TALLENTEX 2026 Sample Paper Class 8

SECTION-A : PHYSICS
This section contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Few small wax pieces are fixed on the rod as shown in figure below. When flame is brought in contact with
rod, it is observed that the wax pieces begin to fall one by one. The method of heat transfer involved here is:

(1) conduction (2) convection
(3) radiation (4) None of these
2. Consider a container filled with water. Choose the correct option showing the correct relation of pressures at
points A, B, C and D. Points B and C are at same horizontal level.

(1) PA = PB = PC = PD (2) PA < PB = PC < PD
(3) PD < PB = PC < PA (4) PA = PB < PC = PD
3. The picture shows Raj and his friends playing with a string-telephone. Rita is speaking. Raj and Ravi are
trying to listen. Which of them can hear her speak?

(1) Both of them can hear equally clearly. (2) Neither of them can hear.
(3) Only Ravi can hear clearly. (4) Only Raj can hear clearly.
4. Two plane mirrors are inclined at an angle 60°. A ray of light falls on one mirror parallel to another. The
angle of incidence formed by ray in mirror M2 is :

(1) 60° (2) 15° (3) 45° (4) 30°
1/14

5. The car’s speed changes as it leaves the stop sign.

The above figure shows that the body
(1) covers equal distance in equal interval of time.
(2) covers equal displacement in equal interval of time.
(3) exhibits non-uniform motion.
(4) exhibits uniform motion.
6. Consider the circuit shown below :

Which of the following bulb(s) will glow when switches K2 and K3 are closed ?
(1) only B3 and B4 (2) only B1, B3 and B4 (3) all bulbs (4) only B2 and B3
7. Peristence of vision is defined as
(1) Ability of the eye to change the focal length of the eye lens.
(2) Nerve ending which are sensitive to bright light.
(3) Nerve ending which are sensitive to dim light.
(4) Ability of an eye to continue to see an image for a short duration even after the removal of the object.
8. Two empty metal cans, one black and one white, were placed outside on a hot day. Both cans were the same
size and were left in the Sun for 3 hours. Compared to the white can, the black can would most likely be
(1) Cooler, because it absorbs less sunlight.
(2) Cooler, because it absorbs more sunlight.
(3) Warmer, because it absorbs less sunlight.
(4) Warmer, because it absorbs more sunlight.
9. The relation between S.I. and C.G.S. unit of force is :
(1) 1N = 103 dyne (2) 1N = 10–5 dyne (3) 1N = 105 dyne (4) 1N = 10–3 dyne
10. Loudness of sound depends on ___________ of sound while pitch of sound depends on of sound.
(1) frequency, amplitude (2) amplitude, frequency
(3) speed, amplitude (4) speed, frequency

2/14

11. Vinegar is
(1) Electrolyte (2) Non–electrolyte
(3) Electrode (4) None of these
12. Sam made some electrical circuits using identical lamps and batteries. Assist Sam to determine which circuit
has the smallest current and which circuit has the brightest lamps respectively.

(1) A and D (2) B and D
(3) A and B (4) C and D
13. A toy car is placed 50 cm in front of a plane mirror M. If the mirror is now moved 0.50 m away from the toy
car, where is the image of the toy car formed from plane mirror?
(1) 100 m away (2) 0.1 cm away
(3) 100 cm away (4) 0.1 m away
14. If mass of an object doubles, the friction force acting on it –
1
(1) gets half (2) becomes
4
(3) doubles (4) remains same
15. Time period of simple pendulum is 1.2 seconds. What is the time taken by the pendulum to complete 30
oscillations?
(1) 25 s (2) 30 s (3) 36 s (4) 40 s

SECTION-B : CHEMISTRY
This section contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
16. This is a pie chart about energy sources in country X in the year 2015. Examine it and answer the questions
given alongside:

Which fossil fuel that is used maximum by country X but is not a clean fuel?
(1) Coal (2) Petroleum (3) Natural gas (4) Nuclear electricity

3/14

17. Chetan, a class 8 student conducted the following experiment and recorded the observations in the given
table.

Observation Does balloon explode? Is ignition temperature of balloon reached?

Fig.1 Fig.2 Fig.1 Fig.2

I. Yes No No Yes

II. No Yes Yes Yes

III. Yes No Yes No

The correct observation and inference drawn are :
(1) I ; balloon has a higher ignition temperature than water, hence it explodes.
(2) III ; water increases the melting point of balloon.
(3) II ; water in the balloon absorbs the heat.
(4) III ; water conducts the heat away from the balloon.
18. Label the different zones of a candle flame

(1) A = Outer zone of complete combustion
B = Luminous zone of complete combustion
C = Inner dark zone of unburnt wax vapour
(2) A = Outer zone of complete combustion
B = Luminous zone of partial combustion
C = Inner dark zone of unburnt wax vapours
(3) A = Outer zone of unburnt wax vapours
B = Luminous zone of complete combustion
C = Inner dark zone of partial combustion
(4) A = Outer zone of partial combustion
B = Luminous zone of partial combustion
C = Inner dark zone of complete combustion

4/14

19. 1 kg of fuel was completely burnt. The heat produced was measured to be 7000 kJ. What will be the heat
produced from 5000 g of fuel?
(1) 35000000 kJ (2) 35000 kJ (3) 350 kJ (4) 35 kJ
20. A change in which the original substance can be obtained back by change of condition is called
(1) Reversible change (2) Physical change
(3) Chemical change (4) Both (1) & (2)
21. Crude oil and Natural gas are often found together with water as large deposits deep inside the earth’s crust
as shown in the diagram given below. Identify X, Y and Z.

X Y Z
(1) Crude oil Water Natural gas
(2) Water Natural gas Crude oil
(3) Water Crude oil Natural gas
(4) Natural gas Water Crude oil
22. Expansion on heating & contraction on cooling of metal is a
(1) Chemical change (2) Physical change
(3) Irreversible change (4) None of these
23. In the deposits of petroleum and natural gas, layers containing petroleum and natural gas are always above
water. Why is it so?
(1) Petroleum and natural gas are heavier than water and do not mix with water.
(2) Petroleum is heavier than water but natural gas is lighter than water.
(3) Petroleum and natural gas are lighter than water and do not mix with water.
(4) Petroleum is lighter than water but natural gas is heavier than water.
24. Identify X, Y & Z from the clues given below.
X - I am the fuel with highest calorific value. I am used in the production of urea. I am also produced from
marsh gas.
Y - I am a type of combustion which evolves heat, light and sound.
Z - I am best fire extinguisher for electrical equipments.

5/14

25. In India, the Petroleum Conservation Research Association (PCRA) advises people how to save petrol/diesel
while driving. Which of the following is not their advise to save fuel?
(1) Drive at slow speed as far as possible.
(2) Switch off the engine at traffic lights.
(3) Ensure correct tyre pressure.
(4) Ensure regular maintenance of the vehicle
26. Which of the following statement is true?
(1) Inflammable substance have high ignition temperature.
(2) In rapid combustion, a material itself suddenly bursts into flame.
(3) The substance which vaporizes during burning gives flame.
(4) Charcoal is the only substance which gives flame as it vaporizes on burning.
27. Adding salt to water makes it salty. Which of the following statement is true regarding this change?
(1) It is a chemical change because a new substance is formed.
(2) It is a physical change because the original substance can be recovered.
(3) It is a chemical change because there is exchange of heat.
(4) It is a chemical change because there is a slight change in colour.
28. Four Changes are given below. Which of these represents a chemical change?
(1) A matchstick is lit, creating a yellow-orange flame.
(2) A small piece of ice melts, changing from a solid to a liquid.
(3) A ball of clay sinks in water and floats when reshaped.
(4) A pot of water is heated to boiling and evaporation occurs.
29. Which of the following are ways to conserve water?
(i) Take short showers instead of tub baths.
(ii) Construction of Dams to store rain water.
(iii) Wastage of drinking water to water the plants.
(iv) Turn on the tap while brushing teeth.
(1) (i), (ii) & (iii) (2) (i) & (iv)
(3) (i) & (ii) (4) (iii) & (iv)
30. Which of the following is correct about the ways in which water can be affected by humans?
(1) Chemicals applied by farmers lower the level of pollution in drinking water.
(2) Drinking water can become polluted from unsuspected sources.
(3) Human activities do not affect groundwater.
(4) Toxic waste is safe if buried below the level of the basements of nearby homes.

6/14

SECTION-C : BIOLOGY
This section contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
31. Which type of bacteria are represented by P, Q, R & S?

(1) P–Coccus, Q–Bacillus, R–Vibrio, S–Spirillum
(2) P–Bacillus, Q–Coccus, R–Spirillum, S–Vibrio
(3) P–Bacillus, Q–Vibrio, R–Coccus, S–Spirillum
(4) P–Bacillus, Q–Spirillum, R–Vibrio, S–Coccus
32. What will be the effect of large amount of moisture present in food grains during storage?
(1) The organism present in the food grains will not be able to grow.
(2) The enzymes present in food grains may dissolve.
(3) The food grains can be stored for a long time.
(4) It will increase the rate of decay of food materials.
33. Match the column–I with column–II & select the correct option from the codes given below.

Column I Column II

(a) Artery (i) Haemoglobin

(b) Vein (ii) Carries mainly oxygenated blood

(c) RBC (iii) Exchange of materials

(d) Capillaries (iv) Carries mainly deoxygenated blood

(1) a – (i), b – (ii), c – (iii), d – (iv) (2) a – (iv), b – (iii), c – (ii), d – (i)
(3) a – (ii), b – (iv), c – (i), d – (iii) (4) a – (ii), b – (i), c – (iii), d – (iv)
34. When Meena’s class visited a farm to observe the process of agriculture, she saw some labourers removing
some plants from the main crop in the field. Her teacher has explained about weeding in the class. She was
surprised why they are removing the plants from the field. The best possible reason would be .
Statement 1 : They wanted to prevent overcrowding of plants in the fields.
Statement 2 : Overcrowding makes the plants grow unhealthy as they do not get enough sunlight, water and
nutrients
(1) Only statement 1 is correct
(2) Both statements are correct and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1
(3) Both statements are correct but statement 2 is the incorrect explanation of statement 1
(4) Only statement 2 is correct

7/14

35. The respiratory and circulatory systems provide the tissues of your body with the oxygen they need to
function. At which location is the oxygen used to make energy?
(1) Cells (2) Capillaries (3) Heart (4) Lungs
36. Few roles of forests are listed below. Which of the following is incorrect?
(1) They regulate earth’s temperature. (2) They increase soil erosion by water and wind.
(3) They save hill slopes from landslides. (4) They control noise pollution.
37. Quinine, a useful medicine for malaria is obtained from
(1) pine tree (2) cinchona tree (3) neem tree (4) eucalyptus tree
38. Mohan is a farmer of a village of Haryana. He adopts the traditional way of farming. Before sowing seeds,
he puts gram seeds in vessels and pours some water on them. After few minutes some seeds start floating on
the top. Which seeds should be selected by Mohan for sowing and why?
(1) Mohan should select those seeds which sink because damaged seeds become hollow and lighter,
therefore they float on top.
(2) Mohan should select both the seeds which sink and which float because all of them are healthy.
(3) Mohan should select seeds which float because healthy seeds are hollow, so they float on top.
(4) Mohan should select seeds which float because damaged seeds sink due to infection.
39. Nitrogen is an essential element for all living organisms because it is a principal component of proteins and
nucleic acids. The circulation of nitrogen through the living and non-living components of biosphere is
called nitrogen cycle. Identify the processes P, Q and the organisms A, B & C involved in these processes.

(1) P – Nitrification, Q – Denitrification, A – Nitrobacter, B – Nitrosomonas, C – Pseudomonas
(2) P – Nitrification, Q – Denitrification, A – Nitrosomonas, B – Nitrobacter, C – Pseudomonas
(3) P – Denitrification, Q – Nitrification, A – Nitrosomonas, B – Nitrobacter, C – Pseudomonas
(4) P – Nitrification, Q – Denitrification, A – Nitrosomonas, B – Pseudomonas, C – Nitrobacter
40. Select the incorrect match
(i) Pachmarhi Biosphere reserve – Madhya Pradesh.
(ii) Periyar National park - West Bengal.
(iii) Endemic flora of pachmarhi biosphere reserve - wild mango and neem.
(iv) Endemic fauna of pachmarhi biosphere reserve - Bison and Indian giant squirrel.
(1) (i) and (ii) only (2) (i), (iii) only (3) (ii) & (iv) only (4) (ii), (iii) only
41. Observe the following Venn diagram and mark the correct option.

(1) P : Satpura national park, Q : Pachmarhi biosphere reserve, R : Pachmarhi sanctuary, S : Bori
sanctuary
(2) P : Pachmarhi biosphere reserve, Q : Satpura national park, R : Pachmarhi sanctuary, S : Bori
sanctuary
(3) P : Pachmarhi biosphere reserve, Q : Satpura national park, R: Pachmarhi sanctuary, S : Similipal
Biosphere Reserve
(4) P : Bori sanctuary, Q : Periyar national park, R : Pachmarhi sanctuary, S : Pachmarhi biosphere
reserve

8/14

42. If a plant did not get enough water, the likely result would be wilting and .
(1) an increase in the size of the leaves.
(2) an increase in the length of the stem.
(3) a decrease in the rate of photosynthesis.
(4) a reduction in the rate of CO2 production.
43. A flower is the reproductive organ of a plant. A typical flower has a stalk called as pedicel. The uppermost
part of pedicel is thalamus on which different parts of flower are arranged in concentric rings. Given below is
a flow chart showing different whorls of a complete flower-

Identify the missing parts from the flow chart –
(1) B – Petal, C – Anther, D – Filament , F – Ovary
(2) A – Sepal, C – Anther, F – Ovary, G – Style
(3) A – Sepal, C – Filament, D – Anther, F– Style
(4) B – Petal, C – Anther, D – Filament, G – Ovary
44. Observe the given reproductive part of a flower and identify the labelled part-

(1) a – stigma, b – style, c – ovary, d – ovule
(2) a – style, b – ovary, c – ovule, d – stigma
(3) a – style, b – ovule, c – ovary, d – stigma
(4) a – style, b – ovary, c – stigma, d – ovule
45. Which of the following reproduces only inside a host cell?
(1) Bacteria (2) Virus
(3) Amoeba (4) Fungus

9/14

SECTION-D : MATHEMATICS
This section contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
46. Which of the following shows the maximum rise in temperature?
(1) 23° to 32° (2) –10° to +1° (3) –18° to –11° (4) –5° to +5°
2 1
47. An art teacher had gallon of paint to pour into containers. If he poured gallon of paint into each
3 8
container until he ran out of paint, how many containers had paint in them, including the one that was
partially filled?
(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 6
48. Which of the following cannot be true for a polyhedron?
(1) V = 6, F = 4, E = 8 (2) V = 4, F = 4, E = 6
(3) V = 4, F = 4, E = 4 (4) V = 8, F = 6, E = 12

 −6 28   −11 65   −3 9 
49. Simplify :  ×  +  × − ÷ 
 7 18   13 22   29 87 
17 −6
(1) Additive inverse of (2) Multiplicative inverse of
6 17
17
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4)
6
50. Bert draw an angle that has the characteristics listed below.
• It has a measure greater than 88.5°.
• It is an obtuse angle.
Which of the following could be the angle Bert drew?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

n
3.2n − 4.2n  a p−q 
51. Simplify : n n −1
+  q 2 × a −2(p−q) 
2 −2  a
q − pq

(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) –1 (4) 2
2 2
52. The area of the triangle given is ft . What is the length of hypotenuse?
5

2 2 106 106
(1) ft (2) ft (3) 2 ft (4) ft
3 15 15
10/14

53. Find the number of faces of an octagonal pyramid.
(1) 8 (2) 7 (3) 6 (4) 9

54. In the given figure, ABCD is a rhombus with ΛABC = 56°. Determine ΛACD.

(1) 31° (2) 45° (3) 62° (4) 90°
55. The least number which must be subtracted from 18265 to make it a perfect square is
(1) 20 (2) 30 (3) 40 (4) 50
56. The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 15. If the number formed by reversing the digits is less than
the original number by 27, find the original number.
(1) 39 (2) 69 (3) 96 (4) 93
57. This number line shows different places that Evan can visit along a 1-kilometer trail from the school to
Williard Pond. (Marking marked at equal intervals)

Evan walked from the school to the tire swing and then from the tire swing to the blueberry patch. What is
the total distance Evan walked (In km.)?
5 7
(1) 0.6 (2) (3) (4) 0.9
10 10
58. Three numbers are in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 4. The sum of their cubes is 33957. Find the numbers.
(1) 7, 14, 21 (2) 8, 16, 24
(3) 14, 21, 28 (4) 16, 24, 32
x +3 9
59. Solve for x : =
x + 7 11
(1) 6 (2) 3 (3) 15 (4) 10
60. If the length and area of a rectangle are 1.68 cm and 3.4944 cm2 respectively, find the area of the circle
whose radius is equal to the breadth of the above mentioned rectangle. (Take ν = 3.14)
(1) 10.786 cm2 (2) 15.065 cm2
(3) 13.585 cm2 (4) 11.785 cm2
11/14

SECTION-D : MENTAL ABILITY
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
61. If + means ÷ , – means × , ÷ means – and × means +, then 6 + 2 – 4 ÷ 2 × 5 = ?
(1) 30 (2) –2 (3) 15 (4) 10
62. Sachin walks 12 km towards East and turns to his right and walks 8 km. Then he again took right turn and
walks 6 km. In which direction is Sachin going at the end?
(1) East (2) West (3) North (4) South
63. If ARUNI is written as ‘37542’ and LEBRAM is written as ‘168739’ then how will ‘BALMANI’ be written
in that language ?
(1) 8319432 (2) 8319342 (3) 8319724 (4) None of the above
64. Ritika was playing hide and seek with her sister Rima. Ritika went 20 meters towards her left then she turned
right and ran for 15 meters to find her sister. If she found her sister then how far was Rima from Ritika
initially?
(1) 25 meters (2) 30 meters (3) 40 meters (4) 42 meters
65. Find the next term in the given series.
11
66,66,66,11, ?
4
11 11 1
(1) (2) (3) 2 (4)
20 21 2
66. Find the missing number from following options.

7 49 343

11 121 ?

20 400 8000

(1) 1200 (2) 1331 (3) 1444 (4) 668
67. Study the information given in the diagram and answer the questions given below.

(i) Rectangle represents females. (ii) Triangle represents uneducated person.
(iii) Circle represents rural. (iv) Square represents private servants.
In different regions in the diagram some numbers are indicated which corresponds to the persons. How many
persons are uneducated female?
(1) 4 (2) 11 (3) 16 (4) 13

12/14

68. Pointing to Raju, Smita said “His Mother’s Brother is the Father of my Son Aashu” How is Raju related to
Smita?
(1) Brother in law (2) Nephew (3) Uncle (4) Aunt
69. In a certain code language 'CHAT' is written as SUZBGIBD. How will 'APT' be coded in that language?
(1) SUOBZQ (2) SUOZQB (3) SUOQBZ (4) SUOQZB
70. Choose the correct mirror image of the following question figure.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

71. Find the next term in the given series. 8, 14, 30, 58, 118, 234, ?
(1) 471 (2) 476 (3) 470 (4) 488
72. Find the water image of the given figure (X).

(X)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

73. In the following question, choose the alternative figure in which the question figure (X) is embedded.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

74. Select a figure from amongst the answer figures which will continue the same series as established by the
five problem figures.
Problem figures Answer figures

13/14

75. From the following figures of dice, find which letter will come in place of '?'.

(1) D (2) B (3) E (4) C
76. How many rectangles are there in the following figure?

(1) 7 (2) 8 (3) 9 (4) 10
77. Choose the correct choice representing the Venn diagram.

(1) Mango, Grass, Salt (2) Hen, Dog, Cat
(3) River, Well, Pond (4) Illiterate people, unemployed, poor people.
78. The following question is based on the information given below:
1. All the faces of a big cube are painted with blue colour.
2. The cube is cut into 64 small and equal size cubes.
How many small cubes are there whose atleast two faces are coloured?
(1) 28 (2) 32 (3) 24 (4) 30
79. Fifty students were there in tenth class who took the mental ability test. Six of the students did not qualify,
out of the remaining Ramesh ranked 14th from the last.What was his rank from top ?
(1) 32nd (2) 30th (3) 31st (4) None of above
80. A's son B is married with C, whose sister D is married to E, the brother of B. How D is related to A?
(1) Sister (2) Daughter-in-law (3) Sister-in-law (4) Cousin

ANSWER KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 2 4 4 3 1 4 4 3 2 1 2 3 3 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 4 2 2 4 3 2 3 2 1 3 2 1 3 2
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 2 4 3 2 1 2 2 1 2 4 2 3 4 4 2
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 2 4 3 3 1 3 2 4 3 3 3 4 3 3 3
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 3 2 2 1 1 2 2 2 4 1 3 2 3 1 4
Que. 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 3 4 2 3 2

14/14