruction. On the contrary,
universal education; by lowering standards, morals and tastes to a common denominator, and by
sharpening the wits rather than discipline character, tends to break down existing checks and
balances. Education should be the drawing forth of potential values; it should not be the
destruction of the safeguards that tradition places around young egos naturally inclined to wilful
and precarious flights.

71. The writer uses the term culture refers to:
A) One's acquaintance with literature and art
B) The cultivation of a plant or garden by the community
C) The way of life of a particular people living together in one place
D) One's acquisition of knowledge

72. The passage suggests that Universal Education;
A) ls the solution to the problem in the modem world
B) Is, in fact, aggravating the existing problem of the modem world
C) Would help retain the cultural values
D) Would prevent us from transmitting culture to the future generations

73. The culture of a community is said to deteriorate when:
A) There is fall in its educational standards
B) The family life fails to ply its part
. C) There is universal education
D) It adopts the modern system of instruction '
74. The culture of a community is transmitted:
A) More by school than the family
B) More by the family than the school

C) Equally by both
D) By the peer group

(6)

75. According to this , education is:
A) The sharpening of wits
B) Tapping and encouraging the inherent values in man
C) The substitution of old traditions with new ones
D) The development of moral standards

76. Fatima ranks 12th in a class of 46. What is her rank from the last?
A) 33 B) 35 C) 37 D) 34

77. 6 are related to 18 in the same wa):: as 4 are related to:
A) 2 B) 6 C) 8 D) 16

78. In a certain code MENTION is written as LNEITNO. Then PATTERN is coded as:
A) APTTREM B) PTAETNR C) OTAETRN D) ERCITANO

79. Deepak is the brother of Ravi. Rekha is the sister of Atul. Ravi is the son of Rekha. Then
how is Deepak related to Rekha?
A) Son B) Brother C) Nephew D) Brother - in -Law

80. A is taller than Band C is taller than D. Tf Dis taller than B, who is the tallest?
A) B B) C C) A D) Cannot be determined

81. Man : Walk:: Fish ?
A) Eat B) Sleep C) Swim D) Emotion

82. House : Window Man: ?
A) Brain B) Eyes C) Speech D) Emotion

83. The World's AIDS day is observed on:
A) l" December B) 1st March C) 1st April D) 1st July

84. Pankaj Advani is a Professional player of:
A) Badminton B) Lawn Tennis C) Football D) Billiards

85. Which Committee had recommended introduction of Smart Card?
A) Rangarajan Committee B) Nayak Committee
C) Saraf Committee D) Jha Committee

86. Which of the following disease not caused by Viruses?
A) Cholera B) Measles C) Chicken Fox D) Hepatitis

87. Which State ranks first in Literacy rate?
A) Punjab B) Kerala C) Haryana D) Himachal Pradesh '
Direction for Question Nos. 88 to 92:
Select Data Pertaining to Ghosh Babu's Firms.

Figure 2004 2003 2002 2001
Sales 6730 5130 2810 3370
Profit before Tax 840 730 230 330
Dividends 150 80 40 40
Retained Earnings 450 320 80 155
(7)

88. In which year was the tax per rupee of profit before tax highest?
A) 2001 B) 2002 C) 2003 D) 2004

89. In which year were the sales per rupee of share capital least?
A) 2001 B) 2002 C) 2003 D) cannot be determined

90. In which year the profit before tax per rupee was the least?
A) 2001 B) 2002 C) 2003 D) 2004

91. In which year was the percenta~e addition to reserves over previous year reserves the
highest?
A) 2001 B) 2002 C) 2003 D) 2004

92. Amount of the reserves at the end of 2004 is:
A) Rs. 885 Lakh B) Rs. 1085 Lakh C) Rs. 1125 Lakh D) None of these

Direction for Question Nos. 93 to 97.
Market Share of Mosquito Repellent in Four Metropolitan Cities
Period/Product Mumbai Kolkata Delhi Chennai
2003 2004 2003 2004 2003 2004 2003 2004
Baygon 20 15 35 40 20 15 20 30
Finit 20 15 30 15 15 10 20 20
Hit 45 40 25 35 35 35 10 10
Mortein 15 20 10 20 10 10 50 40

93. The maximum percentage increase in market share is:
A) 60% B) 50% C) 80% D) 100%

94. The city in which minimum number of products decreased their market shares in 2003-04
is:
A) Mumbai B) Delhi C) Kolkata D) Chennai

95. The market shares of which product did not increase in any city between the years 2003
to 2004:
A) Baygon B) Finit C) Hit D) None of these

96. The number of cities where the four brands taken together did not account for 100%
market share for any of the two given years is:
A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3

97. The number of products which had constant market shares in one or more cities is: ,
A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3

98. Which is the s" letter to the right of 15th letter from your left in the English alphabet?
A) W B) H C) V D) G

99. How many such letter-pairs are there in the word MANAGER having the same number
of letters left between them as they have in the series?
A) 2 B) 3 C) 6 D) 7

(8)

100. Bird: Fly:: Snake: ?
A) Hole B) Fly C) Bark D) Crawl

101. Fruits: Apple:: Monument: ?
A) Students B) Knowledge C) Tajmahal D) College

102. If D = 4, COVER = 63, then BASIS= ?
A) 54 B) 55 C) 49 D)50

103. In a certain code SUNDAY is coded as YADNUS. How could CREATION be written
in that code?
A)NOITAERC B) INOTAERL C) IONTEARC D) ERCITANO

Directions for Question Nos. 104 to 106. Identify the odd one out
104. A) Serpent B) Snake C) Crocodile D) Whale

105. A) Duck B) Parrot C) Pigeon D) Sparrow

106. A) 47, 59 B) 42, 29 C) 73, 61 D) 57, 69

107. How Many times are the hands of a clock at right angles in a day?
A) 22 B) 24 C) 44 D) 48

108. A boy runs at 15.6 krnph. How many metres does he run in 2 minutes?
A) 260m B) 312m C) 520m D) 1040m

109. Tsunamis are huge sea waves caused by:
A) Earthquakes B) Winds C) Volcanoes D) Icebergs

110. Which of the following is not a source of pollution in soil?
A) Transport Sector B) Agriculture Sector
C) Thermal Power Plants D) Hydropower Plants

Directions: Study the data given in the following table carefully and answer the questions
111 to 115 given below it.

Wheat Production ( in Lakh tonnes)
States 1986 1987 1988 1989 1990
I 9.0 10.7 8.9 11.6 8.4
II 14.5 16.3 16.2 16.4 16.8
III 14.9 15.7 16.8 16.9 17.8
IV 7.6 8.4 7.4 7.9 8.6
V 21.0 22.6 23.2 22.2 23.9 '
111. In 1988, which state contributed close to one-eighth of the total production of all the
five states?

A)I B) II C) III D) IV

112. In which year did the production of state IV fall for the first time?
A) 1986 B) 1987 C) 1988 D) 1989

(9)

113. In which state, the production in 1989 showed the highest increase over that in 1986?
A) I B) II C) III D) IV

114. In which year does the production in state V show the higher percentage of increase
over that in the previous year?
A)1986 B)1987 C) 1988 D) 1990

115. In which state did the production of wheat increase continuously from 186 to 1990?
A) I B) II C) III D) IV

116. Identify next number in the series, 3, 6, 12, 15, 30, ..... ?
A) 33 B) 35 C) 45 D) 60

117. The prices of a scooter and a moped are in the ratio of 9 : 5. If a scooter costs Rs. 6800
more than a moped, the price of a scooter is:
A) Rs. 17000 B) Rs. 13600 C) 15300 D) 16200
118. World Ozone day is:
A) March 16 B) June 5 C) September 16 D) November 16

119. The Ganga Action Plan was initiated during the year:
A) 1986 B) 1988 C) 1990 D) 1992

120. Which of the following organisations looks after the quality of Technical and
Management Education in India?
A) NCTE B) MCI C) CSIR D) AICTE
x-x-x

'

(10)

Answer key

1 B 21 D 41 C 61 C 81 C 101 C
2 A 22 D 42 D 62 C 82 B 102 D
3 Withdrawn 23 C 43 A 63 A 83 A 103 A
4 A 24 C 44 C 64 A 84 D 104 D
5 A 25 D 45 D 65 B 85 C 105 A
6 C 26 A 46 A- 66 D 86 A 106 B
7 B 27 B 47 C 67 C 87 B 107 C
8 C 28 A 48 D 68 B 88 B 108 C
9 B 29 C 49 A 69 C 89 D 109 A
10 Withdrawn 30 D 50 C 70 D 90 Withdrawn 110 D
11 B 31 C 51 A 71 C 91 Withdrawn 111 A
12 B 32 A 52 C 72 D 92 Withdrawn 112 C
13 C 33 C 53 A 73 B 93 D 113 A
14 B 34 C 54 D 74 B 94 D 114 D
15 D 35 B 55 A 75 A 95 B 115 C
16 D 36 A 56 C 76 B 96 B 116 A
17 B 37 B 57 D 77 C 97 D 117 C
18 B 38 B 58 B 78 Withdrawn 98 A 118 C
19 A 39 A 59 D 79 A 99 A 119 A
20 B 40 D 60 C 80 D 100 D 120 D

'

AglaSem Earn while Learn Program. Send your papers and get paid.
Contact: support@

Entrance Exams
Agricultural Entrance Exams
Architecture Entrance Exam
Arts and Humanities Entrance Exams
Commerce Entrance Examinations
Common Entrance Examinations
Computer Application Entrance Exams
Design Entrance Exams
Education Entrance Exams
Engineering Entrance Exams
Hotel Management Entrance Exams
Law Entrance Exams
MBA Entrance Exams
Media & Journalism Entrance Exams
Medical Entrance Exams
Nursing Entrance Exams
Pharmacy Entrance Exams
Science Entrance Exams
Diploma & Polytechnic
Lateral Entry