Haryana NMMS 2023 Question Paper

NMMSS November – 2023
SET : A
cqdysV Øekad ,oa
vks0,e0vkj0 Øekad
vuqØekad ¼vadksa esa½ % Booklet Serial No. &
Roll No. (In Figures) O. M. R. Serial No.
vuqØekad ¼'kCnksa esa½ %
Roll No. (In Words)
ijh{kk dsUnz dk uke %
Name of Examination Centre
vH;FkhZ dk uke % vH;FkhZ ds gLrk{kj %
Name of Candidate Signature of the Candidate
bl iz'u-iqfLrdk esa i`"Bksa dh la[;k iz'uksa dh la[;k le;
56 180 3 hours
No. of Pages in this Question Booklet No. of Questions Time

fujh{kd ds gLrk{kj@Signature of the Invigilator :
vH;FkhZ dks 10 feuV dk le; iz'u-iqfLrdk ij Nis funs'Z kksa dks i<+u]s iz'u-i= cqdysV esa fn, x, iz'uksa ds lhfj;y uEcj psd djus] C;kSjk Hkjus ds fy, ,oa
cqdysV ds lHkh i`"Bksa dk voyksdu djus] misprint psd djus ds fy, fn;k tk,xkA ;fn iz'u&i= cqdysV esa iz'uksa ds lhfj;y uEcj xyr Nis gS]a i`"B
missing gS ;k dksbZ i`"B misprint gS rks rqjUr dsUnz v/kh{kd ls fuosnu djds iz'u-i= cqdysV cny ysAa bu 10 feuV ds i'pkr~ ;k ijh{kk lekIr gksus ds
i'pkr~ dksbZ nkok Lohdkj ugha fd;k tk,xkA bu 10 feuVksa ds vfrfjDr] iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsus o vafdr djus ds fy, iwjs 3 ?kaVs dk le; fn;k tk,xkA

vH;fFkZ
vH; fFkZ;ksa ds fy, funsZ'k % INSTRUCTIONS FOR THE CANDIDATES :
1. mÙkj i=d (OMR) bl iz'u iqfLrdk ds vUnj j[kk 1. The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet.
gSA tc vkidks iz'u iqfLrdk [kksyus dks dgk tk,] rks When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out
mÙkj i=d fudky dj /;ku ls dsoy dkys ckWy IokbaV the Answer Sheet and fill the particulars carefully with
isu ls fooj.k HkjsaA black ball point pen only.
2. ijh{kk dh vof/k 3 ?kaVs gS ,oa iz'u iqfLrdk esa 180 iz’u 2. The test is of three hours duration and consists of
gSaA izR;sd iz'u ,d vad dk gSA dksbZ _.kkRed vadu 180 questions. Each question carries one mark. There is no
ugha gSA negative marking.
3. bl i`"B ij fooj.k vafdr djus ,oa mÙkj i=d ij 3. Use Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on
fu’kku yxkus ds fy, dsoy dkys ckWy IokbaV isu dk this page/marking responses in the Answer Sheet. The
iz;ksx djsaA vH;FkhZ iz'u-iqfLrdk dk mi;ksx djus ,oa candidate should remain careful in handling the question
mÙkj i=d dks Hkjus esa lko/kkuh cjrsaA nwljh iz'u- paper and in marking the answers on the answer sheet.
lssV çnku ugha dh tk,xhA
iqfLrdk l Another booklet set will not be given.
4. ;g Hkh lqfuf’pr dj ysa fd iz'u iqfLrdk Øekad vkSj 4. Also ensure that your Test Booklet Serial No. and
mÙkj i=d Øekad ,d gh gSaA vxj ;g fHkUu gksa ;k Answer Sheet Serial No. are the same. In case of
iz'u iqfLrdk esa dksbZ i`"B missing ;k misprint gks rks discrepancy or any page missing/misprint in test booklet,
vH;FkhZ nwljh iz’u-iqfLrdk vkSj mÙkj i=d ysus ds then the candidate should immediately report the matter
fy, fujh{kd dks rqjUr voxr djok,A to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test
Booklet and the Answer Sheet.
5. ;g ijh{kk nks Hkkxksa esa gS % 5. This Test has two Parts :
Hkkx-
Hkkx I % ckSf)d ;ksX;rk ijh{k.k
ijh{k.k ¼ç- 1 ls ç- 90½ Part-I : Mental Ability Test (MAT) (Q. 1 to Q. 90)

Hkkx-
Hkkx II % 'kSf{kd ;ksX;rk ijh{k.k ¼ç- 91 ls ç- 180½ Part-II : Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT) (Q. 91 to Q. 180) 
uksV % bl iqfLrdk ds vUr esa fn, x, 'ks"k funsZ'kksa dks Note : Read other remaining instructions given on the
i<+saA last page of this Booklet.

(3) A

PART – I ¼Hkkx – I½
MENTAL ABILITY TEST
ckSf)d ;ksX;rk ijh{k.k
Questions : 1 to 90 Time : 1½ Hours

Direction : (Q 1 to 5) funsZ’k % ¼iz0 1 ls 5½
Study the following figures carefully and fuEu fp= dks /;kuiwodZ ns[ksa rFkk fn, gq,
answer the given questions. iz’uksa ds mÙkj nsaA
X Y X Y

Indians Leaders Hkkjrh; usrk

xk;d
Singers
Z Z

1. Which region denotes Indian 1. dkSu&lklk {ks= Hkkjrh; usrkvksa dks
leaders who are not singers ? iznf’kZr djrk gS tks xk;d ugha gSas \
(1) 2 (2) 3 (1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5 (3) 4 (4) 5

2. Which region represents Indian 2. dkSu&lklk {ks= Hkkjrh; usrkvksa dks
leaders who are singers ? iznf’kZr djrk gS tks xk;d gSa \
(1) 2 (2) 3 (1) 2 (2) 3

(3) 4 (4) 5 (3) 4 (4) 5

3. Which region represents leaders 3. dkSu&lk
lk {ks= usrkvksa dks iznf’kZr
who are neither singers nor djrk gS tks u rks xk;d gSa vkSj u
Indians ? gh Hkkjrh; \
(1) 2 (1) 2
(2) 3 (2) 3
(3) 6 (3) 6

(4) 7 (4) 7

NMMSS November–2023 P. T. O.

A (4)

4. Which region represents Indian 4. dkSu&lk {ks= Hkkjrh; xk;dksa dks
singers who are not leaders ? iznf’kZr djrk gS tks usrk ugha gSa \
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) 4 (3) 3 (4) 4

5. Which region represents signers 5. dkSu&lk {ks= xk;dksa dks iznf’kZr
who are neither Indians nor djrk gS tks u rks Hkkjrh; gSa vkSj u
leaders ? gh usrk \
(1) 2 (2) 4 (1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 6 (4) 7 (3) 6 (4) 7

Direction : (Q. No. 6 to 8) funsZ’k % ¼iz'u
'u la[;k 6 ls 8½
In each of the following questions, fuEufyf[kr iz’uksa eas v{kjksa dh Js.kh esa
various terms of an alphabet series are fofHkUu in fn, gq, gSa] ftlesa ,d ;k
given, in which one or more terms are vf/kd in yqIr gSa] mUgsa ¼\½ fpg~u ls
missing shown as by (?). Choose the n’kkZ;k x;k gSA fn, gq, fodYiksa esa ls yqIr
missing terms out of the given in pqusaA
alternatives.

6. R, U, X, A, D, ? 6. R, U, X, A, D, ?
(1) F (2) G (1) F (2) G

(3) H (4) J (3) H (4) J

7. T, R, P, N, L, ? , ? 7. T, R, P, N, L, ? , ?
(1) J, G (2) J, H (1) J, G (2) J, H

(3) K, H (4) K, I (3) K, H (4) K, I

8. B, D, F, I, L, P, ? 8. B, D, F, I, L, P, ?

(1) R (2) S (1) R (2) S

(3) T (4) V (3) T (4) V

NMMSS November–2023

(5) A

9. Four figures have been given, of 9. pkj vkd`fr;ka nh xbZ gSa] ftuesa ls
which three are alike in some way rhu vkd`fr;ka fdlh izdkj ls leku
and one is different
different, choose the gSa vkSj ,d vkd`fr fHkUu gSA fHkUu
odd one : vkd`fr dks NkafV, %

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

Direction : ( Q. No. 10 to 12)
12 funsZ’k % ¼iz'u
'u la[;k 10 ls 12½
The first unit contains two figures and igyh bdkbZ esa nks vkd`fr;k¡ gSa rFkk nwljh
the second unit contains one figure and a bdkbZ esa ,d vkd`fr o iz’u fpUg gSA
question mark (?) . Find out which one of mÙkj vkd`fr;ksa esa ls iz’u fpUg ds LFkku
the answer figures should
ould be placed at ij dkSu&lh
lh vkd`fr vk,xh \
question mark.

10. Question Figures : 10. iz’u vkd`fr;k¡ %

Answer Figures : mÙkj vkd`fr;k¡ %

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

NMMSS November–2023 P. T. O.

A (6)

11. Question Figures : 11. iz’u vkd`fr;k¡ %

Answer Figures : mÙkj vkd`fr;k¡ %

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

12. Question Figures : 12. iz’u vkd`fr;k¡ %

Answer Figures : mÙkj vkd`fr;k¡ %

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

13. One morning after sunrise Ankit 13. ,d lqc q g lw;ksZn; ds ckn vafdr ,d
was standing facing a pole. The [kEHks dh vksj eqga djds [kM+k FkkA
shadow of the pole fell exactly to [kEHks dh Nk;k Bhd mlds nkfguh
his right. To which direction was vksj iM+hA mldk eq[k fdl fn’kk dh
he facing ? vksj Fkk \
(1) East (2) West (1) iwoZ (2) if’Pke

(3) South (4) North (3) nf{k.k (4) mÙkj

NMMSS November–2023

(7) A

14. Choose the odd word from the 14. fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls i`Fkd ‘kCn
given alternatives : pqfu, %
(1) Europe (2) Africa (1) ;wjksi (2) vÝhdk
(3) Asia (4) Canada (3) ,f’k;k (4) dukMk

15. If Friday falls on 15th of 15. ;fn 15 flrEcj 2000 dks ‘kqØokj gS
September 2000. What will be the rks 15 flrEcj 2001 dks dkSu&lk
day on 15th of September 2001 ? fnu gksxk \
(1) Thursday (2) Friday (1) c`gLifrokj (2) ‘kqØokj
(3) Saturday (4) Sunday (3) ‘kfuokj (4) jfookj

16. Select the box that cannot be 16. fn, x, [kqys ¼vuQksYMsM½ ckWDl dks
formed by folding the given eksM+dj tks ckWDl ugha cuk;k tk
unfolded box : ldrk p;u djsa %

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

17. Six sides of a cube are coloured in 17. ,d ?ku ds 6 i`”B fuEu fp=
the following manner. vuqlkj jax fd, x, gSaA

If Blue and Orange are opposite ;fn uhyk rFkk ukjaxh foijhr i`”Bksa ij
and Red is on the top, which colour gksa rFkk yky Åij ds i`”B ij gks] rks
will be at the bottom ? uhps ds i`”B ij dkSu&lk jax gksxk \
(1) dkyk (2) lQsn

(1) Black (2) White
(3) Orange (4) Yellow
Yello (3) ukjaxh (4) ihyk

NMMSS November–2023 P. T. O.

A (8)

18. If 1 + 2 = 5 , 5 + 6 = 61 then 3 + 4 18. ;fn 1 + 2 = 5 , 5 + 6 = 61 rks 3 + 4 =
=? ?
(1) 15 (2) 25 (1) 15 (2) 25
(3) 31 (4) 34 (3) 31 (4) 34

19. A clock seen through a mirror 19. ,d ?kM+
M+h niZ.k esa ns[kus ij lok rhu
shows quarter past three. What is cts dk le; n’kkZrh gSA ?kM+h esa lgh
the correct time ? le; D;k gS \
(1) 9:45 (2) 9:15 (1) 9:45 (2) 9:15
(3) 8:45 (4) 8:15 (3) 8:45 (4) 8:15
Direction : (Q. No. 20 and 21) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 20 vkSj 21½
In these questions, a number series is bu iz’uksa esa ,d la[;k Ük`a[kyk nh xbZ gS
given with one term missing. Choose the ftlesa ,d in yqIr gSA fn, x, fodYiksa esa
correct alternative from the given ones ls og fodYi pqfu, tks Ük`a[kyk dks iwjk
that will complete the series. djrk gksA
20. 4, 10, 17, 26, 38, 54, ? 20. 4, 10, 17, 26, 38, 54, ?
(1) 65 (2) 75 (1) 65 (2) 75
(3) 74 (4) 66 (3) 74 (4) 66

21. 5, 8, 19, 60, 183, ? 21. 5, 8, 19, 60, 183, ?
(1) 185 (2) 544 (1) 185 (2) 544
(3) 369 (4) 552 (3) 369 (4) 552

22. 27 small cubes are placed in such 22. 27 NksVs ?kuksa dks bl izdkj j[kk x;k
a way that a big cube is formed. gS fd ,d cM+k ?ku cu tk,A A
Faces of how many cubes are }kjk vafdr ?ku dks fdrus ?kuksa ds
touching the cube marked A ? ry Li’kZ dj jgs gSa \

(1) 4 (2) 5 (1) 4 (2) 5
(3) 8 (4) 9 (3) 8 (4) 9
NMMSS November–2023

(9) A
23. What will be the product obtained 23. rhuksa vkd`fr;ksa esa fLFkr la[;k dks
by multiplying the numbers mu la[;kvksa ds ;ksx ls xq.kk djus
located in all three figures by the ij D;k xq.kuQy izkIr gksxk tks
sum of the numbers which are dsoy lekUrj prqHkqZt esa fLFkr gSa \
located only in parallelogram ?
(1) 198 (2) 150 (1) 198 (2) 150
(3) 54 (4) 72 (3) 54 (4) 72

24. Rohan starts walking is South 24. jksgu ,d fuf’pr LFkku ls nf{k.k
direction from a certain place. fn’kk esa pyuk izkjaHk djrk gSA 6
After walking 6 km, he turns right fdeh pyus ds ckn og nk;sa eqM+dj
and walk 3 kilometers. Then 3 fdeh pyrk gSA fQj nk;sa eqM+dj
turning right, he walks 2 og 2 fdeh pyrk gSA var esa og
kilometers. Finally, he turns right nk;sa eqM+dj 6 fdeh pyrk gS] rks og
and walks 6 kilometers, then at vc vius izkjafHkd LFkku ls fdruh
what distance is he now from his nwjh ij fLFkr gS \
initial position ?
(1) 7 km (2) 6 km (1) 7 fdeh (2) 6 fdeh
(3) 4 km (4) 5 km (3) 4 fdeh (4) 5 fdeh

25. What is the number of triangles in 25. nh xbZ vkd`fr esa f=Hkqtksa dh D;k
the given figure ? la[;k gS \

(1) 20 (2) 28 (1) 20 (2) 28
(3) 32 (4) 14 (3) 32 (4) 14
26. If HE = 15, SHE = 35, then how 26. ;fn HE = 15, SHE = 35 gS] rks
will ‘LADY’ be written ? ‘LADY’ dks fdl izdkj fy[kk tk,xk \
(1) 46 (2) 45 (1) 46 (2) 45

(3) 42 (4) 38 (3) 42 (4) 38

NMMSS November–2023 P. T. O.

A ( 10 )

Direction : (Q. No. 27 to 29)
29 funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 27 ls 29½
All the faces of a solid cube are painted ,d Bksl ?ku ds lHkh Qydksa dks ,d
with the same colour and then it is cut leku jax ls jaxk x;k gS rFkk blds ckn
into 512 cubic pieces of side 3 cm. On bls 3 lseh Hkqtk okys 512 ?kukdkj VqdM+ksa
this basis, answer the followin following esa dkVk x;k gSA bl vk/kkj ij
questions. fuEufyf[kr iz’uksa ds mÙkj nhft,A
27. What will be the length of the side 27. cM+s ?ku dh Hkqtk dh yEckbZ D;k
of the bigger cube ? gksxh \
(1) 12 cm (2) 24 cm (1) 12 lseh (2) 24 lseh
(3) 8 cm (4) 16 cm (3) 8 lseh (4) 16 lseh
28. How many times was the bigger 28. cM+s ?ku dks fdruh ckj dkVk x;k \
cube cut ?
(1) 7 times (2) 8 times (1) 7 ckj (2) 8 ckj
(3) 16 times (4) 21 times (3) 16 ckj (4) 21 ckj
29. How many such small cubes will 29. ,sls fdrus NksVs ?ku izkIr gksaxs ftuds
be obtained which have colour on dsoy nks Qyd ij jax gks \
only two faces ?
(1) 36 (2) 64 (1) 36 (2) 64
(3) 72 (4) 96 (3) 72 (4) 96

Direction : (Q. No. 30 to 32)
32 funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 30 ls 32½
The answer to the following questions fuEufyf[kr iz’uksa ds mÙkj uhps fn, x,
are based on the diagram given below. vkjs[k ij vk/kkfjr gSaA

30. What is the sum of numbers 30. dsoy nks vkd`fr;ksa esa fLFkr la[;kvksa
located in only two figures ? dk ;ksx D;k gS \

(1) 24 (2) 30 (1) 24 (2) 30
(3) 11 (4) 28 (3) 11 (4) 28

NMMSS November–2023

( 11 ) A
31. What is the product of numbers 31. dsoy ,d vkd`fr esa fLFkr la[;kvksa
located in only one figure ? dk xq.kuQy D;k gS \
(1) 960 (2) 840 (1) 960 (2) 840
(3) 120 (4) 720 (3) 120 (4) 720
32. What product will be obtained if 32. dsoy lekUrj prqHkqt Z esa fLFkr
the sum of numbers located only la[;kvksa ds ;ksx dks] dsoy f=Hkqt esa
in parallelogram is multiplied by fLFkr la[;kvksa ds ;ksx ls xq.kk djus
the sum of numbers located only ij D;k xq.kuQy izkIr gksxk \
in triangle ?
(1) 171 (2) 27 (1) 171 (2) 27
(3) 51 (4) 84 (3) 51 (4) 84

33. A introduces B saying, “He is the 33. A, B dks ;g dgdj feyokrk gS fd
husband of the girl who is grand ^^;g esjs firk ds firk dh iksrh dk
daughter of my father’s father.” ifr gSA** B, A ls fdl izdkj
How is B related to A ? lacaf/kr gS \
(1) Son – in – law (1) nkekn
(2) Brother – in – law (2) thtk
(3) Brother (3) HkkbZ
(4) Son (4) csVk
34. What can be the least number of 34. ,d iafDr esa yM+dksa dh lcls de
boys in a row, ‘two boys ahead of la[;k D;k gks ldrh gS] ^,d yM+ds
one boy, two boys behind one boy ds vkxs nks yM+ds] ,d yM+ds ds ihNs
and one boy in between the two nks yM+ds vkSj nks yM+dksa ds chp esa
boys’ ? ,d yM+dk* \
(1) 7 (2) 5 (1) 7 (2) 5
(3) 9 (4) 3 (3) 9 (4) 3

Direction : (Q. No. 35 to 37) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 35 ls 37½
Read the following information and fuEufyf[kr tkudkjh i<+sa vkSj uhps fn,
answer the questions given below it. x, iz’uksa ds mÙkj nsaA
P is the father of Q. But Q is not his son. P, Q dk firk gSA ysfdu Q mudk csVk
ugha gSA
U is the daughter of Q. W is the spouse U, Q dh csVh gSA W, P dk thou lkFkh
of P. gSA
V is brother of Q. R is the son of V. V, Q dk HkkbZ gSA R, V dk csVk gSA

T is spouse of V. S is the father of T. T, V dk thou lkFkh gSA S, T dk firk gSA

NMMSS November–2023 P. T. O.

A ( 12 )

35. Who is the grandmother of R ? 35. R dh nknh dkSu gS \
(1) W (2) P (1) W (2) P
(3) Q (4) S (3) Q (4) S
36. Who is the son of W ? 36. W dk csVk dkSu gS \
(1) R (2) S (1) R (2) S
(3) U (4) V (3) U (4) V
37. How is W related to T ? 37. W dk T ls D;k laca/k gS \
(1) Mother-in-law (2) Mother (1) lkl (2) ekrk
(3) Grandmother (4) Sister (3) nknh (4) cgu
Direction : (Q. No. 38 and 3
39) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 38 vkSj 39½
The three different position of a dice are fp= fMCck cukus ds fy, eksM+k x;k gSA
given below. Select the suitable answer fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls ,slk fodYi ¼fMCck½
of the following question. pqusa tks cuk;s x, fMCcs ds le:i gksA

38. What is the letter
tter on the opposite 38. Q ds foijhr lrg ij dkSu&lk
surface of Q ? v{kj gS \
(1) A (2) X (1) A (2) X
(3) R (4) P (3) R (4) P
39. What is the letter on the opposite 39. P ds foijhr lrg ij dkSu&lk
surface of P ? v{kj gS \
(1) L (2) Q (1) L (2) Q
(3) X (4) A (3) X (4) A
40. Buses for Agra leave every 30 40. cl LVSaM t;iqj ls vkxjk ds fy,
minutes from the bus stand cl gj rhl feuV esa fudyrh gSA
Jaipur. The employee at the iwNrkN f[kM+dh ij deZpkjh us ,d
inquiry window told a passenger ;k=h dks crk;k fd cl nl feuV
that the bus had left 10 minutes igys tk pqdh gS vkSj crk;k vxyh
ago and the next bus would leave cl 11:15 am ij izLFkku djsxhA
at 11:15 am. At what time did the deZpkjh us ;k=h dks ;g tkudkjh
employee give this information to fdl le; nh \
the passenger ?

(1) 10 : 45 am (2) 10 : 50 am (1) 10 : 45 am (2) 10 : 50 am
(3) 10 : 55 am (4) 10 : 35 am (3) 10 : 55 am (4) 10 : 35 am

NMMSS November–2023

( 13 ) A

41. How many trangles are there in 41. uhps nh xbZ vkd`fr esa f=Hkqtksa dh
the given figure ? la[;k fdruh gS \

(1) 16 (2) 13 (1) 16 (2) 13

(3) 9 (4) 7 (3) 9 (4) 7

42. If + means – , – means ×, × means 42. ;fn + dk vFkZ – , – dk vFkZ ×, ×
÷ and ÷ means +, then find the dk vFkZ ÷ vkSj ÷ dk vFkZ + gS] rks
value of 330 × 15 + 2 – 7 ÷ 5 = ? 330 × 15 + 2 – 7 ÷ 5 = ?

(1) 145 (2) 13 (1) 145 (2) 13

(3) 12 (4) 2 (3) 12 (4) 2

43. In an examination, a student answer 43. ,d Nk= ds ,d ijh{kk esa ftrus
twice as many questions correctly iz’uksa ds mÙkj lgh gksrs gSa] mlls
as he answers wrongly. If he nksxu
q s mÙkj xyr gksrs gSaA ;fn mlus
attempted 24 questions, how many 24 iz’uksa dks gy fd;k gks] rks mlus
questions did he solve correctly ? fdrus iz’u lgh gy fd, \
(1) 16 (2) 12 (1) 16 (2) 12
(3) 18 (4) 9 (3) 18 (4) 9

44. How many such letter pairs are 44. ‘kCn EDUCATION esa fdrus ,sls
there in the word EDUCATION v{kj ;qXe gS]a ftuds chp mrus gh
which have as many letters v{kj gSa ftrus vaxzsth o.kZekyk esa
between them as there are in the gksrs gSa \
English alphabet ?

(1) 2 (2) 4 (1) 2 (2) 4

(3) 1 (4) 3 (3) 1 (4) 3
NMMSS November–2023 P. T. O.

A ( 14 )

45. How many trangles are there in 45. uhps nh xbZ vkd`fr esa f=Hkqtksa dh
the given figure ? la[;k fdruh gS \

(1) 8 (2) 10 (1) 8 (2) 10
(3) 12 (4) 14 (3) 12 (4) 14
Direction : (Q. No. 46 to 50)
50 funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 46 ls 50½
In each of the following figures number uhps nh xbZ izR;sd vkd`fr esa ,d fuf’pr
are written according to some patterns. Øe vuqlkj dqN la[;k,a fy[kh xbZ gSaA
One number is missing, find the missing buesa ls ,d la[;k yqIr gS] yqIr la[;k
number that replace the question Kkr djsa tks iz’u fpUg¼
fpUg¼\½ ds LFkku ij
mark(?). mi;qDr gksA

46. 46.

(1) 5 (2) 8 (1) 5 (2) 8
(3) 10 (4) 7 (3) 10 (4) 7

47. 47.

(1) 50 (2) 18 (1) 50 (2) 18
(3) 31 (4) 52 (3) 31 (4) 52

48. 48.

(1) 138 (2) 88 (1) 138 (2) 88
(3) 22 (4) 23 (3) 22 (4) 23
NMMSS November–2023

( 15 ) A

49. 49.

(1) 21 (2) 48 (1) 21 (2) 48
(3) 35 (4) 24 (3) 35 (4) 24

50. 50.

(1) 18 (2) 15 (1) 18 (2) 15
(3) 25 (4) 8 (3) 25 (4) 8
Direction : (Q. No. 51 and 52) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 51 ,oa 52½
Select a proper group of letters from the fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls v{kjksa dk ,d lgh
given alternative. lewg pqfu, ftuls fjDr LFkkuksa dh iwfrZ dh
tk ldsA
51. __cd__ac__b __ __ dbacd __ 51. __cd__ac__b __ __ dbacd __
(1) a c d b a d (2) a b d c a a (1) a c d b a d (2) a b d c a a
(3) a b d a c b (4) a b d a c a (3) a b d a c b (4) a b d a c a

52. q __ r r p r r p __ q p __ q q r __ q r __ p 52. q __ r r p r r p __ q p __ q q r __ q r __ p
(1) p q q r r (2) q p p q r (1) p q q r r (2) q p p q r
(3) p r q r p (4) q p r p q (3) p r q r p (4) q p r p q

53. In a row, A is 15th from the left 53. ,d iafDr esa A dk ck,a ls 15oka
and B is 12th from the right. If LFkku vkSj B dk nk,a ls 12oka LFkku
they interchange their positions, gSA vxj os viuk LFkku vkil esa
then B becomes 19th from the cny ysrs gS]a rks B dk nk,a ls 19oka
right. How many people are there LFkku gks tkrk gSA iafDr esa dqy
in total in the row ? fdrus O;fDr gSa \

(1) 31 (2) 33 (1) 31 (2) 33
(3) 34 (4) 22 (3) 34 (4) 22
NMMSS November–2023 P. T. O.

A ( 16 )

54. Which of the following word will 54. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ‘kCn
be at fourth position in the vaxzt
s h ‘kCndks”k esa pkSFks LFkku ij
English Dictionary ? gksxk \
(a) Cruise (a) Cruise
(b) Crupper (b) Crupper
(c) Crusade (c) Crusade
(d) Crude (d) Crude
(1) c (2) d (1) c (2) d
(3) b (4) a (3) b (4) a

55. A clock runs 6 minutes faster in 1 55. ,d ?kM+h 1 ?kaVs esa 6 feuV rst
hour. If at 12:00 noon clock is set pyrh gSA ;fn nksigj 12 cts ?kM+h
correctly and now the clock shows lgh lsV dh xbZ gS] vc ?kM+h ‘kke
5:30 in the evening, what will be ds 5:30 fn[kk jgh gS] rks okLrfod
the actual time ? le; fdruk gksxk \
(1) 6:00 PM (2) 5:00 PM (1) ‘kke 6:00 (2) ‘kke 5:00
(3) 6:30 PM (4) 5:30 PM (3) ‘kke 6:30 (4) ‘kke 5:30
Direction : (Q. No. 56 to 59) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 56 ls 59½
In the following questions there are fuEufyf[kr iz’uksa esa dFku ds ckn fu”d”kZ
statements followed by conclusions. gSaA fu”d”kZ@fu"d"kks± dk p;u djsa tks fn,
Choose the conclusion(s) which must x, dFkuksa ls rkfdZd :i ls vuqlj.k
logically follow from the given djs@djsaA
statements.
(1) If only conclusion I follow. (1) ;fn dsoy fu”d”kZ I vuqlj.k djrk gSA
(2) If only conclusion II follow. (2) ;fn dsoy fu”d”kZ II vuqlj.k djrk gSA
(3) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. (3) ;fn u rks fu”d”kZ I vkSj u gh II
(4) If both conclusion I and II follows. vuqlj.k djrs gSaA
(4) ;fn fu”d”kZ I vkSj II nksuksa vuqlj.k
djrs gSaA
56. Statements : No Sugar is lemon. 56. dFku % dksbZ phuh uhacw ugha gSA
All sweets are sugar. lHkh feBkbZ phuh gSaA
Conclusion : I No sweet is fu”d”kZ % I dksbZ feBkbZ uhacw ugha gSA
lemon.

II All sugar are II lHkh phuh feBkb;k¡ gSaA
sweets.
NMMSS November–2023

( 17 ) A

57. Statements : All apples are 57. dFku % lHkh lsc dsys gSaA
bananas.
All bananas are lHkh dsys vaxwj gSaA
grapes.
No grape is dksbZ vaxwj rjcwt ugha gSA
watermelon.
Conclusion : I All apples are fu”d”kZ % I lHkh lsc rjcwt ugha gSaA
not watermelon.
II No banana is II dksbZ dsyk lsc ugha gSA
apple.

58. Statements : Some fruits are 58. dFku % dqN Qy isM+ gSaA
trees.
All trees are cars. lHkh isM+ dkj gSaA
All cars are buses. lHkh dkjsa cl gSaA
Conclusion : I Some buses are fu”d”kZ % I dqN clsa Qy gSaA
fruits.
II Some cars are II dqN dkjsa Qy gSaA
fruits.

59. Statements : All birds are red. 59. dFku % lHkh i{kh yky gSaA
Some red are houses. dqN yky ?kj gSaA
All houses are green. lHkh ?kj gjs gSaA
Conclusion : I Some red are fu”d”kZ % I dqN yky gjs gSaA
green.
II All red are birds. II lHkh yky i{kh gSaA
60. If the English alphabets are 60. ;fn vaxzsth o.kZekyk dks foijhr Øe
written in the reverse order, then esa fy[kk tkrk gS] rks nk;ha vksj ls
which letter will be the fourth 13osa o.kZ ds ckbZa vksj pkSFkk o.kZ
letter to the left of the 13th letter dkSu&lk gksxk \
from the right ?

(1) J (2) K (1) J (2) K
(3) L (4) Q (3) L (4) Q
NMMSS November–2023 P. T. O.

A ( 18 )

61. If the word ‘DEAR’ can be written 61. ;fn ‘DEAR’ ‘kCn dks GFUD fy[kk
as GFUD, then how can the word tkrk gS] rks ‘READ’ dks blh dksM esa
‘READ’ be written in that code ? fdl izdkj fy[kk tk ldrk gS \
(1) GTGD (1) GTGD
(2) TGGD (2) TGGD

(3) TGCF (3) TGCF

(4) UHDG (4) UHDG

62. At a party everyone gave a gift to 62. ,d ikVhZ esa lHkh us ,d nwljs dks
everyone else. If the number of migkj fn;kA ;fn migkjksa dh la[;k
gifts is 72, how many people were 72 gS] rks ikVhZ esa dqy fdrus O;fDr
present in the party ? ‘kkfey Fks \
(1) 9 (2) 8 (1) 9 (2) 8
(3) 12 (4) 6 (3) 12 (4) 6

Direction : (Q. No. 63 to 68)
68 funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 63 ls 68½
In each of the following questions, 4 fuEufyf[kr izR;sd iz’u esa 4 iz’u
question figures are given as A, B, C and vkd`fr;k¡ A, B, C vkSj D ds :i esa vkSj
D and four answer figures are given as pkj mÙkj vkd`fr;k¡ 1, 2, 3 vkSj 4 ds :i
1, 2, 3 and 4. Select the figures from
f the esa nh xbZ gSaA mÙkj vkd`fr;ksa esa ls ml
answer figures that will continue the vkd`fr dk p;u dhft, tks iz’u vkd`fr;ksa
series given in the question figures
figures. esa nh xbZ Ük``a[kyk dks tkjh
tkj j[ksxhA

63. Question figures : 63. iz'u vkd`fr;k¡ %

Answer figures : mÙkj vkd`fr;k¡ %
(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

NMMSS November–2023

( 19 ) A

64. Question figures : 64. iz'u vkd`fr;k¡ %

Answer figures : mÙkj vkd`fr;k¡ %

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

65. Question figures : 65. iz'u vkd`fr;k¡ %

Answer figures : mÙkj vkd`fr;k¡ %

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

66. Question figures : 66. iz'u vkd`fr;k¡ %

Answer figures : mÙkj vkd`fr;k¡ %

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

NMMSS November–2023 P. T. O.

A ( 20 )

67. Question figures : 67. iz'u vkd`fr;k¡ %

Answer figures : mÙkj vkd`fr;k¡ %

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

68. Question figures : 68. iz'u vkd`fr;k¡ %

Answer figures : mÙkj vkd`fr;k¡ %

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

Direction : (Q. No. 69 and 70) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 69 ,oa 70½

In each of the following questions, select fuEufyf[kr izR;sd iz’u esa] Ük`a[kyk dks
in the figure that comes in place of the tkjh j[kus ds fy, mÙkj vkd`fr;ksa eas ls
question mark from the answer figures. iz’u fpUg ¼\½½ ds LFkku ij vkus okyh
vkd`fr dk p;u djsaA

NMMSS November–2023

( 21 ) A

69. Question figures : 69. iz'u vkd`fr;k¡ %

Answer figures : mÙkj vkd`fr;k¡ %

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

70. Question figures : 70. iz'u vkd`fr;k¡ %

Answer figures : mÙkj vkd`fr;k¡ %

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

Direction : (Q. No. 71 and 72) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 71 ,oa 72½

In each of the following questions figures fuEufyf[kr izR;sd iz’u esa] vkd`fr A vkSj
A and B are related in a particular way. B ,d fo’ks”k rjhds ls lacaf/kr gSaA mÙkj
Choose one figure from the answer figures vkd`fr;ksa esa ls ,d vkd`fr dks pqusa tks
which establishes the same relationship vkd`fr C vkSj D esa ogh lac/a k LFkkfir
between figures C and D. (Which is the djrh gSA ¼tks vkd`fr D eas iz’u fpg~u dk

place of question mark in figure D). LFkku ys½

NMMSS November–2023 P. T. O.

A ( 22 )

71. Question figures : 71. iz'u vkd`fr;k¡ %

Answer figures : mÙkj vkd`fr;k¡ %

(1) (1)

(2) (2)

(3) (3)

(4) (4)

72. Question figures : 72. iz'u vkd`fr;k¡ %

Answer figures : mÙkj vkd`fr;k¡ %

(1) (1)

(2) (2)

(3) (3)

(4) (4)

NMMSS November–2023

( 23 ) A

Direction : (Q. No. 73 and 74) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 73 ,oa 74½
Select mirror image of the given nh xbZ vkd`fr (X) dk niZ.k izfrfcac
figure/word (X). pqfu,A
73. Question figure : 73. iz'u vkd`fr %

Answer figures : mÙkj vkd`fr;k¡ %

(1) (1)

(2) (2)

(3) (3)

(4) (4)

74. Question figure : 74. iz'u vkd`fr %

Answer figures : mÙkj vkd`fr;k¡ %
(1) (1)

(2) (2)
(3) (3)

(4) (4)

Direction : (Q. No. 75 and 76) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 75 ,oa 76½

Select the water image of the given nh xbZ vkd`fr (X) dk ty izfrfcac pqfu,A
figure (X).
NMMSS November–2023 P. T. O.

A ( 24 )

75. Question figure : 75. iz'u vkd`fr %

Answer figures : mÙkj vkd`fr;k¡ %

(1) (1)

(2) (2)

(3) (3)

(4) (4)

76. Question figure : 76. iz'u vkd`fr %

Answer figures : mÙkj vkd`fr;k¡ %

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

Direction : (Q. No. 77 and 78) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 77 ,oa 78½
The given figure (X) is followed by four fn;k x;k fp= (X) pkj fp=ksa (1), (2), (3)
figures (1), (2), (3) and (4) such that (X) vkSj (4) esa ls ,d dk ifj.kke gS] ,sls fd

is embedded in one of them. Trace out (X) buesa ls fdlh ,d esa lfUufgr
lf gSA
the correct alternative. mi;qDr fodYi dh igpku djsAa
NMMSS November–2023

( 25 ) A

77. Question figure : 77. iz'u vkd`fr %

Answer figures : mÙkj vkd`fr;k¡ %

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

78. Question figure : 78. iz'u vkd`fr %

Answer figures : mÙkj vkd`fr;k¡ %

(1) (1)

(2) (2)

(3) (3)

(4) (4)

NMMSS November–2023 P. T. O.

A ( 26 )

79. A Series is given with one term 79. nh xbZ Ük`a[kyk esa ,d in yqIr gSA
missing. Choose the correct Ük`a[kyk dks iwjk djus ds fy, lgh
alternative from the given ones fodYi pqfu, %
that will complete the series :

DJ, EM, FP, ? DJ, EM, FP, ?

(1) AK (2) GK (1) AK (2) GK

(3) GS (4) GT (3) GS (4) GT

80. Read the following information 80. fuEufyf[kr lwpuk dks /;kuiwoZd
carefully and answer the question if<+, rFkk uhps fn, x;s iz’u dk
given below. mÙkj nhft,A
(A) Gopal is shorter than Ashok (A) xksiky yackbZ esa v’kksd ls NksVk
but taller than Kunal. gS ijUrq dquky ls yack gSA
(B) Navin is shorter than Kunal. (B) uohu] dquky ls yackbZ esa NksVk gSA

(C) Ramesh is taller than Navin. (C) jes’k] uohu ls yackbZ esa yack gSA

(D) Ashok is taller than Ramesh. (D) v’kksd] jes’k ls yackbZ esa yack gSA

Who among them is the tallest ? buesa ls dkSu lcls vf/kd yack gS \
(1) Gopal (2) Ashok (1) xksiky (2) v’kksd

(3) Kunal (4) Ramesh (3) dquky (4) jes’k

81. Write the following in the correct 81. uhps fn, x, ‘kCnksa dk lgh Øe
order : gksxk %
(A) Yarn (B) Plant (A) /kkxk (B) ikS/kk
(C) Sari (D) Cotton (C) lkM+h (D) dikl
(E) Clothing (E) diM+s
(1) B, D, E, A, C (1) B, D, E, A, C
(2) B, D, A, E, C (2) B, D, A, E, C
(3) B, D, C, E, A (3) B, D, C, E, A

(4) B, D, E, C, A (4) B, D, E, C, A

NMMSS November–2023

( 27 ) A

82. If B is 8 km East of A and 6 km 82. ;fn B, A ds iwoZ esa 8 fdeh rFkk C
North of C, then what is the ds mÙkj esa 6 fdeh ij gks] rks A o
distance between A and C ? C ds chp dh nwjh D;k gS \

(1) 2 km (1) 2 fdeh

(2) 10 km (2) 10 fdeh

(3) 12 km (3) 12 fdeh

(4) 14 km (4) 14 fdeh

83. Your mother is 4 years younger 83. rqEgkjh ekrk th rqEgkjs firkth ls 4
than your father and your father o”kZ NksVh gSa rFkk rqEgkjs firkth dh
is 6 times older than you. If you mez rqels 6 xq.kk gSA ;fn rqEgkjh
are 6 years old, what is your mez 6 Ok”kZ gks] rks rqEgkjh ekrk th
mother’s age ? dh mez gksxh \
(1) 28 Years (1) 28 o”kZ

(2) 32 Years (2) 32 o”kZ

(3) 34 Years (3) 34 o”kZ

(4) 36 Years (4) 36 o”kZ

84. At what time between 5:00 and 84. 5:00 vkSj 5:30 ds chp esa fdl
5:30 will the hands of the clock be le; ?kM+h dh lqb;k¡ ijLij yEcor~
perpendicular to each other ? gksx
a h \
10 10
(1) 5 : 11 (1) 5 : 11
11 11
5 5
(2) 5 : 10 (2) 5 : 10
11 11
5 5
(3) 15 : 11 (3) 15 : 11
11 11

10 10
(4) 5 : 10 (4) 5 : 10
11 11
NMMSS November–2023 P. T. O.

A ( 28 )

85. Select the figure that will come 85. ml vkd`fr dk p;u djsa tks
next in the following figure : fuEufyf[kr Üka`[kyk
k esa vkxs vk,xh %

(1) (1)

(2) (2)

(3) (3)

(4) (4)

86. Find the number of cubes in the 86. nh xbZ vkd`fr esa ?kuksa dh la[;k Kkr
given figure. djsaA

(1) 6 (1) 6
(2) 8 (2) 8

(3) 9 (3) 9
(4) 10 (4) 10
NMMSS November–2023

( 29 ) A
87. Which one of the answer figure 87. ;fn leL;k vkd`fr leku Øe ls
would occupy the next position in cnys rks vxys Øe ij mÙkj
the problem figure,
figure if they vkd`fr;ksa esa ls dkSu&lh vkd`fr
continue in the same order ? LFkku ik,xh \
Problem Figure : leL;k vkd`fr %

Answer Figures : mÙkj vkd`fr;k¡ %

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

Direction : (Q No. 88 and 89) funsZ’k % ¼iz’u la[;k 88 vkSj 89½
The figure (X) is folded to form a box. fp= (X) fMCck cukus ds fy, eksM+k x;k gSA
Choose the box from given alternatives fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls ,slk fodYi ¼fMCck½
that is similar to the box formed. pqusa tks cuk;s x, fMCcs ds le:i gksA

88. 88.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

NMMSS November–2023 P. T. O.

A ( 30 )

89. 89.

(1) (1)

(2) (2)

(3) (3)

(4) (4)

90. How many quadrilaterals are 90. nh xbZ vkd`fr esa dqy fdrus prqHkqZt
there in the given figure ? gSa \

(1) 10 (1) 10

(2) 11 (2) 11

(3) 12 (3) 12

(4) 13 (4) 13
NMMSS November–2023

( 31 ) A

PART – II ¼Hkkx – II½
SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST
'kSf{kd {kerk ijh{k.k
Questions : 91 to 180 Time : 1½ Hours

91. By which amendment the 91. fdl la’kks/ku }kjk ekSfyd dÙkZ
d O;ksa dks
Fundamental Duties were Hkkjrh; lafo/kku esa ‘kkfey fd;k
included in Indian constitution ? x;k \
(1) 38th Amendment (1) 38oka la’kks/ku
(2) 42nd Amendment (2) 42oka la’kks/ku
(3) 40th Amendment (3) 40oka la’kks/ku
(4) 39th Amendment (4) 39oka la’kks/ku

92. In the summer season, objects 92. xfeZ;ksa ds ekSle esa] oLrq,¡ vkx cgqr
catch fire very quickly. In the tYnh idM+ ysrh gSaA fp= esa O;fDr
picture, the person is covered with dks vkx idM idM+us ij dacy ls <d
a blanket when he catches fire dj j[kk gS] D;ksafd %
because :

(1) The blanket will save the (1) dacy Lo;a tydj O;fDr dks
person by itself burning. cpk ysxkA
(2) The blanket is made of non non- (2) dacy vToyu’khy inkFkZ dk cuk
flammable material. gSA
(3) The blanket does not allow (3) dacy Toyu’khy vkWvkDlhtu dks
flammable oxygen to enter vUnj ugha vkus nsrkA
inside.
(4) The blanket has the properties (4) dacy esa vkx cq>kus okys ty ds
of water in fire extinguishing. xq.k gksrs gSaA

93. What is the meaning of ‘Khalsa’ ? 93. ^[kkylk* ‘kCn dk D;k vFkZ gS \
(1) ifo= (2) fl[k

(1) Pious (2) Sikh
(3) Ripe fruit (4) Kheel (3) idk gqvk Qy (4) [khy

NMMSS November–2023 P. T. O.

A ( 32 )

94. A petroleum product used in place 94. ,d isVªksfy;e mRikn ftls dksyrkj
of coal-tar for metalling the roads ds LFkku ij iDdh lM+dksa ds fuekZ.k
is : esa iz;ksx fd;k tkrk gS %
(1) Coke (2) Bitumen (1) dksd (2) fcVqeu
s
(3) Coal gas (4) Paraffin wax (3) dks;yk xSl (4) iSjkfQu ekse

95. How much reservation do women 95. LFkkuh; ljdkj esa efgykvksa dks
get in the local government ? fdruk vkj{k.k feyrk gS \
(1) 50% (2) 30% (1) 50% (2) 30%
(3) 20% (4) 33% (3) 20% (4) 33%

96. Living partnership between 96. dod vkSj ‘kSoky ds chp thoar
Fungus and Algae is called : lk>snkjh dks dgk tkrk gS %
(1) Moss (2) Bryophytes (1) ekWl (2) czk;ksQkbV
(3) Lichen (4) All of these (3) ykbdsu (4) mijksDr lHkh

97. Which of the following statement 97. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk dFku
about metals is true ? /kkrqvksa ds ckjs esa lR; gS \
(1) Oxide of Chlorine is basic in (1) Dyksjhu ds vkWDlkbM dh izd`fr
nature. {kkjh; gSA
(2) Sodium and Potassium are (2) lksfM;e vkSj iksVfs ’k;e dks feV~Vh
kept in kerosene as they are ds rsy esa j[kk tkrk gS D;ksfa d ;s
highly reactive. vR;f/kd fØ;k’khy gksrs gSA
(3) Cadmium is the lightest metal. (3) dSMfe;e lcls gYdh /kkrq gSA
(4) Zinc can’t replace copper from (4) ftad] dkWij lYQsV ds ?kksy ls
copper sulphate solution. rkacs dh txg ugha ys ldrkA

98. What is the third tier of 98. Hkkjr esa ‘kklu ds rhljs Lrj dks
governance in India known as ? fdl uke ls tkuk tkrk gS \
(1) Municipal Government (1) LFkkuh; ljdkj
(2) State Government (2) jkT; ljdkj
(3) Panchayati Raj (3) iapk;rh jkt

(4) Central Government (4) dsUnz ljdkj

NMMSS November–2023

( 33 ) A

99. Form of asexual reproduction in 99. vySafxd çtuu ds ml :i dk uke
which female reproduces egg that crk,¡ ftuesa eknk v.M fu”kspu ds
develops without fertilization : fcuk fodflr gks tkrs gSa %
(1) Parthenogenesis (1) vfu”ksdtuu
(2) Parthenocarpy (2) vfu”ksdQyu
(3) In vitro fertilization (3) bu foVªks QfVZykbt+s’ku
(4) Hatching (4) gSfpax

100. ‘Meera Bai’ was married to : 100. ^ehjk ckbZ* dk fookg fdlds lkFk
gqvk \
(1) Rana Sanga (1) jk.kk lkaxk
(2) Bhojraj (2) Hkkstjkt
(3) Maharana Pratap (3) egkjk.kk çrki
(4) Uday Singh (4) mn; flag

101. Which of the following terms is 101. Hkkjr esa laln ds lnL;ksa ds fy,
used to address members of fuEu esa ls fdl ‘kCn dk ç;ksx fd;k
Parliament in India ? tkrk gS \
(1) MLA (2) MP (1) foèkk;d (2) lkaln
(3) Emperor (4) Executive (3) lezkV (4) dk;Zdkjh

102. In which year the Indian 102. Hkkjrh; lafo/kku lHkk dk xBu fdl
Constitution Assembly was o”kZ gqvk Fkk \
formed ?
(1) 1934 (2) 1942 (1) 1934 (2) 1942
(3) 1946 (4) 1949 (3) 1946 (4) 1949

103. Which of the following states did 103. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl jkT; esa ewy
not originally have tribal :i ls vkfnoklh fuoklh ugha Fks \
inhabitants ?
(1) Jharkhand (1) >kj[k.M
(2) Rajasthan (2) jktLFkku
(3) gfj;k.kk

(3) Haryana
(4) Madhya Pradesh (4) eè; çns’k

NMMSS November–2023 P. T. O.

A ( 34 )

104. The person who sells goods to the 104. fons’kksa esa lkeku cspus okys O;fDr
foreign countries is known as : dks dgk tkrk gS %
(1) Exporter (2) Importer (1) fu;kZrd (2) vk;krd
(3) Producer (4) Consumer (3) fuekZrk (4) miHkksDrk

105. In which of the following years 105. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdu o”kks± esa
Emergency was imposed ? vkikrdky yxk;k x;k Fkk \
(1) 1970 to 1977 (2) 1975 to 1977 (1) 1970 ls 1977 (2) 1975 ls 1977
(3) 1980 to 1981 (4) 1983 to 1986 (3) 1980 ls 1981 (4) 1983 ls 1986

106. The slow process of conversion of 106. e`r ouLifr ds èkhes izØe }kjk
dead vegetation into coal is called : dks;ys esa ifjorZu dks dgrs gSa %
(1) Carbonization (2) Refining (1) dkcZuhdj.k (2) ifj”dj.k
(3) Processing (4) Distillation (3) izØe.k (4) vklou

107. Where the High Court of Haryana 107. gfj;k.kk o iatkc jkT;ksa dk mPp
and Punjab states is located ? U;k;ky; dgk¡ ij fLFkr gS \
(1) Guwahati (2) Jaipur (1) xqokgkVh (2) t;iqj
(3) Prayagraj (4) Chandigarh (3) iz;kxjkt (4) p.Mhx<+

108. In which city of India, the biggest 108. Hkkjr ds fdl ‘kgj esa lcls cM+h
gas tragedy occurred ? xSl =klnh gqbZ Fkh \
(1) Bhopal (2) Kanpur (1) Hkksiky (2) dkuiqj
(3) Delhi (4) Jaipur (3) fnYyh (4) t;iqj

109. Who has the right to interpret the 109. Hkkjrh; lafo/kku dh O;k[;k djus dk
Constitution of India ? vf/kdkj fdldks fn;k x;k gS \
(1) President (1) jk”Vªifr
(2) Prime Minister (2) iz/kkuea=h
(3) Judiciary (3) U;k;ikfydk
(4) Parliament (4) laln

110. Which language was used by 110. eqxy dkSu&lh Hkk”kk cksyrs Fks \
Mughals ?
(1) phuh (2) mnZw

(1) Chinese (2) Urdu
(3) Chagatai (4) Persian (3) pxrkbZ (4) Qðkjlh
NMMSS November–2023

( 35 ) A
111. A ladder leans against a wall 111. ,d lh<+h ,d nhokj ij fVdh gqbZ gS
forming a right triangle. If the tks ,d ledks.k f=Hkqt cukrh gSA
ladder is 10 meters long and the ;fn lh<+h 10 ehVj yach gS vkSj
base is 8 meters away from the vk/kkj nhokj ls 8 ehVj gS] rks lh<+h
wall, how high up the ladder will nhokj dh fdruh Å¡pkbZ rd
reach to the wall ? igq¡psxh \
(1) 6 meters (2) 8 meters (1) 6 ehVj (2) 8 ehVj
(3) 10 meters (4) 18 meters (3) 10 ehVj (4) 18 ehVj

112. A city park has a circular 112. ‘kgj ds ,d ikdZ esa cPpksa ds fy,
playground for children and an ,d xksykdkj [ksy dk eSnku vkSj
outer jogging track. The ,d ckgjh tkWfxax VªSd gSA [ksy ds
playground has a radius of 20 eSnku dh f=T;k 20 ehVj gS vkSj
meters, and has a 10 meters wide blds pkjksa vksj 10 ehVj pkSM+k
jogging track around it. What is tkWfxax VªSd gSA tkWfxax VªSd dk
the area of the jogging track ? {ks=Qy fdruk gS \ ¼π = 3.14 dk
(use π = 3.14) mi;ksx djsa½
(1) 900 sq. m. (2) 1570 sq. m. m (1) 900 oxZ eh (2) 1570 oxZ eh
(3) 1530 sq. m. (4) 1250 sq. m.m (3) 1530 oxZ eh (4) 1250 oxZ eh

113. Which of the following is false ? 113. fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk vlR; gS \
(1) All squares are parallelograms. (1) lHkh oxZ lekUrj prqHkqZt gksrs gSAa
(2) All rhombuses are (2) lHkh leprqHkqZt lekarj prqHkqZt
parallelograms. gksrs gSaA
(3) All squares are rhombuses.
rhombuses (3) lHkh oxZ leprqHkqZt gksrs gSaA
(4) All rectangles are squares
squares. (4) lHkh vk;r oxZ gksrs gSaA
2 2
114. Pictorial representation of 3 × 114. 3× dk fpf=r :i esa fu:i.k
fu gS %
3 3
is :

(1) (1)

(2) (2)

(3) (3)

(4) (4)

NMMSS November–2023 P. T. O.

A ( 36 )

115. Which of the following statement/ 115. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl dFku@ifjfLFkfr
situation is most appropriate for the 1
1 2
ds fy, lcls mi;qDr xf.krh;
given mathematical expression 2 ? 1
1 4
4 vfHkO;fDr gS \
(1) Reena took half a kilo of sugar (1) jhuk us vk/kk fdyks phuh ysdj
and divided it into four equal bls pkj cjkcj fgLlksa esa ckaVkA
parts.
(2) Reena took half a kilo of sugar, (2) jhuk us vk/kk fdyks phuh ysdj
divided it into two equal parts mls ,d&,d iko ¼,d pkSFkkbZ½
of one paav (one fourth) each ds nks cjkcj fgLlksa esa ckaVk vkSj
and made two packets. nks iSdsV cuk;sA
(3) Reena took one paav (one (3) jhuk us ,d iko ¼,d pkSFkkbZ½
fourth) of sugar and divided it phuh ysdj mls nks cjkcj fgLlksa
into two equal parts. esa ckaVkA
(4) Reena took one paav (one (4) jhuk us ,d iko ¼,d pkSFkkbZ½
fourth) of sugar and made two phuh ysdj mls nks cjkcj fgLlksa
packets of its equal parts ds 2 iSdsV cuk;sA

116. Which of the following 116. fuEu esa ls fdu ekiksa ls f=Hkqt ugha
measurements cannot form a cu ldrk \
triangle ?
(1) 5 cm, 7 cm, 13 cm (1) 5 lseh, 7 lseh, 13 lseh
(2) 2 cm, 3 cm, 4 cm (2) 2 lseh, 3 lseh, 4 lseh
(3) 3 cm, 5 cm, 7 cm (3) 3 lseh, 5 lseh, 7 lseh
(4) 2 cm, 8 cm, 9 cm (4) 2 lseh, 8 lseh, 9 lseh

117. Which of the following is the 117. fuEu esa ls lcls cM+h n’keyo fHkUu
largest decimal fraction ? dkSu&lh gS \
(1) 6.9875 (2) 7.0999 (1) 6.9875 (2) 7.0999

(3) 7.9 (4) 7.8989 (3) 7.9 (4) 7.8989

NMMSS November–2023

( 37 ) A

118. Write − 13 − 7 − 15 118. − 13 − 7 − 15
, , 0, in , , 0, dks c<+rs Øe esa
11 11 11 11 11 11
increasing order : fyf[k, %
− 7 − 13 − 15 − 7 − 13 − 15
(1) 0, , , (1) 0, , ,
11 11 11 11 11 11
− 15 − 13 − 7 − 15 − 13 − 7
(2) , , ,0 (2) , , ,0
11 11 11 11 11 11
− 7 − 13 − 15 − 7 − 13 − 15
(3) , , ,0 (3) , , ,0
11 11 11 11 11 11
− 15 − 13 − 7 − 15 − 13 − 7
(4) 0, , , (4) 0, , ,
11 11 11 11 11 11

119. A teacher recorded the test scores 119. ,d f’k{kd us xf.kr dh d{kk esa 10
of 10 students in a mathematics Nk=ksa ds ijh{k.k vad ntZ fd,A iz’u
class. Use the following data to dk mÙkj nsus ds fy, fuEufyf[kr
answer the questions : MkVk dk mi;ksx djsa %
Test Scores : 78, 85, 92, 64, 78, 92, VsLV Ldksj % 78, 85, 92, 64, 78, 92,
70, 85, 78, 68 70, 85, 78, 68

What is the mean (average) test Nk=ksa dk ek/; ¼vkSlr½ VsLV Ldksj
score of the students ? D;k gS \
(1) 78 (2) 79 (1) 78 (2) 79

(3) 80 (4) 85 (3) 80 (4) 85

120. When squaring any number, 120. fdlh Hkh la[;k dk oxZ djus ij
which of the following digit cannot bdkbZ ds Lrj ij fuEu esa ls
appear at the unit level ? dkSu&lk vad ugha vk ldrk \
(1) 8 (1) 8

(2) 4 (2) 4

(3) 6 (3) 6

(4) 9 (4) 9

NMMSS November–2023 P. T. O.

A ( 38 )

121. In the given figure, the value of ‘x’ 121. fn, x, fp= esa ‘x’ dk eku gS %
is :

(1) 150° (2) 110° (1) 150° (2) 110°
(3) 64° (4) 46° (3) 64° (4) 46°

122. 25.0001 × 109 = 122. 25.0001 × 109 =
(1) 25.1000000000 (1) 25.1000000000
(2) 25.000000001 (2) 25.000000001
(3) 0.000250001 (3) 0.000250001
(4) 25000100000 (4) 25000100000

123. How many natural numbers are 123. 97 vkSj 98 ds oxksZa ds chp esa
there between the squares of 97 fdruh izkd`frd la[;k,a gSa \
and 98 ?
(1) 1 (2) 0 (1) 1 (2) 0
(3) 194 (4) 195 (3) 194 (4) 195

124. Which of the following is a natural 124. fuEu esa ls izkd`frd la[;k dkSu&lh
number ? gS \
7 7
(1) 1 (2) (1) 1 (2)
8 8
(3) 0 (4) –1
– (3) 0 (4) –1

125. The number whose one-fourth
one is 3 125. og la[;k ftldk ,d&pkS
,d FkkbZ 7 ls 3
more than 7 is : vf/kd gS %

(1) 10 (2) 31 (1) 10 (2) 31
(3) 40 (4) 25 (3) 40 (4) 25
NMMSS November–2023

( 39 ) A

126. The price of a smartphone was 126. ,d LekVZQksu dh dher 15% de
reduced by 15%, and now it costs gks xbZ vkSj vc bldh dher 2550
Rs. 2550. What was its original :i;s gSA bldh ewy dher D;k
price ? Fkh \
(1) Rs. 2800 (2) Rs. 3000 (1) 2800 #0 (2) 3000 #0
(3) Rs. 3400 (4) Rs. 3750 (3) 3400 #0 (4) 3750 #0

127. Evaluate : 127. ewY;kadu djsa %
4 − 2 1 4 3 4  − 2 1 4 3
× − − × × − − ×
5  7  14 5 7 5  7  14 5 7
1 −1 1 −1
(1) (2) (1) (2)
2 2 2 2
−9 −5 −9 −5
(3) (4) (3) (4)
14 14 14 14

128. Which of the following is 128. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk
(50 + 20 ) × 10 0 0 0
(5 + 2 ) × 10 0
equivalent to ? ds cjkcj gS \
10 0 10 0
(1) 2 (2) 5 (1) 2 (2) 5
(3) 7 (4) 10 (3) 7 (4) 10

129. Avinoor want to save money saved. 129. vohuwj vius ikl iSls tek djuk
She decides to save Rs. 30 each pkgrh gSA og vc ls gj g¶rs 30
week from now onwards. If ‘w’ #i;s cpkus dk QSlyk djrh gSA ;fn
represents the number of weeks ‘w’ lIrkgksa dh la[;k dks n’kkZrk gS
and ‘S’ represents her total vkSj ‘S’ mldh dqy cpr dks n’kkZrk
savings, which algebraic expression gS] rks dkSu lh chtxf.krh;
represents her savings after ‘w’ vfHkO;fDr ‘w’ lIrkgksa ds ckn bldh
weeks ? cpr dks n’kkZrh gS \
(1) S = 30 w (1) S = 30 w
(2) S = 30 + w (2) S = 30 + w
(3) w = 30 + S (3) w = 30 + S

(4) S = 30 – w (4) S = 30 – w

NMMSS November–2023 P. T. O.

A ( 40 )

130. Weather data for a particular area 130. fdlh fo’ks”k {ks= ds ekSle ds vk¡dM+ksa
shows that it has rained in 30 ls irk pyrk gS fd fiNys 90 fnuksa
days out of the last 90 days. esa ls 30 fnuksa esa ckfj’k gqbZ gSA dy
What is the probability (chance) of ckfj’k gksus dh D;k izkf;drk
rain tomorrow ? ¼laHkkouk½ gS \
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (1) (2)
3 4 3 4
1 1 1 1
(3) (4) (3) (4)
9 2 9 2

131. Large areas of protected land for 131. oU; thou] ikSèks vkSj i’kq lalkèkuksa
conservation of wildlife, plant and vkSj {ks= esa jgus okys vkfnokfl;ksa
animal resources and traditional ds ikjaifjd thou ds laj{k.k ds fy,
life of the tribal living in the area lajf{kr Hkwfe ds cM+s {ks=ksa dks dgk
are referred to as : tkrk gS %
(1) Biosphere Reserves (1) ck;ksLQh;j fjt+oZ ¼lajf{kr
tSoeaMy½
(2) Sanctuaries (2) vHk;kj.;
(3) National parks (3) jk”Vªh; m|ku
(4) Forest (4) taxy

132. Which constellation is known as 132. dkSu&lk u{k= gaVj ¼f’kdkjh½ ds uke
Hunter ? ls tkuk tkrk gS \
(1) Orion (2) Cassiopeia (1) vksfj;u (2) dSflvksfi;k
(3) Ursa Major (4) Sirius (3) mlkZ estj (4) lhfj;l

133. To test charge on a body which of 133. fdlh fiaM ij vkos’k dk ijh{k.k
the following is sure test ? djus ds fy, fuEufyf[kr esa ls
dkSu&lk fuf’pr ijh{k.k gS \
(1) Combustion (2) Repulsion (1) ngu (2) izfrd”kZ.k

(3) Attraction (4) Illumination (3) vkd”kZ.k (4) iznhiu

NMMSS November–2023

( 41 ) A

134. A fuse is used in an electric circuit 134. fo|qr ifjiFk esa ¶;wt dk mi;ksx
to : fd;k tkrk gS %
(1) break the circuit when the (1) fctyh can gksus ij lfdZV rksM+
power goes off. nsA
(2) break when a large electric (2) tc muesa ls cM+h fo|qr /kkjk
current passed through them. izokfgr dh tkrh gS] rks os VwV
tkrs gSaA
(3) to cause overload in the (3) lfdZV esa vksojyksM dk dkj.k
circuit. cuukA
(4) All of the above (4) mijksDr lHkh

135. Which of the following statement 135. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk dFku çdk’k
define photosynthesis ? la’ys”k.k dks ifjHkkf”kr djrk gS \
(1) The process by which animals (1) og çfØ;k ftlds }kjk tkuoj
use oxygen and glucose to dkcZu MkbvkWDlkbM vkSj ikuh dk
produce carbon dioxide and mRiknu djus ds fy, vkWDlhtu
water. vkSj Xywdkst dk mi;ksx djrs gSAa
(2) The process by which plants (2) og çfØ;k ftlds }kjk ikSèks
use sunlight, water, and vkWDlhtu vkSj Xywdkst dk
carbon dioxide to produce mRiknu djus ds fy, lw;Z ds
oxygen and glucose. çdk’k] ikuh vkSj dkcZu
MkbvkWDlkbM dk mi;ksx djrs gSAa
(3) The process by which plants (3) og çfØ;k ftlds }kjk ikSèks vkSj
and animals exchange gases tkuoj i;kZoj.k ds lkFk xSlksa dk
with the environment. vknku&çnku djrs gSaA
(4) The process by which plants (4) og çfØ;k ftlds }kjk ikSèks vkSj
and animals reproduce. tkuoj çtuu djrs gSAa
136. Match the columns and choose the 136. dkWyeksa dk feyku dj lgh mÙkj dk
correct answer : pquko djsa %
a. Salivary glands i. HCl a. ykjxzafFk i. HCl
b. Pancreas ii. Amylase b. vXU;k’k; ii. ,ekbysl
c. Liver iii. Pancreactic c. ftxj iii. vXuk’k;
juice jl
d. Stomach iv. Bile Juice d. tBj iv. fiÙkjl
(1) a -iv b-iii c-i d-ii (1) a -iv b-iii c-i d-ii
(2) a -ii b-iii c-iv d-i (2) a -ii b-iii c-iv d-i

(3) a -i b-iii c-ii d-iv (3) a -i b-iii c-ii d-iv
(4) a -iii b-i c-iv d-ii (4) a -iii b-i c-iv d-ii
NMMSS November–2023 P. T. O.

A ( 42 )

137. Ultrasound Equipment for 137. dbZ fpfdRlh; leL;kvksa dh tkap
investigating and tracking many vkSj VªSfdax ds fy, vYVªklkmaM
medical problem, works at midj.k] fdl vko`fÙk ij dke
frequencies : djrk gS \
(1) 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz (1) 20 gV~tZ ls 20,000 gV~tZ
(2) More than 20,000 Hz (2) 20,000 gV~tZ ls vf/kd
(3) Less than 2 Hz (3) 2 gV~tZ ls de
(4) 20 Hz (4) 20 gV~tZ

138. On which of the following day 138. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl fnu foÜo
World Water Day is observed ? ty fnol euk;k tkrk gS \
(1) 22 March (2) 14 November (1) 22 ekpZ (2) 14 uoacj
(3) 2 October (4) 21 December (3) 2 vDVwcj (4) 21 fnlacj

139. Insectivorous plants eat insects 139. dhVHk{kh ikSèks dhM+s [kkrs gSa D;ksafd %
because :
(1) Population of insects is more (1) ftl {ks= esa bl ikSèks dh çtkfr
in the area this plant species ikbZ tkrh gS ml {ks= esa dhVksa
exists. dh la[;k vfèkd gSA
(2) To take nitrogen from insects. (2) dhM+ksa ls ukbVªkstu ysus ds fy,A
(3) Because insects are the main (3) D;ksafd dhM+s bu ikSèkksa dk eq[;
food for the plants. Hkkstu gSaA
(4) Because insects harm the (4) D;ksafd dhV ikSèkksa dks uqdlku
plants. igqpa krs gSaA
140. Which device is used for 140. gok dh xfr ekius ds fy, fdl
measuring the speed of wind ? midj.k dk mi;ksx fd;k tkrk gS \
(1) Speedometer (2) Anemometer (1) LihMksehVj (2) ,uheksehVj
(3) Multimeter (4) Odometer (3) eYVhehVj (4) vksMksehVj

141. Odometer and Speedometer of a 141. ,d okgu dk vksMksehVj vkSj
vehicle measure : LihMksehVj D;k ekirs gSa \
(1) Distance moved by a vehicle and (1) okgu }kjk r; dh xbZ nwjh vkSj
Speed of the vehicle respectively okgu dh xfr Øe’k%
(2) Speed of the vehicle and Distance (2) okgu dh xfr vkSj okgu }kjk
moved by the vehicle respectively r; dh xbZ nwjh Øe’k%
(3) Both Odometer and speedometer (3) vksMksehVj vkSj LihMksehVj nksuksa
measure speed only gh xfr ekirs gSa

(4) Both Odometer and speedometer (4) vksMksehVj vkSj LihMksehVj nksuksa
measure distance only nwjh ekirs gSa
NMMSS November–2023

( 43 ) A

142. In animals, which chamber of the 142. tkuojksa esa] ân; dk dkSu&lk d{k
heart pumps oxygenated blood to vkWDlhtu ;qä jä dks ‘kjhj ds
the rest of the body ? ckdh fgLlksa esa iai djrk gS \
(1) Left atrium (2) Left ventricle (1) ck;k¡ vkfyan (2) ck;k¡ fuy;
(3) Right atrium (4) Right ventricle (3) nk;k¡ vkfyan (4) nk;k¡ fuy;

143. “The time period of a simple 143. ^^fdlh yksyd dk vkorZ dky ges’kk
pendulum is always constant”, it leku jgrk gS]** ;g fdlus crk;k \
was proposed by :
(1) Einstein (2) Galilio Galilie (1) vkbaLVhu (2) xSfyfy;ks xSyhyh
(3) Newton (4) de-Broglie (3) U;wVu (4) Mh&czkWXyh

144. In what form do plants primarily 144. ikSèks feêh ls ukbVªkstu dks eq[;r%
absorb nitrogen from the soil ? fdl :i esa vo’kksf”kr djrs gSa \
(1) Nitrate NO3− (1) ukbVªsV NO3−
(2) Ammonium NH 4+ (2) veksfu;e NH 4+
(3) Nitrogen gas N2 (3) ukbVªkstu xSl N2
(4) Phosphate (PO4 )3− (4) QkWLQsV (PO4 )3−

145. A train starts from Delhi at 6:00 145. ,d jsyxkM+h fnYyh ls lqcg 6:00
AM and reaches at Ambala at cts pyrh gS vkSj 60 fdeh@?kaVk dh
10:00 AM with average speed of 60 vkSlr xfr ls lqcg 10:00 cts
km/h. What is the distance vackyk igqpa rh gSA fnYyh vkSj
between Delhi and Ambala ? vEckyk ds chp dh nwjh fdruh gS \
(1) 120 km (2) 200 km (1) 120 fdeh (2) 200 fdeh
(3) 240 km (4) 30 km (3) 240 fdeh (4) 30 fdeh

146. Which one is an example of 146. lEidZ cy dk mnkgj.k dkSu&lk
contact force ? gS \
(1) Friction (1) ?k”kZ.k
(2) Magnetic Force (2) pqcadh; cy
(3) Electrostatic Force (3) bysDVªkLs VSfVd cy ¼fLFkjoS|fq rdh cy½

(4) Gravitational Force (4) xq#Rokd”kZ.k cy

NMMSS November–2023 P. T. O.

A ( 44 )

147. The plants whose DNA has been 147. ikSèks ftudk
dk Mh,u, vkuq v oaf’kd
modified using various techniques of bathfu;fjax dh fofHkUu rduhdksa dk
genetic engineering are known as : mi;ksx djds la’kksfèkr fd;k x;k gS]
os tkus tkrs gSa %
(1) New crops (1) u;h Qlysa

(2) GM crops (2) th ,e Qlysa
(3) Shri Ann (3) Jh vUu

(4) Polyp (4) ikWfyi

148. What is the primary function of 148. vkjs[k esa lajpuk B dk çkFkfed
structure B in the diagram ? dk;Z D;k gS \

(1) Exchange of gases (1) xSlksa dk vknku&çnku
(2) Voice production (2) èofu mRiknu
(3) Food digestion (3) Hkkstu ipkuk
(4) Smell sensation (4) xaèk vuqHkwfr

149. The transformation of the larva 149. tfVy ifjorZuksa ds ekè;e ls ykjok
into an adult through drastic dk o;Ld esa ifjorZu dgykrk gS %
changes is called :
(1) Metaphase (1) esVkQst

(2) Metastasis (2) :i&ifjorZu
(3) Meteorite (3) mYdkfiaM

(4) Metamorphosis (4) dk;kiyV
NMMSS November–2023

( 45 ) A

150. Sometimes it is advised to apply 150. dbZ ckj njokts ds dCtksa ij rsy
oil on door hinges. By doing so the yxkus dh lykg nh tkrh gSA ,slk
friction will : djus ls ?k”kZ.k %
(1) Decrease (1) de gksxk
(2) Increase (2) o`f) gksxh
(3) Remain unchanged (3) vifjofrZr jgsxk
(4) Vanish (4) xk;c gks tk;sxk

151. Match List-I and List-II and select 151. Lkwph&I o Lkwph&II dk feyku djsa o
the correct code : lgh dwV dk p;u djsa %
List-I List-II Lkwph&I Lkwph&II
(a) Rajasthaniya (i) State (a) jktLFkkuh; (i) izns’k dk ‘kklu
government

(b) Visayapati (ii) Ruler of (b) fo”k;ifr (ii) izkr
a vFkok HkqfDr
province or dk ‘kkld
Bhukti

(c) Mahtra (iii) Officer related (c) egrj (iii) xk¡o ds ekeyksa
to the affairs ls tqM+k vf/kdkjh
of village

(d) Akshapatalik (iv) An officer (d) v{kiVfyd (iv) vk/kqfud ys[kiky
like a modern tSlk vf/kdkjh
accountant

(e) MahaPratihar (v) Security (e) egkizfrgkj (v) egy dh lqj{kk
minister of ea=h
Palace

(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii, e-v (1) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii, e-v
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv, e-v (2) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv, e-v
(3) a-v, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-i (3) a-v, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-i

(4) a-v, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii, e-i (4) a-v, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii, e-i

NMMSS November–2023 P. T. O.

A ( 46 )

152. Which statement completes the 152. dkSu&lk dFku tyh; —f”k vkSj
definition of aquaculture and eNyh ikyu dh ifjHkk”kk dks iwjk
pisciculture ? djrk gS \
(i) Aquaculture is the process of (i) ,DokdYpj [kkjs ikuh ;k rkts
breeding, rearing and ikuh esa O;kolkf;d ewY; okys
harvesting of aquatic flora and tyh; ouLifr;ksa vkSj thoksa ds
fauna with commercial value çtuu] ikyu vkSj dVkbZ dh
in saltwater or fresh water. çfØ;k gSA
(ii) Pisciculture is the culturing of (ii) eNyh ikyu Hkkstu ds :i esa
fish (fish farming) to obtain eNyh vkSj eNyh mRikn çkIr
fish and fish products as food. djus ds fy, eNyh ikyu
¼eNyh ikyu½ gSA
(iii) Aquaculture is the process of (iii) ,DokdYpj çtuu] ikyu dh
breeding, rearing. çfØ;k gSA
(iv) Pisciculture is the culturing of (iv) eNyh ikyu dsoy eNyh çkIr
fish (fish farming) to obtain djus ds fy, eNyh ikyu
fish only. ¼eNyh ikyu½ gSA
(1) (i) & (ii) (1) (i) ,oa (ii)
(2) (i) & (iii) (2) (i) ,oa (iii)
(3) (iii) & (iv) (3) (iii) ,oa (iv)
(4) (i) & (iv) (4) (i) ,oa (iv)

153. From the given words, choose the 153. fuEufyf[kr ‘kCnksa esa ml mi;qDr
appropriate word for the process rduhdh ‘kCn dk pquko djsa ftldk
in which deep wells are bored to iz;ksx ml izfd;k ds fy, fd;k tkrk
take out petropleum and natural gS] ftlesa isVªksfy;e vkSj izkd`frd
gas : xSl fudkyus ds fy, xgjs dqvksa dks
[kksnk tkrk gS %
(1) Quarrying (1) mR[kuu
(2) Drilling (2) fMªfYyax
(3) Shaft mining (3) nLrk [kuu

(4) Open cast mining (4) vksiu dkLV [kuu

NMMSS November–2023

( 47 ) A

154. Which of the following information 154. tula[;k fijkfeM }kjk fdlh {ks= dh
is expressed by the population tula[;k ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr esa
pyramid in context of the ls dkSu&lh tkudkjh O;Dr dh tkrh
population of an area ? gS \
(1) Age group structure only (1) dsoy vk;q oxZ lajpuk

(2) Only gender structure (2) dsoy ySfa xd lajpuk

(3) Population density (3) tula[;k ?kuRo

(4) Both age and gender structure (4) vk;q ,oa ySfa xx lajpuk nksuksa

155. What is the time and day at 155. Tkc f’kykax esa ¼92° iwoZ½ jfookj jkr
Mumbai (73°E) when it is Sunday 10:30 cts gksa] rks eqacbZ ¼73° iwoZ½ esa

10:30 p.m. at Shillong (92°E) ? le; vkSj fnu D;k gS \
(1) 9:14 pm and Sunday (1) jkr 9:14 cts vkSj jfookj

(2) 9:10 pm and Sunday (2) jkr 9:10 cts vkSj jfookj

(3) 5:14 pm and Sunday (3) ‘kke 5:14 cts vkSj jfookj

(4) 9:14 pm and Monday (4) jkf= 9:14 cts vkSj lkseokj

156. When was Mangal Pandey 156. eaxy ikaMs dks Qkalh dc nh xbZ \
hanged ?

(1) 6th April 1857 (1) 6 vçSy 1857

(2) 7th April 1857 (2) 7 vçSy 1857

(3) 8th April 1857 (3) 8 vçSy 1857

(4) 9th April 1857 (4) 9 vçSy 1857

NMMSS November–2023 P. T. O.

A ( 48 )

157. Which statement is true about 157. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa esa ls Hkkjr ds
India among the following ckjs esa dkSu&lk dFku lR; gS \
statements ?

I. The latitudinal and I. Hkkjr dk v{kka’kh; vkSj
longitudinal extent of ns’kkarjh; foLrkj yxHkx 8°N ls
India is approximately 8°N to 37°N vkSj 68°E ls 97°E gSA
37°N and 68°E to 97°E.

II. The Andaman and Nicobar II. vaMeku rFkk fudksckj }hi lewg
Islands extend further nf{k.k dh vksj vkxs gSa vkSj
southwards and add to its Hkkjr dh v{kka’kh; lhek esa o`f)
latitudinal extent. djrs gSaA
III. The north-south extent of III. Hkkjr dh eq[; Hkwfe dh
mainland India from Kashmir mÙkj&nf{k.k lhek mÙkj esa d’ehj
in the north to Kanyakumari ls ysdj nf{k.k esa dU;kdqekjh
in the south is 3214 kms. Its rd 3214 fdeh gSA bldh
west to east extent from Rann if’pe ls iwoZ dh lhek if’pe
of Kutchh in the west to esa dPN ds ju ls iwoZ esa
Arunachal Pradesh in the east v#.kkpy çns’k rd 2933 fdeh
is 2933 km. The length of the gSA çk;}hih; Hkkjr esa leqæ rV
coastline along the peninsular dh yackbZ yxHkx 6100 fdeh gSA
India is about 6100 km.

(1) Only I is correct. (1) dsoy I lgh gSA

(2) Only I & II are correct. (2) dsoy I vkSj II lgh gSAa

(3) Only III is correct. (3) dsoy III lgh gSA

(4) I, II & III all are correct. (4) I, II vkSj III lHkh lgh gSaA

NMMSS November–2023

( 49 ) A
158. Match List-I and List-II and select 158. Lkwph&I o Lkwph&II dk feyku djsa o
the correct code : lgh dwV dk p;u djsa %
List-I List-II Lkwph&I Lkwph&II
(a) Battle of (i) Hind’s (a) pedkSj (i) fgUn dh
Chamkaur Chadar lkfgc dk pknj
Sahib ;q)
(b) Zafarnama (ii) Bravery of (b) t+Qðjukek (ii) czkã.k n;kjke
Brahmin dh ohjrk
Dayaram (c) Hkaxkuh dh yM+kbZ (iii) fgEerjk;
(c) Battle of (iii) Himmat Rai dgkj
Bhangani Kahar (d) iat I;kjs (iv) xq# xksfcan
(d) Panj Pyare (iv) Guru flag
Gobind
Singh (e) xq# rsxcgknqj (v) 40 fl[k
(e) Guru Teg (v) Bravery of ;ks)kvksa dh
Bahadur 40 warriors ohjrk
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv, e-v (1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv, e-v
(2) a-iii, b-iv, c-v, d-i, e-ii (2) a-iii, b-iv, c-v, d-i, e-ii
(3) a-v, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-i (3) a-v, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-i
(4) a-v, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii, e-i (4) a-v, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii, e-i
159. Which European company came in 159. Hkkjr esa loZçFke dkSu&lh ;wjksfi;u
India first ? daiuh vkbZ \
(1) British (2) Portuguese (1) vaxzst (2) iqrZxkyh
(3) French (4) Dutch (3) Ýkalhlh (4) Mp
160. Match the following Area with the 160. fuEufyf[kr {ks= dks dkWye&A ds
given term/name of Column-A dkWye&B ds fn, x, in@uke ls
with Column-B : feyk,¡ %
Column-A Column-B dkWye&A dkWye&B
(a) Kutchh (i) Northern Arc (a) dPN (i) mÙkjh vkdZ
(b) Kathiawar (ii) Mt. Girnar (b) dkfB;kokM+ (ii) fxjukj ioZr
(c) Great Indian (iii) Gulf of (c) egku Hkkjrh; (iii) [kackr dh
Desert cambay jsfxLrku [kkM+h
(d) Shivaliks (iv) Marusthali (d) f’kokfyd (iv) e#LFkyh
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii (1) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv (2) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv

(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii (3) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
NMMSS November–2023 P. T. O.

A ( 50 )

161. According to the principles of 161. lrr fodkl ds fl)karksa ds vuqlkj]
sustainable development, which of fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk fl)kar
the following principles is true fn, x, dFkuksa ds ckjs esa lR; gS \
about the given statements ?
(1) Minimize the depletion of (1) çk—frd lalkèkuksa ds nksgu dks
natural resources de djuk
(2) Enhancing the quality of (2) ekuo thou dh xq.koÙkk esa o`f)
human life djuk
(3) Abundant exploitation of (3) çk—frd lalkèkuksa dk çpqj ek=k
natural resources esa nksgu
(4) Enabling communities to take (4) leqnk;ksa dks vius i;kZoj.k dh
care of their environment ns[kHkky djus esa l{ke cukuk
162. The two factors by which rusting 162. ,sls nks dkjd] ftuds }kjk yksgs dks
of Iron occur, are ......... and ........ . tax yxrk gS] .......... vkSj .......... gSaA
(1) Carbon dioxide, Water (1) dkcZu MkbvWkDlkbM] ty
(2) Nitrogen, Water (2) ukbVªkstu] ty
(3) Oxygen, Water (3) vkWDlhtu] ty
(4) Oxygen, Nitrogen (4) vkWDlhtu] ukbVªkstu

163. Image formed by a convex mirror 163. mÙky nIkZ.k ges’kk fdl izdkj dk
is always : izfrfcac cukrk gS \
(1) Real (2) Virtual (1) okLrfod (2) vkHkklh
(3) Inverted (4) Bigger (3) mYVk (4) cM+k

164. Which of the following water is a 164. buesa ls dkSu&lk ty fo|qr dk
poor conductor of electricity ? dqpkyd gS \
(1) Well Water (1) dq,¡ dk ty
(2) Tap Water (2) uy dk ty
(3) Distilled Water (3) vklqr ty
(4) Pond Water (4) rkykc dk ty

165. Although the core and mantle are 165. ;|fi dksj vkSj esaVy dh eksVkbZ
about equal in thickness, in the yxHkx cjkcj gS fQj Hkh i`Foh dh
context of the three concentric rhu ladsafær ijrksa ds lanHkZ esa] i`Foh
layers of the Earth, approximately ds dqy vk;ru dk yxHkx fdruk
what percent of the total volume of çfr’kr ^dksj* gS \
the Earth is the ‘core’ ?

(1) 5% (2) 10% (1) 5% (2) 10%
(3) 15% (4) 20% (3) 15% (4) 20%
NMMSS November–2023

( 51 ) A
166. Example of biotic resources 166. tSfod lalkèkuksa dk ,d mnkgj.k
is ............ . ............ gSA
(1) Rocks (2) Minerals (1) pêkusa (2) [kfut
(3) Soils (4) Animals (3) feêh (4) tkuoj
167. Compact Fluorescent Lamps 167. dkWEiSDV ¶yksjkslsaV ySia esa gksrk gS %
(CFLs) contain :
(1) Nichrome Filament (1) ukbØkse fQykesaV
(2) Chromium Filament (2) Øksfe;e fQykesaV
(3) Tungsten Filament (3) VaxLVu fQykesaV
(4) Mercury Vapors (4) ikjk ok”i
168. Komal’s crying younger brother 168. dksey ds NksVs HkkbZ us jksrs gq, ekrk
told his mother that he had been th dks crk;k fd mls yky phafV;ksa
bitten by red ants, the mother us dkV fy;k gS] rks ekrk th us Ropk
applied calamine solution on his ij dSye s kbu dk foy;u yxk fn;kA
skin. After some time, his brother FkksM+h nsj ckn mlds HkkbZ dk jksuk
stopped crying. What kind of can gks x;k A ;g fdl izdkj dk
example is this ? mnkgj.k gS \
(1) Acidification (2) Neutralization (1) vEyhdj.k (2) mnklhuhdj.k
(3) Esterification (4) Galvanization (3) ,LVjhdj.k (4) tLrhdj.k
169. Consider the following 169. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj djsa %
statements :
I. In the Ryotwari system, the I. jS;rokM+h O;oLFkk esa dEiuh dks
company got loyal servants in fcgkj esa tehankj ds :i esa
the form of Zamindars in oQknkj lsod fey x;s FksA
Bihar.
II. The Permanent Settlement was II. LFkkbZ cUnkscLr fczfV’k Hkkjr ds 19
imposed on 19% of British India. izfr’kr Hkkx ij ykxw dh xbZA
III. The sunset law of the III. egyokM+h O;oLFkk dk lw;kZLr
Mahalwari system was good dkuwu tehankjksa ds fy, mRre
for the landlords. FkkA
IV. The Ryotwari system was also IV. jS;rokM+h O;oLFkk enzkl o
implemented in Madras and vaMeku fudksckj esa Hkh ykxw dh
Andaman and Nicobar. xbZA
Which of the above statement/ mijksDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSUk&lk@ls
statements is/are correct ? dFku lgh gSa \

(1) Only I (2) I, II and IV (1) dsoy I (2) I, II vkSj IV
(3) II, III and IV (4) II and IV (3) II, III vkSj IV (4) II vkSj IV

NMMSS November–2023 P. T. O.

A ( 52 )

170. Among the following phrases 170. fuEufyf[kr okD;ka’kksa esa ls dkSu&lk
which phrase is true about the okD;ka’k mu dkjdksa ds ckjs esa lR;
factors that are responsible for gS tks leqæ esa Tokj ds fy, ftEesnkj
tides in the sea. gS \
(1) Gravitational force of the Sun (1) lw;Z ,oa paæek dk xq#Rokd”kZ.k
and the Moon cy
(2) Variation in salinity of ocean (2) egklkxjh; ty dh yo.krk esa
water fHkUurk
(3) Variation in temperature of (3) egklkxjh; ty ds rkieku esa
ocean water fHkUurk
(4) Tsunami (4) lqukeh

171. Which one of the following is not 171. fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk fodYi lgh ugha
correct ? gS \
(1) Plassey war – 1757 (1) Iyklh dk ;q) & 1757
(2) Buxar war – 1764 (2) cDlj dk ;q) & 1764
(3) Third battle of Panipat – 1761 (3) ikuhir dk rhljk ;q) & 1761
(4) Death of Rajaram – 1800 (4) jktkjke dh e`R;q & 1800

172. Jaipur city was built by : 172. t;iqj dk fuekZ.k fdlus djok;k \
(1) Man Singh (2) Uday Singh (1) ekuflag (2) mn;flag
(3) Raj Singh (4) Jay Singh (3) jktflag (4) t;flag

173. Who wrote ‘Rise of the Maratha 173. ^jkbt vkWQ n ejkBk ikWoj* dh
Power’ ? jpuk fdlus dh Fkh \
(1) Mahadev Govind Ranade (1) egknso xksfoan jkukMs
(2) Jagannath Sarkar (2) txUukFk ljdkj
(3) Bankim Chandra (3) cafde paæ
(4) Iqbal (4) bdcky

174. What is the name of Chhatrapati 174. N=ifr f’kokth dh ekrk dk D;k
Shivaji’s mother ? uke Fkk \
(1) iqryhckbZ (2) thtkckbZ

(1) Putli Bai (2) Jija Bai
(3) Rama Bai (4) Dhana Bai (3) jekckbZ (4) èkUukckbZ

NMMSS November–2023

( 53 ) A
175. Alka noticed that her science 175. vydk us ns[kk fd muds foKku
teacher had forgotten after storing v/;kid xyrh ls yksgs ds fMCcs esa
the aqueous solution of blue copper uhys FkksFks dk tyh; foy;u Mkydj
sulphate in an iron container and Hkwy x;s Fks rks vxys fnu uhys FkksFks
the next day the blue colour of the ¼dkWij lYQsV½ ds tyh; foy;u dk
aqueous solution of copper sulphate uhyk jax gjs jax ds inkFkZ esa
changed into a green substance. ifjofrZr gks x;kA vydk dks gjs jax
You have to tell Alka, the name of ds inkFkZ dk uke vkidks crkuk gS %
that green coloured substance :
(1) Copper sulphate (1) dkWij lYQsV
(2) Iron (2) yksgk
(3) Copper (3) dkWij
(4) Iron sulphate (4) vk;ju lYQsV
176. Which part of the candle would 176. vki vxjcÙkhh dks ’kh?kzrk ls tykus
you use to light the incense stick ds fy, eksecÙkcÙkh ds fdl Hkkx dk
quickly ? mi;ksx djsxsa \

(1) The outer
ter part of the full (1) iw.kZ ngu dk ckg~; Hkkx
combustion
(2) The middle part of the partial (2) vkaf’kd ngu okyk eè; Hkkx
combustion
(3) lcls vkarfjd Hkkx
(3) The innermost part
(4) fdlh Hkh Hkkx dk mi;ksx fd;k
(4) Any part can be used tk ldrk gS
177. Rama likes parantha and sweet 177. jek dksks [kkus esa ijkBk
ijk vkSj ehBk
curd in food, but curd has a sour ngh cgqr ilan gS ijarq ngh dk Lokn
taste, which Rama does not like at [kÍk gksrk gS] tks jek dks fcYdqy
all. The main reason for the sour ilan ugha gSA ngh dk Lokn [kÍk
taste of curd is : gksus dk izeq[k dkj.k gS %
(1) Milk of Magnesia (1) feYd vkWQ eSXuhf’k;k
(2) Lactic acid (2) ySfDVd vEy

(3) Hydrochloric acid (3) gkbMªksDyksfjd vEy
(4) Tartaric acid (4) VkVZfjd vEy
NMMSS November–2023 P. T. O.

A ( 54 )

178. Match the following Columns I & 178. fuEufyf[kr dkWye I vkSj II dk
II and choose the correct answer feyku djsa rFkk {kj.k ds ,tsaVksa ds
from the following as per the vuqlkj fuEufyf[kr esa ls lgh mÙkj
agents of erosion : pqusa %
Column I Column II dkWye&I dkWye&II
(A) Wind (i) Drumlin (A) iou (i) Mªefyu
(B) Glacier (ii) Levees (B) Xysf’k;j (ii) rVcaèk
(C) River (iii) Mushroom (C) unh (iii) e’k:e
(D) Waves (iv) Spit and Bar. (D) rjaxsa (iv) Fkwd vkSj ckj
(1) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv (1) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
(2) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii (2) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii
(3) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv (3) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
(4) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i (4) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i

179. Chemical change can be seen in : 179. jklk;fud ifjorZu ns[kk tk ldrk
gS %
(1) Baking a cake (1) dsd cukrs gq,
(2) Melting of ice (2) cQZ fi?kyus ij
(3) Breaking a glass (3) dkap ds VwVus ij
(4) Preparation of sugar solution (4) phuh dk ?kksy cukrs le;

180. Which of the following statement 180. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk
is true among the following dFku lR; gS \
statements :
I. Tripura is surrounded by I. f=iqjk rhu rjQ ls ckaXykns’k ls
Bangladesh on three sides. f?kjk gqvk gSA
II. The earth’s surface occupied II. foÜo esa i`Foh dh lrg dk 14
by deserts in the world is 14 çfr’kr Hkkx jsfxLrkuksa ls f?kjk
percent. gqvk gSA
(1) Only I is correct & II is false. (1) dsoy I lgh gS vkSj II xyr gSA
(2) Only II is correct. (2) dsoy II lgh gSA
(3) Both I & II are correct. (3) I vkSj II nksuksa lgh gSAa

(4) Both I & II are false. (4) I vkSj II nksuksa xyr gSAa

NMMSS November–2023

6. iz'uksa ds mÙkj] mÙkj i=d esa fu/kkZfjr [kkuksa dks dkys 6. Answers to questions in answer sheet are to be
ckWy IokbaV iSu ls iw.kZr;k dkyk djuk gS] tSlk fd given by darkening complete circle using black ball
uhps fn[kk;k x;k gS % point pen as shown below :
1  3 4 1  3 4
vki }kjk fn;k x;k mÙkj xyr ekuk tk,xk] ;fn The answer will be treated wrong, if it is marked, as given
mÙkj okys [kkus dks fuEu izdkj ls Hkjrs gSa % below :

    
   
;fn ,d ls T;knk [kkuksa dks Hkj nsrs gSa rks vkidk If you fill more than one circle it will be treated as a
mÙkj xyr ekuk tk,xkA wrong answer.
7. jQ dk;Z iz'u iqfLrdk esa bl iz;kstu ds fy, nh xbZ 7. Rough work should be done only in the space provided
[kkyh txg ij gh djsaA in the Test Booklet for the same.

8. lHkh mÙkj dsoy mÙkj i=d (OMR) ij gh vafdr 8. The answers are to be recorded on the OMR Answer
djsAa vius mÙkj /;kuiwoZd vafdr djsAa mÙkj cnyus Sheet only. Mark your responses carefully. No whitener
gsrq 'osr jatd ¼lQsn ¶Y;wM½ dk iz;ksx fuf"k) gSA (white fluid) is allowed for changing answers.

9. izR;sd iz’u ds fy, fn, x, pkj fodYiksa esa ls mfpr 9. Out of the four alternatives for each question, only one
fodYi ds fy, mÙkj i=d (OMR) ij dsoy ,d gh circle for the most appropriate answer is to be darkened
o`Ùk dks iwjh rjg dkys ckWy IokbaV iSu ls HkjsaA ,d completely with Black Ball Point Pen on the OMR
ckj mÙkj vafdr djus ds ckn mls cnyk ugha tk Answer Sheet. The answer once marked is not allowed
ldrk gSA to be changed.

10. vH;FkhZ lqfuf’pr djsa fd bl mÙkj i=d dks eksM+k u 10. The candidate should ensure that the Answer Sheet is
tk, ,oa ml ij dksbZ vU; fu’kku u yxk,¡A not folded. Do not make any stray mark on Answer
vH;FkhZ viuk vuqØekad mÙkj i=d esa fu/kkZfjr Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except
LFkku ds vfrfjDr vU;= u fy[ksAa in the specified space in the Answer Sheet.

11. iz'u iqfLrdk ,oa mÙkj i=d dk /;kuiwoZd iz;ksx djsa] 11. Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, as
D;ksafd fdlh Hkh ifjfLFkfr esa ¼dsoy iz'u iqfLrdk ,oa under no circumstances (except for discrepancy in Test
mÙkj i=d ds Øekad esa fHkUurk dh fLFkfr dks Booklet and Answer Sheet Serial No.), another set of
NksM+dj½ nwljh iz'u iqfLrdk lSV miyC/k ugha djokbZ Test Booklet will not be provided.
tk,xhA
12. iz'u iqfLrdk@mÙkj i=d esa fn, x, Øekad dks 12. The candidate will write the correct Number as given in
vH;FkhZ lgh rjhds ls gkftjh i= esa fy[ksaA the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.

13. vH;FkhZ dks ijh{kk gkWy@d{k esa izos’k dkMZ ds 13. Candidate is not allowed to carry any textual material,
vfrfjDr fdlh izdkj dh ikB~; lkexzh] eqfnzr ;k printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone,
gLrfyf[kr dkxt dh ifpZ;k¡] istj] eksckby Qksu] electronic device or any other material except the Admit
bysDVªkWfud midj.k ;k fdlh vU; izdkj dh lkexzh Card inside the examination hall/room.
dks ys tkus ;k mi;ksx djus dh vuqefr ugha gSA
14. fujh{kd }kjk iwNs tkus ij izR;sd vH;FkhZ viuk 14. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit
izos’k&i= ¼jksy ua0½ fn[kk,¡A Card (Roll No.) to the Invigilator.

15. dsUnz v/kh{kd ;k fujh{kd dh fo’ks"k vuqefr ds fcuk 15. No candidate, without special permission of the
dksbZ vH;FkhZ viuk LFkku u NksMa+sA Superintendent or Invigilator, should leave his/her seat.

16. bysDVªkWfud@gLrpkfyr ifjdyd dk mi;ksx oftZr gSA 16. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.

17. fdlh gkyr esa iz'u iqfLrdk vkSj mÙkj i=d dk dksbZ 17. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be
Hkkx vyx u djsaA detached under any circumstances.

18. ijh{kk lEiUu gksus ij] vH;FkhZ ijh{kk d{k@gkWy 18. On completion of the test, candidate must hand over the
NksM+us ls iwoZ mÙkj i=d d{k&i;Zos{kd dks vo’; Answer Sheet to the Invigilator in the Room/Hall. The
lkSai nsAa vH;FkhZ vius lkFk iz'u iqfLrdk dks ys tk candidate is allowed to take away this Test Booklet with
ldrs gSaA them.

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