Haryana NMMS 2021 Question Paper (exam held in 2022)

NMMS – 2022
SET : A
cqdysV Øekad ,oa
vks0,e0vkj0 Øekad
vuqØekad ¼vadksa esa½ % Booklet Serial No. &
Roll No. (In Figures) O. M. R. Serial No.
vuqØekad ¼'kCnksa esa½ %
Roll No. (In Words)
ijh{kk dsUnz dk uke %
Name of Examination Centre
vH;FkhZ dk uke % vH;FkhZ ds gLrk{kj %
Name of Candidate Signature of the Candidate
bl iz'u-iqfLrdk esa i`"Bksa dh la[;k iz'uksa dh la[;k le;
48 180 3 hours
No. of Pages in this Question Booklet No. of Questions Time

fujh{kd ds gLrk{kj@Signature of the Invigilator :
vH;FkhZ dks 10 feuV d dkk le; iz'u-iqfLrdk ij Nis funs'Z kksa dks i<+u]s iz'u-i= cqdysV esa fn, x, iz'uksa ds lhfj;y uEcj psd djus rFkk C;kSjk Hkjus ds fy,
fn;k tk,xkA ;fn iz'u-i= cqdysV esa iz'uksa ds lhfj;y uEcj xyr Nis gksa rks rqjUr dsUnz v/kh{kd ls fuosnu djds iz'u-i= cqdysV cny ysAa ijh{kk lekIr
gksus ds i'pkr~ dksbZ nkok Lohdkj ugha fd;k tk,xkA bu 10 feuVksa ds vfrfjDr] iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsus o vafdr djus ds fy, iwjs 3 ?kaVs dk le; fn;k tk,xkA

vH;fFkZ
vH;fFkZ;ksa ds fy, funsZ'k % INSTRUCTIONS FOR THE CANDIDATES :

1. mÙkj i=d (OMR) bl iz'u iqfLrdk ds vUnj j[kk 1. The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet.
gSA tc vkidks iz'u iqfLrdk [kksyus dks dgk tk,] rks When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out
mÙkj i=d fudky dj /;ku ls dsoy dkys ckWy IokbaV the Answer Sheet and fill the particulars carefully with
isu ls fooj.k HkjsaA black ball point pen only.

2. ijh{kk dh vof/k 3 ?kaVs gS ,oa iz'u iqfLrdk esa 180 iz’u 2. The test is of three hours duration and consists of
gSaA izR;sd iz'u ,d vad dk gSA dksbZ _.kkRed vadu 180 questions. Each question carries one mark. There is no
ugha gSA negative marking.

3. bl i`"B ij fooj.k vafdr djus ,oa mÙkj i=d ij 3. Use Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on
fu’kku yxkus ds fy, dsoy dkys ckWy IokbaV isu dk this page/marking responses in the Answer Sheet. The
iz;ksx djsaA vH;FkhZ iz'u-iqfLrdk dk mi;ksx djus ,oa candidate should remain careful in handling the question
mÙkj i=d dks Hkjus esa lko/kkuh cjrsaA nwljh iz'u- paper and in marking the answers on the answer sheet.
iqfLrdk ls
lsV çnku ugha dh tk,xhA Another booklet set will not be given.
4. ;g Hkh lqfuf’pr dj ysa fd iz'u iqfLrdk Øekad vkSj 4. Also ensure that your Test Booklet Serial No. and
mÙkj i=d Øekad ,d gh gSaA vxj ;g fHkUu gksa rks Answer Sheet Serial No. are the same. In case of
vH;FkhZ nwljh iz’u-iqfLrdk vkSj mÙkj i=d ysus ds discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the
fy, fujh{kd dks rqjUr voxr djk,¡A matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test
Booklet and the Answer Sheet.

5. ;g ijh{kk nks Hkkxksa esa gS % 5. This Test has two Parts :
Hkkx-
Hkkx I % ckSf)d ;ksX;rk ijh{k.k
ijh{k.k ¼ç- 1 ls ç- 90½ Part-I : Mental Ability Test (MAT) (Q. 1 to Q. 90)

Hkkx-
Hkkx II % 'kSf{kd ;ksX;rk ijh{k.k ¼ç- 91 ls ç- 180½ Part-II : Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT) (Q. 91 to Q. 180)
uksV % bl iqfLrdk ds vUr esa fn, x, 'ks"k funsZ'kksa dks Note : Read other remaining instructions given on the
i<+saA last page of this Booklet.

(2)
jQ dk;Z ds fy, / FOR ROUGH WORK

(3) A

PART – I ¼Hkkx – I½
MENTAL ABILITY TEST
ckSf)d ;ksX;rk ijh{k.k
Questions : 1 to 90 Time : 1½ Hours

Direction : (Question Nos. 1 to 3) funsZ’k % ¼iz'u la[;k 1 ls 3½
In these questions, a number series is bu iz’uksa esa ,d la[;k Ük`a[kyk nh xbZ gS
given with one term missing. Choose the ftlesa ,d in yqIr gSA fn, x, fodYiksa esa
correct alternative from the given ones ls og fodYi pqfu, tks Ük`a[kyk dks iwjk
that will complete the series. djrk gksA
1. 4, 13, 28, 49, 76, ? 1. 4, 13, 28, 49, 76, ?
(1) 99 (1) 99
(2) 111 (2) 111
(3) 109 (3) 109
(4) 122 (4) 122

2. 117, 96, 77, 60, ? , 32 2. 117, 96, 77, 60, ? , 32
(1) 40 (1) 40
(2) 49 (2) 49
(3) 50 (3) 50
(4) 45 (4) 45

3. 7, 20, 58, 171, ? 3. 7, 20, 58, 171, ?
(1) 216 (1) 216
(2) 284 (2) 284
(3) 509 (3) 509
(4) 441 (4) 441

4. If 4 × 2 = 3 and 8 × 4 = 3, then find 4. ;fn 4 × 2 = 3 vkSj 8 × 4 = 3 gS] rks
the value of 21 × 7 : 21 × 7 dk eku Kkr dhft, %
(1) 4 (1) 4
(2) 3 (2) 3
(3) 8 (3) 8
(4) 16 (4) 16

NMMS–2022 P. T. O.

A (4)

Direction : (Question Nos. 5 and 6) funsZ’k % ¼iz'u la[;k 5 ,oa 6½
The figure (X) is folded to form a box. fp= (X) fMCck cukus ds fy, eksM+k x;k gS
Choose the box from given alternatives fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls ,slk fodYi ¼fMCck½
that is similar to the box formed. pqusa tks cuk;s x, fMCcs ds le:i gksA
5. 5.

(X) (X)

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

6. 6.

(X) (X)

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

Direction : (Question Nos. 7 to 10) funsZ’k % ¼iz'u la[;k 7 ls 10½
Each side of solid cube is 15 cm. The ,d Bksl ?ku dh izR;sd Hkqtk 15 lseh gSA
opposite faces of this cube are painted bl ?ku ds foijhr Qyd ;qXeksa dks yky]
Red, Green and Yellow. After this the gjs vkSj ihys jax ls jaxk tkrk gSA blds
cube is cut into small cubes whose each ckn bls 3 lseh Hkqtk okys ?kukdkj VqdM+ksa esa
side is 3 cm. Answer the following dkVk tkrk gSA bl vk/kkj ij fuEufyf[kr
questions on this basis. iz’uksa ds mÙkj nhft,A
7. How many such small cubes will 7. ,sls fdrus NksVs ?ku izkIr gksaxs ftuds
be obtained which have red and dsoy nks Qyd ij yky vkSj gjk
green colour on only two faces ? jax gks \
(1) 12 (2) 8 (1) 12 (2) 8
(3) 36 (4) 24 (3) 36 (4) 24

NMMS–2022

(5) A

8. How many such small cubes will 8. ,sls fdrus NksVs ?ku izkIr gksx
a s ftuds
be obtained which have yellow dsoy ,d Qyd ij ihyk jax gks \
colour on only one face ?
(1) 8 (2) 12 (1) 8 (2) 12
(3) 18 (4) 54 (3) 18 (4) 54

9. How many such small cubes will 9. ,sls fdrus NksVs ?ku izkIr gksx
a s ftuds
be obtained which will not have fdlh Hkh Qyd ij yky] gjk vkSj
red, green and yellow colour on ihyk jax ugha gksxk \
any of the faces ?
(1) 125 (1) 125
(2) 25 (2) 25
(3) 8 (3) 8
(4) 27 (4) 27

10. How many such small cubes will 10. ,sls fdrus NksVs ?ku izkIr gksx
a s ftuds
be obtained which will have red, dsoy rhu Qyd ij yky] gjk vkSj
green and yellow colour on only ihyk jax gksxk \
three faces ?
(1) 12 (1) 12
(2) 8 (2) 8
(3) 25 (3) 25
(4) 54 (4) 54

Direction : (Question Nos. 11 and 12) funsZ’k % ¼iz'u la[;k 11 ,oa 12½
In the following number series find the uhps nh xbZ la[;k Ük`a[kyk esa og la[;k
number which is wrong according to the Kkr djsa tks Ük`a[kyk ds vuqlkj xyr gSA
series.

11. 7, 17, 11, 15, 15, 13, 19, 9, 23 11. 7, 17, 11, 15, 15, 13, 19, 9, 23
(1) 9 (1) 9
(2) 11 (2) 11
(3) 23 (3) 23
(4) 15 (4) 15

NMMS–2022 P. T. O.

A (6)

12. 8, 4, 6, 15, 52 12. 8, 4, 6, 15, 52
(1) 4 (2) 52 (1) 4 (2) 52
(3) 15 (4) 8 (3) 15 (4) 8
Direction : (Question Nos. 13 and 14) funsZ’k % ¼iz'u la[;k 13 ,oa 14½
The three different position of a dice are ,d iklk dh rhu vyx&vyx fLFkfr uhps
given below. Select the suitable answer nh xbZ gSaA fuEufyf[kr iz’uksa ds mi;qDr
of the following question. mÙkj dk p;u djsAa

13. What is the symbol on the opposite 13. ` ds foijhr lrg ij dkSu&lk fpUg
surface of ` ? gS \
(1) $ (2) + (1) $ (2) +
(3) @ (4) × (3) @ (4) ×
14. What is the symbol on the opposite 14. $ ds foijhr lrg ij dkSu&lk fpUg
surface of $ ? gS \
(1) ` (2) × (1) ` (2) ×
(3) + (4) # (3) + (4) #
Direction : (Question Nos. 15 to 17) funsZ’k % ¼iz'u la[;k 15 ls 17½
In the following questions there are fuEufyf[kr iz’uksa esa] dFku ds ckn fu"d"kZ
statements followed by conclusions. gSaA fu"d"kZ dk p;u djsa tks fn, x, dFkuksa
Choose the conclusion(s) which must ls rkfdZd :i ls vuqlj.k djsaA
logically follow from the given (1) ;fn dsoy fu"d"kZ I vuqlj.k djrk gSA
statements. (2) ;fn dsoy fu"d"kZ II vuqlj.k djrk gSA
(1) If only conclusion I follows. (3) ;fn u rks fu"d"kZ I vkSj u gh II
(2) If only conclusion II follows. vuqlj.k djrk gSA
(3) If neither conclusion I and II follows. (4) ;fn fu"d"kZ I vkSj II nksuksa vuqlj.k
(4) If both conclusion I and II follows. djrs gSaA
15. Statements : 15. dFku %
All Apples are Mangoes. lHkh lsc vke gSaA
Some Mangoes are Guava. dqN vke ve:n gSaA
Conclusions : fu"d"kZ %
I Some Guava are Apples. I dqN ve:n lsc gSaA
II Some Guava are Mangoes. II dqN ve:n vke gSaA

NMMS–2022

(7) A

16. Statements : 16. dFku %
Some buses are vans. dqN clsa oSu gSaA
Some vans are motorcycles. dqN oSu eksVjlkbfdy gSaA
Conclusions : fu"d"kZ %
I Some vans are buses. I dqN oSu clsa gSaA
II Some motorcycles are vans. II dqN eksVjlkbfdy oSu gSaA

17. Statements : 17. dFku %
Some dogs are cats. dqN dqRrs fcfYy;k¡ gSaA
No cats are rats. dksbZ fcYyh pwgk ugha gSA
Conclusions : fu"d"kZ %
I Some cats are dogs. I dqN fcfYy;k¡ dqRrs gSaA
II Some rats are dogs. II dqN pwgs dqRrs gSaA

Direction : (Question Nos. 18 to 20) funsZ’k % ¼iz'u la[;k 18 ls 20½
The answers to the following questions fuEufyf[kr iz’uksa ds mÙkj uhps fn, x,
are based on the diagram given below. vkjs[k ij vk/kkfjr gSa tgk¡ o`Ùk xf.kr
Where the circle represents students i<+us okys Nk=ksa] f=Hkqt foKku i<+us okys
studying Mathematics, the triangle Nk=ksa vkSj oxZ Hkwxksy i<+us okys Nk=ksa dk
represents students studying Science izfrfuf/kRo djrk gSA
and the square represents students
studying Geography.

18. Number of students who study 18. mu Nk=ksa dh la[;k] tks xf.kr vkSj
Mathematics and Science but not foKku i<+rs gSa ysfdu Hkwxksy ugha
Geography : i<+rs %
(1) 7 (1) 7
(2) 5 (2) 5
(3) 4 (3) 4
(4) 6 (4) 6

NMMS–2022 P. T. O.

A (8)

19. Number of students who study 19. mu Nk=ksa dh la[;k] tks xf.kr]
Mathematics, Science and foKku vkSj Hkwxksy i<+rs gSa %
Geography :
(1) 5 (1) 5
(2) 6 (2) 6
(3) 7 (3) 7
(4) 4 (4) 4

20. Number of students who study 20. mu Nk=ksa dh la[;k] tks dsoy xf.kr
only Mathematics : i<+rs gSa %
(1) 3 (1) 3
(2) 4 (2) 4
(3) 6 (3) 6
(4) 7 (4) 7

Direction : (Question Nos. 21 and 22) funsZ’k % ¼iz'u la[;k 21 ,oa 22½
In a certain code language ,d fuf’pr dwV Hkk"kk esa
(a) ‘rim tim bo’ means ‘Sun is Hot’. (a) ‘rim tim bo’ dk vFkZ ‘Sun is Hot’ gS
(b) ‘sim jar tim’ means ‘Moon is Cool’ (b) ‘sim jar tim’ dk vFkZ ‘Moon is Cool’ gS
(c) ‘jar bo lim’ means ‘Sun and Moon’. (c) ‘jar bo lim’ dk vFkZ ‘Sun and Moon’ gS

21. In that language which word is 21. ml Hkk"kk esa tks 'kCn ‘and’ ds fy,
written for ‘and’ ? fy[kk x;k gS %
(1) tim (1) tim
(2) lim (2) lim
(3) sim (3) sim
(4) jar (4) jar

22. In that language which word 22. ml Hkk"kk esa tks 'kCn ‘cool’ ds fy,
written for ‘cool’ ? fy[kk x;k gS %
(1) lim (1) lim
(2) jar (2) jar
(3) tim (3) tim
(4) sim (4) sim

NMMS–2022

(9) A

23. If the word ‘EIGH’ can be written 23. ;fn ‘EIGH’ 'kCn dks ‘EMOT’ fy[kk
as ‘EMOT’, then how can the word tkrk gS] rks ‘AEKL’ dks blh dksM esa
‘AEKL’ be written in that code ? fdl izdkj fy[kk tk ldrk gS \
(1) AELM (1) AELM
(2) AESX (2) AESX
(3) AISX (3) AISX
(4) AIXS (4) AIXS

Direction : (Question Nos. 24 and 25) funsZ’k % ¼iz'u la[;k 24 ,oa 25½
Which of the four answer figures can be pkj mÙkj vkd`fr;ksa esa ls dkSu-lh vkd`fr
formed from the pieces (X) given below ? dks uhps fn, x, VqdM+ksa (X) ls cuk;k tk
ldrk gS \
24. 24.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

25. 25.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

26. If the word ‘MUMBAI’ can be 26. ;fn ‘MUMBAI’ 'kCn dks ‘NWPFFO’
written as ‘NWPFFO’, then how fy[kk tkrk gS] rks ‘DELHI’ dks blh
can the word ‘DELHI’ be written dksM esa fdl izdkj fy[kk tk ldrk
in that code ? gS \
(1) EFMIL (2) EGOLN (1) EFMIL (2) EGOLN
(3) CDKGH (4) EGOMN (3) CDKGH (4) EGOMN

NMMS–2022 P. T. O.

A ( 10 )

Direction : (Question Nos. 27 to 29) funsZ’k % ¼iz'u la[;k 27 ls 29½
There are given six logical Diagrams (a, N% rdZ laxr fp= (a, b, c, d, e vkSj f)
b, c, d, e and f). Select one which best fn, x, gSaA fuEufyf[kr esa ls izR;sd iz’u
illustrates the relationship among three esa rhu oxks± ds chp laca/k n’kkZus okyk
classes in each of the following question. loZJs"B pqusaA

27. Husband, Wife, Family : 27. ifr] iRuh] ifjokj %
(1) b (1) b

(2) f (2) f

(3) a (3) a

(4) e (4) e

28. Authors, Women, Techers : 28. ys[kd] efgyk,¡] f’k{kd %
(1) b (1) b

(2) c (2) c

(3) d (3) d

(4) e (4) e

29. Mothers, Women, Children : 29. ekrk,¡] efgyk,¡] cPps %
(1) f (1) f

(2) a (2) a

(3) b (3) b

(4) c (4) c

NMMS–2022

( 11 ) A

30. If the word “DOCTOR” can be 30. ;fn “DOCTOR” 'kCn dks FRGVRV
written as FRGVRV, then how can fy[kk tkrk gS] rks “HEALTH” dks
the word “HEALTH” be written in blh dksM esa fdl izdkj fy[kk tk
that code ? ldrk gS \
(1) IFBMUI (1) IFBMUI
(2) JHEMWM (2) JHEMWM
(3) IFBNUI (3) IFBNUI
(4) JHENWL (4) JHENWL

31. If the word ‘DOG’ can be written 31. ;fn ‘DOG’ 'kCn dks 13 fy[kk tkrk
as 13, then how can the word gS] rks ‘MAT’ dks blh dksM esa fdl
‘MAT’ be written in that code ? izdkj fy[kk tk ldrk gS \
(1) 17 (2) 34 (1) 17 (2) 34
(3) 24 (4) 26 (3) 24 (4) 26

32. Rahul is 15th from the left in a 32. 38 yM+dksa dh iafDr esa jkgqy ck;sa ls
row of 38 boys. What will be his 15osa LFkku ij gSA mldk nk;ha vksj
position from the right ? ls LFkku D;k gksxk \
(1) 23rd (1) 23ok¡
(2) 22nd (2) 22ok¡
(3) 24th (3) 24ok¡
(4) 25th (4) 25ok¡

33. If the word ‘MOUSE’ can be 33. ;fn ‘MOUSE’ 'kCn dks “ONWRG”
written as “ONWRG”, then how fy[kk tkrk gS] rks ‘LIGHT’ dks blh
can the word ‘LIGHT’ be written dksM esa fdl izdkj fy[kk tk ldrk
in that code ? gS \
(1) MGHFU (2) JGEFR (1) MGHFU (2) JGEFR
(3) JJEIR (4) NHIGV (3) JJEIR (4) NHIGV

34. How many times does Zero appear 34. 1 ls 1000 rd dh la[;kvksa esa 0
in the numbers from 1 to 1000 ? fdruh ckj vkrk gS \
(1) 102 (2) 122 (1) 102 (2) 122
(3) 192 (4) 112 (3) 192 (4) 112

NMMS–2022 P. T. O.

A ( 12 )

Direction : (Question Nos. 35 to 39) funsZ’k % ¼iz'u la[;k 35 ls 39½
Read the following information and fuEufyf[kr tkudkjh i<+sa vkSj uhps fn,
answer the questions given below. iz’uksa ds mÙkj nsaA
1. P$Q means P is mother of Q. 1. P$Q dk vFkZ gS P, Q dh ekrk gSaA
2. P@Q means P is father of Q. 2. P@Q dk vFkZ gS P, Q ds firk gSaA
3. P#Q means P is husband of Q. 3. P#Q dk vFkZ gS P, Q ds ifr gSaA
4. P&Q means P is daughter of Q. 4. P&Q dk vFkZ gS P, Q dh csVh gSA

35. How is A related to C according to 35. A@B#C ds vuqlkj A dk C ls D;k
A@B#C ? laca/k gS \
(1) Father (1) firk
(2) Grand Father (2) nknk
(3) Father-in-law (3) llqj
(4) Son-in-law (4) nkekn

36. How is C related to A according to 36. A$B&C ds vuqlkj C dk A ls D;k
A$B&C ? laca/k gS \
(1) Wife (1) iRuh
(2) Daughter (2) csVh
(3) Mother (3) ek¡
(4) Husband (4) ifr

37. How is A related to C according to 37. A#B$C ds vuqlkj A dk C ls D;k
A#B$C ? laca/k gS \
(1) Husband (2) Father (1) ifr (2) firk
(3) Son (4) Wife (3) csVk (4) iRuh

38. How is C related to A according to 38. A&B#C ds vuqlkj C dk A ls D;k
A&B#C ? laca/k gS \
(1) Mother (1) ekrk
(2) Daughter (2) csVh
(3) Wife (3) iRuh
(4) Husband (4) ifr

NMMS–2022

( 13 ) A

39. How is A related to C according to 39. A@B$C ds vuqlkj A dk C ls D;k
A@B$C ? laca/k gS \
(1) Grand Father (1) nknk
(2) Husband (2) ifr
(3) Maternal Grand Father (3) ukuk
(4) Father (4) firk

Direction : (Question Nos. 40 to 44) funsZ’k % ¼iz'u la[;k 40 ls 44½
Read the following information and fuEufyf[kr tkudkjh i<+sa vkSj uhps fn,
answer the questions given below. x, iz’uksa ds mÙkj nsaA
All six members of a family P, Q, R, S, T ,d ifjokj ds lHkh N% lnL; P, Q, R, S,
and U are traveling together. S is T vkSj U ,d lkFk ;k=k dj jgs gSaA S, P
daughter of P. U is brother of Q. Q is dh csVh gSA U, Q dk HkkbZ gSA Q, R dh
daughter of R. But R is not the mother of csVh gSA ysfdu R, Q dh ek¡ ugha gSA P
Q. P and R are a married couple. vkSj R ,d fookfgr tksM+k gSA
40. Who is U’s mother ? 40. U dh ek¡ dkSu gS \
(1) S (2) P (1) S (2) P
(3) R (4) T (3) R (4) T

41. How is T related to S ? 41. T dk S ls D;k laca/k gS \
(1) Uncle (1) pkpk
(2) Father (2) firk
(3) Maternal Uncle (3) ekek
(4) Brother (4) HkkbZ

42. How many children does P have ? 42. P ds fdrus cPps gSa \
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 4 (4) 3 (3) 4 (4) 3

43. How many male members are 43. ifjokj esa fdrus iq#"k lnL; gSa \
there in the family ?
(1) 1 (2) 4 (1) 1 (2) 4
(3) 2 (4) 3 (3) 2 (4) 3

NMMS–2022 P. T. O.

A ( 14 )

44. How is S related to U ? 44. S dk U ls D;k lac/a k gS \
(1) Sister (1) cgu
(2) Mother (2) ek¡
(3) Sister-in-law (3) HkkHkh
(4) Daughter (4) csVh

Directions : (Question Nos. 45 to 48) funsZ’k % ¼iz'u la[;k 45 ls 48½
In each of the following figures number uhps nh xbZ izR;sd vkd`fr esa ,d fuf’pr
are written according to some patterns. Øe vuqlkj dqN la[;k,¡ fy[kh xbZ gSaA
One number is missing. Find the buesa ls ,d la[;k yqIr gSA yqIr la[;k
missing number that replace the Kkr djsa tks iz’u fpUg ¼\½ ds LFkku ij
question mark (?). mi;qDr gksA
45. 45.

(1) 21 (2) 13 (1) 21 (2) 13
(3) 9 (4) 19 (3) 9 (4) 19

46. 46.

(1) 9 (2) 2 (1) 9 (2) 2
(3) 18 (4) 7 (3) 18 (4) 7

47. 47.

(1) 464 (1) 464
(2) 232 (2) 232
(3) 494 (3) 494
(4) 133 (4) 133

NMMS–2022

( 15 ) A

48. 48.
? 1 ? 1

(1) 5 (2) 14 (1) 5 (2) 14

(3) 125 (4) 25 (3) 125 (4) 25

Directions : (Question Nos. 49 to 52) funsZ’k % ¼iz'u la[;k 49 ls 52½
Read the following information and fuEufyf[kr tkudkjh i<+sa vkSj uhps fn,
answer the questions given below. x, iz’uksa ds mÙkj nsaA
There are five person in a group A, B, C, ,d lewg esa 5 O;fDr A, B, C, D vkSj E
D and E. The group has one doctor, one gSaA lewg esa ,d MkWDVj] ,d f’k{kd vkSj
teacher and one author. A and D are ,d ys[kd gSaA A vkSj D vfookfgr Nk=
unmarried students. E is a man married gSaA E ,d iq#"k gS tks lewg ds lnL;ksa esa
to one of the group member. B is brother ls ,d ls fookfgr gSA B, A dk HkkbZ gS
of A and is neither doctor nor author. C vkSj u rks MkWDVj gS u gh ys[kdA C
is not a doctor. MkWDVj ugha gSA
49. Who is author ? 49. ys[kd dkSu gS \
(1) A (2) B (1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) E (3) C (4) E

50. Who is teacher ? 50. f’k{kd dkSu gS \
(1) B (1) B
(2) C (2) C
(3) E (3) E
(4) D (4) D

51. Who is doctor ? 51. MkWDVj dkSu gS \
(1) C (1) C
(2) B (2) B
(3) D (3) D
(4) E (4) E

NMMS–2022 P. T. O.

A ( 16 )

52. Who is wife of E ? 52. E dh iRuh dkSu gS \
(1) D (1) D
(2) C (2) C
(3) B (3) B
(4) A (4) A

53. A clock has 6 : 47, so what does 53. ,d ?kM+h esa 6 ctdj 47 feuV gq,
the time of the clock appear when gSa] rks niZ.k esa ns[kus ij ?kM+h dk
you look in the mirror ? le; D;k izrhr gksrk gS \
(1) 7 : 13 (1) 7 : 13
(2) 6 : 13 (2) 6 : 13
(3) 5 : 13 (3) 5 : 13
(4) 8 : 13 (4) 8 : 13

54. If the English alphabet is written 54. ;fn vaxzsth dh o.kZekyk dks myVs
in reverse orders, which will be Øe esa fy[kk tk,xk] rks ck;sa ls 12osa
the 8th letter to the right of the v{kj ds nk;ha vksj 8ok¡ v{kj
12th letter from the left ? dkSu&lk gksxk \
(1) G (1) G

(2) T (2) T

(3) F (3) F

(4) I (4) I

55. If the seventh day of a month 55. ;fn fdlh ekg dk lkrok¡ fnu
comes three days before Saturday, 'kfuokj ls rhu fnu igys vkrk gS]
then which day will be the 17th rks ml ekg dk l=gok¡ fnu dkSu&lk
day of that month ? okj gksxk \
(1) Sunday (1) jfookj
(2) Saturday (2) 'kfuokj
(3) Friday (3) 'kqØokj
(4) Wednesday (4) cq/kokj

NMMS–2022

( 17 ) A

56. Various terms of an alphabet 56. o.kZekyk Ük`a[kyk ds fofHkUu in fn,
series are given with one term x, gSa ftuesa ls ,d in fjDr gS
missing as shown by (?). Choose ftls iz’u fpUg ¼\½ ls n’kkZ;k x;k
the missing terms out of the given gSA fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls fjDr in
alternatives. Kkr dhft,A
DEF, HIJ, MNO, ? DEF, HIJ, MNO, ?
(1) RST (2) STU (1) RST (2) STU
(3) TUV (4) SRQ (3) TUV (4) SRQ

Direction : (Question Nos. 57 and 58) funsZ’k % ¼iz'u la[;k 57 ,oa 58½
Select a proper group of letters from the fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls v{kjksa dk ,d lgh
given alternative. lewg pqfu, ftuls fjDr LFkkuksa dh iwfrZ dh
tk ldsA
57. _a_b_abaa_bab_abb 57. _a_b_abaa_bab_abb
(1) abbaa (2) babba (1) abbaa (2) babba
(3) ababb (4) babaa (3) ababb (4) babaa
58. qrp_q_ppqr_p_rpp 58. qrp_q_ppqr_p_rpp
(1) qrqq (2) rqpq (1) qrqq (2) rqpq
(3) prpq (4) rrpq (3) prpq (4) rrpq
59. What is the angle between the two 59. ?kM+h esa 7 ctdj 30 feuV ij nksuksa
hands at 7 : 30 in the Clock ? lwbZ;ksa ds chp fdrus fMxzh dk dks.k
gksxk \
(1) 45° (2) 60° (1) 45° (2) 60°
(3) 15° (4) 30° (3) 15° (4) 30°
60. A man walked 40 meters towards 60. ,d O;fDr mÙkj fn’kk dh vksj 40
North, took a left turn and walked ehVj rd pyk] og ck;sa eqM+k vkSj
20 meters. He again took a left 20 ehVj pykA og iqu% ck;sa eqM+k
turn and walked 40 meters. How vkSj 40 ehVj pykA izkjafHkd LFkku
far and in which direction is he ls og fdruh nwj vkSj fdl fn’kk esa
from the starting point ? gksxk \
(1) 20 meters East (1) 20 ehVj iwoZ
(2) 20 meters South (2) 20 ehVj nf{k.k
(3) 20 meters West (3) 20 ehVj if’pe
(4) 100 meters South (4) 100 ehVj nf{k.k

NMMS–2022 P. T. O.

A ( 18 )

Direction : (Question Nos. 61 to 64) funsZ’k % ¼iz'u la[;k 61 ls 64½
In each of the following questions the fuEufyf[kr izR;sd iz’u esa igys nks 'kCn
first two words have a common fdlh u fdlh rjg ls ,d-nwljs ls lacaf/kr
relationship. Choose one word out of the gSaA fn, x, pkj fodYiksa esa ls ,d ,slk
given four alternatives, which will 'kCn pqus tks iz’uokpd fpUg ¼\½ ds LFkku
replace the question mark (?), having ij vk ldrk gS vkSj rhljs 'kCn ls ogh
same relationship with the third, the leku lac/a k gksA tksM+s bl izdkj fn, gSaA
pairs are given as following.

61. Reading : Knowledge : : Work : ? 61. i<+uk % Kku % % dke % \
(1) Engagement (1) lxkbZ
(2) Employment (2) jkstxkj
(3) Experience (3) vuqHko
(4) Experiment (4) iz;ksx

62. Paw : Cat : : Hoof : ? 62. iatk % fcYyh % % [kqj % \
(1) Lion (1) 'ksj
(2) Elephant (2) gkFkh
(3) Lamb (3) HksM+
(4) Horse (4) ?kksM+k

63. White : Peace : : Red : ? 63. lQsn % 'kkafr % % yky % \
(1) Rose (1) xqykc
(2) Hatred (2) ?k`.kk
(3) Violence (3) fgalk
(4) Cleanliness (4) LoPNrk

64. South : North&West : : East : ? 64. nf{k.k % mÙkj&if’pe % % iwoZ % \
(1) South&East (1) nf{k.k&iwoZ

(2) South&West (2) nf{k.k&if’pe
(3) North (3) mÙkj

(4) West (4) if’pe

NMMS–2022

( 19 ) A

65. Wednesday being Republic day 65. cq/kokj dks x.kra= fnol dh NqVV~ h
was holiday. The tenth day of the FkhA vxys eghus 10osa fnu clar
next month being Basant iapeh dh NqVV~ h FkhA 10 rkjh[k dks
Panchami was holiday. What day dkSu&lk fnu Fkk \
was on 10th ?

(1) Wednesday (1) cq/kokj

(2) Tuesday (2) eaxyokj

(3) Friday (3) 'kqØokj

(4) Thursday (4) xq:okj

Direction : (Question Nos. 66 to 69) funsZ’k % ¼iz'u la[;k 66 ls 69½
In each of the following questions, 3 fuEufyf[kr izR;sd iz’u esa 3 iz’u
question figures are given as A,B,C and vkd`fr;ksa A,B,C ds :i esa vkSj pkj mÙkj
four answer figures are given as 1,2,3 vkd`fr;ksa 1,2,3 vkSj 4 ds :i esa nh x;h
and 4. Select the figure from the answer gSaA mÙkj vkd`fr;ksa esa ls ml vkd`fr dk
figures that will continue the series p;u dhft, tks iz’u vkd`fr;ksa esa nh x;h
given in the question figure. Ük`a[kyk dks tkjh j[ksxhA

66. Question Figures 66. iz'u vkd`fr;k¡

Answer Figures mÙkj vkd`fr;k¡

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

NMMS–2022 P. T. O.

A ( 20 )

67. Question Figures 67. iz'u vkd`fr;k¡

Answer Figures mÙkj vkd`fr;k¡

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

68. Question Figures 68. iz'u vkd`fr;k¡

Answer Figures mÙkj vkd`fr;k¡

(1) (1)

(2) (2)

(3) (3)

(4) (4)

NMMS–2022

( 21 ) A
69. Question Figures 69. iz'u vkd`fr;k¡

Answer Figures mÙkj vkd`fr;k¡

(1) (1)

(2) (2)

(3) (3)

(4) (4)

Direction : (Question Nos. 70 and 71) funsZ’k % ¼iz'u la[;k 70 ,oa 71½
In the following questions, choose a fuEufyf[kr iz’uksa esa pkj fodYiksa esa ls ,d
figure amongst the four alternatives vkd`fr pqusa] ftls tc vkd`fr (X) ds iz’u
which when placed in question mark (?) fpUg (?) ds LFkku ij j[kk tk, rks iSVuZ
space of figure (X) would complete the iwjk gks tk,xkA
pattern.

70. 70.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

NMMS–2022 P. T. O.

A ( 22 )

71. 71.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

Direction : (Question Nos. 72 and 73) funsZ’k % ¼iz'u la[;k 72 ,oa 73½
In the following questions, from amongst fuEufyf[kr ç'uksa esa] vkd`fr;ksa 1, 2, 3 vkSj
the figures marked 1, 2, 3 and 4 choose 4 esa ls og vkd`fr pqusa] tks fcanq yxkus dh
the figure which satisfies the same mlh fLFkfr dks larq"V djrk gS tSlk fd
condition of placement of the dot(s) as in vkd`fr (X) esa gSA
figure (X).

72. 72.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

73. 73.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

NMMS–2022

( 23 ) A

Direction : (Question Nos. 74 and 75) funsZ’k % ¼iz'u la[;k 74 ,oa 75½
Select the mirror image of the given nh xbZ la[;k@vkd`fr (X) dk niZ.k fp=
number/figure (X). pqfu,A

74. 74.

(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

75. 75.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

Direction : (Question Nos. 76 and 77) funsZ’k % ¼iz'u la[;k 76 ,oa 77½
Study the following number sequence fuEufyf[kr la[;k vuqØe dk v/;;u djsa
and answer the questions given below. vkSj uhps fn, x, iz’uksa ds mÙkj nsaA
63745921873569437142769317 63745921873569437142769317

76. How many prime number are in 76. fn, x, vuqØe esa fdruh vHkkT;
the sequence which are la[;k,¡ gSa ftuds Bhd igys ,d le
immediately preceded by an even la[;k gS ysfdu rqjr a ckn esa ,d
number but immediately followed fo"ke la[;k gS \
by an odd number ?
(1) 5 (2) 13 (1) 5 (2) 13
(3) 4 (4) 7 (3) 4 (4) 7
NMMS–2022 P. T. O.

A ( 24 )

77. How many ‘3’ number are in the 77. fn, x, vuqØe esa fdrus ^3* gSa]
sequence which are immediately ftuds Bhd igys ,d le la[;k gS
preceded by an even number but ysfdu rqjar ckn esa ,d fo"ke la[;k
immediately followed by an odd gS \
number ?
(1) 4 (2) 2 (1) 4 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 1 (3) 3 (4) 1
Direction : (Question Nos. 78 and 79) funsZ’k % ¼iz'u la[;k 78 ,oa 79½
The given figure (x) is followed by four fn;k gqvk ,d fp= (x) pkj fp=ksa 1, 2, 3,
figures 1, 2, 3, and 4 such that (x) is vkSj 4 esa ls ,d dk ifj.kke gSA tksfd (x)
embedded in one of them. Trace out the buesa ls fdlh esa fufgr gSA mi;qDr fodYi
correct alternatives. dh igpku djsaA
78. 78.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

79. 79.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

NMMS–2022

( 25 ) A

80. Kailash walks 3 kms to east and 80. dSyk’k 3 fdeh iwoZ dh vksj pyrk gS
turns south and walks 4 kms. vkSj nf{k.k dh vksj eqM+rk gS vkSj 4
Again turn west and walks 6 kms. fdeh pyrk gSA iqu% if’pe dh vksj
How far he from the starting eqM+dj 6 fdeh pyrk gS og
point ? vkjafHkd fcanq ls fdruh nwj gS \
(1) 5 kms (1) 5 fdeh

(2) 6 kms (2) 6 fdeh

(3) 3 kms (3) 3 fdeh

(4) 7 kms (4) 7 fdeh

81. Select the related number from 81. fn, x, laca/k ls lacaf/kr la[;k dk
the given relation : p;u djsa %
583 : 295 : : 486 : ? 583 : 295 : : 486 : ?

(1) 291 (1) 291

(2) 378 (2) 378

(3) 487 (3) 487

(4) 581 (4) 581

82. Find the odd word from the given 82. fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls fo"ke 'kCn
alternatives : Kkr dhft, %
(1) RTUX (1) RTUX

(2) WUTQ (2) WUTQ

(3) GEDA (3) GEDA

(4) ECBY (4) ECBY

83. If A means +, B means ×, C means 83. ;fn A dk vFkZ +, B dk vFkZ ×, C dk
» and D means – , then the value vFkZ » vkSj D dk vFkZ – , ekuk tk,]
of 9 A 2 B 6 D 4 C 2 is : rks 9 A 2 B 6 D 4 C 2 dk eku Kkr
dhft, %
(1) 16 (2) 19 (1) 16 (2) 19

(3) 27 (4) 30 (3) 27 (4) 30

NMMS–2022 P. T. O.

A ( 26 )

84. If 4 × 3 = 14, 5 × 4 = 18, 6 × 5 = 22, 84. ;fn 4 × 3 = 14, 5 × 4 = 18, 6 × 5 = 22
then find the value of 7 × 6 : gS] rks 7 × 6 dk eku Kkr dhft, %
(1) 20 (1) 20
(2) 26 (2) 26
(3) 30 (3) 30
(4) 42 (4) 42

Direction : (Question Nos. 85 to 87) funsZ’k % ¼iz'u la[;k 85 ls 87½
How many triangles are in the given nh xbZ vkd`fr esa f=Hkqtksa dh la[;k fdruh
figure ? gS \
85. 85.

(1) 10 (2) 12 (1) 10 (2) 12
(3) 9 (4) 5 (3) 9 (4) 5

86. 86.

(1) 10 (1) 10
(2) 8 (2) 8
(3) 6 (3) 6
(4) 5 (4) 5

87. 87.

(1) 7 (1) 7
(2) 10 (2) 10
(3) 11 (3) 11
(4) 9 (4) 9

NMMS–2022

( 27 ) A

Direction : (Question Nos. 88 and 89) funsZ’k % ¼iz'u la[;k 88 ,oa 89½
How many squares are in the given nh xbZ vkd`fr esa oxks± dh la[;k fdruh
figure ? gS \
88. 88.

(1) 18 (1) 18

(2) 15 (2) 15

(3) 25 (3) 25

(4) 16 (4) 16

89. 89.

(1) 12 (1) 12

(2) 15 (2) 15

(3) 20 (3) 20

(4) 25 (4) 25

90. If × means –, + means ×, » means 90. ;fn × dk vFkZ –, + dk vFkZ ×, » dk
+ and – means », then find the vFkZ + vkSj – dk vFkZ » ekuk
value of 175 – 25 » 5 + 2 × 3 + 10 : tk,] rks 175 – 25 » 5 + 2 × 3 + 10
dk eku Kkr dhft, %
(1) –13 (1) –13

(2) 160 (2) 160

(3) 240 (3) 240

(4) 2370 (4) 2370
NMMS–2022 P. T. O.

A ( 28 )

PART – II ¼Hkkx – II½
SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST
'kSf{kd {kerk ijh{k.k
Questions : 91 to 180 Time : 1½ Hours

91. Who among the following was 91. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu fganqLrku
associated with the Hindustan fjifCydu ,lksfl,’ku ls tqM+k Fkk \
Republican Association ?
(1) Subhash Chandra Bose (1) lqHkk"k panz cksl
(2) Mahatma Gandhi (2) egkRek xk¡/kh
(3) Bhagat Singh (3) Hkxr flag
(4) Laxmi Sehgal (4) y{eh lgxy

92. The place where an Earthquake 92. og LFkku tgk¡ HkwdEi iSnk gksrk gS %
originates is :

(1) Centre (1) dsUnz

(2) Epicenter (2) vf/kdsUnz

(3) Focus (3) Qksdl

(4) Apex (4) f’kjksfcUnq

93. What is the additive identity of 93. ifjes; la[;k dh ;ksxkRed igpku
rational number ? D;k gS \
(1) 0 (2) 1 (1) 0 (2) 1
(3) –1 (4) 2 (3) –1 (4) 2

94. If the angle of incidence is 50°, 94. ;fn vkiru dks.k 50° gS] rks
then calculate the angle between vkifrr fdj.k ,oa ijkofrZr fdj.k
the incident ray and the reflected ds chp ds dks.k dh x.kuk djsa %
ray :
(1) 50° (1) 50°
(2) 130° (2) 130°
(3) 80° (3) 80°
(4) 100° (4) 100°
NMMS–2022

( 29 ) A
95. What steel was Tipu Sultan sword 95. Vhiw lqYrku dh ryokj fdl LVhy
made of ? ls cuh Fkh \
(1) Stainless Steel (1) taxjks/kh LVhy
(2) Wootz (2) oqVT~ k
(3) Silver (3) pkanh
(4) Gold (4) lksuk

96. Which of the following resource 96. fuEu esa ls fdl lalk/ku dk
has commercial value ? okf.kfT;d ewY; gS \
(1) Clean environment (1) LoPN okrkoj.k
(2) Panoramic view (2) euksje n`’;
(3) Cotton clothes (3) lwrh oL=
(4) Pleasant weather (4) lqgkouk ekSle

97. It is difficult to walk on ice 97. cQZ ij pyuk dfBu gS D;ksafd %
because :

(1) pressure is high (1) nkc vf/kd gS

(2) pressure is low (2) nkc de gS

(3) friction is high (3) ?k"kZ.k vf/kd gS

(4) friction is low (4) ?k"kZ.k de gS

98. Here are the names of resources 98. ;gk¡ lalk/kuksa ds uke o muds izdkj
and their types. Look at the fn, x, gSaA fodYiksa dks nsf[k, vkSj
options and state which option is crkb, fd dkSu&lk fodYi lgh ugha
not correct ? gS \
(1) Coal – Non-renewable (1) dks;yk & vuohdj.kh; lalk/ku
resource
(2) Petroleum – Non-renewable (2) isVªksfy;e & vuohdj.kh; lalk/ku
resource
(3) Water – Non-renewable (3) ty & vuohdj.kh; lalk/ku
resource
(4) Solar Energy – Renewable (4) lkSj ÅtkZ & uohdj.kh; lalk/ku
resource

NMMS–2022 P. T. O.

A ( 30 )

99. Which of the following is an 99. fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk e`nk fuekZ.k dk
important component of soil egRoiw.kZ ?kVd gS \
formation ?
(1) Parent Shell (1) tud 'kSy
(2) Flora (2) ouLifrtkr
(3) Climate (3) tyok;q
(4) All of the above (4) mijksDr lHkh

100. The animals that produce new 100. os tkuoj tks cPps iSnk djrs gSa]
young ones are called : dgykrs gSa %
(1) Viviparous (1) cPpk tuus okys
(2) Oviparous (2) vaMk nsus okys
(3) Both (1) & (2) (3) nksuksa (1) vkSj (2)
(4) None of these (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
101. A square carrom board has a 101. ,d oxkZdkj dSje cksMZ dk ifjeki
perimeter of 320 cm. How much is 320 lseh gSA mldh Hkqtk dk eki
its side in cm ? lseh esa D;k gksxk \
(1) 100 (2) 80 (1) 100 (2) 80
(3) 60 (4) 90 (3) 60 (4) 90

102. Why did Mahatma Gandhi visit 102. egkRek xk¡/kh paikju ;k=k D;ksa x, \
Champaran ?
(1) To see the plights of Indigo (1) paikju esa uhy ckxku ekfydksa
planters in Champaran dh nqnZ’kk ns[kus ds fy,
(2) To see the progress of Indigo (2) uhy ckxku ekfydksa dh izxfr
plantation ns[kus ds fy,
(3) To see the managing system of (3) daiuh dh izca/ku iz.kkyh ns[kus
company ds fy,
(4) To collect the revenue (4) jktLo ,d= djus ds fy,

103. In a pie chart data is converted 103. ikbZ pkVZ esa ge vk¡dM+ksa dks fdlesa
into : cny nsrs gSa \
(1) Line (1) ykbu
(2) Angle (2) dks.k
(3) Circle (3) o`Ùk
(4) Percentage (4) izfr’kr

NMMS–2022

( 31 ) A
104. The fight for Purna Swaraj was 104. fdldh v/;{krk esa iw.kZ Lojkt dh
fought under the presidentship of : yM+kbZ yM+h xbZ \
(1) Mahatma Gandhi (1) egkRek xk¡/kh
(2) C. Rajagopalachari (2) lh- jktxksikykpkjh
(3) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (3) ljnkj oYyHkHkkbZ iVsy
(4) Jawaharlal Nehru (4) tokgjyky usg:

105. How many features are required 105. fdlh prqHkqZt dh jpuk ds fy, fdruh
to construct a quadrilateral ? fo’ks"krk,¡ ¼vaxksa dh½ vko’;d gSa \
(1) 4 (1) 4
(2) 5 (2) 5
(3) 6 (3) 6
(4) 3 (4) 3

106. Which of following chemical 106. fuEu esa ls fdl jklk;fud fof/k dk
method is used for purifying of mi;ksx ikuh dks 'kq) djus ds fy,
water ? fd;k tkrk gS \
(1) Fluorination (1) ¶yksjhus’ku

(2) Chlorination (2) Dyksjhus’ku
(3) Bromination (3) czksehus’ku

(4) Filtration (4) Nkuuk

107. The policy of merger was given by 107. foy; dh uhfr fdl vaxzst dh nsu
which English man ? gS \
(1) Warren Hastings (1) okjsu gsfLVaXl
(2) Lord Dalhousie (2) ykWMZ MygkSth
(3) William Bentinck (3) fofy;e csafVad
(4) Lord Wellesley (4) ykWMZ osyLs yh

108. How many sepoys were dismissed 108. 9 ebZ] 1857 dks fdrus flikfg;ksa dks
from service and sentenced to ten lsok ls c[kkZLr fd;k x;k vkSj nl
years in jail on 9 May, 1857 ? lky dh ltk nh xbZ \
(1) 80 (2) 85 (1) 80 (2) 85
(3) 90 (4) 95 (3) 90 (4) 95

NMMS–2022 P. T. O.

A ( 32 )

109. Lahore Gate Improvement Scheme 109. ykgkSj xsV lq/kkj ;kstuk 'kq: dh xbZ
was launched in : Fkh %
(1) 1888 (2) 1886 (1) 1888 esa (2) 1886 esa
(3) 1911 (4) 1936 (3) 1911 esa (4) 1936 esa

5 26
110. If 2 y + = − y , then y = : 110. ;fn 2 y + 5 = 26 − y , rks y dk eku
3 3 3 3
gksxk %
2 2
(1) 1 (2) (1) 1 (2)
3 3
6 7 6 7
(3) (4) (3) (4)
5 3 5 3

111. Who said these "Education means 111. ;s fdlus dgk ^^f’k{kk dk vFkZ ckyd
all round drawing out of the best vkSj euq"; ds 'kjhj] eu vkSj vkRek
in child and man body, mind and esa loZJs"B dk lok±xh.k fodkl djuk
spirit" ? gS** \
(1) Swami Vivekanand (1) Lokeh foosdkuan
(2) Rabindranath Tagore (2) jfcUnzukFk VSxksj
(3) Mahatma Gandhi (3) egkRek xka/kh
(4) Plato (4) IySVks

112. Who allowed the British to trade 112. vaxzt
s kas dks caxky esa lhfer {ks= esa
in a limited area in Bengal ? O;kikj dh btktr fdlus nh \
(1) Jahangir (1) tgkaxhj
(2) Aurangzeb (2) vkSjaxtsc
(3) Bahadurshah Zafar (3) cgknqj’kkg tQj
(4) Shahjahan (4) 'kkgtgk¡

113. The factor of 49P2 – 36 are : 113. 49P2 – 36 dk xq.ku[k.M gksxk %
(1) (7P + 6)2 (1) (7P + 6)2
(2) (7P – 6)2 (2) (7P – 6)2
(3) (7P – 6) (7P + 6) (3) (7P – 6) (7P + 6)
(4) (6 – 7P) (7P + 6) (4) (6 – 7P) (7P + 6)

NMMS–2022

( 33 ) A

114. The area of a rectangular field 114. ,d prqHkqZtkdkj [ksr ftldh yEckbZ
whose length is twice its breath is pkSM+kbZ dh nqxuh gS] dk {ks=Qy
2450 m2. What will be its length in 2450 oxZ eh gSA bldh yEckbZ ehVj
meter ? esa D;k gksxh \
(1) 35 (1) 35
(2) 70 (2) 70
(3) 45 (3) 45
(4) 90 (4) 90

115. Find the cube of (2 – 0.3) : 115. (2 – 0.3) dk ?ku D;k gksxk \
(1) 7.73 (1) 7.73
(2) 4.913 (2) 4.913
(3) 4.713 (3) 4.713
(4) 7.713 (4) 7.713

116. 40% of 50 students of a class are 116. 50 Nk=ksa dh ,d d{kk esa 40 izfr’kr
good at Science. How many Nk= foKku esa vPNs gSaA fdrus Nk=
students are not good at Science ? foKku esa vPNs ugha gSa \
(1) 20 (2) 30 (1) 20 (2) 30
(3) 25 (4) 35 (3) 25 (4) 35

117. The example of cylindrical shape 117. csyukdkj vkd`fr dk mnkgj.k gS %
is :
(1) Pipes (1) ikbi
(2) Gas Cylinder (2) xSl flys.Mj
(3) Cold Drink Can (3) dksYM fMªad dSu
(4) All of the above (4) mijksDr lHkh

118. The height of a cylinder whose 118. ,d csyukdkj fMCcs dk dqy i`"Bh;
radius is 7 cm and total surface {ks=Qy 968 lseh2 gS rFkk mldh
area is 968 cm2 is : f=T;k 7 lseh gS] rks mldh ÅapkbZ
fdruh gksxh \
(1) 15 cm (1) 15 lseh
(2) 17 cm (2) 17 lseh
(3) 19 cm (3) 19 lseh
(4) 21 cm (4) 21 lseh

NMMS–2022 P. T. O.

A ( 34 )

119. Area of a square plot is 2401 m2. 119. oxkZdkj IykV dk {ks=Qy 2401 eh2
Find the side of square plot : gSA IykV dh Hkqtk D;k gksxh \
(1) 49 m (1) 49 eh
(2) 48 m (2) 48 eh
(3) 59 m (3) 59 eh
(4) 39 m (4) 39 eh

120. If (–3)m+1 × (–3)5 = (–3)7, then the 120. ;fn (–3)m+1 × (–3)5 = (–3)7, rks m
value of m is : dk eku gksxk %
(1) 5 (1) 5
(2) 7 (2) 7
(3) 1 (3) 1
(4) 3 (4) 3

121. If x and y are directly 121. ;fn x vkSj y lekuqikrh gSa] rks buesa
proportional, then which of the ls dkSu-lk lgh gS \
following is correct ?
(1) x + y = constant (1) x + y = fLFkjkad
(2) x − y = constant (2) x − y = fLFkjkad
(3) xy = constant (3) xy = fLFkjkad
(4) x/y = constant (4) x/y = fLFkjkad

122. The scale of map is given as 1:300. 122. ,d ekufp= dk iSekuk 1 : 300 fn;k
Two cities are 4 km apart on the x;k gSA nks 'kgj ekufp= ij 4
map. The actual distance between fdeh nwjh ij gSaA muds chp
them is : okLrfod nwjh fdruh gksxh \
(1) 1000 km (1) 1000 fdeh
(2) 1100 km (2) 1100 fdeh
(3) 1200 km (3) 1200 fdeh
(4) 1300 km (4) 1300 fdeh

123. Which of the following is the 123. fn, x, inksa esa lkoZ xq.ku[k.M D;k
common factor of : gksxk \
5xy, 3pqr and 40xyz 5xy, 3pqr vkSj 40xyz
(1) 5 (2) 0 (1) 5 (2) 0
(3) xy (4) 1 (3) xy (4) 1

NMMS–2022

( 35 ) A

124. 865000 is equal to : 124. 865000 cjkcj gS %
5
(1) 8.65 × 10 (1) 8.65 × 105
(2) 8.65 × 103 (2) 8.65 × 103
(3) 8.65 × 106 (3) 8.65 × 106
(4) 8.65 × 104 (4) 8.65 × 104

125. By joining (–1, –1), (0, 0) and (3, 3) 125. (–1, –1), (0, 0) vkSj (3, 3) dks feykus
represent : ij izkIr gksxk %
(1) a trangle (1) ,d f=Hkqt
(2) a curved line (2) ,d oØ js[kk
(3) a straight line passing through (3) ,d ljy js[kk tks ewy fcanq ls
origin xqtjrh gS
(4) a straight line not passing (4) ,d ljy js[kk tks ewy fcanq ls
through origin ugha xqtjrh gS
126. Where did the word Calico come 126. dSfydks 'kCn fdlls fudyk gS \
from ?
(1) Calicut (1) dkyhdV ls
(2) Kolkata (2) dksydkrk ls
(3) Karnataka (3) dukZVd ls
(4) Kandla (4) dkaMyk ls

127. If (504 + P) is a perfect cube 127. ;fn (504 + P) ,d ?ku la[;k gS
number, whose cube root is P, then ftldk ?kuewy P gS] rks P dk eku
value of P will be : Kkr djsa %
(1) 6 (1) 6
(2) 4 (2) 4
(3) 2 (3) 2
(4) 8 (4) 8

128. Women and Men who carried 128. os efgyk,¡ vkSj iq#"k tks
basket loads of iron–ore on their ykSg&v;Ld dk Hkkj flj ij j[k
heads were called : dj <ksrs Fks] dgykrs Fks %
(1) Wootz (2) Agaria (1) oqVT~ k (2) vxkfj;k
(3) Bandana (4) Cossaes (3) caMkuk (4) dksls

NMMS–2022 P. T. O.

A ( 36 )

129. The British thought surveys were 129. vaxzstksa dk fo’okl Fkk fd losZ{k.k
important for : t:jh gksrs gSa %
(1) Writing History (1) bfrgkl fy[kus ds fy,
(2) Effective Judgement (2) vPNh rjg QSlys ysus ds fy,
(3) Effective Administration (3) vPNh rjg ls 'kklu djus ds fy,
(4) All of the above (4) mijksDr lHkh

130. If 3x74 is a number divisible by 9, 130. ;fn la[;k 3x74, 9 ls HkkT; gS] rks x
then the least value of x is : dk U;wure eku gksxk %
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4 (3) 3 (4) 4

131. Which of the following factors 131. fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk dkjd mn~;ksxksa
affect the location of industries ? dh vofLFkfr dks izHkkfor djrk gS \
(1) Availability of raw material (1) dPps eky dh miyC/krk
(2) Proximity to market (2) cktkj dh fudVrk
(3) Availability of water (3) ty dh miyC/krk
(4) All of the above (4) mijksDr lHkh

132. Who presides over the Lok Sabha ? 132. yksdlHkk dh v/;{krk dkSu djrk gS \
(1) Prime Minister (1) iz/kkuea=h

(2) Speaker (2) Lihdj
(3) President (3) jk"Vªifr

(4) Vice President (4) mijk"Vªifr

133. Where is the supreme court 133. Hkkjr esa loksZPp U;k;ky; dgk¡ fLFkr
located in India ? gS \
(1) Chandigarh (1) paMhx<+ esa
(2) Kolkata (2) dksydkrk esa

(3) Mumbai (3) eqEcbZ esa

(4) Delhi (4) fnYyh esa

NMMS–2022

( 37 ) A

134. Which of the following right aims 134. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk vf/kdkj
at making India a Secular State ? Hkkjr dks /keZfujis{k cukrk gS \
(1) Right to Freedom of Religion (1) /kkfeZd LorU=rk dk vf/kdkj
(2) Right to Equality (2) lekurk dk vf/kdkj
(3) Right to Education (3) f’k{kk dk vf/kdkj
(4) Right to Freedom (4) LorU=rk dk vf/kdkj

135. Which of these countries is the 135. buesa ls dkSu&lk ns’k dkWQh dk
leading producer of coffee ? vxz.kh mRiknd gS \
(1) Brazil (1) czkthy
(2) Indonesia (2) baMksusf’k;k
(3) China (3) phu
(4) India (4) Hkkjr

136. Which one of the following 136. tula[;k fijkfeM ds laca/k esa fuEu
statements is not correct regarding esa ls dkSu&lk dFku lgh ugha gS \
the population pyramid ?
(1) Population pyramid is also (1) tula[;k fijkfeM dks vk;q fyax
called age sex pyramid. fijkfeM Hkh dgrs gSaA
(2) Population pyramid gives us (2) tula[;k fijkfeM ls gesa fofHkUu
an idea of the income level and vk;q oxZ ds yksxksa dh vk; ds
health conditions of people of Lrj o LokLF; n’kkvksa dk cks/k
different age groups. gksrk gSA
(3) In countries with low birth (3) de tUe nj okys ns’kksa esa
rates, the base of the tula[;k fijkfeM dk vk/kkj
population pyramid is narrow. l¡djk gksrk gSA
(4) The wide base of the (4) tula[;k fijkfeM dk pkSM+k
population pyramid indicates vk/kkj mPp tUe-nj dks n’kkZrk
high birth-rate. gSA
137. Who does file the FIR ? 137. ,Q- vkbZ- vkj- (FIR) dkSu ntZ
djrk gS \
(1) Police men (1) iqfyl
(2) Lawyer (2) odhy
(3) Judge (3) U;k;k/kh’k
(4) Public Prosecutor (4) ljdkjh odhy

NMMS–2022 P. T. O.

A ( 38 )

138. Which statement is true regarding 138. fojy cls gq, {ks=ksa ds laca/k esa
sparsely populated areas ? dkSu&lk dFku lR; gS \
(1) The regions where there is (1) ftu izns’kksa esa vR;f/kd BaM gksrh
extreme cold, sparse gS] ogk¡ fojy tula[;k ikbZ
population is found. tkrh gSA
(2) Hilly areas are sparsely
inhabited. (2) ioZrh; {ks= fojy cls gq, gSaA
(3) Equatorial regions receive
heavy rainfall, so there is less (3) Hkwe/;js[kh;izns’kksa esa vR;f/kd
population. o"kkZ gksrh gS] blfy, ogk¡
(4) All the above statements are tula[;k de gSA
true. (4) mijksDr lHkh dFku lR; gSaA

139. Which is the highest law-making 139. gekjs ns’k esa loksZPp dkuwu cukus
body in our country ? okyh laLFkk dkSu&lh gS \
(1) High Court (1) mPp U;k;ky;
(2) Supreme Court (2) loksZPp U;k;ky;
(3) Parliament (3) laln
(4) Sarpanch (4) ljiap

140. In which year the Domestic 140. Hkkjr esa fdl o"kZ ?kjsyw fgalk dkuwu
Violence Act passed in India ? ikl fd;k x;k \
(1) 2004 (1) 2004
(2) 2005 (2) 2005

(3) 2006 (3) 2006

(4) 2007 (4) 2007

141. Article 21 of the Indian 141. Hkkjrh; lafo/kku dk vuqPNsn 21
Constitution guarantees : xkajVh nsrk gS %
(1) Right to Speech (1) Hkk"k.k dk vf/kdkj
(2) Right to Life (2) thou dk vf/kdkj
(3) Right to Freedom (3) LorU=rk dk vf/kdkj
(4) Right to Information (4) lwpuk dk vf/kdkj

NMMS–2022

( 39 ) A
142. Match List–1 with List–2 : 142. lwph&1 dks lwph&2 ls lqesfyr
List-1 List-2 dhft, %
State Location of lwph&1 lwph&2
Atomic Power jkT; ijek.kq ÅtkZ
Station dsanz dk LFkku
(a) Maharashtra (I) Kalpakkam (a) egkjk"Vª (I) dyiDde
(b) Uttar Pradesh (II) Kaiga (b) mÙkj izns'k (II) dSxk
(c) Karnataka (III) Narora (c) dukZVd (III) ujksjk
(d) Tamil Nadu (IV) Tarapur (d) rfeyukMq (IV) rkjkiqj

(1) a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I (1) a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
(2) a-I, b-III, c-II, d-IV (2) a-I, b-III, c-II, d-IV
(3) a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV (3) a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV
(4) a-IV, b-III, c-I, d-II (4) a-IV, b-III, c-I, d-II

143. Where are the aims of the 143. lafo/kku ds mn~ns’;ksa dk o.kZu dgk¡
constitution mentioned ? fd;k x;k gS \
(1) The Preamble (1) izLrkouk esa
(2) Fundamental Rights (2) ekSfyd vf/kdkjksa esa
(3) Directive Principle (3) uhfr&funsZ’kd fl)karksa esa
(4) Fundamental Duties (4) ekSfyd drZO;ksa esa

144. Which of the following is called 144. fuEu esa ls fdls lqugjk js’kk dgk
golden fiber ? tkrk gS \
(1) Jute (1) iVlu
(2) Cotton (2) dikl
(3) Silk (3) js’ke
(4) Wheat (4) xsg¡w

145. Where did the biggest gas tragedy 145. fo’o dh lcls cM+h xSl =klnh dgk¡
in the world ? gqbZ \
(1) Chennai (1) psUubZ
(2) Jaipur (2) t;iqj
(3) Bhopal (3) Hkksiky
(4) Gujarat (4) xqtjkr

NMMS–2022 P. T. O.

A ( 40 )

146. Which is an organization that 146. dkSu&lh laLFkk xk¡oksa vkSj 'kgjksa esa
arranges toilet facility in the cities 'kkSpky; lqfo/kk miyC/k djkrh gS \
and towns ?
(1) Sulabh (1) lqyHk
(2) Bharat Vikas Parishad (2) Hkkjr fodkl ifj"kn~
(3) Muhalla Sudhar Samiti (3) eksgYyk lq/kkj lfefr
(4) Private Company (4) futh daiuh

147. Which of the following is not a 147. fuEu esa ls dkSUk&lk Hkwfe laj{k.k dk
suitable method of land ,d mi;qDr rjhdk ugha gS \
conservation ?
(1) Checks on overgrazing (1) vfrpkj.k ij jksd
(2) Deforestation (2) ouksUewyu
(3) Regulated use of chemical (3) jklk;fud dhVuk’kdksa dk
pesticides fofu;fer mi;ksx
(4) Land reclamation (4) Hkwfe mn~/kkj

148. Which of these minerals is a non- 148. buesa ls dkSu&lk [kfut vykSg
ferrous metallic mineral ? /kkfRod [kfut gS \
(1) Iron Ore (1) ykSg v;Ld

(2) Manganese (2) eSxuht

(3) Chromite (3) ØksekbV
(4) Copper (4) rkack

149. Which of the following industries 149. fuEu esa ls fdu mn~;ksxksa dk LokfeRo
are owned and operated by o lapkyu dPps eky ds mRiknd ;k
producers or suppliers of raw iwfrZdkjksa n~okjk fd;k tkrk gS \
materials ?

(1) Private Sector Industry (1) futh {ks= ds mn~;ksx

(2) Public Sector Industry (2) lkoZtfud {ks= ds mn~;ksx
(3) Cooperative Industry (3) lgdkjh mn~;ksx

(4) Joint Sector Industry (4) la;qDr {ks= ds mn~;ksx

NMMS–2022

( 41 ) A

150. Which state has maximum 150. yksdlHkk esa lcls vf/kd lnL; fdl
number of members in Lok jkT; ls gSa \
Sabha ?
(1) Haryana (1) gfj;k.kk
(2) Uttar Pradesh (2) mÙkj izns’k
(3) Punjab (3) iatkc
(4) Bihar (4) fcgkj

151. Name the sphere that supports life 151. ml {ks= dk uke crkb, tks thou
and where living organisms exist : dk leFkZu djrk gS vkSj tgk¡ thfor
tho ekStwn gSa %
(1) Atmosphere (1) ok;qeM a y
(2) Lithosphere (2) LFkyeaMy
(3) Biosphere (3) thoeaMy
(4) None of these (4) bueaas ls dksbZ ugha

152. Burning coal in a closed room will 152. can dejs esa dks;ys dk Toyu mRiUu
produce : djrk gS %
(1) NO2 (Nitrogen Dioxide) (1) NO2 ¼ukbVªkstu MkbvkWDlkbM½
(2) CO2 (Carbon Dioxide) (2) CO2 ¼dkcZu MkbvkWDlkbM½
(3) CO (Carbon Monoxide) (3) CO ¼dkcZu eksuksvkWDlkbM½
(4) O2 (Oxygen) (4) O2 ¼vkWDlhtu½

153. The synthetic fiber that appears to 153. Åu ds ln`’k fn[kus okys la’ysf”kr
resemble wool is : js’ks dk uke gS %
(1) PET (1) isV
(2) Acrylon (2) ,sfØykWu
(3) Rayon (3) js;kWu
(4) Nylon (4) ukbykWu

154. Acid Rain mainly constitutes : 154. vEyh; o"kkZ ds eq[; ?kVd %
(1) Sodium Chloride (1) lksfM;e DyksjkbM
(2) Sulphur dioxide and Nitrogen (2) lYQj MkbvkWDlkbM rFkk
dioxide ukbVªkstu MkbvkWDlkbM
(3) Hydrochloric Acid (3) gkbMªksDyksfjd vEy
(4) Carbon Tetrachloride (4) dkcZu VsVªkDyksjkbM

NMMS–2022 P. T. O.

A ( 42 )

155. The microorganism which contains 155. og lw{etho ftlesa DyksjksfQy gksrk
chlorophyll are : gS %
(1) Virus (1) ok;jl
(2) Fungus (2) dod
(3) Algae (3) 'kSoky
(4) All of the above (4) mijksDr lHkh

156. In humans, the development of 156. euq";ksa esa] fu"ksfpr vaMs dk fodkl
fertilized egg takes place in the : gksrk gS %
(1) Ovary (1) vaMk’k; esa
(2) Oviduct (2) fMacokfguh esa
(3) Testis (3) o`"k.k esa
(4) Uterus (4) xHkkZ’k; esa

157. Iron is galvanized by coating it 157. ykSg dk xSYouhdj.k fdldh ijr
with : p<+k dj fd;k tkrk gS \
(1) Chromium (1) Øksfe;e
(2) Sodium (2) lksfM;e
(3) Magnesium (3) eSXuhf’k;e
(4) Zinc (4) ftad

158. Chromosomes are found in : 158. xq.klw= ik, tkrs gSa %
(1) Nucleus (1) ukfHkd esa
(2) Nucleolus (2) U;wfDy;ksyl esa
(3) Nucleoplast (3) U;wfDy;ksIykLV esa
(4) Vacuole (4) fjfDrdk esa

159. When a sperm having X- 159. tc X-xq.klw= okys 'kqØk.kq fMac ds
chromosome fuses with the ovum, lkFk fey tkrs gSa] rks iSnk gksus okyk
the child born will be : cPpk gksxk %
(1) Male (1) uj
(2) Female (2) eknk
(3) Male as well as female twin (3) uj vkSj eknk tqM+ok¡
(4) It depends on the chance of (4) ;g lay;u dh laHkkouk ij
fusion fuHkZj djrk gS

NMMS–2022

( 43 ) A

160. A plastic which can not be 160. ,d IykfLVd ftls Å"ek nsdj ueZ
remouled again by heating is : ugha fd;k tk ldrk og gS %
(1) Polyethene (1) ikWyhFkhu
(2) PVC (2) ih-oh-lh-
(3) Polystyrene (3) ikWyhLVkbjhu
(4) Bakelite (4) cSdsykbV

161. The process of removing salt from 161. leqnzh ty ls yo.k dks nwj djus dh
sea water is called : izfØ;k dgykrh gS %
(1) Calcination (1) fuLrk;u
(2) Desalination (2) vyo.khdj.k
(3) Evaporation (3) ok"ihdj.k
(4) Condensation (4) la?kuu
162. The bumper and door handles of 162. eksVjdkj ds caij vkSj njokts ds
motorcars are coated with gSM
a y ij Øksfe;e dh ijr p<+h gksrh
chromium because : gS D;kafs d %
(1) It does not easily get corroded (1) ;g vklkuh ls [kjkc ugha gksrh gS
(2) It does not easily get scratched (2) ;g vklkuh ls [kjksp
a h ugha tkrh gS
(3) It tarnishes quickly (3) ;g tYnh /kwfey gks tkrh gS
(4) It is cheap (4) ;g lLrk gS
Which one option is not a correct mijksDr esa ls dkSu&lk fodYi lgh
cause ? ugha gS \
163. After the sun, the next nearest 163. lw;Z ds ckn i`Foh dk vxyk
star to Earth is : fudVre rkjk gS %
(1) Alpha Centauri (1) vYQk lsUVkWjh
(2) Polestar (2) /kzqo rkjk
(3) Sirius (3) lhfj;l
(4) Proxima Centauri (4) izkfW Dlek lsUVkWjh

164. Friction can not be reduced by : 164. ?k"kZ.k dks de ugha fd;k tk ldrk %
(1) Making the surface smooth (1) lrg dks fpduk cukdj
(2) Making the surface rough (2) lrg dks [kqjnjk cukdj
(3) Lubricating the surface (3) lrgksa ij Lusgd yxkdj
(4) Using ball bearing (4) cky cs;fjax dk mi;ksx djds

NMMS–2022 P. T. O.

A ( 44 )

165. Refrigerating gases which harms 165. iz’khfrr xSl tks vkstksu ijr dks
ozone layer : gkfu igq¡pkrh gS %
(1) MFC (1) MFC
(2) CFC (2) CFC
(3) LPG (3) LPG
(4) DFC (4) DFC

166. The most Reactive metal is : 166. lokZf/kd fØ;k’khy /kkrq gS %
(1) Copper (1) dkWij
(2) Silver (2) pkanh
(3) Calcium (3) dSfY’k;e
(4) Sodium (4) lksfM;e
167. A bomb explodes on the moon. 167. pk¡n ij ce QVrk gSA /ofu dks
How long will it take for the sound i`Foh rd igq¡pus esa fdruk le;
to reach the Earth ? yxsxk \
(1) 10 Second (1) 10 lsd.M
(2) 1000 Second (2) 1000 lsd.M
(3) 1 day (3) 1 fnu
(4) Sound will not be heard (4) /ofu lqukbZ ugha nsxh

168. A book of mass 20 g is placed on a 168. 20 xzke nzO;eku dh ,d iqLrd dks
table. Find the thrust exerted by ,d est ij j[kk x;k gSA est ij
the book on the table. (Take iqLrd }kjk yxk;k x;k cy Kkr
acceleration due to gravity as dhft,A ¼xq:Roh; Roj.k 10 ms–2 ds
10 ms–2) :i esa ysa½
(1) 0.2 N (2) 2 N (1) 0.2 N (2) 2 N
(3) 200 N (4) 20 N (3) 200 N (4) 20 N

169. Which of the following is a natural 169. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu ,d izkd`frd
fiber ? Qkbcj gS \
(1) Wool (1) Åu
(2) Nylon (2) uk;ykWu
(3) PVC (3) ihohlh
(4) Polythene (4) ikWyhFkhu

NMMS–2022

( 45 ) A

170. Which of following gas is used to 170. fuEu esa ls fdl xSl dk mi;ksx
control fire ? vkx dks fu;af=r djus ds fy, fd;k
tkrk gS \
(1) NH3 (Ammonia) (1) NH3 ¼veksfu;k½
(2) H2 (Hydrogen) (2) H2 ¼gkbMªkstu½
(3) CO2 (Carbon Dioxide) (3) CO2 ¼dkcZu MkbvkWDlkbM½
(4) F2 (Fluorine) (4) F2 ¼¶yksjhu½

171. Which microorganism causes 171. dkSu-lk lw{etho ,M~l dk dkj.k
AIDS ? curk gS \
(1) A protozoa (1) ,d izksVkstksvk
(2) A bacteria (2) ,d cSDVhfj;k
(3) A virus (3) ,d ok;jl
(4) An algae (4) ,d 'kSoky

172. The soil formed by decayed organic 172. lM+s gq, dkcZfud inkFkksZa ls cuus
matter is called : okyh feV~Vh dks dgk tkrk gS %
(1) Pesticide (2) Fertilizer (1) dhVuk’kd (2) moZjd
(3) Humus (4) Biocide (3) áwel (4) ck;kslkbM

173. The clearing of forests is referred 173. ouksa dh lQkbZ dks dgk tkrk gS %
to as :
(1) Reforestation (1) ouhdj.k
(2) Desertification (2) e:LFkyhdj.k
(3) Deforestation (3) ouksa dh dVkbZ
(4) Sanitation (4) LoPNrk

174. Tissues combine to form : 174. Ård feydj cukrs gSa %
(1) Nucleus (2) Cells (1) ukfHkd (2) dksf’kdk,¡
(3) Organism (4) Organs (3) tho (4) vax

175. Two plane mirrors are kept at the 175. nks lery niZ.kksa dks ,d&,d djds
following angles one by one. In fuEufyf[kr dks.kksa ij j[kk tkrk gSA
which case is the no. of images fdl fLFkfr esa cuus okys izfrfcEcksa
formed maximum ? dh la[;k vf/kdre gksrh gS \
(1) 60° (2) 30° (1) 60° (2) 30°
(3) 45° (4) 90° (3) 45° (4) 90°

NMMS–2022 P. T. O.

A ( 46 )

176. Arrange the following planets in 176. fuEufyf[kr xzgksa dks lw;Z ds pkjksa
increasing order of time required to vksj ,d pDdj iwjk djus ds fy,
complete one revolvation around vko’;d le; ds c<+rs Øe esa
the Sun : O;ofLFkr djsa %
(i) Earth (ii) Uranus (i) i`Foh (ii) ;wjsul
(iii) Mars (iv) Jupiter (iii) eaxy (iv) c`gLifr
(1) i, ii, iii, iv (1) i, ii, iii, iv
(2) i, iii, iv, ii (2) i, iii, iv, ii
(3) iv, iii, ii, i (3) iv, iii, ii, i
(4) ii, iii, i, iv (4) ii, iii, i, iv

177. A whistle produces sound because : 177. lhVh /ofu iSnk djrh gS D;kasfd %
(1) It stores air (1) ;g gok dks lap; djrh gS
(2) Air vibrate (2) gok daiu djrh gS
(3) Person produces vibration (3) O;fDr daiu iSnk djrk gS
(4) All of the above (4) mijksDr lHkh
178. The amount of Heat Energy 178. fdlh 1 fdyksxzke ba/Z ku dk iw.kZ ngu
produced on complete combustion djus ij mRiUu gksus okyh Å"eh;
of 1 kg of a fuel is called : ÅtkZ dks dgk tkrk gSS %
(1) Calorific Value (1) dSyksjh eku
(2) Significant Value (2) lkFkZd eku
(3) Latent Heat (3) xqIr Å"ek
(4) Internal Energy (4) vkarfjd ÅtkZ
179. What is rust ? 179. tax D;k gS \
(1) Copper oxide (1) dkWij vkWDlkbM
(2) Zinc oxide (2) ftad vkWDlkbM
(3) Sodium oxide (3) lksfM;e vkWDlkbM
(4) Iron oxide (4) vk;ju vkWDlkbM
180. The chemical substance rich in 180. iks"kd rRoksa ls Hkjiwj jklk;fud
nutrients are called : inkFkZ dgykrs gSa %
(1) Fertilizer (1) moZjd
(2) Weedicide (2) [kjirokjuk’kh
(3) Pesticides (3) dhVuk’kd
(4) Herbicides (4) 'kkduk’kh

NMMS–2022

( 47 )
jQ dk;Z ds fy, / FOR ROUGH WORK

6. iz'uksa ds mÙkj] mÙkj i=d esa fu/kkZfjr [kkuksa dks dkys 6. Answers to questions in answer sheet are to be
ckWy IokbaV iSu ls iw.kZr;k dkyk djuk gS] tSlk fd given by darkening complete circle using black ball
uhps fn[kk;k x;k gS % point pen as shown below :
1  3 4 1  3 4
vki }kjk fn;k x;k mÙkj xyr ekuk tk,xk] ;fn The answer will be treated wrong, if it is marked, as given
mÙkj okys [kkus dks fuEu izdkj ls Hkjrs gSa % below :

    
   
;fn ,d ls T;knk [kkuksa dks Hkj nsrs gSa rks vkidk If you fill more than one circle it will be treated as a
mÙkj xyr ekuk tk,xkA wrong answer.
7. jQ dk;Z iz'u iqfLrdk esa bl iz;kstu ds fy, nh xbZ 7. Rough work should be done only in the space provided
[kkyh txg ij gh djsaA in the Test Booklet for the same.

8. lHkh mÙkj dsoy mÙkj i=d (OMR) ij gh vafdr 8. The answers are to be recorded on the OMR Answer
djsAa vius mÙkj /;kuiwoZd vafdr djsAa mÙkj cnyus Sheet only. Mark your responses carefully. No whitener
gsrq 'osr jatd ¼lQsn ¶Y;wM½ dk iz;ksx fuf"k) gSA (white fluid) is allowed for changing answers.

9. izR;sd iz’u ds fy, fn, x, pkj fodYiksa esa ls mfpr 9. Out of the four alternatives for each question, only one
fodYi ds fy, mÙkj i=d (OMR) ij dsoy ,d gh circle for the most appropriate answer is to be darkened
o`Ùk dks iwjh rjg dkys ckWy IokbaV iSu ls HkjsaA ,d completely with Black Ball Point Pen on the OMR
ckj mÙkj vafdr djus ds ckn mls cnyk ugha tk Answer Sheet. The answer once marked is not allowed
ldrk gSA to be changed.

10. vH;FkhZ lqfuf’pr djsa fd bl mÙkj i=d dks eksMk+ u 10. The candidate should ensure that the Answer Sheet is
tk, ,oa ml ij dksbZ vU; fu’kku u yxk,¡A not folded. Do not make any stray mark on Answer
vH;FkhZ viuk vuqØekad mÙkj i=d esa fu/kkZfjr Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except
LFkku ds vfrfjDr vU;= u fy[ksAa in the specified space in the Answer Sheet.

11. iz'u iqfLrdk ,oa mÙkj i=d dk /;kuiwoZd iz;ksx djsa] 11. Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, as
D;ksafd fdlh Hkh ifjfLFkfr esa ¼dsoy iz'u iqfLrdk ,oa under no circumstances (except for discrepancy in Test
mÙkj i=d ds Øekad esa fHkUurk dh fLFkfr dks Booklet and Answer Sheet Serial No.), another set of
NksM+dj½ nwljh iz'u iqfLrdk lSV miyC/k ugha djokbZ Test Booklet will not be provided.
tk,xhA
12. iz'u iqfLrdk@mÙkj i=d esa fn, x, Øekad dks 12. The candidate will write the correct Number as given in
vH;FkhZ lgh rjhds ls gkftjh i= esa fy[ksaA the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.

13. vH;FkhZ dks ijh{kk gkWy@d{k esa izos’k dkMZ ds 13. Candidate is not allowed to carry any textual material,
vfrfjDr fdlh izdkj dh ikB~; lkexzh] eqfnzr ;k printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone,
gLrfyf[kr dkxt dh ifpZ;k¡] istj] eksckby Qksu] electronic device or any other material except the Admit
bysDVªkWfud midj.k ;k fdlh vU; izdkj dh lkexzh Card inside the examination hall/room.
dks ys tkus ;k mi;ksx djus dh vuqefr ugha gSA
14. fujh{kd }kjk iwNs tkus ij izR;sd vH;FkhZ viuk 14. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit
izos’k&i= ¼jksy ua0½ fn[kk,¡A Card (Roll No.) to the Invigilator.

15. dsUnz v/kh{kd ;k fujh{kd dh fo’ks"k vuqefr ds fcuk 15. No candidate, without special permission of the
dksbZ vH;FkhZ viuk LFkku u NksMa+sA Superintendent or Invigilator, should leave his/her seat.

16. bysDVªkWfud@gLrpkfyr ifjdyd dk mi;ksx oftZr gSA 16. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.

17. fdlh gkyr esa iz'u iqfLrdk vkSj mÙkj i=d dk dksbZ 17. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be
Hkkx vyx u djsaA detached under any circumstances.

18. ijh{kk lEiUu gksus ij] vH;FkhZ ijh{kk d{k@gkWy 18. On completion of the test, candidate must hand over the
NksM+us ls iwoZ mÙkj i=d d{k&i;Zos{kd dks vo’; Answer Sheet to the Invigilator in the Room/Hall. The
lkSai nsAa vH;FkhZ vius lkFk iz'u iqfLrdk dks ys tk candidate is allowed to take away this Test Booklet with
ldrs gSaA them.