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Question Booklet Series: A Question Booklet Serial No. 151313
MET-2015
.. Important: Please consult your Admit Card/Roll No. slip before filling your Roll
Number on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet.
Roll No. In Figure In Words
[IJ I I I l
O.M.R. Answer Sheet Serial No. D D
Signature of Candidate: _ Signature of Invigilator: _
Time: 2 Hours Number of Questions: 120 Maximum Marks: 120
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INSTRUCTIONS:
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4. Please check that this Question Booklet contains 120 Questions. In case of any discrepancy, inform the
Assistant Superintendent within 10 minutes of the start of Test.
5. Each question has four alternative answer (A,B,C,D) of which only one is correct. For each question,
darken only one bubble (A or B or C or D), whichever you think is the correct answer, on the Answer Sheet
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marks of the question will be deducted for every wrong answer.
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Question Booklet. ·
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during the examination will be expelled from the examination by the Centre Superintendent/Observer
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allotted time.
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(1035)
1. Bangladesh came into being in
A)l 970 B) 1971 C) 1972 D) 1973
2. King Ashoka was
A) Son of Chandragupta Maurya B) Grandson of Chandragupta Maurya
C) Grandson of Bindusara D) Grandson of Ajatshatru
3. Varun Gandhi is one of the leaders of
A) Indian National Congress B) Bhartiya Janta Party
C) Indian National Lok Dal D) Bhartiya Lok Dal
4. The famous Hidimba Devi Temple is situated in
B) Chamba C) Kalka D) Haridwar
A) Manali
5. Indira Point is situated in
B) NewDelhi C) Hyderabad D) None of these
A) Allahabad
6. The acronym NADA stands for
A) National Anti Doping Agency B) Natural Anti Doping Agent
C) National Anti Drugging Agency D) National Anti Dope Agent
7. The name of the son of Mahatma Budha was
B) Rohit C) Rohitash D) Rajan
A) Rahul
8. The famous white house is situated in
A) Australia B) South Africa
D) United States of America
C) China
9. The fifth Guru of Sikhs was
A) Guru Angad Devji B) Guru Arjun Devji
C) Guru Har Govindji D) Guru Har Rai ji
10. The Second President of India was
B) Radhakrishnan
A) Rajender Prasad
D) Fakhrudin Ali Ahmad
C) Zaqir Hussain
11. The first Mogul Emperor in India was
C) Babar D) Changej Khan
A) Hamayun B) Akbar
12. The acronym CAG stands for
B) Comptroller and Auditor General
A) Controller and Auditor General
D) Control and Auditor Grant
C) Control and Audit Grant
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13. Vice President of India is elected for a period of
B) 6 years C) 4 years D) None of these
A) 5 years
14. Which country won the world cricket cup in 2011?
A) England B) West Indies C) Australia D) India
15. The acronym SIDBI stands for
A) Short investment development board of India
B) Small investment development board of India
C) Small investment development bank of India
D) Small industries development bank of India
16. Govardhan Parbat is situated in
B) Madhya Pradesh C) Gujarat D) Uttrakhand
A) UttarPradesh
17. The President of China as on 3rdApril 2013 was
A) Xi Jinping B) Xi Chinping C) Xi Jinling D) Xi Jinting
18. In IPL season 6 Chris Gayle played for
A) Royal Challenger Bangalore B) Delhi Daredevils
D) Mumbai Indians
C) Pune Warriors
19. The headquarter of IBM is in
C) Germany D) England
A)USA B) Japan
20. The cricket team of which country was defeated by Indian cricket team in the second
match played by India in the World Cup Cricket Tournament in 2015
C) Australia D) South Africa
A) West Indies B) England
21. OPEC stands for
A) Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries
B) Overseas Petroleum Exporting Countries
C) Organization of Petroleum Exporting Corporations
D) Overseas Petroleum Exporting Commission
22. Monetary and credit policy is announced by
A) Finance Ministry B) Reserve Bank of India
D) Prime Minister
C) Commerce Ministry
23. Who was the first Indian chairman of Hindustan Lever?
C) Prakash Tandon D) Jarnsed Ji Tata
A) K. Dadi Seth B) J.J. Irani
24. The BSE SENSEX is based on
C) 30 shares D) 500 shares
A) 100 shares B) 1000 shares
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25. Central Bank of India is a
A) Central Bank B) Commercial Bank
C) Merchant Bank D) None of these
26. Entreport is nothing but
A) Import itself B) Export itself
C) Importing good for re-export D) None of these
27. Ad valorem duty is levied according to
A) Value B) Quantity
C) Both of the above D) None of the above
28. The acronym LIBOR stands for
A) London International Banks on Record
B) London Investment Banks on Record
C) London Inter Bank Offer Rate
D) Laos Inter Bank Offer Rate
29. Reserve Bank oflndia is a
A) Commercial Bank B) Central Bank
C) Indigenous Bank D) Regional Rural Bank
30. A letter of credit is produced by
A) An exporter B) An importer C) The Government D) Stock Exchange
31. In India the first mutual Fund was started in
A) 1961 B) 1962 C) 1963 D) 1964
32. The first train in India ran between
A) Thane and Mumbai B) Pune and Thane
C) Pune and Mumbai D) Mumbai and Goa
33. ATM stands for
A) Automatic Teller Machine B) Automatic Taxation Mechanism
C) Automatic Teller Money D) Automatic Takeover Mode
34. The national currency of Macedonia is
A) Dinar B) Peso C) Franc D) Dollar
35. Securities and Exchange Board of India Act was passed in
A) 1991 B) 1992 C) 1993 D) 1994
36. The financial capital of India is
A) New Delhi B) Mumbai C) Kolkata D) Bangalore
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37. In India most of the commercial banks are following a system of
A) Chain banking B) Branch banking C) Unit banking D) Group banking
38. Capital market deals with
A) Short term finance B) Long term finance
D) None of the above
C) Both of the above
39. Which of the following committees dealt with banking sector reforms in India?
A) Wadhawa Committee B) Khan Committee
C) Narsimham Committee D) Wangchoo Committee
40. Indian Overseas Bank was nationalized in
C)l980 D) 1992
A) 1969 B) 1975
The following table shows the expenditure of a family on various items during a
particular year. Study the table and answer the questions 41-47.
Item %age of total expenditure
25
Clothes
20
Food
Recreation 15
10
Rent
13
Travel
Others
17
41. The ratio of total expenditure on clothes to that of food is
C) 1.5:1 D) 3:2
A) 5:4 B) 4:5
42. If the total expenditure on food during the year was 60,000, how much was spent on rent?
A) 9,000 B) 12,000 C) 20,000 D) 30,000
43. According to the chart the most sought after item in the family is
C) Recreation D) Travel
A) Clothes B) Food
44. If the expenditure incurred on recreation was Rs. 30,000 then the expenditure on food
would have been
C) Rs. 60,000 D) Rs. 22,000
A) Rs. 40,000 B) Rs. 50,000
45. Clothes, food and recreation together account for
A) 50% of total expenditure B) 60% of total expenditure
C) 45% of total expenditure D) 65% of total expenditure
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46. If the total expenditure on clothes during the year was Rs.60,000, how much was spent on
recreation and rent together?
A) Rs. 60,000 B) Rs. 50,000 - C) Rs. 25,000 D) Rs. 75,000
47. If the total expenditure on rent during the year was Rs.60, 000, how much was spent on
all the items together?
A) Rs. 6,00,000 B) Rs. 4,80,000 C) Rs. 5,80,000 D) Rs. 5,00,000
Directions for Question 48-54. Answer the question based on given data about the
students in a college.
Girls Boys
Medical Science 10% 15%
Non-Medical Science 20% 9%
Commerce 18% 21%
Management 22% 25%
Arts 30% 30%
48. If the number of total girls and boys were 1200 and 800 respectively the total
number of medical science students would be
A)240 B)300 C) 400 D) None of these
49. If the number of total girls and boys were 1200 and 800, respectively the total number of
arts students would be
A)600 B)400 C)300 D) 500
50. If the number of total girls in arts were 300 total number of girl students would be
A)1500 B) 1000 C) 1200 D)600
51. If the number of total non medical science boy students was 750, the total number of boy
students would be
A)3750 B) 4000 C)5500 D) 4600
52. If the number of total boys and girls were 3000 and 2000, respectively the total number
of girl management students would be
A)750 B) 500 C) 650 D) 725
53. If the number of total boys and girls were 1200 and 2000 respectively the total number of
boy arts students would be
A) 360 B) 540 C) 470 D) 300
54. If the number of total boys and girls were 3000 and 2000, the ratio between boy arts
students and girl arts students would be
A) 1:1 B) 3:2 C) 1:3 D) 4:1
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Directions for Question 55-60. Answer the question based on given data.
Company - A (Rs. Lakhs) Company - B (Rs. Lakhs)
280 260
Sales
- 210 200
Cost of sales
70 60
Gross Profit
Operating expenses 40 36
Operating profit 30 24
20 16
Tax
10 8
Profit after tax
55. The ratio of gross profit to sales in company A is
B)35% C)20% D)40%
A)25%
56. The ratio between the tax paid by the company A and company B is
B) 4:5 C) 1:2 D) 3:2
A) 5:4
57. The ratio between the operating profit of the company A and company Bis
C) 2:1 D) 3:4
A) 5:4 B) 5:2
58. The ratio of the combined operating profits of the company A and company B to their
combined sales is;
C) 1:12 D) 1:13
A) 1:10 B) 1:11
59. What percentage the profits after tax of company A, constitute of its sales?
C) 2.12% D) 2.22%
A) 3.57% B) 7.10%
60. The ratio between sales of the company A to sales of company Bis
C) 14:13 D) 13:14
A) 15:14 B) 14:12
61. Find the odd man out
C) Cotton D) Tobacco
A) Opium B) Barley
62. Gown is to Garment as Bible is to
C) Religion D) Book
A) Jesus B) Christianity
63. Beta is to Delta as March is to
C)May D) January
A) April B) February
64. A is the father of B but B is not the son of A. What is B to A?
C) Niece D) Brother
A) Daughter B) Son
65. A sum of money becomes 2 times of itself in 8 years at certain rate of interest. Find the rate'?
D) 14.5%
B) 8.5% C) 10.5%
A) 12.5%
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Directions - (questions 66- 70). In each of the following questions, there is some relationship
between the two word to the left of the sign:: and the same relationship exists between the
word on its right and one of the four alternatives under it. Find the correct alternative.
66. Food: Stomach:: Fuel
A) Engine B) Automobile C) Rail D) Aeroplane
67. Alphabet: Word:: Word:
A) Sentence B) Sound C) Dictionary D) Music
68. Life: Death:: Hope:
A) Cry B) Pain C) Despair D) Sad
69. Hunter: Gun:: Writer:
A) Book B)Pen C) Poem D) Page
70. Adult: Baby:: Flower:
A) Seed B)Bud C) Fruit D) Butterfly
71. Xis the brother of Y. Y is the daughter of Z. Z is the brother of W. What is W to X?
A) Son B) Nephew C) Father D) Uncle
72. Find the odd man out
A) Chair B) Cot C) Table D) Wood
73. A father tells his son, "I was of your present age when you were born." If the father is 44
now, how old was the son 5 years back?
A) 15 B) 13 C)17 D)20
74. Find the odd man out
A) Sun B) Earth C) Venus D) Saturn
75. Madhu went to a movie nine days ago. She goes to movies only on Thursdays. What day
of the week is today?
A) Sunday B) Tuesday C) Thursday D) Saturday
76. Find the odd man out
A) Apple B) Mango C) Orange D) Carrot
77. Pointing towards a girl in a photograph, Umesh said, "Her mother's brother who is my
father is the only son of my mother's father." How is the girl's mother related to Umesh?
A) Mother B) Sister C) Aunt D) Grandmother
78. Find the odd man out
A) Crow B) Duck C) Pigeon D) Parrot
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79. Ajay works more than Ram. Alok works as much as Raju. Pankaj works less than Alok.
Ram works more than Alok. Who works the most of all?
A) Ajay B) Alok C)Ram D) Raju
80. How many consonants are there between the second and fourth vowel in the alphabet?
A)7 B)8 C)9 D) 10
81. If you are eleventh in a queue starting from either end, how many are there in the queue?
A) Twenty B) Twenty two C) Twenty one D) Twenty three
82. Ram can evaluate 50 papers in 10 hours while both Ram & Sham can evaluate 70 papers
in 10 hours. Then how many hours required for B to evaluate 26 papers?
A) 13hrs B) 18hrs C) 12hrs D) 15hrs
83. Pointing to a photograph, a person tells his friend, "She is the granddaughter of the elder
brother of my father." How is the girl in the photograph related to this man?
A) Niece B) Sister C) Aunt D) Sister-in-law
84. Two trains approach each other at 60 km an hour and 70 km an hour from two places 650
km apart. When will they meet?
A) after 8 hours B) after 5 hours C) after 10 hours D) after 2 hours
85. When 80% of a number is added to 80, the result is the number again. The number is
A) 400 8)300 C)500 D) 450
86. In a class of 20 students in an examination in mathematics 2 students scored 100 marks
each, 3 get zero each and the average of the rest was 40. What is the average of the whole
class?
A) 10 8)30 C)40 D) None of these
87. A mother after 4 years will be twice the age of her daughter, The sum of their ages is 46.
What is the daughter's age today?
B)l4 C)l5 D) None of these
A) 13
88. Successive discounts of 50% and 20% is equivalent to a single discount of
A) 60% B) 70% C) 30% D) None of these
89. The cloth shop has announced a reduction in a price by 25%. How many minimum
Kurtas priced at Rs. 28 each should one buy to avail a total reduction of a least Rs. 40?
A) 3 8) 4 C) 6 D) None of these
90. 400 mangoes were bought for Rs.125 per hundred and were sold for a profit of Rs. 100.
The selling price per dozen is
A) Rs. 16 B) Rs.21 C) Rs. 15 D) None of these
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91. Study the numbers and complete the series by the suitable alternatives given; 2, 4, 7, 11, --.
A) 15 B)16 C)18 D)17
92. A man divides Rs 10,290 between his son and daughter in the ratio of 11:10. How much
did the son get?
A) Rs. 4900 B) Rs. 5390 C) Rs. 5820 D) None of these
93. Ratio of A's age to B's age is equal to 4:3. A will be 26 years old after 6 years. How old is
Bnow?
A) 15 years B) 16 years C) 17 years D) None of these
94. In a group of cows and hens, the number of legs is 14 more than twice the number of
heads. The number of cows is
A) 5 B)7 C)lO D) 12
95. The least number which must be added to 5,678 to make it a perfect square is:
A) 90 B) 53 C)98 D) 73
96. The ratio of two numbers is 5:9 and their difference is 36. The larger number is
B) 91 C) 81 D) 72
A)90
97. A trader sold two books for Rs. 24 each. On one he made a net profit of 25% but on the
other he lost 20%. Find the net loss or gain in the overall process.
B) Rs. 10 loss C) Rs. 1.2 gain D) Rs. 1.2 loss
A) Rs.10 gain
98. A fraction becomes 4/5 if 1 is added to both numerator and denominator. If however, 5 is
1/2.
subtracted from both numerator and denominator, the fraction ·becomes What is the
fraction?
B) 28/29 C) 19/24 D) 7/9
A) 27/34
99. A father's age is four times as much as the sum of the ages of his three children but six
years hence his age will be only double the sum of their ages. Find his present age.
B)40 C) 60 D) 20
A) 35
100. In an examination it is necessary to secure 40% marks to pass the examination. A
candidate obtained 40 marks and failed by 40 marks. What are the maximum.marks in the
examination?
B) 66 C)lOO D)200
A) 33
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Pick from answers-choices one which will complete the sentence correctly in questions (101-105),
101. The right to freedom is-- fundamental rights enunciated in the constitution.
A) One of the B) None of C) Either of the D) Neither of the
102. Thieves have broken the house.
A) in B) into C) out D) at
103. Ram is both intelligent -- honest.
A) As well as B) and C) yet D) but
104. You should not avoid him.
A) for meeting B) to meet C) in meeting D) meeting
105. He very successfully all the allegations leveled against him.
A) retaliated B) eradicated C) extricated D) rebutted
In each of the following questions (106 - 108), a sentence has been given in Active (or Passive)
Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one which best expresses the same
sentence in Passive (or Active) voice.
106. Have the letter posted.
A) Post the letter. B) Have the posted letter.
C) Get someone to post the letter. D) They have posted the letter.
107. He abused you
A) You were abused by him. B) You are abused by him
C) You have been abused by him D) You had been abused by him
108. You should speak the truth.
A) The truth may be spoken by you. B) The truth has been spoken by you.
C) The truth should be spoken by you. D) The truth would be spoken by you.
In the following questions (109 and 110), choose the most appropriate preposition/s
l 09. The boy who went --school --studies is missing.
A) to, for B) of, at C) at, in D) for, for
110. Come- learn and go- -serve- - the welfare of society.
A) of, from, to B) from, to, of C) to, to, for D) from to, to
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Direction for questions 111-115
Read the following paragraph carefully and answer the questions which follow.
Conflict management is the process of limiting the negative aspects of conflict while
increasing the positive aspects of conflict. The aim of conflict management is to enhance
learning and group outcomes, including effectiveness or performance in organizational
setting. Properly managed conflict can improve group outcomes. While no single definition
of conflict exists, most definitions involve the following factors: there are at least two
independent groups, the groups perceive some incompatibility between themselves, and the
groups interact with each other in some way. Two example definitions are, "process in which
one party perceives that its interests are being opposed or negatively affected by another
party), and "the interactive process manifested in incompatibility, disagreement, or
dissonance within or between social entities". The overarching hierarchy of conflict starts
with a distinction between substantive (also called performance, task, issue, or active)
conflict and affective (also called relationship) conflict. If one could make a distinction
between good and bad conflict, substantive would be good and affective conflict would be
bad. Substantive conflict involves disagreements among group members about the content of
the tasks being performed or the performance itself. This type of conflict occurs when two or
more social entities disagree on the recognition and solution to a task problem, including
differences in viewpoints, ideas, and opinions. Affective conflict deals with interpersonal
relationships or incompatibilities not directly related to achieving the group's function. Both
substantive and affective conflict is negatively related to team member satisfaction and team
performance. Contradicting this, 20% (5 of 25) of the studies used showed a positive
correlation between substantive conflict and task performance. Conflict resolution, otherwise
known as Reconciliation, is conceptualized as the methods and processes involved in
facilitating the peaceful ending of conflict and retribution. Often, committed group members
attempt to resolve group conflicts by actively communicating information about their
conflicting motives or ideologies to the rest of the group (e.g., intentions; reasons for holding
certain beliefs), and by engaging in collective negotiation. Dimensions of resolution,
typically parallel the dimensions of conflict in the way the conflict is processed. Cognitive
resolution is the way disputants understand and view the conflict, with beliefs and
perspectives and understandings and attitudes. Emotional resolution is in the way disputants
feel about a conflict, the emotional energy. Behavioral resolution is how one thinks the
disputants act, their behavior. Ultimately, a wide range of methods and procedures for
addressing conflict exist, including but not limited to, negotiation, mediation, diplomacy, and
creative peace-building.
111. Between good and bad conflicts,
A) Substantive conflict would be good and affective conflict would be bad
B) Affective conflict would be good and substantive conflict would be bad
C) Both substantive conflict as well as affective conflict would be bad
D) Cannot be concluded be certainty
112. Conflict resolution is also known as
A) Reconciliation B) Negotiation
C) Arbitration D) Immunization
113. The way disputants understand and view the conflict
A) Cognitive dissonance B) Cognitive resolution
C) Emotional resolution D) Emotional dissonance
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114. 20% of the studies used showed a positive correlation
A) Affective conflict and task performance
B) Substantive conflict and task performance
C) Organizational conflict and satisfaction
D) Substantive conflict and satisfaction
115. Diplomacy is
A) Only one method of conflict resolution
B) Only one of the methods of conflict resolution
C) Not the method of conflict resolution
D) Cannot be said be certainty
Direction for questions 116-120:
Read the following paragraph carefully and answer the questions which follow.
Women entrepreneurship is gaining importance in India in the wake of economic
liberalization and globalization. The policy and institutional framework for developing
entrepreneurial skills, providing vocation education and training has widened the horizon
for economic empowerment of women. However, women constitute only one third of the
economic enterprises. There exist a plethora of successful business women entrepreneurs
both in social and economic fields in India. They are performing well. Government of
India has also introduced National Skill Development Policy and National Skill
Development Mission in 2009 in order to provide skill training, vocational education and
entrepreneurship development to the emerging work force. However, entrepreneurship
development and skill training is not the only responsibility of Government and therefore
other stakeholders need to shoulder the responsibility. In Hindu scriptures, woman has
been described as the embodiment of shakti. But in real life she is treated as Abla.
Women are leaving the workforce in droves in favor of being at home. Not to be a
homemaker, but as job-making entrepreneurs. The increasing presence of women in the
business field as entrepreneurs has changed the demographic characteristics of business
and economic growth of the country. Women-owned businesses enterprises are playing a
more active role in society and the economy, inspiring academics to focus on this
interesting phenomenon.
Women Entrepreneurs may be defined as the woman or group of women who initiate,
organize and cooperate a business enterprise. Government of India has defined women
entrepreneurs as an enterprise owned and controlled by a woman having a minimum
financial interest of 51% of the capital and giving at least 51% of employment generated
in the enterprise to women. The Indian women are no longer treated as show pieces to be ·
kept at home. They are also enjoying the impact of globalization and making an influence
not only on domestic but also on international sphere. Women are doing a wonderful job
striking a balance between their house and career. Women entrepreneurs are key players
in any developing country particularly in terms of their contribution to economic .
development. In recent years, even among the developed countries like USA and Canada,
Women's role in terms of their share in small business has been increasing.
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116. In Hindu scriptures, woman has been described as the embodiment of shakti
A) The embodiment of shakti B) The embodiment of abla
C) The embodiment of bhakti D) The embodiment of home maker
117. Government of India has defined women entrepreneurs as an enterprise
A) Owned and controlled by a woman having a minimum financial interest of 51% of
the capital.
B) Owned and controlled by a woman having a minimum financial interest of 51% of
the capital and giving at least 51% of employment generated in the enterprise to
women.
C) Giving at least 51% of employment generated in the enterprise to women.
D) Owned and controlled by a woman having a minimum financial interest of 51% of
the capital and giving at least 100% of employment generated in the enterprise to
women.
118. Government of India has also introduced National Skill Development Policy India
C) In 2007 D) In 2009
A) In 2002 B) In 2005
119. In recent years, Women's role in terms of their share in small business has been
A) Increasing B) Decreasing C) Constant D) Cannot be said be certainty
120. Globalization is
A) Positively influencing women entrepreneurship
B) Negatively influencing women entrepreneurships
C) Is not having any influence on women entrepreneurship
D) Cannot be said be certainty
x-x-x
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MET - 2015
KEY
Q.No. Answer key Q.No. Answer Key Q.No. Answer Key Q.No. Answer Key
1 B 31 D 61 B 91 B
2 B 32 A 62 D 92 B
3 B 33 A 63 C 93 A
4 A 34 A 64 A 94 B
5 D 35 B 65 A 95 C
6 A 36 B 66 A 96 C
7 A 37 B 67 A 97 D
8 D 38 B 68 C 98 D
9 B 39 C 69 B 99 C
10 B 40 A 70 B 100 D
11 C 41 A 71 D 101 A
12 B 42 D 72 D 102 B
13 A 43 A 73 C 103 A
14 D 44 A 74 A 104 D
15 D 45 B 75 D 105 D
16 A 46 A 76 D 106 C
17 A 47 A 77 C 107 A
18 A 48 A 78 B 108 C
19 A 49 A 79 A 109 A
20 D 50 B 80 B 110 C
21 A 51 withdrawn 81 C 111 A
22 B 52 withdrawn 82 withdrawn 112 A
23 C 53 A 83 A 113 B
24 C 54 B 84 B 114 B
25 B 55 A 85 A 115 B
26 C 56 A 86 C 116 A
27 A 57 A 87 B 117 B
28 C 58 A 88 A 118 D
29 B 59 A 89 C 119 A
30 B 60 C 90 D 120 A