JEE Main 2025 Brochure

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

VISION

The right candidates joining best institutions will gave India her demographic dividend.

MISSION

To improve equity and quality in education by administering research based valid, reliable, efficient,
transparent, fair and international level assessment. The best subject matter experts, psychometricians
and IT delivery and security professionals will ensure that the current gaps in existing assessment
systems are properly identify and bridge.

CORE VALUES

NTA will create system which will promote teaching (by teachers), learning (by students) and
assessment (by parents and institutions). NTA strongly believes in quality, efficiency, effectiveness,
equity and security of assessment. To practice these values, NTA will constantly engage with its
stakeholders, viz. students, parents, teachers, experts and partner institutions.

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

TABLE OF CONTENTS
S. No. Particulars Page No.

A. List of Abbreviations 1

B. Important Information, Dates at a Glance, Fee Structure & Application 2-5
Procedure

Chapter 1 – Introduction

1.1 About National Testing Agency (NTA) 7

1.2 The objectives of NTA, inter alia, include 7

1.3 About Joint Entrance Examination (Main) - 2025 7-8

Chapter 2 – Examination Scheme

2.1 Mode of Examination 10

2.2 Choice of Medium of Question Papers 10

2.3 Scheme of Examination 11

2.4 Pattern of Examination 11-14

2.4.1 Multiple Choice Questions 14

2.4.2 Numerical Value Questions 15

2.5 Duration of Test 15

2.6 Syllabus of Examination 15

Chapter 3 – Eligibility and Qualification

3.1 Age Criteria 17

3.2 List of Qualifying Examination (QE) 17

3.3 Year of Appearance in Qualifying Examination 17

3.4 State Eligibility 18

Chapter 4 – Reservations

4.1 Reservations 20

4.2 Provisions relating to Persons with Disability (PwD)/ Persons with
20
Benchmark Disability (PwBD)

4.2.1 The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 20

4.2.2 Office Memorandum dated 29 August 2018 20

4.2.3 Office Memorandum dated 10 August 2022 21-22

4.2.4 Scribe and Compensatory Time 22-23

4.3 Reservation Policy of State Government 23

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

Chapter 5 – Conduct of Examination

5.1 Choice of Cities 25

5.2 Admit Card 25-26

5.3 Schedule of Examination 26-27

5.4 Important Instructions for the Candidates 27-28

5.5 Unfair means practices and breach of examination rules 29

5.5.1 Definition 29

5.5.2 Punishment for using unfair means practices 29

5.5.3 Cancellation of Result 30

5.6 Answer Key and Challenges 30

5.6.1 Display of Answer Key for Challenges 30

5.6.2 Display of Question Paper attempted and Recorded Responses 30

5.7 JEE (Main) NTA Score for B.E. / B. Tech, B. Arch, and B. Planning 30

5.7.1 JEE (Main) NTA Score for B.E. / B. Tech, B. Arch, and B. Planning 30

5.7.2 Compilation and display of Result of Paper-1 (B.E. / B. Tech.) of JEE (Main)
30-31
- 2025

5.7.3 Compilation and display of Result of Paper 2A (B. Arch) and Paper-2B (B.
31-32
Planning) of JEE (Main)-2025:

5.7.4 Re-evaluation / Re-checking of Result 32

5.7.5 Use of score of JEE (Main) – 2025 by other Organizations 32

5.8 Admission 33

5.8.1 Eligibility for Admission to NITs, IIITs, and CFTIs participating through the
33
Central Seat Allocation Board (CSAB)

5.8.2 Eligibility for Admission to Other Institutions 34

5.8.3 Seat Allocation Process and Admission Procedure 34

5.8.4 Eligibility Criteria for Indian National Appearing in JEE (Advanced)-2025 34

5.9 Correspondence with NTA 34

5.10 Weeding Out Rules 35

5.11 Legal Jurisdiction 35

5.12 RTI 35

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

S. No. Appendix Particulars Page No.
No.

Procedure for Online Payment of Fees and Helpline for
1 I 36
Payment-Related Queries

2 II The Schedule 37-39

Certificate regarding physical limitation in an examinee to
3 III 40
write

4 IV Letter of undertaking for using own scribe 41

Letter of Undertaking by the person with specified disability
5 V 42
covered under the definition of Section 2 (s) of RPwD Act, 2016

Letter of undertaking by the person having less than 40%
6. VI 43
disability

7 VII List of Examination Cities for JEE (Main) – 2025 44-50

8 VIII Normalization procedure based on Percentile Score 51-55

9 IX Computer Based Test (CBT) 56-60

Replica of Online Application Form of JEE (Main)-2025
10 X 61-75
Examination

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025
LIST OF ABBREVIATIONS

AICTE All India Council for Technical Education
AIU Association of Indian Universities
B. Arch. Bachelor of Architecture
B.E. Bachelor of Engineering
B. Planning Bachelor of Planning
B. Tech. Bachelor of Technology
CSAB Central Seat Allocation Board
CFTI Centrally Funded Technical Institute
CBT Computer Based Test
CoA Council of Architecture
DASA Direct Admission of Students Abroad
EWS Economically Weaker Section
FAQ Frequently Asked Questions
GCE General Certificate Education
GST Goods & Service Tax
GoI Government of India
IIIT Indian Institute of Information Technology
IIT Indian Institute of Technology
JEE (Advanced) Joint Entrance Examination (Advanced)
JEE (Main) Joint Entrance Examination (Main)
JoSAA Joint Seat Allocation Authority
MoE Ministry of Education
NEP National Education Policy
NIC National Informatics Centre
NIOS National Institute of Open Schooling
NIT National Institute of Technology
NTA National Testing Agency
OBC (NCL) Other Backward Class (Non-Creamy Layer)
OCI Overseas Citizen of India
PwBD Person with Benchmark Disability
PwD Person with Disability
QP Question Paper
RPwD Rights of Persons with Disabilities
SC Scheduled Cast
ST Scheduled Tribe
UDID Unique Disability Identification
UFM Unfair Means
IST Indian Standard Time

1

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025
IMPORTANT INFORMATION AND DATES AT A GLANCE
1. Important Dates :
EVENTS DATES
Session 1 (January 2025): JEE (Main) - 2025
Online Submission of Application Form 28.10.2024 to 22.11.2024 up to 09:00 P.M.
Last date for successful transaction of prescribed 22.11.2024 (Up to 11:50 P.M.)
Application Fee
Correction in Particulars of the online Application Will be displayed on the NTA website
Form
City Intimation Slip First week of January 2025 (Tentatively)
Downloading Admit Cards from the NTA website 03 days before the date of the Examination

Dates of Examination Between 22 January to 31 January 2025
Display of Question Paper attempted by the Will be displayed on the NTA website
Candidate and Answer Keys for inviting
challenges
Declaration of Result By 12 February 2025
Session 2 (April 2025): JEE (Main) - 2025
Online Submission of Application Form 31.01.2025 to 24 Feb 2025 (upto 09:00 P.M.)
Last date for successful transaction of prescribed 24.02.2025 (upto 11:50 P.M.)
Application Fee
Correction in Particulars of the online Application Will be displayed on the NTA website
Form
City Intimation Slip Second week of March 2025
Downloading Admit Cards from the NTA website 03 days before date of the Examination
Dates of Examination Between 01April to 08 April 2025 (Tentatively)
Display of Question Paper attempted by the Will be displayed on the NTA website
Candidate and Answer Keys for inviting
challenges
Declaration of Result By 17 April 2025

Duration of Examination for each Session of JEE (Main) – 2025

Paper 1 (B. E/ B. Tech.)
Or
Paper 2A (B. Arch.) 03 Hours
Or
Paper 2B (B. Planning)
B. Arch & B. Planning (Both) 03 Hours 30 Minutes

Timing of Examination for each Session : JEE (Main) – 2025

Duration of Examination First Shift Second Shift

For 03 Hours Paper 09:00 A.M. to 12:00 P.M. (IST) 03:00 P.M. to 06:00 P.M.
(IST)

For 03 Hours 30 Minutes Paper 09:00 A.M. to 12:30 P.M. (IST) 03:00 P.M. to 06:30 P.M.
(IST)

2

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

2. Fee payable for JEE (Main) – 2025 for each Session:
(Through Credit Card/ Debit Card (except Master/ Visa Card)/ Net Banking/ UPI):
Fee payable for JEE (Main) – 2025 (through Type of Centres in Centres Outside
Credit Card/ Debit Card (except Master/ Candidate India (Fee India (Fee in ₹)
Visa Card)/ Net-Banking/ UPI) in ₹)
General Male 1000 5000
Paper 1: B.E./B. Tech Female 800 4000
OR Gen-EWS/ OBC Male 900 4500
Paper 2A: B. Arch (NCL) Female 800 4000
OR SC/ST/ Male 500 2500
Paper 2B: B. Planning PwD/PwBD Female 500 2500
Third Gender 500 3000
Paper 1: B.E./ B. Tech & General/ Gen-
Male 2000 10000
Paper 2A: B. Arch EWS/ OBC Female 1600 8000
OR (NCL)
Paper 1: B.E./B. Tech & SC/ ST/ PwD/Male 1000 5000
Paper 2B: B. Planning PwBD Female 1000 5000
OR
Third Gender 1000 5000
Paper 1: B.E./B. Tech, Paper
2A: B. Arch & Paper 2B:
B. Planning
OR
Paper 2A: B. Arch &
Paper 2B: B. Planning
Processing charges and Goods & Service Taxes (GST) are to be paid by the candidate, as
applicable.
Candidates are requested to fill in the Application Form carefully. No corrections in certain fields,
as notified, will be permitted once the Application Form is submitted.
Note: Multiple Application Forms submitted by a candidate will not be accepted and will lead to the
cancellation of his/her result.
(i) A candidate can apply for Session-1 (January 2025) examination and pay the exam fee
accordingly. The candidates will be given opportunity to apply for Session-2 (April 2025) separately
(using same application number) along with the fee payment, for which separate notification will be
issued.
(ii) If a candidate wishes to apply for Session 2 (April 2025), the candidate can log in and pay the
Examination Fee for Session 2 during that period. If candidate wishes to apply only for Session-2 (April
2025), he can register later, when application form for Session-2 (April 2025) is active.
(iii) The application window for Session 2 will be re-opened as per the details available in the
Information Bulletin and will also be notified separately through a Public Notice.
(iv) The fee can be submitted only online through Net Banking, Credit Card, Debit Card, or UPI
Services. Processing charges and GST as applicable are chargeable from the candidate (in addition to
the examination fee) by the concerned Bank/Payment Gateway Integrator.
(v) The Confirmation Page of the online Application Form for each session will be generated only
after the successful payment of the fee by the Candidate. In case the Confirmation Page is not generated
after payment of the fee, then the candidate may have to approach the concerned Bank/Payment
Gateway (in the helpline numbers and email given in Appendix - I) to ensure the successful payment or
to obtain the refund of duplicate /multiple payments.

Under no circumstances, candidates will be allowed to fill more than one Application Form.
Strict action will be taken, even at a later stage, against such candidates who have filled
more than one Application Form and will be treated as UFM. 3

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

3. Application Procedure: Steps to be followed to apply online:
Step 1: Registration Form:
Register for the Online Application Form and note down the system-generated Application
Number. The candidate should provide the required details while filling the Online Application
Form and he/she is also required to create PASSWORD and choose Security Question and enter
his/her Answer. After successful submission of the personal details, an Application number will
be generated and it will be used to complete the remaining Steps of the Application Form and will
also be required for all future reference/correspondence. The generated application number will
be used/referred for both Sessions of JEE (Main) - 2025. For subsequent logins, the candidate will
be able to login directly with the respective system generated Application Number and created
Password by him/herself.

Step 2: Application Form:
The Candidates can log in with the system-generated Application Number and pre-created
Password for completing the Application Form including filling up of personal details, applying for
the Paper, choosing the Examination Cities, providing the details of Educational Qualifications and
uploading the images and documents (if any).
Upload Scanned Images of Candidate’s Photograph, Signature, Class X or Equivalent
Certificate/Marks-sheet and PwD/PwBD Certificate (wherever applicable).
The recent passport size photograph should be in colour with 80% face (without mask) visible
including ears against white background. Photograph should be named as 'Photograph' and in
JPG/JPEG format (clearly legible) between 10 kb to 300 kb.
Signature file should be named as 'Signature' and in JPG/JPEG format (clearly legible) between
10 kb to 50 kb.

Scanned copy of Class X or Equivalent Certificate/Marks-sheet should be named as ‘Class-X
Certificate’ and should be a pdf between 10 kb to 300 kb (clearly legible).
Scanned copy of PwD/PwBD certificate should be named as 'Disability Certificate' and should be
a pdf between 10 kb to 300 kb (clearly legible).
Note: -The Candidate has to upload only his/ her own photograph, signature, and certificate(s) as
mentioned above (and not of anybody else) in a correct/proper manner, as the facility for
correction will not be given in the future. In case, it is found at any time in the future that the
Candidate has used/uploaded the photograph, signature, and certificate(s) of someone else in
his/her Application Form/Admit Card, or he/she has tampered his/her Admit
Card/Result/Scorecard, these acts of the candidate shall be treated as Unfair Means (UFM)
Practices and he/she shall be proceeded with the actions as contemplated under the provisions of
the Information Bulletin relating to Unfair Means Practices.
Step 3: Fee Payment:
After completing Step 1 and Step 2, the candidates have to pay the requisite examination fees. The
fees can be paid only through online mode using Net Banking, Credit Card, Debit Card and UPI.
Processing charges and GST as applicable are chargeable to the candidates (in addition to the
examination fees) by the concerned Bank/Payment Gateway Integrator.
After successful payment, candidate will be able to print the Confirmation Page. In case the
Confirmation Page is not generated after payment of fee then the transaction is cancelled and the
candidates have to approach the concerned bank for refund of amount. However the candidate
has to make another payment/transaction, in case the Confirmation Page is not generated.

4

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

Important Instruction about PASSWORD:

During online form filling, the candidate will be required to choose PASSWORD and Security
Question and its Answer. The candidate is advised to record/remember his/her password for all
future logins.

For subsequent logins, the candidate will be able to login directly with his/her respective system-
generated Application Number and the chosen Password.

The candidate is advised not to disclose or share his/her password with anybody. Neither NTA
nor NIC will be responsible for the violation or misuse of the password of a candidate.

Candidates can change their passwords after login if desired.

Candidates should remember to log out at the end of their session so that the particulars of the
candidate cannot be tampered with or modified by unauthorized persons.

The Password must be created as per the following policy.

Password must be 8 to 13 characters long.
Password must have at least one Upper case alphabet.
Password must have at least one Lower case alphabet.
Password must have at least one numeric value.
Password must have at least one special character eg.!@#$%^&*-.

How to reset your Password: The following options are available to reset Password

Using Security Question and its Answer you have chosen during Form filling.
Using a verification code sent via text message (SMS) to your Registered Mobile No.
Using a reset link sent via Email to your Registered Email address.

The Application Number printed on the computer-generated Confirmation Page must be
mentioned in all such correspondences. It is therefore essential to note down the application
number printed on the Confirmation Page.

5

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

CHAPTER – 1
INTRODUCTION

6

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

1.1 About National Testing Agency (NTA)

The Ministry of Education (MoE), Government of India (GoI) established the National Testing
Agency (NTA) as an independent, autonomous, and self-sustained premier testing organization
under the Societies Registration Act (1860) for conducting efficient, transparent and international
standardized tests in order to assess the competency of candidates for admission to premier higher
education institutions with a mission to improve equity and quality in education by developing and
administering research-based valid, reliable, efficient, transparent, fair and international level
assessments.

NTA has created a system that is promoting teaching (by teachers), learning (by students) and
assessment (by parents and institutions). NTA strongly believes in the quality, efficiency,
effectiveness, equity, and security of assessments. To practice these values, NTA is constantly
engaging with its stakeholders, viz. students, parents, teachers, experts and partner institutions.

1.2 The objectives of NTA, inter alia, include:

1. To conduct efficient, transparent and international standardized tests in order to assess
the competency of candidates for admission.
2. To undertake research on educational, professional and testing systems to identify gaps in
the knowledge systems and take steps for bridging them.
3. To produce and disseminate information and research on education and professional
development standards.

The Department of Higher Education, Ministry of Education, Government of India has entrusted the
responsibility of conducting the Joint Entrance Examination (Main) to the NTA since 2019 onwards.

1.3 About Joint Entrance Examination (Main) - 2025

The Joint Entrance Examination, JEE (Main) comprises of two papers. Paper 1 is conducted for
admission to Undergraduate Engineering Programs (B.E. / B. Tech.) at NITs, IIITs, other Centrally
Funded Technical Institutions (CFTIs) and Institutions / Universities funded / recognized by
participating State Governments. JEE (Main) is also an eligibility test for JEE (Advanced), which is
conducted for admission to IITs. Paper 2 is conducted for admission to B. Arch and B. Planning
courses in the country.

The JEE (Main) - 2025 is being conducted in 02 (two) sessions for admissions in the next academic
session. The candidates will thus benefit in the following ways:

 This will benefit the candidates by giving them two opportunities to improve their scores in
the examination if they are not able to give their best in the first attempt.
 In the first attempt, the candidates will get a first-hand experience of taking an examination
and will know their mistakes which they can improve while attempting for the second time.
This will reduce the chances of dropping a year and the candidates would not have to waste
an entire year.
 If anyone misses the examination due to reasons beyond control (such as the Board
examination), then candidate will not have to wait for one entire year.
 A candidate need not appear in both Sessions, if he/she so desires. However, a candidate
appears in more than one Session then his/her best of the JEE (Main) - 2025 NTA Scores will
be considered for preparation of the Merit List/ Ranking.

7

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

Note – JEE (Main) - 2025 Session 1 for Paper 1 (B.E. / B. Tech.) will be held between
22 January and 31 January 2025 and Session 2 will be held between 01 April and 08 April 2025
tentatively. This is being done to ensure that the JEE (Main) - 2025 does not interfere with the Board
examinations, which may be held at different times across the States/UTs. Paper 2A and Paper 2B (B.
Arch and B. Planning) are also being held twice a year (January and April 2025).

***********

8

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

CHAPTER – 2
EXAMINATION SCHEME

9

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

2.1 Mode of Examination

The JEE (Main) - 2025 is being conducted in the following modes:

a) Paper 1 (B.E. /B. Tech.) in “Computer Based Test (CBT)” mode.
b) Paper 2A (B. Arch): Mathematics (Part-I) and Aptitude Test (Part-II) in “Computer Based Test
(CBT)” mode and Drawing Test (Part-III) in pen and paper (offline) mode, to be attempted on
drawing sheet of A4 size.
c) Paper 2B (B. Planning): Mathematics (Part-I), Aptitude Test (Part-II), and Planning-Based
Questions (Part-III) in Computer-Based Test (CBT) mode.

2.2 Choice of Medium of Question Papers

Drawing from the National Education Policy (NEP), the JEE (Main) - 2025 will be conducted in
thirteen languages i.e. English, Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada Malayalam, Marathi,
Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu and Urdu the details are given below:

Sr. No. Language Examination Centres
1 English All Examination Centres
2 English and Hindi All Examination Centres in India
3 English and Assamese Examination Centres in Assam
4 Examination Centres in West Bengal, Tripura, and
English and Bengali
Andaman & Nicobar Islands
5 Examination Centres in Gujarat, Daman & Diu, Dadra &
English and Gujarati
Nagar Haveli
6 English and Kannada Examination Centres in Karnataka
7 English and Malayalam Examination Centres in Kerala and Lakshadweep
8 English and Marathi Examination Centres in Maharashtra
9 English and Odia Examination Centres in Odisha
10 Examination Centres in Punjab, Chandigarh, and Delhi/New
English and Punjabi Delhi (including Faridabad, Ghaziabad, Gurugram, Meerut,
Noida/ Greater Noida)
11 Examination Centres in Tamil Nadu, Puducherry, and
English and Tamil
Andaman & Nicobar Islands
12 English and Telugu Examination Centres in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana
13 English and Urdu All Examination Centres in India

Note – 2.1: The option of language for Question Paper should be exercised carefully while filling up
the online Application Form and it cannot be changed at a later stage. Candidates while attempting
the QP must choose the same medium as opted while registering in the Application form.
Note – 2.2: The Question Paper will be in both English and the language opted by the candidate.
English version will prevail in the event of any difference of opinion.

10

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

2.3 Scheme of Examination
Subject combinations for each paper, type of questions in each paper and mode of
examination are given in the table below:

PAPER SUBJECTS TYPE OF QUESTIONS MODE OF EXAMINATION
Objective Type - Multiple
Choice Questions (MCQs)
Paper 1: Mathematics, and Questions for which
“Computer Based Test (CBT)” mode
B.E. / B. Physics and the answer is a numerical
only
Tech. Chemistry value, with equal
weightage to Mathematics,
Physics and Chemistry
Objective Type - Multiple
Choice Questions (MCQs)
Part-I:
and Questions for which
Mathematics “Computer Based Test (CBT)” mode
the answer is a numerical
only
Paper 2A: value
B. Arch Part-II: Objective Type - Multiple
Aptitude Test Choice Questions (MCQs)
“Pen and Paper Based” (offline)
Part-III: Drawing Questions to test drawing
mode to be attempted on a
Test aptitude
Drawing sheet of A4 size.
Objective Type - Multiple
Choice Questions (MCQs)
Part-I:
and Questions for which
Mathematics
the answer is a numerical
value
Paper 2B: “Computer Based Test (CBT)” mode
Objective Type -
B. Planning Part-II: only
Multiple
Aptitude Test
Choice Questions (MCQs)
Part-III: Objective Type -
Planning-Based Multiple Choice
Questions Questions (MCQs)

2.4 Pattern of Examination

Paper 1: B.E./ B. Tech. in Computer Based Test (CBT) mode:
Subject-wise Subject Section A Section B Marks
distribution of Mathematics 20 05 100
1 Questions, Total Physics 20 05 100
Number of Questions, Chemistry 20 05 100
and Marks Total 75 300
Each Subject will have two sections. Section A will be of Multiple-Choice Questions (MCQs) and
Section B will contain Questions whose answers are to be filled in as a numerical value. There
will be negative marking for incorrect answer in Section A and Section B. For each question in
Section B, a candidate has to enter the correct integer value of the answer using the mouse and
the on- screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer. For Section
B, the answer should be rounded off to the nearest integer.

11

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025
Correct Answer or the Most
Four marks (+4)
Appropriate Answer
2. Marking Scheme for MCQs
Incorrect Answer Minus one mark (-1)
Unanswered / Marked for Review No mark (0)
Correct Answer Four marks (+4)
Marking Scheme for
3. questions for which the Incorrect Answer Minus one mark (-1)
answer is a Numerical value Unanswered / Marked for Review No mark (0)
Conversion of the raw score in Mathematics, Physics and
Chemistry and total into NTA scores.
Method of determining
4.
merit
Overall merit shall be prepared by merging NTA scores of all
shifts of all days.
Tie between candidates obtaining same Total NTA scores will
be resolved in the following order:
1. NTA score in Mathematics, followed by;
2. NTA score in Physics, followed by;
3. NTA score in Chemistry, followed by;
4. Candidate with less proportion of a number of attempted
incorrect answers and correct answers in all the subjects
in the Test, followed by;
5. Candidate with less proportion of a number of attempted
5. Method of resolving ties incorrect answers and correct answers in Mathematics in
the Test, followed by;
6. Candidate with less proportion of a number of attempted
incorrect answers and correct answers in Physics in the
Test, followed by;
7. Candidate with less proportion of a number of attempted
incorrect answers and correct answers in Chemistry in the
Test followed by;
8. If there is a tie even after this, candidates will be assigned
the same rank.
Paper 2A (B. Arch): Mathematics (Part-I) and Aptitude Test (Part-II) in Computer Based Test
(CBT) mode and Drawing Test (Part-III) in Pen and Paper Based (offline) mode, to be attempted on
a drawing sheet of A4 size.
Subject Number of Questions Marks
Subject-wise distribution Part I: Mathematics 20 (Section A) and
100
of Questions, Total 05 (Section B)
Number of Questions, and Part II: Aptitude test 50 200
Marks Part III: Drawing Test 02 100
1. Total 77 400
20 questions will be MCQs and 05 (five) questions will have answers to be filled as a numerical
value. There will be negative marking for both Section A and Section B (except Drawing Test).
For each question in Section B, a candidate has to enter the correct integer value of the answer
using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the
answer. The answer should be rounded off to the nearest integer.

Correct Answer or the most
Four marks (+4)
appropriate Answer
2. Marking Scheme for MCQs
Incorrect Answer/Multiple Answer Minus one mark (-1)
Unanswered /Marked for Review No mark (0)
3. (a) Marking Scheme for Correct Answer or the most Four marks (+4)
12

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025
questions for which the appropriate Answer
answer is a Numerical Incorrect Answer Minus one mark (-1)
value Unanswered / Marked for Review No mark (0)
(b)Marking Scheme for
Two questions are to be evaluated out of 100 marks.
Drawing Test (Part III)
Conversion of the raw score in Mathematics, Aptitude Test,
Drawing Test, and total into NTA Scores.
Method of determining
4.
merit
Overall merit shall be prepared by merging the NTA Scores of
both shifts of all days.
The tie between candidates obtaining the same Total NTA
scores will be resolved in the following manner:
1. NTA score in Mathematics, followed by;
2. NTA score in Aptitude Test, followed by;
3. NTA score in Drawing Test, followed by;
4. Candidate with less proportion of a number of attempted
incorrect answers and correct answers in all the subjects in
the Test, followed by;
5. Method of resolving ties 5. Candidate with less proportion of a number of attempted
incorrect answers and correct answers in Mathematics
(Part-I) in the Test, followed by;
6. Candidate with less proportion of a number of attempted
incorrect answers and correct answers in Aptitude Test
(Part-II) in the Test followed by;
7. If there is a tie even after this, candidates will be assigned
the same rank.

Paper 2B (B. Planning) Part-I: Mathematics, Part-II: Aptitude Test, and Part-III: Planning- Based
Questions in Computer-Based Test (CBT) mode.
1. Subject-wise distribution of Subject Number of Questions Marks
Questions, Total Part-I: Mathematics 20 (Section A) and 100
05 (Section B)
Number of Questions, and Part-II: Aptitude Test 50 200
Marks Part-III: Planning 25 100
Total 100 400
20 questions will be MCQs and 05 (five) questions will have answers to be filled as a numerical
value. There will be negative marking for both Section A and Section B (except Drawing Test).
For each question in Section B, enter the correct integer value of the answer using the mouse and
the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer. The
answer should be rounded off to the nearest integer.

Correct Answer or the most
appropriate Answer Four marks (+4)
2. Marking Scheme for MCQs
Incorrect Answer/Multiple Answer Minus one mark (-1)
Unanswered /Marked for Review No mark (0)
Correct Answer or the most
Marking Scheme for appropriate Answer Four marks (+4)
3. questions for which the
Incorrect Answer Minus one mark (-1)
answer is a Numerical value
Unanswered / Marked for Review No mark (0)

13

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025
Conversion of the raw score in Mathematics, Aptitude Test,
Planning Based Test, and total into NTA Scores.
Method of determining
4.
merit
Overall merit shall be prepared by merging NTA Scores of all
shifts of all days.

Tie between candidates obtaining equal Total NTA scores
in B. Planning will be resolved in the following manner:
1. NTA score in Mathematics, followed by;
2. NTA score in Aptitude Test, followed by;
3. NTA score in Planning Based Questions, followed by;
4. Candidate with less proportion of a number of attempted
incorrect answers and correct answers in all the subjects
in the Test, followed by;
Method of resolving ties 5. Candidate with less proportion of a number of attempted
5. incorrect answers and correct answers in Mathematics
(Part- I) in the Test, followed by;
6. Candidate with less proportion of a number of attempted
incorrect answers and correct answers in Aptitude Test
(Part- II) in the Test, followed by;
7. Candidate with less proportion of a number of attempted
incorrect answers and correct answers in Planning Based
Questions (Part-III) in the Test followed by;
8. If there is a tie even after this, candidates will be assigned
the same rank.

2.4.1 Multiple Choice Questions

To answer a question, the candidates need to choose one option corresponding to the correct
answer or the most appropriate answer. However, if any anomaly or discrepancy is found after the
process of challenges of the key verification, it shall be addressed in the following manner:

1. Correct answer or the most appropriate answer: Four marks (+4)
2. Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (-1)
3. Unanswered/Marked for Review will be given no mark (0)
4. If more than one option is found to be correct then Four marks (+4) will be awarded to only
those who have marked any of the correct options
5. If all options are found to be correct then Four marks (+4) will be awarded to all those who
have attempted the question

Although sufficient care will be taken for the correctness of questions, in the event that a
question(s) needs to be dropped, full marks for that question(s) will be awarded to ALL candidates.

14

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

2.4.2 Numerical Value Questions

There will be negative marking for Section B. However, if any anomaly or discrepancy is found
after the process of challenges of the key verification, it shall be addressed in the following manner:
1. Correct Answer: Four marks (+4)
2. Incorrect Answer: Minus one mark (-1)
3. Unanswered/Marked for Review: No mark (0).
4. If a question is found to be incorrect or the Question is dropped then Four marks (+4) will be
awarded to all Candidates. The reason could be due to human error or technical error.
5. Candidates are advised to do the calculations with the constants given (if any) in the questions.
The answer should be rounded off to the nearest integer.

2.5 Duration of Test

The total time duration for Paper 1 (B.E. / B. Tech.) is given in the table below:
Total Time Duration
*For PwD /PwBD
Paper Subjects For Non-PwD/PwBD
Candidates (who are
Candidates
eligible for scribe)
Paper 1 (B.E. / B. Physics, Chemistry, and
03 hours 04 hours
Tech.) Mathematics

Total time duration for Paper 2A (B. Arch), Paper 2B (B. Planning) and Paper 2A (B. Arch) & Paper
2B (B. Planning) both are given in the table below:

Total Time Duration
Paper Subjects For Non-PwD/PwBD *For PwD /PwBD
Candidates Candidates (who
are eligible for
scribe)
Mathematics, Aptitude Test,
Paper 2A (B. Arch)
and Drawing Test 03 hours 04 hours
Mathematics, Aptitude Test,
Paper 2B (B. Planning) and Planning Based
03 hours 04 hours
Questions
Mathematics, Aptitude Test,
Paper 2A (B. Arch) and Drawing Test, and Planning 03 hours 30 minutes
Paper 2B (B. Planning) Based 04 hours 10 minutes
Questions

Note – 2.3: *Compensatory time for PwD/PwBD Candidates of 20 minutes for a one-hour
examination will be given to those who are eligible for Scribe.

2.6 Syllabus of Examination

The detailed syllabus for JEE (Main) is available on the website: https://jeemain.nta.nic.in/

***********

15

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

CHAPTER – 3
ELIGIBILITY AND QUALIFICATION

16

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

3.1 Age Criteria

For appearing in the JEE (Main) - 2025, there is no age limit for the candidates. The candidates who
have passed the class XII / equivalent examination in 2023, 2024 or appearing in 2025
irrespective of their age can appear in JEE (Main) - 2025 examination. However, the candidates may
be required to fulfill the age criteria of the Institute(s) to which they are desirous of taking
admission.

3.2 List of Qualifying Examinations (QE)

i. The final examination of the 10+2 system, conducted by any recognized Central/ State
Board, such as the Central Board of Secondary Education, New Delhi; Council for the Indian
School Certificate Examinations, New Delhi; etc.
ii. Intermediate or two-year Pre-University examination conducted by a recognized Board/
University.
iii. Final examination of the two-year course of the Joint Services Wing of the National Defense
Academy
iv. Senior Secondary School Examination conducted by the National Institute of Open Schooling
with a minimum of five subjects.
v. Any Public School/ Board/ University examination in India or any foreign country is
recognized as equivalent to the 10+2 system by the Association of Indian Universities (AIU).
vi. Higher Secondary Certificate Vocational Examination.
vii. A Diploma recognized by AICTE or a State board of technical education of at least 3
years duration.
viii. General Certificate Education (GCE) examination (London/Cambridge/Sri Lanka) at the
Advanced (A) level.
ix. High School Certificate Examination of the Cambridge University or International
Baccalaureate Diploma of the International Baccalaureate Office, Geneva.
x. Candidates who have completed the Class XII (or equivalent) examination outside India or
from a Board not specified above should produce a certificate from the Association of Indian
Universities (AIU) to the effect that the examination they have passed is equivalent to the
Class XII Examination.
xi. In case the Class XII Examination is not a public examination, the candidate must have passed
at least one public (Board or Pre-University) examination earlier.

3.3 Year of Appearance in Qualifying Examination

Candidates those who have passed the Class XII / equivalent examination in 2023, 2024 or those
who are appearing in the Class XII / equivalent examination in 2025, are eligible to appear in JEE
(Main) - 2025.

Candidates who passed the Class XII / equivalent examination in 2022 or before are not eligible to
appear in JEE (Main) - 2025.

17

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

3.4 State of Eligibility

State code of eligibility means the code of the State from where the candidate has passed the Class
XII (or equivalent) qualifying examination by virtue of which the candidate becomes eligible to
appear in JEE (Main) - 2025. It is important to note that the State code of eligibility does NOT
depend upon the native place or the place of residence of the candidate. For example, if a candidate
appears for the Class XII (or equivalent) qualifying examination from an Institution situated in New
Delhi and is a resident of Noida, Uttar Pradesh, then the candidate’s State code of eligibility will
be Delhi and NOT Uttar Pradesh.

If a candidate has passed the Class XII (or equivalent) qualifying examination from one State but
appeared for improvement from another State, the candidate’s State code of eligibility will be from
where the candidate first passed the Class XII (or equivalent) examination and NOT the State from
where the candidate has appeared for improvement.

Candidates passed / appearing for Class XII from NIOS should select the State of Eligibility
according to the State in which the study Centre is located.

For Indian nationals passing the Class XII (or equivalent) examination from Nepal/Bhutan, the
State code of eligibility will be determined based on a permanent address in India as given in the
passport of the candidate.

The State code of eligibility for OCI passing the Class XII (or equivalent) examination in India is at
par with Indian nationals. However, OCI passing the Class XII (or equivalent) examination from an
institution abroad are eligible for Other State quota seats or All India quota seats (but NOT for
Home State quota seats) in all NITs, IIITs and Other-CFTIs.

***********

18

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

CHAPTER – 4
RESERVATIONS

19

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

4.1 Reservations

Indian nationals belonging to certain categories are admitted under the seats reserved for them in
accordance with the rules prescribed by the Government of India. The categories and the extent of
reservation are as follows:

1. General category belonging to Economically Weaker Section (GEN- EWS) – 10% of seats in
every course. The benefit of reservation will be given only to those General category
candidates who satisfy the conditions given in the OM No. 20013/01/2018-BC-II dated 17
January 2019, issued by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. The criteria for
GEN-EWS will be as per the prevailing norms and/or notifications of the Government of India.
2. Other Backward Classes belonging to the Non-Creamy Layer (OBC- NCL) – 27% of seats in
every course.
a) OBCs should be listed in the current updated central list of OBCs (http://www.ncbc.ac.in).
b) OBCs present in the State list but not covered in the central list of OBCs (as per the list
in http://www.ncbc.ac.in) are NOT eligible to claim the reservation.
c) The criteria for OBC-NCL will be as per the notification of the Government of India.
d) Candidates belonging to the creamy layer of OBC are NOT entitled to reservation. Such
candidates are treated as belonging to the general (GEN), i.e. unreserved category, and
they will be eligible only for the OPEN seats – the seats for which all candidates are
eligible.
3. Scheduled Caste (SC) – 15% of seats in every course.
4. Scheduled Tribe (ST) – 7.5% of seats in every course.
5. Persons with Disability/ Persons with Benchmark Disability (PwD/PwBD) – 5% seats in each
of the GENERAL, GEN-EWS, OBC- NCL, SC and ST category seats.

4.2 Provisions relating to Persons with Disability (PwD)/ Persons with Benchmark
Disability (PwBD):

4.2.1 The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016:

The Gazette of India, Extraordinary Part-II Section 1, Ministry of Law And Justice (Legislative
Department) New Delhi dated 28 December 2016 on “The Rights of Persons With Disabilities Act,
2016. The relevant paragraphs of the above Gazette Notification for consideration are as under: -

Chapter 1.

Para 2 (r) “person with benchmark disability” means a person with not less than forty percent of a
specified disability where specified disability has not been defined in measurable terms and
includes a person with disability where specified disability has been defined in measurable terms,
as certified by the certifying authority;

Para 2 (s) “person with disability” means a person with long term physical, mental, intellectual or
sensory impairment which, in interaction with barriers, hinders his full and effective participation
in society equally with others;

Para 2 (zc) “specified disability” means the disabilities as specified in the Schedule; (Appendix - II)

20

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

4.2.2 Office Memorandum dated 29 August 2018:

Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment, Govt. of India, Office Memorandum No. F. No. 34-
02/2015-DD-III dated 29 August 2018 for conducting written examination for persons with
specified disabilities covered under the definition of Section 2(r) of the RPwD Act, 2016. The
relevant paragraphs of the above Office Memorandum for consideration are as under : -

Para IV. The facility of Scribe/Reader/Lab Assistant should be allowed to any person with
benchmark disability as defined under section 2(r) of the RPwD Act, 2016 and has limitation in
writing including that of speed if so desired by him/her.

In case of persons with benchmark disabilities in the category of blindness, locomotor disability
(both arm affected-BA) and cerebral palsy, the facility of scribe/reader/lab assistant shall be given,
if so desired by the person.

In case of other category of persons with benchmark disabilities, the provision of
scribe/reader/lab assistant can be allowed on production of a certificate to the effect that person
concerned has physical limitation to write, and scribe is essential to write examination on his
behalf, from the Chief Medical Officer/Civil Surgeon/Medical Superintendent of a Government
health care institution as per proforma at Appendix - III.

In case the candidate is allowed to bring his own scribe, the qualification of the scribe should be
one step below the qualification of the candidate taking examination. The person opting for own scribe
should submit details of the own scribe as per proforma at Appendix-IV.

4.2.3 Office Memorandum dated 10 August 2022:

Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment, Govt. of India, Office Memorandum No F. No. 29-
6/2019-DD-III dated 10 August 2022 for conducting written examination for persons with
specified disabilities covered under the definition of Section 2(s) of the RPwD Act, 2016 but not
covered under the definition of Section 2(r) of the said Act, i.e. person having less than 40%
disability and having difficulty in writing. The relevant paragraphs of the above Office
Memorandum for consideration are as under: -

Para 3 (b). The facility of scribe and/or compensatory time shall be granted solely to those
having difficulty in writing subject to production of a certificate to the effect that person concerned
has limitation to write and that scribe is essential to write examination on his/her behalf from the
competent medical authority of a Government healthcare institution as per proforma at
Appendix-V.

Para 3 (c). The medical authority for the purpose of certification as mentioned above should be a
multi-member authority comprising the following: -

i. Chief Medical officer/Civil Surgeon /Chief District Medical Officer, Chairperson
ii. Orthopaedic/PMR specialist
iii. Neurologist, if available*
iv. Clinical Psychologist/Rehabilitation Psychologist/ Psychiatrist/Special Educator
v. Occupational therapist, if available*
vi. Any other expert based on the condition of the candidate as may be nominated by the
Chairperson.

21

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

(* the Chief Medical Officer/Civil Surgeon/Chief District Medical Officer may make full efforts for
inclusion of neurologists, occupational therapist from the nearest District or the Medical
College/Institute, if the same is not available in the District)”

The candidate should fill up the details of scribe as per undertaking proforma at Appendix-VI.

4.2.4 Scribe and Compensatory Time

1. The candidate should have the discretion of opting for his own scribe / reader / lab assistant
or request the Examination Body for the same. The examining body may also identify the
scribe / reader / lab assistant to make panels at the District / Division / State level as per the
requirements of the examination. In such instances the candidates should be allowed to meet
the scribe two days before the examinations so that the candidates get a chance to check and
verify whether the scribe is suitable or not.

2. The word “extra time or additional time” that is being currently used should be changed to
“compensatory time” and the same should not be less than 20 minutes per hour of examination
for persons who are allowed use of scribe / reader / lab assistant. All the candidates with
benchmark disabilities who are eligible for availing the facility of scribe in terms of guidelines
vide para IV of Para 2.2.2 above may be allowed additional time of minimum of one hour for
examination of 3 hours duration whether they use the facility of scribe or not. In case the
duration of the examination is less than an hour, then the duration of additional time should
be allowed on pro-rata basis. Additional time should not be less than 5 minutes and should be
in the multiple of 5”.

Note – Both the guidelines i.e. dated 29 August 2018 (for PwBDs) and dated 10 August 2022
(for PwDs) have other important aspects such as allowing use of assistive devices, proper
seating arrangement, accessibility of examination centres etc. which will be followed.

The scribe will help the Candidate in reading the questions and / or keying in the answers as per
the directions of the Candidate. A scribe will NEITHER explain the questions NOR suggest any
solution to the Candidate.

It is to be noted that the Scribe will be provided by the National Testing Agency (NTA), if requested
by the Candidate.

If it is found at any stage that a candidate has availed the services of a scribe and/or availed the
compensatory time but does not possess the extent of disability that warrants the use of a scribe
and/or grant of compensatory time, the candidate will be excluded from the process of evaluation,
ranking, counselling and admission. In case such a candidate has already been admitted to any
Institution, the admission of the candidate will be cancelled.

22

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

Physical Disability certificate (Unique Disability Identification (UDID)) issued by the notified
medical authority needs to be uploaded in the Online Application Form of JEE (Main) – 2025.

Note – 4.1: The NTA does not guarantee any change in the category or sub-category (PwD/PwBD
status) after the submission of the Online Application Form, and in any case, no change will be
entertained by NTA after the declaration of NTA Score for JEE (Main) - 2025. The category/sub-
category (PwD/PwBD status) entered in the JEE (Main) Database by the candidate will be used for
the JEE (Advanced). Therefore, the candidates are advised to fill in the category/sub-category
column very carefully.

Note – 4.2: The extent of “specified disability” in a person shall be assessed in accordance with the
“Guidelines for the purpose of assessing the extent of specified disability in a person included under
the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016.

Note – 4.3: Candidates must note that the benefit of reservation will be given to them subject to
verification of documents. If it is discovered at any stage that a candidate has used a
false/fake/incorrect document or has furnished false, incorrect or incomplete information, in
order to avail the benefit of reservation, then such a candidate shall be excluded from all admission
processes. In case such a candidate has already been given admission, the admission shall stand
cancelled.

4.3 Reservation Policy of State Government

In the case of the Institutes run/aided/recognized by State Governments, the reservation policy of
the respective State Governments shall be applicable

Note – 4.4: The benefit of reservation for admission to NITs/ IIITs and CFTIs shall be given only to
those classes/castes/tribes which are in the respective Central List published by the Government
of India from time to time.

Note – 4.5: The benefit of reservation will be given only to those castes and tribes that are
mentioned in the respective central list of corresponding states published by the Government of
India (websites: http://socialjustice.nic.in and https://ncst.nic.in).

***********

23

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

CHAPTER – 5
CONDUCT OF EXAMINATION

24

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

5.1 Choice of Cities

The Cities where the JEE (Main) – 2025 Session 1 will be conducted are given in Appendix -VII.
While applying, candidates have to select any four cities of their choice. Efforts will be made to
allot the city of examination to the candidates in order of choice opted by them in their online
Application Form. However, due to administrative/logistic reasons, a different city can be allotted.

In case, there are very few candidates from a City, the NTA reserves the right to merge one, two or
more cities.

The decision of the NTA regarding the allotment of the City/Centre shall be final. No further
correspondence or request shall be entertained in such a case.

While filling up the Online Application Form, candidates should select four Convenient Cities from
Appendix - VII as their Choice of Cities for the exam Centre in order of their priority. Choice of
Centre Cities will be limited to the State of Permanent Address or State of Present Address only.

In case of foreign candidates out of four choices of city, the candidate has to select at least
one convenient city of India as their Choice of Cities from Appendix -VII for the exam Centre
in order of their priority.

For convenience, the candidates may select their own city or neighbouring cities in their State of
Residence only and not far away cities in other States. NTA will not be responsible for any
inconvenience due to the incorrect selection of cities by the candidates.

In case, the number of candidates opting for a city as a Centre with a regional language is less than
a certain minimum, candidates may be allotted a Centre in another city irrespective of the city opted
by the candidates for appearing in the examination.

Though every effort will be made to allot a Centre in one of the cities selected by the candidate, the
NTA reserves the right to allot a Centre in a city other than the candidate’s choice.

Allotment of Centres will be done mostly in one of the preferred cities of the candidates and there
will be no human intervention.

Note – 5.1: All efforts will be made by NTA to consider the comfort and convenience of candidates,
including PwD/ PwBD Candidates while allotting Centres.

5.2 Admit Card

The e-Admit Card will be issued provisionally to the candidates through the NTA website:
https://jeemain.nta.nic.in/, subject to the fulfillment of the eligibility conditions and receipt of the
prescribed application fee by NTA.

The candidate has to download the Admit Card from the NTA website. The candidate will appear
in the examination at the given Centre on the date and shift/timing as indicated in his/her e-Admit
Card.

No candidate will be allowed to appear at the examination Centre, on the date and shift/time other
than that allotted to him/ her in his/ her Admit Card.

25

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

In case a candidate is unable to download his/ her Admit Card from the website, he/ she should
approach the NTA Help Line Number: 011-40759000 between 10.00 A.M. to 05.00 P.M.

The candidates are advised to read the instructions on the Admit Card carefully and strictly follow
them during the examination.

In case of any discrepancy in the particulars of the candidate or his/her photograph and signature
shown in the e-Admit Card and Confirmation Page, the candidate may immediately approach the
NTA Help Line from 10:00 A.M. to 05:00 P.M. In such a case, the candidate would appear in the
examination with the already downloaded Admit Card. However, NTA will take necessary action to
make corrections in the record later.

Note – 5.2:

a. The Candidates may note that Admit Cards will not be sent by post.
b. In no case, the duplicate Admit Card for Joint Entrance Examination (Main) - 2025
would be issued at the Examination Centres.
c. The candidates must not mutilate the Admit Card or change any entry made therein. In
case any change or tampering of Admit Card is noticed, it will be considered as UFM.
d. Candidates are advised to preserve their Admit Cards in good condition for future
reference.
e. No Admit Card shall be issued to the candidates whose applications are found to be
incomplete for any reasons (including indistinct/ doubtful photographs/unsigned
Applications) or who do not fulfill the eligibility criteria for the examination.
f. Issue of Admit Cards, however, shall not necessarily mean acceptance of eligibility which
shall be further scrutinized at subsequent stages of the admission process.

5.3 Schedule of Examination

Session 1: Between 22 January 2025 and 31 January 2025
Session 2: Between 01 April 2025 and 08 April 2025
Dates of Examination
(Exact date, shift, and city of examination for Paper 1: B.E./B. Tech and
Paper 2A: B. Arch and Paper 2B: B. Planning will be made available to
the Candidates on their Admit Cards)
Paper 1: B.E. / B. Tech “Computer Based Test (CBT)” mode only
Part-I: Mathematics and
Part-II: Aptitude Test in Computer Based Test
Paper 2A: B.Arch. (CBT) mode only
Part-III: Drawing Test in “Pen and Paper”
Mode of Examination
(offline) mode, to be attempted on the Drawing
sheet of A4 size.
Part-I: Mathematics
Part-II: Aptitude Test, and Part-III: Planning
Paper 2B: B. Planning
Based MCQs in “Computer Based Test (CBT)”
mode only

26

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

Duration of
First Shift Second Shift
Examination
3 Hours (Paper 1, 2A, 09.00 A.M. to 12.00 03.00 P.M. to 06.00 P.M.
Timing of Examination
2B) Noon (IST) (IST)
3 Hours 30 Minutes 09.00 A.M. to 12.30 03.00 P.M. to 06.30 P.M.
(Paper 2A & 2B) P.M. (IST) (IST)
Entry in the Examination
Centre/ Hall/ Room,
frisking, biometric
registration/ record of
manual attendance by
Invigilator, document 07.00 A.M. to 08.30 A.M. 01.00 P.M. to 02.30 P.M.
verification/ cross-
checking of Admit Card,
signature, and photo
match to be completed
by Invigilator, etc.
Instructions by the
08.30 A.M. to 08.50 A.M. 02.30 P.M. to 02.50 P.M.
Invigilator(s)
Candidates log in to
08.50 A.M. 02.50 P.M.
read instructions
Test Commences 09.00 A.M. 03.00 P.M.
Note – 5.3: *Compensatory time for PwD/PwBD Candidates of 20 minutes for a one-hour examination
will be given to those who are eligible for Scribe.

5.4 Important Instructions for the Candidates

1. Candidates are advised to report at the Examination Center well on time i.e. 02 hours before
the commencement of the examination.
2. Candidates should take their seats immediately after the opening of the Examination Hall. If the
candidates do not report on time due to any reason i.e. traffic jam, train/bus delay, etc., they
are likely to miss some of the important instructions to be announced in the Examination
Rooms/ Halls. The NTA shall not be responsible for any delay of the candidate to reach the
examination Centre.
3. The candidate must show, on-demand, the Admit Card downloaded/ printed from the NTA
website for admission in the examination room/ hall. The Test Centre Staff on duty is
authorized to verify the identity of candidates and may take steps to verify and confirm the
identity credentials. Candidates are requested to extend their full cooperation. Candidates who
do not possess valid Admit Cards and authorized Photo IDs shall not be permitted to take the
examination under any circumstances by the Centre Superintendent.
4. A seat indicating Roll Number will be allotted to each candidate. Candidates should find and sit
in their allocated seats only. In case a candidate ventures to change his/her seat and does not
sit on the allotted seat, will face cancellation of candidature. No plea would be entertained in
this regard.
5. The candidate should ensure that the Question Paper available on the computer is as per
candidate opted subject indicated in the Admit Card. In case, the subject of the Question
Paper is other than candidate opted subject, the same may be brought to the notice of the
Invigilator concerned.
6. The candidates may approach the Centre Superintendent/Invigilator in the room for any
technical assistance, first aid emergency, or any other information during the course of the
examination.

27

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

7. For any queries or issues regarding the Computer Based Test, the candidates may contact on
Helpline Numbers available on the Joint Entrance Examination (Main) website.
8. In case a candidate, by furnishing false information, appears in more than one shift/date, his /
her candidature will be cancelled and his / her result will not be declared.
9. For those who are unable to appear on the scheduled date of the test for any reason, a re-test
shall not be held by the NTA under any circumstances.
10. All Candidates shall ensure that the information (like his/her name, mother’s name, father’s
name, gender, date of birth, category, PwD status, mobile number, e-mail address, photograph,
and signature, choice of cities for examination Centre, etc.) provided by them in their online
Application Form is correct. Candidates are advised to exercise the utmost care in filling up the
correct details in the Online Application Form. Any request for change in the particulars and
uploaded scanned images at any stage will not be considered by NTA under any circumstances.
NTA will not entertain the corrections sent by the candidate through Post/Fax/WhatsApp/E-
mail/by Hand.
11. Candidates are NOT allowed to carry Instruments, Geometry or Pencil box, Handbag, Purse, any
kind of Paper/ Stationery/ Textual material (printed or written material), Eatables and Water
(loose or packed), Mobile Phone/ Earphone/ Microphone/ Pager, Calculator, DocuPen, Slide
Rules, Log Tables, Camera, Tape Recorder, Electronic Watches with facilities of calculator, any
metallic item or electronic gadgets/ devices in the Examination Hall/Room. 4. Candidates are
requested to retain a copy of the Confirmation Page, Admit Card, and Scorecard of the JEE
(Main) – 2025 as the same will not be available after 31 July 2025.

Note – 5.4: Candidates shall appear at their own cost at the Centre on the Date and Shift as indicated in their
Admit Card issued by the NTA. Under no circumstances the choice of cities for the Centre and shift provided
in the Admit Card shall be changed.

Candidates MUST carry the following documents on the day of examination at the test centre. In
the absence of these documents, candidates will not be allowed to sit for the examination.

a. Print copy of Admit Card along with Self Declaration (Undertaking) downloaded from the NTA
Website (a clear printout on A4 size paper) duly filled in.
b. One passport size photograph (same as uploaded on the Online Application Form) for pasting
on the specific space in the Attendance Sheet at Centre during the examination.
c.
d. Any one of the authorized photo IDs (must be original, valid, and non-expired) – School Identity
Card/ PAN card/ Driving License/ Voter ID/ Passport/ Aadhaar Card (With photograph)/ E-
Aadhaar with photograph/ Ration Card with photograph/ Class X I I Board Admit Card with
photograph/ Bank Passbook with Photograph.
e. PwD/PwBD certificate issued by the authorized medical officer, if claiming the relaxation under
PwD/PwBD category or PwD/PwBD Certificate regarding physical limitation in an examination to
write as per Annexures given in Information Bulletin, if claiming the relaxation under PwD/PwBD
category.
f. A simple transparent Ball Point Pen.

Rough work

All calculations/writing work is to be done only in the Rough Sheet provided at the Test Centre in
the Examination Room/Hall and on completion of the test, candidates must hand over the Rough
Sheets to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.

28

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

5.5 Unfair means practices and breach of examination rules

5.5.1 Definition:
Unfair Means practice is an activity that allows a candidate to gain an unfair advantage over
other candidates. It includes, but is not limited to:
a) Being in possession of any item or article which has been prohibited or can be used for unfair
practices including any stationery item, communication device, accessories, eatable items,
ornaments or any other material or information relevant or not relevant to the examination
in the paper concerned;
b) Using someone to write an examination (impersonation) or preparing material for copying;
c) Breaching examination rules or any direction issued by NTA in connection with the JEE (Main)
- 2025 examination from time to time;
d) Assisting other candidates to engage in malpractices, giving or receiving assistance of any kind
directly or indirectly or attempting to do so;
e) Contacting or communicating or trying to do so with any person, other than the Examination
Staff, during the examination time in the Examination Centre;
f) Threatening any of the officials connected with the conduct of the examination or threatening
any of the candidates;
g) Using or attempting to use any other undesirable method or means in connection with the
examination;
h) Manipulation and fabrication of online documents viz. Admit Card, Self- Declaration, score
card, certificates issued by any Government authority etc.;
i) Forceful entry in /exit from Examination Centre/Hall;
j) Use or attempted use of any electronic device after entering the Examination Centre;
k) Affixing/uploading of wrong/morphed photographs/signatures on the Application
Form/Admit Card/ Proforma;
l) Creating obstacles in the smooth and fair conduct of the examination;
m) Not attempting the question paper for long time intervals;
n) Fidgeting and looking here and there;
o) In possession of bits of paper;
p) Any other malpractices declared as Unfair Means by the NTA;
q) Any candidate with more than one Application Number (more than one SCORE CARDS) will
be treated as UFM, even if found at a later stage, and strict action will be taken against that
Candidate.
r) An offence punishable under the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act,
2024.
5.5.2 Punishment for using unfair means practices:
During the course of, before, or after the examination if a candidate indulges in any of the above or
similar practices, he/she shall be deemed to have used unfair practices and booked under the
UNFAIR MEANS (U.F.M.) case. The candidate may be debarred for 3 years in the future and
shall also be liable for criminal action and /or any other action as deemed fit.

29

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

5.5.3 Cancellation of Result
The result of JEE (Main) - 2025 of the candidate(s) who indulge in Unfair means Practices will be
cancelled and will not be declared. Similarly, the result of those candidates who appear from the
Centre other than the one allotted to them or allow another candidate/person to write the
examination on his behalf will be cancelled. Any candidate who appears in a Session more than
once will lead to cancellation of his/ her candidature. No plea will be entertained in this regard.
5.6 Answer Key and Challenges
5.6.1 Display of Answer Key for Challenges

1. The NTA will display the Provisional Answer Key of the questions on the NTA website:
https://jeemain.nta.nic.in/, with a Public Notice, issued to this effect on the said website, to
provide an opportunity to the candidates to challenge the Provisional Answer Keys with a non-
refundable online payment of ₹ 200/- per question challenged as processing charges. The
provisional Answer Keys are likely to be displayed for two to three days.
2. Only paid challenges made during the stipulated time through the key challenge link will be
considered. Challenges without justification/evidence and those filed on any other medium
other than the prescribed link will not be considered.
3. The NTA decision on the challenges shall be final and no further communication will be
entertained. NTA will not inform the Candidates individually about the outcome of the
challenges made.
4. The subject experts will examine all the challenges received and then a final answer key will be
displayed and declared.
5. The result will be compiled based on the final answer key declared on NTA website. No
grievance with regard to answer key(s) after the declaration of result/NTA Score of JEE (Main)
- 2025 will be entertained.

5.6.2 Display of Question Paper attempted and Recorded Responses

The NTA will display the recorded responses and Question Papers attempted by the candidates on
the NTA website https://jeemain.nta.nic.in/ prior to the declaration of the result / NTA Score. The
recorded responses are likely to be displayed for two to three days.

5.7. JEE (Main) NTA Score for B.E. / B. Tech, B. Arch. and B. Planning

5.7.1 JEE (Main) NTA Score for B.E. / B.Tech, B.Arch. and B. Planning

a) Evaluation of multiple-choice questions of B.E./B.Tech, B.Arch. and B.Planning will be carried
out using final answer keys and the raw (actual) marks obtained by a candidate will be
considered further for computation of the result of JEE (Main) - 2025.
b) For multi-shift papers, raw (actual) marks obtained by the candidates in different
shifts/sessions will be converted to NTA Score.
c) The detailed procedure for the compilation of the NTA Score is available on the NTA Website
and also in the Appendix-VIII of the Information Bulletin.

5.7.2 Compilation and display of Result of Paper-1 (B.E./B.Tech.) of JEE (Main)- 2025

a) Compilation and display of NTA Score for Session 1 of Paper-1 (B.E. / B.Tech.):

Since Session 1 of JEE (Main) - 2025 B.E. / B.Tech will be conducted in multi-shifts, and NTA
scores will be calculated corresponding to the raw (actual) marks obtained by a candidate. The
30

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025
calculated NTA scores for all the shifts will be declared on the NTA website(s). This will comprise
the NTA scores for each of the three subjects (Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry) and the total
in B.E. / B.Tech of Session 1 of Paper 1 of JEE (Main) – 2025.

b) Compilation of NTA Score for Session 2 of Paper 1 (B.E. /B.Tech.):

Similarly, Session 2 of JEE (Main) - 2025 B.E./B.Tech will be conducted in multi-shifts, and NTA
scores will be calculated corresponding to the raw (actual) marks obtained by a candidate.
The calculated NTA scores for all the shifts will comprise the two NTA scores for each of the
three subjects (Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry) and the total in B.E./B.Tech of Session
2 of Paper 1 of JEE (Main) – 2025.

c) Compilation and display of results including overall Merit List/Ranking of Paper 1 (B.E.
/B.Tech.):

The NTA scores for each of the candidates in Total in B.E./B.Tech for Session 1 as well as for
Session 2 of JEE (Main) - 2025 will be merged for the compilation of results and preparation of
the overall Merit List/Ranking. The best of the two NTA Scores (Total) will be considered for
further processing for those candidates who appeared in both sessions.

In case of a tie, i.e. when two or more candidates obtain equal Total NTA Score in JEE (Main)-
2025, the inter-se merit of such candidates shall be determined as per “Method of resolving ties”
given in Chapter 2 for Paper 1.[2.4 (5)].

The NTA scores and rank of B.E. /B. Tech of JEE (Main) – 2025 for all candidates who appeared
in Session 1 as well as in Session 2 for JEE (Main) - 2025 will be declared on the NTA website(s).
This shall comprise the NTA scores obtained by the candidate in Session 1, NTA scores
obtained in Session 2, and NTA scores for those who appeared in both sessions (best of the two
Total NTA scores) along with the status of those who qualify for appearing in JEE (Advanced) –
2025 provided and subject to other conditions of eligibility being met. The rank shall comprise
the All India rank and the All India category rank.

5.7.3 Compilation and display of Result of Paper 2A (B. Arch) and Paper-2B (B.
Planning) of JEE (Main)-2025:

a) Compilation and display of NTA Score for Session 1 of Paper 2A (B. Arch) or Paper 2B (B.
Planning):

Since Session 1 of JEE (Main) - 2025 Paper-2A (B. Arch) or Paper-2B (B. Planning) will be
conducted in multi-shifts, NTA scores will be calculated corresponding to the raw (actual) marks
obtained by a candidate. The calculated NTA scores for all the shifts will be declared on the NTA
website(s). This will comprise the NTA scores for each of the three parts (Mathematics, Aptitude
Test and Drawing Test or Planning Based Test) and the total in Paper 2A (B. Arch) or Paper
2B (B. Planning) of Session 1 of JEE (Main) – 2025.

b) Compilation of NTA Score for Session 2 of Paper 2A (B. Arch) or Paper 2B (B. Planning):
Similarly, Session 2 of JEE (Main) - 2025 Paper 2A (B. Arch) or Paper 2B (B. Planning) will be
conducted in multi-shifts and NTA scores will be calculated corresponding to the raw
(actual) marks obtained by a candidate. The calculated NTA scores for all the shifts will comprise
the NTA scores for each of the three parts (Mathematics, Aptitude Test, and Drawing Test or
Planning Based Test) and the total in Paper 2A (B. Arch) or Paper 2B (B. Planning) of Session 2
of JEE (Main) – 2025.

31

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

c) Compilation and display of results including overall Merit List/ Ranking of Paper 2A (B. Arch)
or Paper 2B (B. Planning):

The NTA scores for each of the candidates in Total in Paper 2A (B. Arch) or Paper 2B (B. Planning)
for Session 1 as well as for Session 2 of JEE (Main)-2025 will be merged for compilation of results
and preparation of overall Merit List/Ranking. The best of the two NTA Scores (Total) will be
considered for further processing for those candidates who appeared in both sessions.

In case of a tie, i.e. when two or more candidates obtain equal Total NTA Score in JEE(Main)-
2025, inter-se merit of such candidates shall be determined as per “Method of resolving ties”
given in Chapter- 2 for Paper-2A (B. Arch) and Paper-2B (B. Planning).

The NTA scores and rank of Paper-2A (B. Arch) or Paper-2B (B. Planning) of JEE (Main) – 2025
for all candidates who appeared in Session 1 as well as in Session 2 for JEE (Main) - 2025 will be
declared on the NTA website(s). This shall comprise the NTA scores obtained by the candidate
in Session 1, NTA scores obtained in Session 2 and NTA scores for those who appeared in both
sessions (best of the two Total NTA scores). The rank shall comprise the All India rank and All
India category rank.

A copy of the Final Scorecard of JEE (Main) – 2025 will be sent to the registered e-mail address
of the Candidates.

Note – 5.5:

1 The All India Rank shall be compiled and declared after conduct of Session 2 of JEE (Main) -
2025 Examination.
2 No Score/Rank Card will be dispatched to the candidates and the candidates are advised to
download their Score/Rank Cards from the JEE (Main) website: www.nta.ac.in/,
https://jeemain.nta.nic.in/ only.
3 Only the All India Rank (AIR) is used for admissions through Central Seat Allocation Board
(CSAB)/Joint Seat Allocation Authority (JoSAA) to NITs/ IIITs/ CFTIs/ SFIs/ Others.
4 All participating Institutions that do not use the Centralized Seat Allocation Process will
prepare their own ranking based on the performance in JEE (Main) - 2025 and other criteria as
decided by them.
5 The National Testing Agency (NTA) is an examination conducting body and not an
admission giving authority. Therefore, NTA does not collect the information regarding the
total number of seats available in the institutions or the eligibility and reservation criteria
followed by the institutions.

5.7.4 Re-evaluation / Re-checking of Result

There shall be no re-evaluation/re-checking of the result. No correspondence in this regard shall
be entertained.

5.7.5 Use of score of JEE (Main) – 2025 by other Organizations

The merit list / scores / result of JEE (Main) – 2025 may be utilized by other Entities of Central /
State Governments with their eligibility criteria / norms / applicable regulations / guidelines /
rules.

32

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

5.8. Admission

Admission to NITs, IIITs, CFTIs, SFIs, State Engineering Colleges in the Participating States, and
Other Participating Institutions.

5.8.1 Eligibility for Admission to NITs, IIITs, and CFTIs participating through the
Central Seat Allocation Board (CSAB):

For the candidates who qualify for admission in the NITs, IIITs and such other CFTIs whose
admissions are based on the JEE (Main) ranks in Paper 1, they should have secured at least 75%
marks in the Class XII examination or be in the top 20 percentile in Class XII examination
conducted by respective Boards. For SC / ST candidates, the qualifying marks should be 65% in the
Class XII examination.

The candidate is also required to pass in each of the subjects of Class XII / qualifying examination.
The Admission to NITs, IIITs and CFTIs will be based on the announced qualifying Percentile by
the individual Institutes.

For eligibility regarding details, candidates may refer to the website https://csab.ac.in/.
The eligibility criteria decided by the Council of Architecture for admission to B.Arch. course other
than NITs, IIITs and CFTIs.

For B. Planning, the candidates should have passed the qualifying examination with 50 % marks
in Mathematics and 50% marks in aggregate of the qualifying examination.

Subject combinations required in the qualifying examination for admission to B.E./B.Tech, B. Arch
and B. Planning Courses in NITs, IIITs, and other CFTIs shall be as under

Course Required Criteria based on Class XII / Equivalent qualifying Examination
Passed qualifying examination with Physics and Mathematics as compulsory
B.E/B.Tech. Subjects along with one of the Chemistry/Biotechnology/Biology/ Technical
Vocational subjects.
No candidate shall be admitted to an architecture course unless he has passed
an examination at the end of the 10+2 scheme of examination with at least 50
percent. aggregate marks in Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics and also at
B.Arch. least 50 percent marks in aggregate of the 10+2 level examination or passed the
10+3 Diploma Examination with Mathematics as a compulsory subject with at
least 45 percent marks in aggregate.
B. Planning Passed qualifying examination with Mathematics

As per the Gazette of India dated: 19 July 2023, F. No. CA/498/2023/MSAE (Regulations), the
eligibility criteria for B.Arch. has been updated as mentioned above.
The Admission Policy, as announced by the Competent Authority of the admitting institutes shall
be followed at the time of admission. The Candidates are advised to satisfy themselves about their
Eligibility for Admission from the respective websites of admitting authorities.

33

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

5.8.2 Eligibility for Admission to Other Institutions

The above-mentioned policy could also be adopted by other Technical Institutions participating in
counseling through JoSAA /CSAB. In case a State opts to admit students to the engineering Colleges
affiliated with State Universities, the State may prepare a separate rank list based on criteria
decided by them.

For all admission-related procedures/queries, the candidates are advised to refer to the website of
JoSAA, Central Seat Allocation Board (CSAB), or the concerned State Government/Institute after
the declaration of result/ranks of JEE (Main) - 2025.

Note – 5.6: The letters / e-mails / grievances / queries / RTI applications / Court cases pertaining
to admission related matters/procedures will not be entertained by NTA. The same may be
addressed to the concerned Counseling/Authorities/Admitting Institutions.

5.8.3 Seat Allocation Process and Admission Procedure

Candidates shall be offered admission based on their choices and All India Ranks of JEE (Main) -
2025 through a Seat Allocation Process to be announced later by CSAB/ JoSAA. The authentication/
verification of relevant documents in support of identification, date of birth, qualifying
examination, State of eligibility, category and disability (if any) of the qualifying candidates would
be done at the time of the Seat Allocation/ admission process. On failing to produce any of the
authentic documents, the candidate may not be considered for admission.

Gen-EWS, SC, ST, OBC and PwD/PwBD candidates will be required to produce the original
certificate as per prescribed formats issued by the competent authority at the time of the Seat
Allocation/admission process failing which they will not be considered for admission.

5.8.4 Eligibility Criteria for Indian Nationals Appearing in JEE (Advanced) – 2025

Candidates should be among the top 2, 50, 000 successful candidates (including all categories)
in B.E./B.Tech. Paper of JEE (Main) – 2025. The candidate may refer JEE (Advanced) website
https://jeeadv.ac.in/ for the latest information.

5.9. Correspondence with NTA
All the correspondence should preferably be addressed by e-mail. The email query shall be
addressed only if it is not anonymous and contains the name, postal address and contact number
of the sender. An email containing vague or general queries and other queries as contained in the
Information Bulletin shall not be entertained. Queries shall not be entertained from a person
claiming to be representatives, associates or officiates of the applicant candidate. The following
information shall not be revealed by phone or email:

a. Internal documentation/status.
b. The internal decision-making process of NTA. Any claim/counterclaim thereof.
c. Dates and venue of internal meetings or name of the staff/officers dealing with it.
d. Any information which cannot be revealed in the opinion of NTA.

34

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

5.10. Weeding Out Rules

The record of Joint Entrance Examination JEE (Main) - 2025 will be preserved up to 90 days from
the date of declaration of result.

5.11 Legal Jurisdiction

All disputes pertaining to the conduct of the JEE (Main) – 2025 Examination including Results shall
fall within the jurisdiction of Delhi/New Delhi only. Further, any grievance/representation
arising out of the Result shall be entertained only when raised within 30 days from the declaration
of the result. Further, the copy of the Legal Notice or Writ Petition/ Petition/Appeal/ Reply may
be served to NTA only through: [email protected]

5.12 RTI
Information uploaded on the website shall not be provided to the candidate or any other person
under R.T.I. Act, 2005. The information uploaded on the website shall remain for a specific period
only. Therefore, the candidates are advised to download the uploaded information and keep it with
them for the future. In due course of examination or in the midway of process, neither any
application under the Right to Information Act, 2005 shall be entertained nor will information be
provided.
***********

35

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

Appendix –I

Procedure for Online Payment of Fees and Helpline for Payment-Related Queries
After completing Step 2 of the Online Application Form, the candidate may remit the
examination fee (Step 3) in the following manner:
 Check the validity of the Debit/ Credit Card and keep it ready with you while logging on
to the website for submitting the Application Form. The candidates should enter the
information asked for and make payment through a Debit/ Credit Card.
 Through Net Banking, check the balance in your account and keep all credentials ready
with you while logging on to the website for making payments. The candidates should log
in with his/ her credentials of net banking and make payments accordingly.
 For payment through a UPI Service, check whether there is a requisite balance in the
Bank Account/ Wallet to which the concerned UPI is linked.
The prescribed Examination Fee (please see the Information at a Glance) can be paid
through any Bank/Payment Gateway of ICICI/ HDFC/ Canara/ SBI Banks in any Payment
Mode [service/processing charges per transaction and GST as applicable are to be borne
by the candidate].
Note: In case, the fee payment status is not ‘OK’, or the Confirmation Page of the Online
Application is not generated after fee payment (completion of Step 3) of the candidate is
advised to contact the helpline number/email of the concerned Bank/ Payment Gateway
Integrator, as mentioned below:-
(a) If Paying through HDFC Bank:
Level Name Email ID Contact Number
1 Ecom Support [email protected]
2. Pradeep Yadav [email protected] 9625622301
3. Vikram Singh [email protected] 9799810080
(b) If Paying through State Bank of India (SBI):
Level Name Email ID Contact Number
1. Helpdesk3 [email protected] 011-26391804
2. Customer Care [email protected] 1800112211
3. Through SMS - 8008202020
(c) If paying through Canara Bank:
Level Name Email ID
1. Help Desk [email protected]; [email protected];
[email protected]; [email protected];
2. Complaint Management [email protected] [email protected];
Services [email protected]; [email protected]
3. Customer Care [email protected] [email protected];
[email protected]; [email protected]
(d) If Paying through ICICI Bank:
Level Name Email ID Contact Number
1. Customer support [email protected] 1800222884
Helpline number (Please select option 3)
(9AM to 6PM)

36

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

Appendix –II

Appendix – II

37

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

38

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

39

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

Appendix – III
(Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment, Govt. of India Office memorandum No F. No. 34-02/ 2015-
DD-III dated 29 August 2018)

Certificate regarding physical limitation in an examinee to write

This to certify that, I have examined Mr/ Ms/ Mrs (Name of the
candidate with disability), a person with (nature and percentage of
disability as mentioned in the certificate of disability), S/ o/ D/ o a
resident of (Village/ District/ State) and to state that
he/ she has physical limitation which hampers his/her writing capabilities owing to his/ her disability.

Signature

Chief Medical Officer/ Civil Surgeon/ Medical Superintendent of a

Government health care institution

Name & Designation.

Name of Government Hospital/Health Care Centre with Seal

Place:
Date:

Note:- Certificate should be given by a specialist of the relevant stream/ disability (eg. Visual
impairment — Ophthalmologist, Locomotor disability — Orthopedic specialist/ PMR).

40

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

Appendix – IV (More than 40%)

LETTER OF UNDERTAKING FOR USING OWN SCRIBE

I ____________________, a candidate with __________________ (nature of the disability) appearing for
______________________________________(name of the examination) bearing Roll No. ___________________________ at
_______________________ (name of the centre) in the District ____________________, ____________________________
(name of the State). My educational qualification is _____________________.

2. I do hereby state that __________________________ (name of the scribe) will provide the service of
scribe /reader / lab assistant for the undersigned for taking the aforementioned examination.

3. I do hereby undertake that his qualification is ______________________. In case, subsequently it is
found that his qualification is not as declared by the undersigned and is beyond my qualification. I shall
forfeit my right to the post and claims relating thereto.

(Signature of the candidate)

(counter signature by the parent/guardian, if the candidate is minor)

Place:

Date:

41

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

Appendix – V
(Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment, Govt. of India F. No. 29-6/2019-DD-III dated 10 August
2022)

Certificate for person with specified disability covered under the definition of Section 2 (s) of the
RPwD Act, 2016 but not covered under the definition of Section 2(r) of the said Act, i.e. persons having
less than 40% disability and having difficulty in writing

This is to certify that, we have examined Mr/Ms/Mrs …………. (Name of the candidate), S/o /D/o
……………………, a resident of ……………… (Vill/PO/ PS/ District/ State), aged …………….. yrs, a person with
……………………. (nature of disability/condition), and to state that he/ she has limitation which hampers
his/her writing capability owing to his/her above condition. He/she requires support of scribe for
writing the examination.

2. The above candidate uses aids and assistive device such as prosthetics & orthotics, hearing aid
(name to be specified) which is /are essential for the candidate to appear at the examination with the
assistance of scribe.

3. This certificate is issued only for the purpose of appearing in written examinations conducted
by recruitment agencies as well as academic institutions and is valid upto __________ (it is valid for
maximum period of six months or less as may be certified by the medical authority)

Signature of medical authority

(Signature (Signature & Name) (Signature (Signature & (Signature & Name)
& Name) & Name) Name)
Orthopedic Clinical Psychologist/ Neurologist Occupational Other Expert, as
/ Rehabilitation (if available) therapist (if nominated by the
PMR Psychologist/Psychiatrist available) Chairperson (if any)
specialist / Special Educator
(Signature & Name)
Chief Medical Officer/Civil Surgeon/Chief District Medical
Officer………Chairperson

Name of Government Hospital/Health Care Centre with Seal

Place:

Date:

42

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

Appendix – VI (Less than 40%)

(Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment, Govt. of India F. No. 29-6/2019-DD-III dated 10 August
2022)

Letter of Undertaking by the person with specified disability covered under the definition of Section 2
(s) of the RPwD Act, 2016 but not covered under the definition of Section 2(r) of the said Act, i.e. persons
having less than 40% disability and having difficulty in writing

I ____________________, a candidate with __________________ (nature of disability/condition) appearing for
the ______________________(name of the examination) bearing Roll No. ___________________________ at
_______________________ (name of the centre) in the District ____________________, ____________________________
(name of the State). My educational qualification is _____________________.

4. I do hereby state that __________________________ (name of the scribe) will provide the service of
scribe for the undersigned for taking the aforementioned examination.

5. I do hereby undertake that his qualification is ______________________. In case, subsequently it is
found that his qualification is not as declared by the undersigned and is beyond my qualification. I shall
forfeit my right to the post or certificate/diploma/degree and claims relating thereto.

(Signature of the candidate)

(counter signature by the parent/guardian, if the candidate is minor)

Place:

Date:

43

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

Appendix - VII

JEE (Main) - 2025 will be conducted in the following Cities, provided there are sufficient numbers
of candidates in the City:
State-wise/UT-wise list of Cities in India and Abroad:

STATE CITY CITY CODE
Arunachal Pradesh Naharlagun AL01
Assam Guwahati AM02
Assam Jorhat AM03
Assam Silchar AM04
Assam Tezpur AM05
Assam Dibrugarh AM06
Andaman & Nicobar Port Blair AN01
Andhra Pradesh Anantapur AP01
Andhra Pradesh Bhimavaram AP03
Andhra Pradesh Chittoor AP05
Andhra Pradesh Eluru AP06
Andhra Pradesh Guntur AP07
Andhra Pradesh Kadapa AP08
Andhra Pradesh Kakinada AP09
Andhra Pradesh Kurnool AP10
Andhra Pradesh Nellore AP11
Andhra Pradesh Ongole AP12
Andhra Pradesh Rajahmundry AP13
Andhra Pradesh Srikakulam AP14
Andhra Pradesh Tirupathi AP16
Andhra Pradesh Vijayawada AP17
Andhra Pradesh Visakhapatnam AP18
Andhra Pradesh Vizianagaram AP19
Andhra Pradesh Narasaraopet AP20
Andhra Pradesh Proddatur AP21
Andhra Pradesh Surampalem AP23
Andhra Pradesh Machilipatnam AP27
Andhra Pradesh Nandyal AP29
Andhra Pradesh Tadepalligudem AP30
Bihar Aurangabad(Bihar) BR01
Bihar Bhagalpur BR02
Bihar Darbhanga BR04
Bihar Gaya BR05
Bihar Muzaffarpur BR06
Bihar Patna BR07
Bihar Purnea BR08
Bihar Arrah BR09
Bihar Samastipur BR12

44

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025
STATE CITY CITY CODE
Bihar Bihar Sharif BR38
Bihar Rohtas BR41
Chhattisgarh Bilaspur(Chhattisgarh) CG02
Chhattisgarh Raipur CG03
Chhattisgarh Jagdalpur CG04
Chhattisgarh Bhilai Nagar CG11
Chhattisgarh Durg CG12
Chhattisgarh Ambikapur CG13
Chandigarh Chandigarh /Sahibzada Ajit Singh Nagar CH01
Daman & Diu Diu DD02
Delhi Delhi/New Delhi DL01
Dadra & Nagar Haveli Silvassa DN01
Gujarat Ahmedabad GJ01
Gujarat Anand GJ02
Gujarat Jamnagar GJ06
Gujarat Junagadh GJ07
Gujarat Rajkot GJ10
Gujarat Surat GJ11
Gujarat Vadodara GJ12
Gujarat Himatnagar GJ14
Gujarat Mehsana GJ31
Gujarat Gandhinagar GJ32
Gujarat Bhuj GJ33
Gujarat Vapi GJ36
Goa Panaji / Mapusa GO01
Himachal Pradesh Hamirpur(Himachal Pradesh) HP03
Himachal Pradesh Shimla HP06
Himachal Pradesh Mandi HP08
Himachal Pradesh Una HP09
Himachal Pradesh Kullu HP10
Himachal Pradesh Bilaspur(Himachal Pradesh) HP13
Himachal Pradesh Kangra HP16
Haryana Ambala HR01
Haryana Gurugram HR02
Haryana Faridabad HR03
Haryana Hisar HR10
Jharkhand Bokaro JH01
Jharkhand Dhanbad JH02
Jharkhand Jamshedpur JH03
Jharkhand Ranchi JH04
Jharkhand Hazaribagh JH05
Jharkhand Ramgarh JH15
Jammu & Kashmir Jammu JK02

45

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025
STATE CITY CITY CODE
Jammu & Kashmir Srinagar(J & K) JK04
Jammu & Kashmir Pulwama JK06
Jammu & Kashmir Samba JK11
Karnataka Ballari(Bellary) KK01
Karnataka Belagavi(Belgaum) KK02
Karnataka Bengaluru KK04
Karnataka Davanagere KK06
Karnataka Kalaburagi(Gulbarga) KK08
Karnataka Hassan KK09
Karnataka Dharwad KK10
Karnataka Mangaluru(Mangalore) KK12
Karnataka Mysuru(Mysore) KK14
Karnataka Shivamogga(Shimoga) KK15
Karnataka Tumakuru KK16
Karnataka Chikkamagaluru KK23
Karnataka Hubballi(Hubli) KK27
Karnataka Udupi KK38
Kerala Idukki KL05
Kerala Kannur KL07
Kerala Kasaragod KL08
Kerala Kollam KL09
Kerala Kottayam KL11
Kerala Kozhikode KL12
Kerala Malappuram KL13
Kerala Palakkad KL15
Kerala Pathanamthitta KL16
Kerala Thiruvananthapuram KL17
Kerala Thrissur KL18
Kerala Wayanad KL19
Kerala Piyyannur KL21
Kerala Alappuzha KL22
Kerala Chengannur KL23
Kerala Ernakulam KL24
Kerala Moovattupuzha KL25
Lakshadweep Kavaratti LD01
Leh Ladhak Leh LL01
Leh Ladakh Kargil LL02
Meghalaya Shillong MG01
Meghalaya Tura MG02
Manipur Imphal MN01
Madhya Pradesh Balaghat MP01
Madhya Pradesh Bhopal MP03
Madhya Pradesh Gwalior MP06

46

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025
STATE CITY CITY CODE
Madhya Pradesh Indore MP07
Madhya Pradesh Jabalpur MP08
Madhya Pradesh Sagar MP12
Madhya Pradesh Satna MP13
Madhya Pradesh Ujjain MP15
Madhya Pradesh Khandwa MP29
Maharashtra Ahmednagar MR01
Maharashtra Akola MR02
Maharashtra Amravati MR03
Maharashtra Chhatrapati Sambhaji Nagar MR04
Maharashtra Chandrapur MR09
Maharashtra Dhule MR10
Maharashtra Jalgaon MR13
Maharashtra Kolhapur MR14
Maharashtra Latur MR15
Maharashtra Nagpur MR17
Maharashtra Nanded MR18
Maharashtra Nashik MR19
Maharashtra Pune MR22
Maharashtra Sangli MR25
Maharashtra Satara MR26
Maharashtra Solapur MR27
Maharashtra Thane MR28
Maharashtra Wardha MR29
Maharashtra Beed MR30
Maharashtra Bhandara MR31
Maharashtra Buldhana MR32
Maharashtra Ratnagiri MR33
Maharashtra Yavatmal MR34
Maharashtra Parbhani MR38
Maharashtra Gadchiroli MR40
Maharashtra Jalna MR42
Maharashtra Mumbai/ Navi Mumbai MR43
Mizoram Aizawl MZ01
Nagaland Dimapur NL01
Nagaland Kohima NL02
Odisha Balasore(Baleswar) OR01
Odisha Berhampur-Ganjam OR03
Odisha Bhubaneswar OR04
Odisha Cuttack OR05
Odisha Dhenkanal OR06
Odisha Rourkela OR08
Odisha Sambalpur OR09

47

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025
STATE CITY CITY CODE
Odisha Angul OR10
Odisha Bhadrak OR11
Odisha Baripada/Mayurbanj OR12
Odisha Jajpur OR13
Odisha Kendrapara OR14
Odisha Kendujhar(Keonjhar) OR15
Odisha Puri OR16
Odisha Jagatsinghpur OR17
Odisha Jeypore(Odisha) OR19
Odisha Balangir OR20
Odisha Baragarh OR21
Odisha Rayagada OR26
Punjab Amritsar PB01
Punjab Bhatinda PB02
Punjab Jalandhar/Phagwara PB04
Punjab Ludhiana PB05
Punjab Pathankot PB07
Punjab Patiala/Fatehgarh Sahib PB08
Puducherry Puducherry PO01
Rajasthan Ajmer RJ01
Rajasthan Alwar RJ02
Rajasthan Bikaner RJ05
Rajasthan Jaipur RJ06
Rajasthan Jodhpur RJ07
Rajasthan Kota RJ08
Rajasthan Sikar RJ09
Rajasthan Sriganganagar RJ10
Rajasthan Udaipur RJ11
Rajasthan Bhilwara RJ12
Rajasthan Bharatpur RJ16
Rajasthan Dausa RJ17
Rajasthan Hanumangarh RJ23
Sikkim Gangtok SM01
Tripura Agartala TA01
Telangana Karimnagar TL02
Telangana Khammam TL03
Telangana Mahabubnagar TL04
Telangana Nalgonda TL05
Telangana Warangal TL07
Telangana Nizamabad TL08
Telangana Suryapet TL09
Telangana Siddipet TL11
Telangana Jagtial TL15

48

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025
STATE CITY CITY CODE
Telangana Kothagudem TL17
Telangana Hyderabad TL22
Tamil Nadu Chennai TN01
Tamil Nadu Coimbatore TN02
Tamil Nadu Cuddalore TN03
Tamil Nadu Kanchipuram TN05
Tamil Nadu Kanyakumari TN06
Tamil Nadu Madurai TN08
Tamil Nadu Namakkal TN10
Tamil Nadu Salem TN11
Tamil Nadu Thanjavur TN12
Tamil Nadu Thoothukudi TN13
Tamil Nadu Tiruchirappalli TN14
Tamil Nadu Tirunelveli TN15
Tamil Nadu Vellore TN18
Tamil Nadu Virudhunagar TN20
Tamil Nadu Krishnagiri TN21
Tamil Nadu Tirupur TN22
Tamil Nadu Viluppuram TN23
Tamil Nadu Nagercoil TN24
Tamil Nadu Dharmapuri TN26
Tamil Nadu Dindigul TN27
Tamil Nadu Erode TN28
Tamil Nadu Karur TN29
Tamil Nadu Pudukkottai TN31
Tamil Nadu Ramanathapuram TN32
Tamil Nadu Sivaganga TN33
Tamil Nadu Tiruvallur TN34
Tamil Nadu Tiruvannamalai TN35
Uttarakhand Dehradun UK01
Uttarakhand Haldwani UK02
Uttarakhand Roorkee UK06
Uttarakhand Pauri Garhwal UK08
Uttarakhand Almora UK09
Uttar Pradesh Agra UP01
Uttar Pradesh Aligarh UP02
Uttar Pradesh Prayagraj/Allahabad UP03
Uttar Pradesh Bareilly UP04
Uttar Pradesh Ghaziabad UP07
Uttar Pradesh Gorakhpur UP08
Uttar Pradesh Noida / Greater Noida UP09
Uttar Pradesh Jhansi UP10
Uttar Pradesh Kanpur UP11
Uttar Pradesh Lucknow UP12

49

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025
STATE CITY CITY CODE
Uttar Pradesh Mathura UP13
Uttar Pradesh Meerut UP14
Uttar Pradesh Moradabad UP15
Uttar Pradesh Muzaffarnagar UP16
Uttar Pradesh Varanasi UP18
Uttar Pradesh Azamgarh UP19
Uttar Pradesh Ballia UP20
Uttar Pradesh Ayodhya UP21
Uttar Pradesh Firozabad UP22
Uttar Pradesh Ghazipur UP23
Uttar Pradesh Akbarpur(Ambedkar Nagar) UP25
Uttar Pradesh Bulandshahr UP29
Uttar Pradesh Mau UP35
Uttar Pradesh Rai Bareilly UP37
Uttar Pradesh Saharanpur UP38
Uttar Pradesh Chandauli UP41
Uttar Pradesh Pratapgarh UP43
West Bengal Asansol WB01
West Bengal Burdwan(Bardhaman) WB02
West Bengal Durgapur WB04
West Bengal Hooghly WB06
West Bengal Howrah WB07
West Bengal Kalyani WB08
West Bengal Kolkata WB10
West Bengal Siliguri WB11
West Bengal Paschim Medinipur WB13
West Bengal Purba Medinipur WB14
West Bengal Bankura WB16
West Bengal Murshidabad/Baharampur WB21
West Bengal Suri WB22
Baharain Manama ZZ01
Indonesia West Java ZZ02
Kuwait Kuwait ZZ03
Malaysia Kuala Lumpur ZZ04
Germany Munich ZZ05
Nepal Kathmandu ZZ06
Nigeria Lagos ZZ07
Oman Muscat ZZ08
Qatar Doha ZZ09
Saudi Arabia Riyadh ZZ10
Singapore Singapore ZZ11
UAE Dubai ZZ12
UAE - Abu Dhabi Abu Dhabi ZZ13
UAE - Sharjah Sharjah ZZ14
Washington DC Washington ZZ15

50

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

Appendix-VIII
Procedure to be adopted for compilation of NTA scores for multi-session
Papers (Normalization procedure based on PERCENTILE SCORE)
NTA may conduct examinations on multiple dates, generally in two sessions per day. The
candidates will be given different sets of questions per session and it is quite possible that in
spite of all efforts to maintain equivalence among various question papers, the difficulty level
of these question papers administered in different sessions may not be exactly the same. Some
of the candidates may end up attempting a relatively tougher set of questions when compared
to other sets. The candidates who attempt the comparatively tougher examination are likely
to get lower marks as compared to those who attempt the easier one. In order to overcome
such a situation, a “Normalization procedure based on Percentile Score” will be used to
ensure that candidates are neither benefitted nor disadvantaged due to the difficulty level of
the examination. With the objective of ensuring that a candidate’s true merit is identified and
that a level playing field is created in the above context, the Normalization Procedure, set out
below shall be adopted, for compiling the NTA scores for multi-session papers.
The process of Normalization is an established practice for comparing candidate scores
across multi-session papers and is similar to those being adopted in other large
educational selection tests conducted in India. For normalization across sections, NTA
shall use the percentile equivalence.
Percentile Scores: Percentile scores are scores based on the relative performance of all those
who appear for the examination. The marks obtained are transformed into a scale ranging from
100 to 0 for each session of examinees.
The Percentile Score indicates the percentage of candidates that have scored EQUAL TO
OR BELOW (same or lower raw scores) that particular Percentile in that examination.
Therefore the topper (highest score) of each session will get the same Percentile of 100
which is desirable. The marks obtained in between the highest and lowest scores are
also converted to appropriate Percentiles.
The Percentile score will be the Normalized Score for the examination (instead of the
raw marks of the candidate) and shall be used for the preparation of the merit lists.
The Percentile Scores will be calculated up to 7 decimal places to avoid the bunching
effect and reduce ties.
The Percentile score of a Candidate is calculated as follows:

100 X Number of candidates appeared in the ‘Session’ with raw score EQUAL TO OR LESS than the candidate

The total number of the candidates who appeared in the ‘Session’

Note: The Percentile of the Total shall NOT be an aggregate or average of the Percentile of the
individual subject. The percentile score is not the same as the percentage of marks obtained.
Example: Suppose a test was held in 4 sessions of examinees as per details given below:
(Allocation of Days and shifts was done randomly)

51

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

(a) The distribution of candidates was as follows:

Session-1: Day-1 Shift-1, Session-2: Day-1 Shift-2, Session-3: Day-2 Shift-1 and Session- 4:
Day-2 Shift-2
Session Day/Shift No of Candidates Marks
Absent Appeared Total Highest Lowest
Session-1 Day-1 Shift-1 3974 28012 31986 335 -39
Session-2 Day-1 Shift-2 6189 32541 38730 346 -38
Session-3 Day-2 Shift-1 6036 41326 47362 331 -49
Session-4 Day-2 Shift-2 9074 40603 49677 332 -44
Total 25273 142482 167755 346 -49
(Session-1 to Session-4)

In this method of scoring the HIGHEST RAW SCORE in each paper (irrespective of the raw
scores) will be the 100 Percentile indicating that 100% of candidates have scored equal to or
lesser than the highest scorer/ topper for that session.

Highest Raw Score and Percentile Score: All the highest raw scores will have a normalized
Percentile Score of 100 for their respective session.

Session Total Highest Candidates who Percentile Score Remarks
Candidates Raw Score scored EQUAL or
Appeared LESS THAN Highest
Raw Score
28012 335 28012 100.0000000 i.e. all the
Session-1 highest scores
[(28012/28012)*100]
would be
32541 346 32541 100.0000000
Session -2 normalized to
[(32541/32541)*100]
raw
41326 331 41326 100.0000000 100 Percentile
Session -3
[(41326/41326)*100] Score for their
Respective
40603 332 40603 100.0000000 session.
Session -4 [(40603/40603)*100]

Lowest Raw Score and Percentile Score: The percentile Score of all the lowest raw scores
will depend on the total number of candidates who have taken the examination for their
respective sessions.

52

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

Session Total Lowest Candidates who Percentile Remarks
Candidates Raw Score scored EQUAL or Score
Appeared LESS THAN
Lowest Raw Score

Session -1 28012 -39 1 0.0035699 i.e. Percentile Score
[(1/28012)*100] of all the lowest
raw scores is
Session -2 32541 -38 1 0.0030730
different i.e.
[(1/32541)*100]
Percentile Score
Session -3 41326 -49 1 0.0024198 depends on the total
[(1/41326)*100] number of
Session -4 40603 -44 1 0.0024629 candidates who have
[(1/40603)*100] taken the
examination for their
respective sessions.

The following is a further explanation of the interpretation of the raw scores and
Percentile Score in Session-3 (Day-2 and Shift-1) with 41326 candidates who have
taken the examination.
Candidate Percentile Score No of Raw Remark
Candidates Score
A 100.0000000 1 331 This indicates that amongst those who appeared,
100% have scored either EQUAL TO OR LESS
[(41326/41326) THAN candidate A (331 raw scores).
*100]
It also indicates that no candidate has scored more
than candidate A (331 raw scores).
B 90.1224411 77 121 This indicates that amongst those who appeared,
90.1224411% have scored either EQUAL TO OR
[(37244/41326) LESS THAN candidate B (121 raw scores).
*100]
It also indicates that the remaining candidates
have scored more than candidate B (121 raw
scores).
C 50.4549194 381 41 This indicates that amongst those who appeared,
[(20851/41326)*1 50.4549194% have scored either EQUAL TO OR
00] LESS THAN candidate C (41 raw scores).
It also indicates that the remaining those who
appeared have scored more than candidate C (41
raw scores).
D 31.7040120 789 25 This indicates that amongst those who appeared,
[(13102/41326)*1 31.7040120% have scored either EQUAL TO OR
00] LESS THAN candidate D (25 raw scores)
It also indicates that the remaining candidates
have scored more than candidate D (25 raw
scores).

53

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025
E 1.1034216 100 -15 Indicates that amongst those who appeared,
[(456/41326)*100 1.1034216% have scored either EQUAL TO OR LESS
] THAN candidate E (-15 raw score)
It also indicates that the remaining candidates have
scored more than candidate E (-15 raw score)

STEP-BY-STEP PROCEDURE FOR NORMALIZATION AND PREPARATION OF RESULT:

Step-1: Distribution of Examinees in two shifts:

Candidates have to be distributed into two sessions randomly so that each session has
an approximately equal number of candidates. These two sessions would be as follows:

Session-1: Day-1 Shift-1, Session-2: Day-1 Shift-2

In the event of a more number of days or less number of shifts, the candidates will be
divided accordingly.
This will ensure that there is no bias in the distribution of candidates who shall take the
examination. Further, with a large population of examinees spread over the entire country, the
possibility of such bias becomes remote.
Step 2: Preparation of Results for each Session:
The examination results for each session will be prepared in the form of
 Raw Score
 Percentiles Scores of Total raw scores

The Percentiles would be calculated for each candidate in the Session as follows: Let TP1 be
the Percentile Score of the Total Raw Score of that candidate.

No. of candidates appeared from the session with raw score EQUAL To

Total Percentile 100x OR LESS than the score of the candidate

(TPI): -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Total no. of candidates who appeared in the session

Step-3: Compilation of NTA score and Preparation of Result:

The Percentile scores for the Total Raw Score for all the sessions (Session-1: Day-1 Shift-1,
Session-2: Day-1 Shift-2) as calculated in Step-2 above would be merged and shall be
called the NTA scores which will then be used for the compilation of results and further
processing for deciding the allocation.

54

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

In the event of the percentiles for the multi-shifts being dissimilar/unequal, the lowest will be
the eligibility cut-off for that category for all candidates (i.e. all shifts).

For Example: In the examination held in two shifts, if the 40% marks correspond to a Percentile
score of 78 in Shift 1 and 79 in Shift 2, then all those equal to or above 78 percentiles (Percentile
score of 100 to 78) in both shifts will become eligible in General Category. A similar method will
be adopted for the other categories to determine eligibility cut-offs. In case the examination is
held in more number of shifts the same principle shall apply.

55

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

Appendix-IX
Computer Based Test (CBT)
The major examinations being conducted by NTA are Computer-Based Tests (CBT). A CBT
requires candidates to sit in front of a computer terminal (node) allocated to them against their
Roll number and Admit card. After logging the candidate will get detailed instructions for the
examinations. At the designated time of the start of the examination, the candidates will be able
to proceed and see the questions on the computer screen using the computer mouse.
Candidates will have the option to change/modify/edit/answers already entered at any time
during the examination.
Procedure for appearing in Computer Based Test (CBT):

(Sample/mock test will be available on the NTA website: www.nta.ac.in for hands-on
practice)
(a) A computer terminal (node) indicating the Roll Number will be allocated to each
candidate. Candidates should find and sit on their allocated computers only. Any
candidate found to have changed room/hall or the computer on their own other than the
one allotted would lead to cancellation of candidature and no plea in this regard would
be entertained.
(b) For login, the candidate will have to enter a login ID and password. The computer
terminal allotted to the candidate will display the WELCOME login screen, the Candidate’s
photograph and the subject opted by the candidate.

Candidate Login Page & Candidate Welcome Screen

(c) After login, the candidate shall be able to see the detailed instructions for the
examination. Candidates are advised to go through the instructions carefully regarding
the type of questions and marking scheme. At the designated time of the start of the
examination, the candidates will be able to proceed and see the questions on the
computer screen.

56

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025
Please read the instructions carefully

General Instructions:

1. The total duration of the examination is 180 minutes for Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) and 210
minutes for (B.Arch and B.Planning) both.
2. The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer in the top right corner of screen
will display the remaining time available for you to complete the examination. When the
timer reaches zero, the examination will end by itself. You will not be required to end or
submit your examination.
3. The Question Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of each
question using one of the following symbols:

4. The ‘Marked for Review’ status for a question simply indicates that you would like to look at
that question again.
5. You can click on your "Profile" image on the top right corner of your screen to change the
language during the exam for the entire question paper. On clicking on the Profile image,
you will get a drop-down to change the question content to the desired language.
6. You can click on the ">" arrow which appears to the left of the question palette to collapse
the question palette thereby maximizing the question window. To view the question palette
again, you can click on "< " which appears on the right side of the question window.
7. You can click on to navigate to the bottom and to navigate
to the top of the question area, without scrolling.
Navigating to a Question:
8. To answer a question, do the following:
a. Click on the question number in the Question Palette at the right of your screen to go
to that question directly. Note that using this option does NOT save your answer to the
current question.

57

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

b. Click on Save & Next to save your answer for the current question and then go to the
next question.
c. Click on Mark for Review & Next to save your answer for the current question, mark
it for review, and then go to the next question.
Answering a Question:

9. Procedure for answering a Multiple-Choice Type question:
a. To select your answer, click on the button of one of the options.
b. To deselect your chosen answer, click on the button of the chosen option again or
click on the Clear Response button.
c. The answer can be changed, if required, anytime during the test. To save the answer,
the candidate MUST click on the “Save and Next” button.
d. To save your answer, you must click on the Save & Next button
e. To mark the question for review (without answering it), click on the ‘Mark for
Review & Next' button.

10. To change your answer to a question that has already been answered, first select that
question for answering and then follow the procedure for answering that type of question.
11. The candidates will have the option to change the previously saved answer to any
question, anytime during the entire duration of the test. To change the answer to a
question that has already been answered, first select the corresponding question from the
Question Palette, then click on “Clear Response” to clear the previously entered answer
and subsequently follow the procedure for answering that type of question.
Navigating through sections:

12. Sections in this question paper are displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions in a
section can be viewed by clicking on the Section name. The section you are currently
viewing is highlighted.
13. After clicking the Save and Next button on the last question for a Section, you will
automatically be taken to the first question of the next section.
14. You can shuffle between sections and questions anytime during the examination as per
your convenience only during the time stipulated.

58

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025
15. The candidate can view the corresponding section summary as part of the legend that
appears in every section above the question palette.
Instruction for Question:

16. For the correctness of the translation for a particular language, only the English version
will be considered as the final version for evaluation purposes.
17. The keyboard attached to the computer, if any, will be disabled during the entire duration
of the examination. Depending on the type of question, the answers to questions can either
be entered by clicking on the virtual on-screen keyboard (numeric or otherwise) using the
computer mouse or by clicking the chosen option(s) using the computer mouse.
Candidates will have the option to change/modify answers already entered at any time
during the entire duration of the examination.
18. In case the computer/mouse allotted to any candidate malfunctions during the test,
he/she will be immediately allotted another computer system and the time lost due to
this will be adjusted in the server so as to give the candidate the full allotted time.
19. The on-screen computer clock counter of every candidate will be set at the server. The
countdown timer on the top right side of the computer screen will display the time
remaining (in minutes) available for the candidate to complete the examination. When the
timer reaches zero, the examination will end by itself. The candidates will not be required
to end or submit the examination.
20. The Question Palette displayed on the screen will show the status of each question using
one of the following symbols:

21. The question(s) “Answered and Marked for Review” status for a question indicates that the
candidates would like to have a relook at that question again. A candidate has the option of
answering a question and simultaneously “Marked for Review”, these answers will be
considered for evaluation. However, if a candidate has simply put “Marked for Review” for
a question without answering it, the corresponding question marked for review without
an answer will not be considered for evaluation. It may be noted that a candidate can
return to any “Marked for Review” question at any time during the examination by clicking
on the corresponding question number icon displayed on the Question Palette of the
corresponding section.
a) The full paper can be viewed by clicking the “Question Paper” icon on the top right corner
of the screen.
b) Blank Sheets for doing Rough Work/ Calculations shall be provided to the candidates. The

59

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025
Blanks Sheets would have a Header page for the candidates to write down his/her Name
and Roll Number. All calculations/writing work is to be done only in the Blank Sheets
provided at the Centre in the Examination Room/Hall and on completion of the test
candidates must hand over the rough sheets to the invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
g) Procedure for answering questions that require inputs from the on-screen virtual
keyboard (numeric or otherwise):

i. The candidate will have to use the on-screen virtual keyboard (that would be displayed
just below the question statement of these types of questions) and the attached
computer mouse to enter his/her answer in the space provided for the answer.
On-Screen Virtual Keyboard

60

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

Appendix – X

Replica of Online Application Form of JEE (Main)-2025 Examination

61

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

62

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

63

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

64

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

65

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

66

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

67

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

68

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

69

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

70

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

71

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

72

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

73

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

74

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

75

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजें सी Information Bulletin - 2025

76