Page 1
Entrance Exam
2024
QUESTION
PAPER
Page 2
Question Booklet No. Question Booklet Series : A
AUAT — 2024
B. Sc. Honours in Chemistry (U12)
( TEST BASED ON MCQ )
Full Marks : 100 Duration : 2 Hours
Roll No. of the Candidate : ___________________________________
Date of Examination : _______________________________________
Name of Examination Centre : _________________________________
Signature of the Invigilator on
Signature of the Candidate : _________________________________ Verification
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
Candidates should read the below instructions carefully and follow them accordingly.
1. The Question Booklet has paper seal pasted on it. Please do NOT open the Question Booklet
until you are asked to do so by the Invigilator.
2. The candidates must check immediately after breaking the seal that the Question Booklet
contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions in two parts (Part—I and Part—II).
3. Answer of questions of Part—I and Part—II both will have to be given on the OMR Answer Sheet
provided for this purpose. Fill up the necessary fields that are intended for you by writing
and/or shading appropriately. Otherwise the OMR Answer Sheet cannot be evaluated and will
liable to be rejected. Question numbers progress from 1 to 100 continuously with alternative
answers being shown as [A], [B], [C] and [D] for each question. Record your response by completely
darkening the corresponding bubble. While responding, you should consider the best alternative
answer and shade only one bubble with black/blue ball point pen only. For each correct response
you will be awarded 1 mark. There will be negative marking for wrong responses. For each
wrong response, –0·25 mark will be awarded. Multiple responses against one MCQ will be treated
as a wrong response.
4. On leaving the examination hall, candidates must submit the OMR Answer Sheet. They are
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DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL UNTIL INSTRUCTED TO DO SO
AUAT-2024 /102-A
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PART—I
( Core Subject )
1. How many carbon atoms are there in 4. The set of quantum numbers
representing an imopossible
4 10 3 mole of sucrose?
arrangement is
Îåìyû¡àì\¹ 4 103 ë³àìº A¡t¡P¡[º A¡à¤¢> š¹³àoå &A¡[i¡ "䱤 [¤>¸àìι šø[t¡[>[‹â«A¡à¹ã ëA¡àÚà@i¡à³
"àìá? Î}J¸à¹ ëÎi¡ Òº –
[A] 2.891 1022 1
[A] n 3, l 2, m 2, ms
2
[B] 2 .891 1023
1
[B] n 4, l 0, m 0, ms
2
[C] 3.891 1022
1
[D] 3.891 1023 [C] n 3, l 2, m 3, ms
2
2. A bright line having wavelength 1
450 nm is seen in an atomic emission [D] n 5, l 3, m 0, ms
2
spectrum. How much does the energy
of an electron decrease as this photon 5. Electromagnetic radiation with
is emitted? maximum wavelength is
šà¹³ào[¤A¡ [>K¢³> ¤o¢àºãìt¡ 450 nm t¡¹UîƒìQ¢¸¹ Τ¢à[‹A¡ t¡¹UîƒQ¢¸ÎÒ t¡[Øl¡;Wå¡´¬A¡ãÚ [¤[A¡¹o Òº
&A¡[i¡ l¡ü^º ë¹Jà ëƒJà ™àÚ¡ú &Òü ëó¡ài¡> [>K¢t¡ [A] ultraviolet rays
Ò*Ú๠Îàì= Îàì= &A¡[i¡ ÒüìºA¡i¡öì>¹ Å[v¡û¡ A¡t¡ ÒùàÎ [B] radiowave
šàÚ? [C] X-ray
[D] -ray
[A] 3.251 10 19 J
6. The principal quantum number of an
[B] 4.417 1019 J atom is related to the
&A¡[i¡ š¹³àoå¹ ³åJ¸ ëA¡àÚà@i¡à³ Î}J¸à-¹ Îàì=
[C] 3 .417 10 18 J
δš[A¢¡t¡
[D] 4.251 1019 J [A] size of the orbit
[B] spin angular momentum
3. Bohr model can explain
[C] orbital angular momentum
ë¤à¹ ³ìl¡º ¤¸àJ¸à A¡¹ìt¡ šàì¹ [D] orientation of orbital in space
[A] the spectrum of hydrogen atom 7. Which of the following is smallest in
only size?
[B] spectrum of an atom or ion [>ìW¡¹ ëA¡à>[i¡ "àA¡àì¹ Û塉t¡³?
containing one electron only
[A] N3–
[C] the spectrum of hydrogen [B] O2–
molecule
[C] I–
[D] the spectrum of any atom [D] Na+
AUAT-2024 /102-A 2
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8. Which one of the following has the 12. The hydrogen bond is strongest in
highest basic character?
ÒàÒüìl¡öàì\> ¤Þê¡> ΤìW¡ìÚ Å[v¡û¡Åàºã Òº
[>³¥[º[Jt¡P¡[º¹ ³ì‹¸ ëA¡à>[i¡¹ Î줢àZW¡ Û¡à¹ãÚ W¡[¹y
¹ìÚìá? [A]
[A] SiO2 [B]
[B] MgO [C]
[C] Al2O3 [D] None of the above
[D] Na2O
13. The weakest bond among the
following is
9. The correct order of first ionization
energy among Be, B, C, N, O is
[>³¥[º[Jt¡P¡[º¹ ³ì‹¸ ƒå¤¢ºt¡³ ¤Þê¡>[i¡ Òº
Be, B, C, N, O -&¹ ³ì‹¸ šø=³ "àÚ>ãA¡¹o Å[v¡û¡¹ [A] ionic bond
Î[k¡A¡ yû¡³ Òº
[B] covalent bond
[A] Be < B < C < O < N
[C] metallic bond
[B] B < Be < C < N < O
[D] van der Waals’ force
[C] Be < B < C < N < O
[D] B < Be < C < O < N 14. The volume of a gas at 760 mm
pressure is 152 cc. If the temperature
10. Which one of the following has the remains constant, what is its volume
highest acidic character? at a pressure of 790 mm?
[>³¥[º[Jt¡P¡[º¹ ³ì‹¸ ëA¡à>[i¡¹ Τ¢à[‹A¡ "´ÃãÚ W¡[¹y 760 [³[³ W¡àìš &A¡[i¡ K¸àìι "àÚt¡> Òº
¹ìÚìá? 152 cc¡ú ™[ƒ t¡àš³àyà [Ñ‚¹ =àìA¡, 790 [³[³ W¡àìš
&¹ "àÚt¡> A¡t¡?
[A] SO3
[A] 146·2 cc
[B] P2O5
[B] 152·3 cc
[C] ZnO
[D] Na2O [C] 182·6 cc
[D] 152 cc
11. The species, which does not show
paramagnetism, is 15. In which of the following entropy
ë™ šø\à[t¡ š¹àìW¡ï´¬A¡â« ëƒJàÚ >à, ëÎ[i¡ Òº decreases?
[>ìW¡¹ ëA¡à>[i¡ìt¡ &>i¡ö[š ÒùàÎ šàÚ?
[A] O2
[A] Crystallization of sucrose from
[B] solution
O2
[B] Rusting of iron
[C] O2
[C] Melting of ice
[D] H2 [D] Vaporization of camphor
AUAT-2024 /102-A 3 [ P.T.O.
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16. Entropy change of the system and the 20. Which of the following alkaline earth
surroundings in equilibrium metal hydroxides is the least soluble?
Î೸à¤Ñ‚àÚ [ÎìС³ &¤} šà[¹šà[Å«¢A¡t¡à¹ &>i¡ö[š [>ìW¡¹ ëA¡à>ô Û¡à¹ãÚ ³õ[v¡A¡à ë³ï캹 ÒàÒüìl¡öàGàÒül¡
ΤìW¡ìÚ A¡³ ‰¤oãÚ?
[A] increases
[A] Be(OH)2
[B] decreases
[B] Mg(OH)2
[C] is constant
[C] Ca(OH)2
[D] either increases or decreases
[D] Ba(OH)2
–8
17. pH of 10 M HCl is
21. Melting point is lowest for
10–8 M HCl -&¹ pH Ò’º
Kº>àS¡ Τ¢[>³¥ Òº
[A] 8
[A] Be
[B] 6·9788
[B] Mg
[C] 7·9788
[C] Ca
[D] 1·05
[D] Sr
18. The degree of ionization of a weak
electrolyte 22. The pair of compounds which cannot
exist together in solution is
&A¡[i¡ ƒå¤¢º ÒüìºA¡ìi¡öàºàÒüìi¡¹ "àÚ>ãA¡¹ìo¹ [l¡[Kø
‰¤ìo &A¡ìy [¤ƒ¸³à> =àA¡ìt¡ šàì¹ >à, &³>
[A] decreases with dilution ë™ïKP¡[º¹ ë\àØl¡à Òº
[B] increases with dilution [A] NaHCO3 and NaOH
[C] may increase or decrease with [B] Na2CO3 and NaHCO3
dilution
[C] Na2CO3 and NaOH
[D] is not affected by dilution
[D] NaHCO3 and NaCl
19. The correct statement is
23. Sodium metal cannot be stored under
Î[k¡A¡ ¤v¡û¡¤¸[i¡ Òº
[>ìW¡¹ ëA¡à>[i¡ìt¡ ëÎà[l¡Úà³ ‹àtå¡ Î}¹Û¡o A¡¹à ™àì¤
[A] CH3COOH is a weak acid
>à?
[B] NH4Cl gives an alkaline solution
in water [A] benzene
[C] CH3COONa gives an acidic [B] kerosene oil
solution in water
[C] alcohol
[D] NH4OH is a strong base
[D] toluene
AUAT-2024 /102-A 4
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24. Which of the following substances 28. The IUPAC nomenclature of the
can be used for drying neutral or following compound is
basic gases?
[>³¥[º[Jt¡ ë™ïìK¹ IUPAC >à³A¡¹o Òº
[>ìW¡¹ ëA¡à>ô šƒà=¢[i¡ [>¹ìšÛ¡ ¤à Û¡à¹ãÚ K¸àÎP¡[º
Ç¡A¡àì>๠\>¸ ¤¸¤Ò๠A¡¹à ë™ìt¡ šàì¹?
[A] CaCO3
[B] Na2CO3
[C] NaHCO3 [A] 2-cyclohexylbutane
[D] CaO
[B] 2-phenylbutane
25. Three centred bond is present in [C] 3-cyclohexylbutane
[t¡> ëA¡[@ƒøA¡ ¤Þê¡> l¡üš[Ñ‚t¡ ¹ìÚìá
[D] 3-phenylbutane
[A] BF3
29. Which of the following structures
[B] B2H6
exhibits cis-trans isomerisms?
[C] AlCl3
[>ìW¡¹ ëA¡à>ô A¡àk¡àì³à[i¡ cis-trans "àÒüìÎàì³[¹\³
[D] BCl3 šøƒÅ¢> A¡ì¹?
26. The Lewis acid strength of boron [A] BrH2C CH2Br
halides follows the order
ë¤à¹> Ò¸àºàÒül¡-&¹ ºåÒüÎ "¸à[Îl¡ Å[v¡û¡ yû¡³ ">åιo [B] Br3C CH3
A¡ì¹
[C] BrHC CHBr
[A] BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3
[B] BCl3 > BBr3 > BF3 [D]
[C] BF3 > BCl3 > Br3
30. Which of the following methods is
[D] BCl3 > BF3 > BBr3 employed to distinguish optical
isomers?
27. Borazole (B3N3H6) is related to
benzene as "š[i¡A¡¸àº "àÒüìÎà³àì¹¹ šà=¢A¡¸ A¡¹ìt¡ [>ìW¡¹ ëA¡à>ô
š‡ý¡[t¡ ¤¸¤Ò๠A¡¹à ÒÚ?
ë¤à¹àì\ຠ(B3N3H6) ë¤>[\ì>¹ Îàì= A¡ã®¡àì¤
δš[A¢¡t¡? [A] Chemical tests
[A] isoelectronic
[B] Polarimetry
[B] isostructural
[C] Spectroscopy
[C] isoelectronic and isostructural
[D] None of the above [D] Boiling/melting point
determination
AUAT-2024 /102-A 5 [ P.T.O.
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31. Which of the follolwing carbocations 35. Markovnikov’s addition is observed in
will be the most stable?
³àA¢¡àl¡ü[>A¡ìó¡¹ Î}ì™à\> š[¹º[Û¡t¡ ÒÚ
[>ìW¡¹ ëA¡à>ô A¡à줢àA¡¸ài¡àÚ> ΤìW¡ìÚ [Ñ‚[t¡Å㺠Òì¤?
[A]
[A] Ph3 C
[B] CH3 CH CH2 + HBr
[B] [C]
[D] H3C C C CH3+ HBr
[C] CH3 2 C H
36. Teflon is a polymer of
[D] ëi¡ó¡º> A¡ãìι š[º³à¹?
32. Which of the following properties is [A] monofluoroethene
most commonly possessed by
[B] difluoroethene
nucleophile?
[C] trifluoroethene
[>³¥[º[Jt¡ í¤[ÅÊ¡¸P¡[º¹ ³ì‹¸ ëA¡à>[i¡ Îà‹à¹ot¡
[>l¡ü[Aá*ó¡àÒü캹 =àìA¡? [D] tetrafluoroethene
[A] An overall positive charge
37. on ozonolysis
[B] Empty orbitals gives
[C] An unpaired electron
*ì\àì>àºàÒü[ÎìÎ
[D] A lone pair electron
ëƒÚ
33. Wurtz reaction involves the
[A] CH3CHO
interaction of alkyl halides in dry
ether with [B] CH3COCH3
Wurtz [¤[yû¡ÚàÚ Ç¡ÍHþ Òü=àì¹¹ Îàì= "¸àºA¡à[º [C] O2
Ò¸àºàÒüìl¡¹ [³=[ÑI¡Úà A¡à¹ Îàì= \[Øl¡t¡?
[D] CH3CH2OH
[A] sodium
[B] zinc 38. Chromium metal crystallizes in a
body-centred cubic lattice. The
[C] copper length of the unit cell edge is found to
[D] platinum be 287 pm. The atomic redius of
chromium is
34. Ethylene reacts with cold alkaline
KMnO4 (Bayer’s reagent) to form ëyû¡à[³Úà³ ‹àtå¡ &A¡[i¡ BCC ët¡ Ñ£¡[i¡A¡à[Út¡ ÒÚ¡ú
Òül¡ü[>i¡ ëκ šøàì”z¹ íƒQ¢¸ 287 pm šà*Úà ™àÚ¡ú
Òü[=[º> k¡àr¡à Û¡à¹ãÚ KMnO4 (ë¤Úàì¹¹ [¤A¡à¹A¡)
ëyû¡à[³Úàì³¹ šà¹³ào[¤A¡ ¤¸àÎà‹¢ Òº
&¹ Îàì= [¤[yû¡Úà A¡ì¹ Kk¡> A¡ì¹
[A] 124·13 pm
[A] oxalic acid
[B] acetic acid [B] 142·13 pm
[C] glycerol [C] 143·5 pm
[D] glycol [D] 214 pm
AUAT-2024 /102-A 6
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39. In sodium chloride crystal, each 43. The flow of solvent through a semi-
chloride ion is surrounded by permeable membrane towards the
solution side is known as
ëÎà[l¡Úà³ ëAáà¹àÒül¡ Ñ£¡[i¡ìA¡¹ šø[t¡[i¡ ëAáà¹àÒül¡ "àÚ>
A¡ã ‡à¹à ë¤[Ê¡t¡? &A¡[i¡ "‹¢ì®¡ƒ¸ [c¡[À¹ ³‹¸ [ƒìÚ ‰¤ìo¹ [ƒìA¡
‰à¤ìA¡¹ šø¤àÒ [ÒÎàì¤ š[¹[W¡t¡
[A] 6 Na+
[A] adsorption
[B] 6 Cl–
[B] absorption
+
[C] 5 Na
[C] diffusion
[D] 4 Na+ [D] osmosis
40. Due to Frankel defect, the density of 44. The lowest freezing point of 0·1 M
ionic solids aqueous solution is of
󸡏àìS¡º yç¡[i¡¹ A¡à¹ìo, "àÚ[>A¡ A¡[k¡> šƒàì=¢¹ Q>â« [>ìW¡¹ ëA¡à>ô 0·1 M \ºãÚ ‰¤ìo¹ Τ¢[>³¥ [Ò³àS¡ ÒÚ?
[A] K2SO4
[A] decreases
[B] NaCl
[B] increases
[C] Urea
[C] does not change [D] Glucose
[D] either increases or decreases
45. If the half cell reaction, has a large
negative reduction potential, then
41. The amorphous solid among the
following is ™[ƒ [>³¥[º[Jt¡ "‹¢ ëA¡àÈ [¤[yû¡Ú๠reduction
potential &¹ δ±à¤¸ ³à> ¤Øl¡ =àìA¡ t¡ì¤
[>ì³¥¹ ³ì‹¸ [>¹àA¡à¹ A¡[k¡> šƒà=¢[i¡ Òº
A e A
[A] diamond
[A] A is readily reduced
[B] graphite
[B] A is readily oxidised
[C] glass
[C] A+ is readily reduced
[D] common salt [D] A– is readily oxidised
42. At high altitudes, the boiling point of 46. In normal hydrogen elecrtode, the
water decreases because concentration of H+ ion is
l¡üZW¡ l¡üZW¡t¡àÚ, \캹 Ñ£å¡i¡>àS¡ ÒùàÎ šàÚ A¡à¹o Îà‹à¹o ÒàÒüìl¡öàì\> ÒüìºA¡ìi¡öàìl¡ H+ "àÚì>¹ Q>â«
=àìA¡
[A] the atmospheric pressure is high
[A] 0·1 M
[B] the temperature is low [B] 0·2 M
[C] the atmospheric pressure is low [C] 1 M
[D] the temperature is high [D] 2 M
AUAT-2024 /102-A 7 [ P.T.O.
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50. The half-life period of a first order
47. In the cell, Zn Zn2 Cu2 Cu the
reaction is 100 sec. The rate constant
negative terminal is of the reaction is
[>³¥[º[Jt¡ ëA¡àìÈ ˜¡oàuA¡ šøà”z[i¡ Òº šø=³ yû¡ì³¹ [¤[yû¡Ú๠"‹¢-\ã¤>A¡àº Òº 100
ëÎìA¡“¡¡ú [¤[yû¡Ú๠Ò๠‹øç¡¤A¡ Òº
Zn Zn2 Cu2 Cu
[A] 6·93 10–3 sec–1
[A] Cu [B] 0·693 sec–1
[B] Cu2+ [C] 6·93 10–4 sec–1
[D] 69·3 sec–1
[C] Zn
[D] Zn2+ 51. Increasing order of boiling point is
Ñ£å¡i¡>àìS¡¹ yû¡³¤‹¢³à> yû¡³ Òº
48. A quantitative relationship between
the temperature and rate constant is
[A] H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te
given by
t¡àš³àyà &¤} ¹àÎàÚ[>A¡ [¤[yû¡Úà Ò๠‹øç¡¤ìA¡¹ ³ì‹¸ [B] H2O > H2Te > H2Se > H2S
&A¡[i¡ š[¹³àoKt¡ δšA¢¡ ëƒ*Úà ÒÚ A¡ãìι ‡à¹à?
[C] H2O > H2Se > H2Te > H2S
[A] Nernst equation
[D] H2O > H2S > H2Te > H2Se
[B] Arrhenius equation
[C] Van’t Hoff equation 52. Phosphorus pentoxide is a/an
[D] Henderson equation ó¡Îó¡¹àÎ ëš@i¡GàÒül¡ &A¡[i¡
[A] oxidising agent
49. When temperature is raised, the rate
of reaction increases because of [B] reducing agent
[C] bleaching agent
™J> t¡àš³àyà ¤õ[‡ý¡ šàÚ, t¡J> [¤[yû¡Ú๠Ò๠¤õ[‡ý¡ šàÚ
A¡à¹o [D] dehydrating agent
[A] lowering of activation energy 53. O2 molecule is
[B] increase in the number of O2 "oå Òº
collissions
[A] paramagnetic
[C] decrease in the number of
[B] diamagnetic
collissions
[C] ferromagnetic
[D] decrease in the number of
activated molecules [D] None of the above
AUAT-2024 /102-A 8
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54. Variable valency is the main
58. For the equation k Ae Ea RT in
characteristic of
chemical kinetics, which of the
š[¹¤t¢¡>Å㺠ë™à\¸t¡à A¡à¹ šø‹à> í¤[ÅÊ¡¸? following statement is correct?
[A] alkali metals ¹àÎàÚ[>A¡ K[t¡[¤ƒ¸àÚ k Ae Ea RT γãA¡¹ìo¹
[B] alkaline earth metal \>¸ [>ìW¡¹ ëA¡à>ô [¤¤õ[t¡[i¡ Î[k¡A¡?
[C] nobel gases [A] k is the equilibrium constant
[D] transition elements [B] A is adsorption factor
55. The ion which gives coloured [C] Ea is the energy of activation
solution is
[D] R is Rydberg constant
ë™ "àÚ>[i¡ ¹[R¡> ‰¤o ëƒÚ, ëÎ[i¡ Òº
59. The Tyndal effect is shown by
[A] Zn2+
[B] Cd2+ [>ìW¡¹ ëA¡à>[i¡ [i¡“¡àº šø®¡à¤ ëƒJàÚ?
[C] Cu+ [A] precipitate
[D] Fe2+ [B] sol
56. The magnetic moment of an iron salt [C] plasma
is 4·90 BM. The oxidation state of iron
[D] solution
in that salt is
&A¡[i¡ ëºàÒà º¤ìo¹ ëW¡ï´¬A¡ãÚ °à³A¡ 4·90 BM¡ú 60. Which of the following has the
ëÎÒü º¤ìo ëºàÒ๠\à¹o "¤Ñ‚à Òº minimum gold number?
[A] +3 [>ìW¡¹ ëA¡à>[i¡¹ Τ¢[>´• gold number "àìá?
[B] +2 [A] Starch
[C] zero [B] Sodium oleate
[D] 2·5
[C] Gum arabic
57. Out of the following, the compound, [D] Gelatin
which is not a coordination
compound, is
61. The ore having two different metals is
[>³¥[º[Jt¡ ë™ïKP¡[º¹ ³ì‹¸
ë™[i¡ &A¡[i¡
ƒå[i¡ [®¡Ä ‹àt塹 "àA¡[¹A¡ Òº
coordination compound >Ú, ëÎ[i¡ Òº
[A] haematite
[A] [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+
[B] FeSO4.(NH4)2SO4.6H2O [B] galena
[C] K3[Fe(CN)6] [C] magnetite
[D] K4[Fe(CN)6] [D] copper pyrites
AUAT-2024 /102-A 9 [ P.T.O.
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62. Which of the following complexes has 66. Tollens’ reagent is
square planar structure?
i¡ìºìX¹ [¤A¡à¹A¡ Òº
[>ìW¡¹ ëA¡à>ô A¡³ìšÃìG¹ ¤K¢àA¡à¹ γ³t¡ºãÚ A¡àk¡àì³à [A] alkaline mercuric chloride
¹ìÚìá? solution
[A] [Ni(CN)4]2– [B] ammoniacal silver nitrate
solution
[B] [Ni(CO)4] [C] ammonium citrate solution
[C] [Zn(NH3)4]2+ [D] alkaline potassium
permanganate solution
[D] [NiCl4]2–
67. Among the following, the most basic
63. The ligand, which is not chelating, is compound is
ë™ [ºK¸à“¡[i¡ [W¡ìº[i¡} >Ú, t¡à Òº [>´•[º[Jt¡P¡[º¹ ³ì‹¸ ΤìW¡ìÚ basic ë™ïK[i¡ Òº
[A] benzylamine
[A] EDTA
[B] aniline
[B] C2O42–
[C] acetanilide
–
[C] CH3COO [D] p-nitroaniline
[D] en
68. The amine, which does not respond to
carbylamine reaction, is
64. The reaction of CH2 CH2 with
ë™ "¸à[³> A¡à[¤¢ºà³àÒü> [¤[yû¡ÚàÚ ÎàØl¡à ëƒÚ >à, ëÎ[i¡
O Òº
RMgX leads to the formation of [A] ethylamine
RMgX-&¹ Îàì= CH2 CH2 -&¹ ¹àÎàÚ[>A¡ [B] (CH3)2NH
[C] CH3NH2
O
[D] phenylamine
[¤[yû¡ÚàÚ A¡ã ít¡[¹ ÒÚ?
69. DNA contains the sugar
[A] RCHOHR
DNA-ët¡ l¡üš[Ñ‚t¡ [W¡[>¹ "oå
[B] RCHOHCH3
[A] deoxyribose
[C] R2CHCH2OH [B] ribose
[D] RCH2CH2OH [C] D-fructose
[D] D-glucose
65. The compound, which does not give
iodoform test, is 70. Amino acids are the building blocks
of
ë™ ë™ïK[i¡ "àìÚàìl¡àó¡³¢ š¹ãÛ¡à ëƒÚ >à, ëÎ[i¡ Òº
"¸à[³ì>à "¸à[Îl¡ A¡ãìι [¤[Á¡} ¤ÃA¡?
[A] acetophenone
[A] carbohydrates
[B] benzophenone
[B] vitamins
[C] CH3CHOHCH3 [C] fats
[D] CH3CHOHCH2CH2CH3 [D] proteins
AUAT-2024 /102-A 10
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PART—II
( Islamic History and Culture, General English & General Knowledge )
71. Makkah is situated in 76. Prophet Muhammad (PBUH) lived for
_____ years.
³B¡à ëA¡à=àÚ "¤[Ñ‚t¡?
>¤ã ³åÒà´¶ƒ (Îà–) _____ ¤á¹ \ã[¤t¡ [áìº>¡ú
[A] Persia
[A] 60
[B] Turkey
[B] 62
[C] The United Kingdom [C] 65
[D] Saudi Arabia [D] 67
72. Subhanallah means 77. A person who receives revelation from
God Almighty in the form of message
Îå¤Òà>"àÀàÒ A¡=๠"=¢ as well as book is called
[A] Glory be to Allah ³Òà> #Ŭ칹 [>A¡i¡ ÒÒüìt¡ [™[> ¤àt¢¡à * šåÑzA¡ l¡ü®¡Ú
[B] Praise be to Allah "àA¡àì¹ šøt¡¸àìƒÅ šà>, tò¡àìA¡ ¤ºà ÒÚ
[C] Allah is Almighty [A] Prophet
[D] Allah is Merciful [B] Messenger
[C] Prophet as well as Messenger
73. In Islam, interest is
[D] Neigher Prophet nor Messenger
Òüκàì³ Îåƒ
78. Fasting refers to
[A] encouraged
ë¹à™à ¤ºìt¡ ë¤àc¡àÚ
[B] allowed [A] abstaining from food
[C] discouraged [B] abstaining from evils
[D] prohibited [C] developing God consciousness
[D] All of the above
74. The first chapter of the Holy Qur’an is
79. Rashidun Caliphate began with which
‘š[¤y A塹"àì>¹’ šø=³ "‹¸àÚ Òº
of the following incidents?
[A] Al-Fatiha
ëA¡à>ô Qi¡>๠ÎìU ¹à[Ńå> [Jºàó¡t¡ Ç¡¹ç¡ ÒìÚ[áº?
[B] Al-Baqarah [A] The death of Prophet Muhammad
[C] Al-Ikhlas (PBUH)
[D] Al-Kawthar [B] The end of Umayyad Caliphate
[C] The end of Abbasid Caliphate
75. In which masjid, prayer is performed
[D] None of the above
in a circular row?
80. The first woman in this earth is
ëA¡à>ô ³Î[\ìƒ ¤õv¡àA¡à¹ Îà[¹ìt¡ >à³à™ šØl¡à ÒÚ?
&Òü šõ[=¤ãìt¡ šø=³ >à¹ã Òìº>
[A] Masjid al-Aqsa
[A] Eve
[B] Masjid al-Haram
[B] Sara
[C] Masjid al-Nabawi
[C] Julekha
[D] Al-Azhar Mosque [D] Mariam
AUAT-2024 /102-A 11 [ P.T.O.
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81. Which phrase is recited before various 86. The word ‘Islam’ means
activities, such as eating, reading
Qur’an or beginning a task?
‘Òüκ೒ Å즹 "=¢
Jà*Úà, A塹"à> šàk¡ ¤à &A¡[i¡ A¡à\ Ç¡¹ç¡ A¡¹à¹ ³ìt¡à [A] Those who follow Muhammad
[¤[®¡Ä A¡àì\¹ "àìK ëA¡à>ô ¤àA¡¸à}Å[i¡ šàk¡ A¡¹à ÒÚ? [B] Surrender to God
[A] Bismillah [C] Recitations
[B] Astaghfirullah [D] Sons of Allah
[C] Allahu Akbar
87. Who are mentioned in the Quaran as
[D] Subhanallah
those who Allah loves?
82. What is the phrase commonly recited ‘A塹"àì>’ A¡à샹ìA¡ "àÀàÒ ®¡àº¤àìÎ> ¤ìº l¡üìÀJ
when hearing about someone passing
away?
A¡¹à ÒìÚìá?
ëA¡l¡ü ³à¹à ™à*Ú๠A¡=à Ç¡ì> Îà‹à¹ot¡ ë™ ¤àA¡¸[i¡ [A] Allah loves those who commit sin
¤ºìt¡ ÒÚ ëÎi¡à A¡ã? [B] Allah loves those who eat more
[A] Alhamdulillah [C] Allah loves those whoever repents
[B] Hasbunallahu Wa Ni’mal Wakeel and whoever is clean
[C] Inna Lillahi Wa Inna Ilayhi [D] None of the above
Raji’un
88. Where do Muslims go for the
[D] Subhanallah
Pilgrimage (Hajj)?
83. What did prophet Muhammad (SAW) ³åκ³à>¹à ëA¡à=àÚ t¡ã=¢™àyà (Ò\) A¡¹ìt¡ ™àÚ?
break his fast with?
[A] Baitul Mudaddas (Al-Aqsa
>¤ã ³åÒà´¶ƒ (Îà–) A¡ã [ƒìÚ ë¹à\à ®¡àR¡ìt¡>? Mosque Palestine)
[A] Dates [B] Karbala (Iraq)
[B] Watermelon
[C] Dubai (UAE)
[C] Cucumber
[D] Makkah (Saudi Arabia)
[D] Apple
84. What is sighted to signal the start of 89. What are the forms of worship in
Ramadan? Islam?
¹³\à> Ç¡¹ç¡ Ò*Ú๠Î}ìA¡t¡ A¡ã ëƒJà ™àÚ? Òüκàì³ l¡üšàÎ>àìA¡ A¡ã ¤ìº?
[A] Stars [A] Salah (Prayers)
[B] Shooting Star [B] Sawm (Fasting)
[C] Bright Sun [C] Remembrance of Allah
[D] Crescent Moon [D] All of the above
85. Who is exempted from fasting during
90. Why do Muslims fast?
Ramadan?
³åκ³à>¹à ëA¡> ë¹à\à ¹àìJ?
¹³\à> ³ààìÎ ë¹à\à ë=ìA¡ A¡à¹à "¤¸àÒ[t¡šøàœ¡?
[A] To lose weight
[A] The traveler
[B] The weak and the old [B] Personal satisfaction
[C] The sick [C] To gain Taqwa
[D] All of the above [D] Sympathy with poor people
AUAT-2024 /102-A 12
Page 14
91. The noun form of the word ‘CLEAR’ is 96. Who was made the Nawab of Bengal
[A] clear after the Battle of Plassey?
[B] clearly šºàÅã¹ ™åì‡ý¡¹ š¹ A¡àìA¡ ¤à}ºà¹ >¤à¤ A¡¹à ÒÚ?
[A] Mir Jafar
[C] clarity
[B] Alivardi Khan
[D] clearing
[C] Siraj-ud-Daulah
92. Choose the correct sentence from the [D] Mir Qasim
given alternatives :
97. Which of the following books is
[A] James and Simey went to the written by Rajendra Prasad?
market
[>ìW¡¹ ëA¡à>ô ¤Òü[i¡ ¹àì\@ƒø šøÎà샹 ëºJà?
[B] I look forward to meet you
[A] India Divided
[C] Me and Tashi live here [B] An Autobiography : Towards
[D] This restaurant has both fooding Freedom
and lodging facilities [C] The Discovery of India
[D] Glimpses of World History
93. We need the _____ of the guide before
we plan to make our _____ to the 98. What is the dangerous disease caused
mountain peak. by bacteria in humans and cattle
[A] accent, ascent called?
[B] assent, ascent
³à>åÈ * K¤à[ƒ šÇ¡¹ ¤¸àA¡ìi¡[¹Úà ‡à¹à ÎõÊ¡ [¤šð>A¡
ë¹àKìA¡ A¡ã ¤ºà ÒÚ?
[C] ascent, assent
[A] Little Mother
[D] assent, accent
[B] Measles
94. The adjective form of the word [C] Anthrax
‘VACATE’ is [D] Malaria
[A] vacancy 99. Where is ‘Dudhsagar Waterfall’ in
[B] vacation India?
[C] vacant ®¡à¹ìt¡¹ ‘ƒå‹ÎàK¹ \ºšøšàt¡’ ëA¡à=àÚ "¤[Ñ‚t¡?
[D] vacantly [A] At the border of the Indian States
Goa and Karnataka
95. Find the meaning of the underlined [B] In Karnataka
expression.
[C] In Gujarat
She put the cherry on top of the cake
[D] In Rajasthan
of her success by winning a
scholarship. 100. Where is ‘Nanda Devi Mountain’
[A] adding on perfection to (Second highest mountain in India)?
something which is already ‘>@ƒà 냤㠚¤¢t¡’ ®¡à¹ìt¡¹ [‡t¡ãÚ Î줢àZW¡ š¤¢t¡
perfect
ëA¡à=àÚ "¤[Ñ‚t¡?
[B] enthusiastic about something
[A] Chamoli district
[C] offering a delicious treat [B] Jaipur district
[D] to put final touches on a nearly [C] Srinagar district
complete project [D] Shimla district
AUAT-2024 /102-A 13 [ P.T.O.
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
AUAT-2024 /102-A 14
Page 16
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
AUAT-2024 /102-A 15 [ P.T.O.
Page 17
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
AUAT-2024 /102-A 16 NNN24(119)—81×4
Page 18
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