KEAM 2024 Question Paper Engineering with Answers

Entrance Exam
2024

QUESTION
PAPER

FINAL ANSWER KEY
Question Paper Code: 7/2024/OL
Exam:KEAM2024 07
Date of Test: 07-06-2024

1. Choose the INCORRECT dimensions:
A) Linear momentum: MLT-1
B) Angular momentum: ML2T-1
C) Speed of Light: M0LT-2
D) Kinetic energy: ML2T-2
E) Angular frequency: M0L0T-1

Correct Answer : Option C

2.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option E

A person travels in a car from p to q with uniform speed u and returns to p with uniform speed v. The
3. average speed for his round trip is

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

4.
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option E

The velocity (v)-time (t) graph for the motion of a body is a straight line making an angle 600 with the
5.
time axis. Then the body is moving with an acceleration (in m s-2) of
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

A body of weight W is suspended from the ceiling of a room through a chain of weight w. The ceiling
6. pulls the chain by a force
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option E

The coefficient of friction between the road and the tyres of a cyclist is 0.1. The maximum speed with
7. which he can take a circular turn of radius 2 m without skidding is (g=10 ms-2)
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

8. A person standing in an elevator, experiences weight loss, when the elevator
A) moves down with uniform velocity
B) moves upward with constant acceleration
C) moves downward with constant acceleration
D) moves upward with uniform velocity
E) moves down with variable acceleration

Correct Answer : Option C

The ratio of the maximum kinetic energy to the maximum potential energy of a bob of a simple
9. pendulum executing small oscillations is
A) 1:1
B) 1:2
C) 2:1
D) 1:4
E) 4:1

A constant force of 6 N acting on a stationary body displaces it by 3 m in 2 s. The average power
10. delivered is
A) 18 W
B) 15 W
C) 12 W
D) 9W
E) 6W

A block of mass 3 kg executes simple harmonic motion under the restoring force of a spring. The
11. amplitude and the time period of the motion are 0.1 m and 3.14 s respectively. The maximum force
exerted by the spring on the block is
A) 1.2 N
B) 3N
C) 12 N
D) 30 N
E) 90 N

12. The principle involved in the performance of a circus acrobat is the conservation of
A) translational energy
B) linear momentum
C) angular momentum
D) mass
E) rotational energy

Correct Answer : Option C

For a smoothly running analog clock, the ratio of the angular velocity of the minute hand to the
13. angular velocity of hour hand is
A) 2
B) 12
C) 24
D) 60
E) 360

Correct Answer : Option B

The height above the surface of the earth at which the acceleration due to gravity becomes half of
14. that on the surface of the earth is (R is the radius of earth)
A) R
B) 2R
C) 4R

D)

E)

Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled
A particle of 100 g mass is projected vertically up with a kinetic energy of 20 J. The maximum height
15. reached by the particle is (g = 10 ms-2) (neglecting air resistance)
A) 5m
B) 10 m
C) 15 m
D) 20 m
E) 25 m

16.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option E

If the radii of two soap bubbles are respectively 2 cm and 3 cm, then the ratio of the excess pressures
17. inside the soap bubbles is
A) 5:3
B) 3:2
C) 2:3
D) 1:1
E) 3:5

Correct Answer : Option B

The elastic energy stored per unit volume in a stretched wire is (Y= Young’s modulus of the material
18. of the wire; S= stress acting on the wire)

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option C

19. The zeroth law of thermodynamics leads to the concept of
A) carnot engine
B) work
C) temperature
D) heat
E) internal energy

Correct Answer : Option C

20.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

21. The work done by a gas on the system is zero in
A) adiabatic process
B) isothermal compression
C) isochoric process
D) isobaric process
E) isothermal expansion

Correct Answer : Option C

22.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled

23.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option B

24.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option B

25.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option B

26. The lowest frequency of the air column in an open pipe of length L is (v= velocity of sound in air)
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

27.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option B

Two like charges kept in air medium experience a force F, when they are separated by a certain
28. distance r. When the same charges are kept in a dielectric medium at the same distance of the
separation the force between them is 0.5F. The dielectric constant of the medium is
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

29.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option C

Masses of three copper wires are in the ratio 1 : 3 : 5 and their lengths are in the ratio 5 : 3 : 1. Then
30. the ratio of their electric resistances is
A) 125 : 15 : 1

B) 5:3:1
C) 1: 25:125
D) 1 : 3: 5
E) 5 : 21 : 25

31.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

32.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

The ratio of radii of the circular paths of a proton and a deuteron when projected perpendicular to the
33. direction of a uniform magnetic field with the same speed is
A) 1:1
B) 1:2
C) 2:1
D) 4:1
E) 1: 4

Correct Answer : Option B

34. An alternative form of Biot-Savart’s law is
A) Gauss’s law
B) Ohm’s law
C) Coulomb’s law
D) Ampere’s circuital law
E) Joule’s law

35.

A) 106
B) 10-6
C) 1012
D) 10-12
E) 1016

36. Electromagnetic waves of frequency 5 x 1014 Hz lie in the
A) ultraviolet region
B) infrared region
C) visible region
D) radio region
E) Microwave region

Correct Answer : Option C

37. Whenever light travels from rarer medium into denser medium its
A) frequency increases
B) wavelength increases
C) frequency decreases
D) wavelength decreases
E) wavelength remains unchanged

38.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

The number of de Broglie waves associated with Bohr electron when it completes one revolution in its
39. third orbit is
A) 1
B) 3
C) 5
D) 6
E)

Correct Answer : Option B

40.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

In a nuclear fusion process, the masses of the fusing nuclei are MA and MB . Then the mass of the
41. product nucleus M is related to M and M as
C A B

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

42.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

43.

A) 8
B) 10
C) 6
D) 12
E) 4

Correct Answer : Option B

44. An intrinsic semiconductor at T= 0 K behaves like
A) insulator
B) n- type semiconductor
C) p- type semiconductor
D) conductor
E) superconductor

45. When a diode is reverse biased
A) applied voltage in the p - side is positive
B) the depletion layer width decreases
C) the applied voltage is in the opposite direction of barrier potential
D) minority carriers are not allowed to cross the barrier
E) the barrier height increases

Correct Answer : Option E

46. 10 g of alcohol is dissolved in 90 g of water. The percentage of alcohol in the solution is
A) 10%
B) 90%
C) 20%
D) 100%
E) 1%

47. Which of the following set of quantum numbers possible?
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

48. The electronic configuration of Pd (Z=46) is
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option C

49. Which of the following has square planar structure?
A) NH4+
B) XeF4
C) CCl4
D) SiCl4
E) CH4

Correct Answer : Option B

50. Which of the following molecule is paramagnetic?
A) O2
B) C2
C) N2
D) F2
E) H2

The vapour pressure of H2O at 323K is 95 mm of Hg. 176g of sucrose (Molar mass =342 gmol-1) is
51. added to 900g of H2O at 323K. The vapour pressure of solution is about
A) 93.94 mm
B) 92.88 mm
C) 96.06 mm
D) 95.33 mm
E) 94.06 mm

Correct Answer : Option E

52. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
A) The greater the disorder in an isolated system, the higher is the entropy.
B) The crystalline solid state of a substance is the state of lowest entropy.
C) Entropy is not the measure of average chaotic motion of particles in the system.
D) The gaseous state of a substance is state of highest entropy.
E) ΔS is related to q and T for a reversible reaction as ∆S = qrev/T.

Correct Answer : Option C

53.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

54. Which of the following statement is true with regard to Daniell cell?
A) Oxidation occurs at cathode
B) Reduction occurs at anode
C) E0 cell is 1.1 V
D) Electrical energy produces chemical reaction
E) Electrolytes are aqueous solutions of CuSO4 and FeSO4.

Correct Answer : Option C

55. The conductivity of 0.02 mol L-1 KCl solution is 0.248 S m-1. Its molar conductivity is
A) 20 S m2 mol-1
B) 1.24 x 10-3 S m2 mol-1
C) 1.24 x 10-4 S m2 mol-1
D) 2.48 x 10-2 S m2 mol-1
E) 1.24 x 10-2 S m2 mol-1

Correct Answer : Option E

56. Which of the following compound has the lowest boiling point?
A) Carbon disulphide
B) Water
C) Ethanol
D) Benzene
E) Chloroform

57. Radioactive decay follows
A) first order
B) second order
C) third order
D) zero order
E) Pseudo first order

In which of the following system, the number of moles of the substance present at equilibrium not be
58. shifted by change in the volume of the system at constant temperature?
A) N2 (g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)
B) PCl3 (g) + Cl2(g) ⇌ PCl5(g)
C) CO (g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ CH4(g)
D) 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ 2SO3 (g)
E) NO2 (g) + SO2 (g) ⇌ SO3(g) + NO(g) + H2O(g)
Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled
59. Which of the following has the least atomic radius?
A) B
B) C
C) N
D) O
E) F

Correct Answer : Option E

60. Which of the following tripositive ion has smallest size?
A) Ce3+
B) Nd3+
C) La3+
D) Sm3+
E) Gd3+

Correct Answer : Option E

61. Lanthanides (Ln) when heated with carbon at 2773K form product with general formula
A) LnC
B) Ln2C3
C) LnC3
D) LnC2
E) Ln3C2

62. Which of the following is an acidic oxide?
A) CrO3
B) CrO
C) V2 O 4
D) V2 O 5
E) V2 O 3

63. The catalyst used in the Wacker process is
A) V2 O 5
B) PdCl2
C) TiCl4 with Al(CH3)3

D) Fe
E) Mo

Correct Answer : Option B

64. The coordination number of Pt and Fe in the complexes [PtCl6]2- and [Fe(C2O4)3]3- are respectively
A) 4 and 6
B) 6 and 6
C) 4 and 4
D) 6 and 8
E) 4 and 8

Correct Answer : Option B

65. The IUPAC name of HOCH2(CH2)3CH2COCH3
A) 2-oxo-heptan-7-ol
B) 7-hydroxyheptan-2-one
C) hydroxyheptan-6-one
D) 2-oxo-heptan-7-ol
E) hydroxy pentyl methyl ketone

Correct Answer : Option B

66. Which of the following statement is incorrect with Kolbe’s electrolytic method?
A) It gives an alkane with even number of carbon atoms at the anode.
B) At anode decarboxylation and formation of methyl radical occurs.
C) Methane cannot be prepared by this method.
D) At anode acetate ion accepts electrons to give acetate free radical.
E) At cathode hydrogen gas is liberated.

67. Which of the following substitution reaction with methane requires HIO3 as an oxidising agent?
A) Chlorination
B) Bromination
C) Iodination
D) Fluorination
E) Friel-Crafts acylation

Correct Answer : Option C

68.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option E

69. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
A) (-)-2-bromooctane reacts with NaOH gives (+)-octan-2-ol by SN2 reaction.
B) 2-Bromobutane reacts with NaOH gives racemic mixture by SN1 reaction.
C) β-elimination of 2-bromopentane gives pent-1-ene as major product.
D) The hybridization of the carbon in the intermediate formed in SN1 reaction is sp2.
E) Primary alkyl halide undergoes SN2 faster than secondary alkyl halide.

Correct Answer : Option C

Compound ‘X’ (C H O) reacts with aqueous NaOH to give compound ‘Y’. ‘Y’ reacts with CO2 followed
70. by acidification to6give
6
compound ‘Z’. The compounds X, Y and Z are respectively
A) benzene, phenol, salicylaldehyde
B) phenol, benzene, benzoic acid
C) phenol, sodium phenoxide, benzophenone
D) benzaldehyde, sodium phenoxide, salicylic acid
E) phenol, sodium phenoxide, salicylic acid

Correct Answer : Option E

71. The decreasing order of basic strength in aqueous solution of amines is
A) Dimethylamine > Methylamine > Trimethylamine > Ammonia
B) Methylamine > Dimethylamine > Trimethylamine > Ammonia
C) Trimethylamine > Dimethylamine > Methylamine > Ammonia
D) Ammonia > Trimethylamine > Dimethylamine > Methylamine
E) Ammonia > Dimethylamine > Trimethylamine > Methylamine

72. The melting point of β-form of crystalline glucose is
A) 473 K
B) 303 K
C) 423 K
D) 371 K
E) 503 K

Correct Answer : Option C

73. Kjeldahl method can be used to estimate nitrogen in
A) azobenzene
B) aniline
C) o-nitrophenol
D) nitrobenzene
E) pyridine

Correct Answer : Option B

74. Which of the following vitamin deficiency causes increased fragility of RBCs and muscular weakness?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B12
C) Riboflavin
D) Vitamin D
E) Vitamin E

Correct Answer : Option E

75. Which of the following is the most reactive in aromatic electrophilic substitution reaction?
A) Benzene
B) Chlorobenzene
C) Phenol
D) Benzaldehyde
E) Nitrobenzene

Correct Answer : Option C

76.

A) 40
B) 45
C) 60
D) 75
E) 85

Correct Answer : Option B

77.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

78.
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option E

79.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

80.
A) 10
B) 15
C) 25
D) 35
E) 45

Correct Answer : Option C

81.

A) 3
B) -3
C) 2
D) -2
E) 0

Correct Answer : Option B

82.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

83.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option C

84. The number of positive integers that have at most seven digits and contain only the digits 0 and 9 is
A) 112
B) 127
C) 136
D) 142
E) 150

Correct Answer : Option B

85.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Let A = {1, 3, 5, 7, …, 21}. The number of ways 4 numbers, containing always 11, can be selected
86. from the set A is equal to
A) 120
B) 160
C) 240
D) 260
E) 320

87.

A) reflexive, symmetric and transitive
B) neither reflexive nor symmetric nor transitive
C) not reflexive but symmetric and transitive
D) reflexive and symmetric but not transitive
E) reflexive but not symmetric and transitive

Correct Answer : Option B

88.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option C

89.
A) 10
B) 20
C) 45
D) 50
E) 65

Correct Answer : Option E

90.

A) 6
B) 7
C) 8
D) 9
E) 10

Correct Answer : Option C

91.

A) 21
B) -21
C) 14
D) -14
E) 7

Correct Answer : Option B

92.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

93.

A) 121
B) 66
C) 11
D) 10
E) 0

Correct Answer : Option C

94.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option B

95.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

96.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

97.

A) 81
B) -81
C) 243
D) -243
E) -32

Correct Answer : Option E

The means of two samples of size 30 and 40 are 35 and 42 respectively. Then the mean of the
98. combined sample of size 70 is
A) 36
B) 37
C) 38
D) 39
E) 40

99.

A) 4
B) 6
C) 8
D) 10
E) 12

Correct Answer : Option B

If two dice are rolled simultaneously, then the probability that the difference of the numbers on the two
100. dice equals to zero is

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option E

101.

A) 0.45
B) 0.28
C) 0.4
D) 0.7
E) 0.3

102.
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

103.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option B

104.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option E

105.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option C

106.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

107.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

108.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option B

109.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

110.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

111.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

112.
A) 7,-7
B) 9,-9
C) 12,-12
D) 18,-18
E) 14,-14

Correct Answer : Option E

113.
A) (6,13)
B) (3,-8)
C) (3,8)
D) (6,-13)
E) (3,11)

Correct Answer : Option C

114. The equation of the parabola with focus at (3, 1) and vertex at (5, 1) is
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

115.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

116.

A) 16
B) 15
C) 14
D) 12
E) 10

Correct Answer : Option E

117.

A) 1
B) -2
C) 2
D) -3
E) 3

Correct Answer : Option E

118. If (3, 2) and (5 ,6) are end points of a diameter of a circle, then the equation of the circle is
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled

119.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

120.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option B

121.
A) 50
B) -50
C) 49
D) -49
E) 0

Correct Answer : Option E

122.

A) (1,1,1)
B) (2,2,2)
C) (3,3,3)
D) (4,4,4)
E) (6,6,6)

123.
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option E

124. The symmetric equation of the straight line passing through the points (-1, 4, 2) and (-3, 0, 5) is
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option C

125.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option B

126.

A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
E) 6

Correct Answer : Option C

127.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

3
Ice is coated uniformly around a sphere of radius 15cm. If ice is melting at the rate of 80 cm / min
128. when the thickness is 5cm, then the rate of change of thickness of ice is

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option E

129.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

130.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option B

131.
A) 7
B) 9
C) 10
D) 12
E) 14

Correct Answer : Option C

132.
A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

133.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

134.

A) 10
B) 11
C) 12
D) 13
E) 14

Correct Answer : Option E

135.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option E

136.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

137.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

138.
A) 4
B) 2
C) -4
D) -2

E)

Correct Answer : Option C

139.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option E

140.

A) 1
B) -1
C) 2
D) -2
E) 0

141.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option B

142.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

143.

A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
E) 9

Correct Answer : Option C

144.
A) 4
B) 3
C) 2
D) 1
E) 0

Correct Answer : Option C

145.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option B

146.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

147.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option C

148.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option E

149.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option C

150.

A)

B)

C)

D)
E)

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