KEAM 2024 Question Paper Engineering & B.Pharm with Answers

Entrance Exam
2024

QUESTION
PAPER

FINAL ANSWER KEY
Question Paper Code: 5/2024/OL
Exam:KEAM2024 05
Date of Test: 05-06-2024

1.

A) 1, 3, -2
B) -1, 3, 2
C) -1, 3, -2
D) 1, -3, 2
E) 1, -3, -2

2.
A) 20
B) 10
C) 40
D) 50
E) 30

If a freely falling body covers 80 m in the first 4 seconds , then in the next 4 seconds it covers a distance
3. of
A) 160 m
B) 240 m
C) 320 m
D) 80 m
E) 100 m

4. Find the TRUE statement of the algebraic operations of scalar and vector quantities
A) Adding two scalars of different dimension is possible
B) Adding a scalar to a vector of same dimension is possible
C) Multiplying any two scalars is possible
D) Multiplying any vector by any scalar is not possible
E) Adding any two vectors is not possible

A car moving with a speed, v is stopped at a distance d by a retarding force F. The force needed to stop
5. the same car moving with the speed 3v within the same distance is
A) 3F
B) 6F
C) 8F
D) 9F
E) 12F

6.

A) 60 g
B) 80 g
C) 100 g
D) 120 g
E) 40 g

A body of mass M is at equilibrium under the action of four forces F1 , F2 , F3 and F4 . If F1 is removed
7. from the body then the body moves with an acceleration of

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

If a body at rest undergoes one dimensional motion with constant acceleration, then the power delivered
8. to it at a time t is proportional to
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

9. The collision in which the two colliding particles move together after collision is called
A) completely inelastic collision
B) elastic collision
C) partial inelastic collision
D) collision without transfer of energy
E) partial elastic collision

10. The analogy between linear motion and rotational motion are given. The FALSE one is
A) Force : Torque

B) Linear Displacement : Angular displacement
C) Mass : Moment of inertia
D) Linear momentum : Angular momentum
E) Translational energy : Vibrational energy

11.
A) 30 kW
B) 60 kW
C) 90 kW
D) 150 kW
E) 300 kW

12. If a body is taken above the surface of earth, it looses its weight by 20 % at a height of

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

If a planet orbits the sun in an elliptical orbit the quantities associated with the planet that remain constant
13. are
A) kinetic energy and total energy
B) potential energy and angular momentum
C) linear speed and angular velocity
D) total energy and angular momentum
E) kinetic energy and angular velocity

14. For the flow of incompressible liquid through a pipe, the Venturi-meter is used to measure the
A) pressure of liquid
B) volume of flow
C) speed of flow
D) temperature of liquid
E) mass of liquid flown

Two gases under the same thermal conditions have same number of molecules per unit volume. If the
15. respective molecular diameters of the gases are in the ratio 1 : 3, then their respective mean free paths
are in the ratio
A) 1:1
B) 1 : 3
C) 3 : 1
D) 9 : 1
E) 4 : 9

16.

A) 5J
B) 25 J
C) 10 J
D) 100 J
E) 50 J

If an ideal gas, in an insulated vessel is allowed to expand into another similar evacuated vessel through
17. a valve then
A) external work is done on the gas
B) the pressure of the gas is doubled
C) the volume of the gas is doubled
D) the pressure of the gas remains same
E) the temperature of the gas is increased

In a Carnot engine, the temperature of the sink is 350 K. If the efficiency of the engine is 50 %, the
18. temperature of the source should be
A) 700 K
B) 750 K
C) 800 K
D) 900 K
E) 1000 K

19.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

The total energy of a gas mixture of one mole of oxygen and 3 moles of argon at a temperature T by
20. neglecting vibrational modes is
A) 5 RT
B) (7/2) RT
C) (5/2) RT
D) 9 RT
E) 7 RT

21.

A) 660 m
B) 990 m
C) 1320 m
D) 500 m
E) 860 m

22.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled
23. The equipotential surface is
A) a plane for a point charge
B) spherical for a dipole
C) cylindrical for a dipole
D) spherical for a point charge
E) cylindrical for a point charge

The electric field intensity due to an ideal dipole at a distance r from its centre on the axial point is directly
24. proportional to
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Two spheres A and B having respective charges 6 C and 12 C placed at a distance d repel each other
25. by a force F. The charge given to sphere A to reverse the force as – F is

A)

B)

C)
D)

E)

The work done by a source in taking a unit charge from lower to higher potential energy is called the
26. source’s
A) electric current
B) electric conductivity
C) electric field intensity
D) electromotive force
E) electric flux

27.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

If a charged particle enters a uniform magnetic field B , with a velocity v such that v has a component
28. along B , then the charged particle describes
A) a circular path
B) an elliptical path
C) a straight line
D) a helical path
E) a parabolic path

A proton with kinetic energy of 2 MeV is describing a circular path of radius R in a uniform magnetic field.
29. The kinetic energy of the deuteron to describe the same circular path in the same field is
A) 0.5 MeV
B) 1 MeV
C) 2 MeV
D) 4 MeV
E) 0.25 MeV

Two straight long parallel wires carrying equal amount of current in opposite directions placed at 5 cm
30. apart are repel each other by a force F. If the current in one of wire is doubled and reversed, then the force
between them is
A) 2 F and attractive
B) F/2 and repulsive
C) F and repulsive
D) 2F and repulsive
E) F/2 and attractive

31. The mutual inductance between a pair of coils A and B placed close to each other depends upon
A) the rate of change of current in A
B) the rate of change of current in A and B
C) the material of the wire of the coils
D) the relative position and orientation of A and B
E) the direction of flow of current in B

32.
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

The ratio between the magnetic dipole moment of a revolving electron in circular orbit to its angular
33. momentum is ( e charge and m mass of the electron )

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

34. The electromagnetic waves used in LASIK and cell phones are respectively
A) microwaves and radio waves
B) ultraviolet rays and radio waves
C) infrared rays and micro waves
D) X- rays and radio waves
E) radio waves and visible rays

35.

A) 1.67
B) 1.5
C) 1.414
D) 1.33
E) 1.2

36.
A) convex lens, 40 cm
B) concave lens, 50 cm
C) convex lens, 25 cm
D) concave lens, 20 cm
E) convex lens, 30 cm

In an Young double slit experiment without varying the distance of the screen and the slit separation if the
37. wavelength of monochromatic source is changed one by one in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4 then the
corresponding fringe widths measured will be in the ratio
A) 4:3:2
B) 1:2:3
C) 2:3:4
D) 6:4:3
E) 3:4:6

Which one of the following phenomena does not occur when a white light falls on an equilateral glass
38. prism?
A) Reflection
B) Refraction
C) Dispersion
D) Deviation

E) Interference

The de Broglie wavelength associated with the electrons accelerated by a potential of 81 V is lying in
39. the region of electromagnetic waves
A) ultraviolet rays
B) infrared rays
C) microwaves
D) X- rays
E)

If the frequency of the incident light on a metal surface is increased by 10% then the kinetic energy of the
40. emitted photoelectrons is increased from 0.5eV to 0.7 eV. Then the work function of the metal is
A) 1 eV
B) 1.2 eV
C) 1.5 eV
D) 1.8 eV
E) 2 eV

The ratio of the velocities of the electron in the second, third and fourth Bohr’s orbits of hydrogen atom
41. is
A) 3 : 2 : 1
B) 1 : 2 : 3
C) 1 : 4 : 9
D) 6 : 4 : 3
E) 9 : 4 : 1

42. Plutonium nucleus undergoes fission with
A) fast neutrons
B) slow neutrons
C) fast deuterons
D) slow deuterons
E)

43. Out of the following pair of elements identify isotones
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

44.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

45. During the formation of p – n junction
A) majority holes diffuse from n side to p side
B) majority electrons diffuse from p side to n side
C) ionized donors formed on p side
D) ionized acceptors formed on n side
E) the space charge region on either side of the junction is called depletion region

46.

A) 63 mg
B) 6.3 mg
C) 31.5 mg
D) 0.063 mg
E) 310 mg

47. The correct electronic configuration of Tc (Z=43) is
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

48. What is the mass of water formed when 1.6 g of methane gas is completely burnt in excess oxygen?

A) 1.8 g
B) 2.4 g
C) 3.2 g
D) 3.6 g
E) 4.8 g

49. The number of angular and radial nodes present in ‘4d’ orbitals are respectively
A) 2, 1
B) 4, 3
C) 2, 2
D) 3, 2
E) 4, 2

50. Which of the following isoelectronic species has the smallest radius?
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

51. Which of the following molecule has the highest dipole moment?
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

52. Which of the following aqueous mixture is a buffer solution?
A) Acetic acid + Ammonium chloride
B) Hydrochloric acid + Potassium acetate
C) Acetic acid + Sodium chloride
D) Acetic acid + Sodium acetate
E) Sodium hydroxide + Potassium acetate

53.

A) 90%
B) 95%
C) 100%
D) 85%
E) 80%
Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled

54.

A) 15 min
B) 20 min
C) 30 min
D) 25 min
E) 10 min

55. Some enzyme catalysed reactions which occur at metal surfaces are
A) first order reactions
B) second order reactions
C) third order reactions
D) fractional order reactions
E) zero order reactions

56. The sum of the oxidation numbers of all the carbon and oxygen atoms in carbonate ion is
A) +1
B) +2
C) -2
D) -1
E) -3

57. In which of the following equilibrium, increase in pressure shift the equilibrium in the forward direction?
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

58.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

59.
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

For which of the following molecule, resonance structures are necessary to describe the bonding
60. satisfactorily?
A) Ozone
B) Boron trifluride
C) Water
D) Acetylene
E) Phosphorous trichloride

61.
A) 3, paramagnetic
B) 2, paramagnetic
C) 3, diamagnetic
D) 1.5, paramagnetic
E) 2, diamagnetic

62. Which of the following 3d block element exhibits +2, +3, +4, +5, +6 and +7 oxidation states?
A) Titanium
B) Vanadium
C) Chromium

D) Manganese
E) Iron

Which of the following explains why dimethyl ether has lower boiling point than its isomeric compound,
63. ethanol?
A) Resonance
B) London dispersion forces
C) Hybridisation
D) Van der Waals forces
E) Hydrogen bonding

64. Which lanthanide element has half-filled 4f orbitals in its +3 state?
A) Terbium
B) Gadolinium
C) Cerium
D) Lanthanum
E) Lutetium

65.
A) Tetraammineaquachloridocobalt(III) chloride
B) Aquatetraamminechloridocobalt(III) chloride
C) Chloridotetraammineaquacobalt(II) chloride
D) Tetraamminechloridoaquacobalt(III) dichloride
E) Tetraamminechloridoaquacobalt(II) dichloride

66. In which of the following reaction Lindlar’s catalyst is used?
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

67. The alkene that exhibits optical isomerism is
A) 2-methyl-2-pentene
B) 3-methyl-2-pentene
C) 3-methyl-1-pentene
D) 4-methyl-1-pentene
E) 2-methylpentane

68.

A) 2-Butanol
B) 2-Methyl 2-propanol
C) 2-Methyl 1-propanol
D) 1-Butanol
E) 2-Phenylethanol

69.

A) Finkelstein reaction
B) Wurtz reaction
C) Sandmeyer’s reaction
D) Williamson reaction
E) Swarts reaction

70. Which is incorrect statement with regard to 1-phenylethanol?
A) It is a primary alcohol
B) It is an aromatic alcohol
C) It forms a ketone on oxidation
D) It is optically active
E) It liberates H2 when treated with metallic sodium

In Dumas method of nitrogen estimation 0.14 g of an organic compound gave 22.4 mL of nitrogen at STP.
71. The percentage of the nitrogen in the compound is
A) 12.5 %
B) 15 %
C) 17.5 %
D) 20 %
E) 22.5%

72. Which of the following base is not present in RNA molecule?
A) Adenine
B) Guanine
C) Thymine
D) Uracil
E) Cytosine

73. Which of the following carboxylic acid has the highest pKa?
A) ethanoic acid
B) chloroethanoic acid
C) fluoroethanoic acid

D) dichloroethanoic acid
E) triflouroethanoic acid

74.

A) 10
B) 11
C) 12
D) 9
E) 13

75. Cheilosis disease and digestive disorders are caused by the deficiency of
A) ascorbic acid
B) thiamine
C) cyanocobalamine
D) riboflavin
E) pyridoxine

76.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

77.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

78.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

79.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

80.
A) a straight line
B) a parabola
C) an ellipse
D) any circle of radius 4
E) a circle with centre at the origin

81.
A)
B)

C)
D)

E)

82.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

83.
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

84.

A) -1
B) -2
C) 0
D) 1
E) 2

85.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

86. The area bounded by the curves y=x2 and y=2x in the first quadrant, is equal to
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

87.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

88.
A) -(1+x)
B) 1+x
C) -2x
D) x2
E) 2

89.
A) 3

B) -2
C) -1
D) 1
E) 4

90.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

91.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

92.
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

93.
A) y=(x+2)log(x+2)+x+C
B) y=(x+2)log(x+2)-x+C
C) y=(x+1)log(x+1)-x+C
D) y=(x+1)log(x+1)+x+C
E) y=(x+1)log(x+1)+C

94.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

95.
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

96.
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

97.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

98.
A) 0
B) 5
C) -1
D) -5
E) 1

99.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

100.

A)

B)

C)
D)

E)

101.
A) reflexive but not symmetric

B) not reflexive but symmetric
C) reflexive and symmetric
D) neither reflexive nor symmetric
E) an equivalence relation

102.

A) {0,1}
B) {1,-1}
C) {0,-1}
D) {1}
E) {0,-1,1)

103.
A)
B)

C)

D)

E)

104. Let a, b, c be positive numbers such that abc=1. Then the minimum value of a+b+c is
A) 8
B) 4
C) 6
D) 2
E) 3

105.
A) 980
B) 960
C) 1020
D) 860
E) 880

106.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

107.

A)

B)
C)
D)
E)

Number of integers greater than 7000 can be formed using the digits 2,4,5,7,8 is (Repetition of digits is not
108. allowed)
A) 120
B) 168
C) 144
D) 108
E) 124

109.
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

110.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

111.
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

112.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

113.

A) 4
B) -3

C) 2
D) -1
E) -4

114.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

115.
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

116.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

117.
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

118.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

119.
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

120.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

121.
A) 2
B) 8
C) 4
D) 6
E) 3

122.
A)

B)

C)

D)

E) None of the above

123.
A) 4a2-2b2
B) 4a2-b2
C) 2a2-3b2
D) a2-2b2
E) 4a2-3b2

124.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

125.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

126.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

127.
A)

B)

C)
D)

E)

128.

A) 3
B) 2
C) 4
D) 5
E) 6

129.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

130.
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

131. The centre of the circle (x-3)(x+1)+(y-1)(y+3)=0 is
A) (3,1)
B) (-1,-3)
C) (3,-3)
D) (-1,1)

E) (1,-1)

132.
A)

B)

C)
D)
E)

133.

A) 15
B) 20
C) 16
D) 18
E) 22

134.
A) -5
B) -4
C) -3
D) -6
E) -8

135.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

136.

A) (11,8,-3)
B) (-11,-8,-3)
C) (11,-8,3)
D) (11,-8,-3)
E) (9,8,-3)

137.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

138.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

139.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

140.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

141.
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

142.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

143.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

144.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

145.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

146.

A)

B)

C)
D)

E)

147.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

148.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

149.
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

150.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled

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