JEE Main 2026 Information Brochure

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजेंसी Information Bulletin - 2026

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजेंसी Information Bulletin - 2026

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजेंसी Information Bulletin - 2026

VISION

The right candidates joining best institutions will give India her demographic dividend.

MISSION

To improve equity and quality in education by administering research based valid, reliable, efficient,
transparent, fair and international level assessment. The best subject matter experts, psychometricians
and IT delivery and security professionals will ensure that the current gaps in existing assessment
systems are properly identify and bridge.

CORE VALUES

NTA will create system which will promote teaching (by teachers), learning (by students) and
assessment (by parents and institutions). NTA strongly believes in quality, efficiency, effectiveness,
equity and security of assessment. To practice these values, NTA will constantly engage with its
stakeholders, viz. students, parents, teachers, experts and partner institutions.

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजेंसी Information Bulletin - 2026

TABLE OF CONTENTS
S. No. Particulars Page No.

A. List of Abbreviations 1

B. Important Information, Dates at a Glance, Fee Structure & Application 2-5
Procedure

Chapter 1 – Introduction

1.1 About National Testing Agency (NTA) 7

1.2 Objectives of NTA 7

1.3 About Joint Entrance Examination (Main) - 2026 7-8

Chapter 2 – Examination Scheme

2.1 Mode of Examination 10

2.2 Choice of Medium of Question Papers 10

2.3 Scheme of Examination 11

2.4 Pattern of Examination 11-14

2.4.1 Multiple Choice Questions 15

2.4.2 Numerical Value Questions 15

2.5 Duration of Test 15-16

2.6 Syllabus of Examination 16

Chapter 3 – Eligibility and Qualification

3.1 Age Criteria 18

3.2 List of Qualifying Examinations (QE) 18

3.3 Year of Appearance in Qualifying Examination 19

3.4 State Eligibility 19

Chapter 4 – Reservations

4.1 Reservations 21

4.2 Provisions relating to Persons with Disability (PwD)/ Persons with
21
Benchmark Disability (PwBD)

4.2.1 The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 21

4.2.2 Office Memorandum dated 29 August 2018 22

4.2.3 Office Memorandum dated 10 August 2022 22-23

4.2.4 Scribe and Compensatory Time 23-24

4.3 Reservation Policy of State Government 24

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजेंसी Information Bulletin - 2026

Chapter 5 – Conduct of Examination

5.1 Choice of Cities 26

5.2 Admit Card 27

5.3 Schedule of Examination 28

5.4 Important Instructions for the Candidates 29-30

5.5 Unfair Means Practices and Breach of Examination Rules 31

5.5.1 Definition 31

5.5.2 Punishment for Using Unfair Means Practices 32

5.5.3 Cancellation of Result 32

5.6 Answer Key and Challenges 32

5.6.1 Display of Answer Key for Challenges 32

5.6.2 Display of Question Paper attempted and Recorded Responses 32

5.7 JEE (Main) NTA Score for Paper 1 and Paper 2 33

5.7.1 Compilation and display of Result of Paper-1 of JEE (Main) - 2026 34

5.7.2 Compilation and display of Result of Paper 2A (B. Arch) and Paper-2B
34-35
(B. Planning) of JEE (Main)-2026.

5.7.3 Re-evaluation / Re-checking of Result 36

5.7.4 Use of score of JEE (Main) – 2026 by other Organizations 36

5.8 Admission 36

5.8.1 Eligibility for Admission to NIT+ System i.e. NITs, IIEST, IIITs (Triple-I-
36
Ts), and Other-GFTIs participating through JoSAA/CSAB

5.8.2 Eligibility for Admission to Other Institutions 37

5.8.3 Seat Allocation Process and Admission Procedure 38

5.8.4 Eligibility Criteria for Indian National Appearing in JEE (Advanced)-
38
2026

5.9 Correspondence with NTA 38

5.10 Weeding Out Rules 38

5.11 Legal Jurisdiction 38

5.12 RTI 39

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजेंसी Information Bulletin - 2026

S. No. Appendix No. Particulars Page No.

Procedure for Online Payment of Fees and Helpline for
1 I 40
Payment-Related Queries

2 II The Schedule “specified disability” 41-43

Certificate regarding physical limitation in an Examinee to
3 III 44
Write
Certificate for person with specified disability covered
under the definition of Section 2 (s) of the RPwD Act, 2016
4 IV but not covered under the definition of Section 2(r) of the 45
said Act, i.e. persons having less than 40% disability and
having difficulty in writing

5 V Letter of Undertaking for using Own Scribe 46

6 VI List of Examination Cities for JEE (Main) – 2026 47-54

7 VII Normalization procedure based on Percentile Score 55-58

8 VIII Computer Based Test (CBT) 59-64

9 IX Replica of Online Application Form of JEE (Main)-2026 65-82
Examination

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजेंसी Information Bulletin - 2026
LIST OF ABBREVIATIONS

AICTE All India Council for Technical Education
AIU Association of Indian Universities
B. Arch. Bachelor of Architecture
B.E. Bachelor of Engineering
B. Planning Bachelor of Planning
B. Tech. Bachelor of Technology
CSAB Central Seat Allocation Board
CFTI Centrally Funded Technical Institute
CBT Computer Based Test
CoA Council of Architecture
DASA Direct Admission of Students Abroad
DePwD Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities
EWS Economically Weaker Section
FAQ Frequently Asked Questions
GCE General Certificate Education
GST Goods & Service Tax
Gen-EWS General-Economically Weaker Section
GoI Government of India
IIIT Indian Institute of Information Technology
IIT Indian Institute of Technology
JEE (Advanced) Joint Entrance Examination (Advanced)
JEE (Main) Joint Entrance Examination (Main)
JoSAA Joint Seat Allocation Authority
MoE Ministry of Education
NEP National Education Policy
NIC National Informatics Centre
NIOS National Institute of Open Schooling
NIT National Institute of Technology
NTA National Testing Agency
OBC (NCL) Other Backward Class (Non-Creamy Layer)
OCI Overseas Citizen of India
PwBD Person with Benchmark Disability
PwD Person with Disability
QP Question Paper
RPwD Rights of Persons with Disabilities
SC Scheduled Caste
ST Scheduled Tribe
UDID Unique Disability Identification
UIDAI Unique Identification Authority of India
UFM Unfair Means
IST Indian Standard Time
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राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजेंसी Information Bulletin - 2026
IMPORTANT INFORMATION AND DATES AT A GLANCE
1. Important Dates
EVENTS DATES
Session 1 (January 2026): JEE (Main) - 2026
Online Submission of Application Form 31 October 2025 to 27 November 2025
(Up to 09:00 P.M.)
Last date for successful transaction of prescribed 27 November 2025 (Up to 11:50 P.M.)
Application Fee
Correction in Particulars of the online Application Will be displayed on the NTA website
Form
City Intimation Slip First Week of January 2026 (Tentatively)
Downloading Admit Cards from the NTA website 03-04 days before the date of the Examination
Dates of Examination Between 21 January 2026 to 30 January 2026
Display of Question Paper attempted by the Will be displayed on the NTA website
Candidate and Answer Keys for inviting
challenges
Declaration of Result By 12 February, 2026
Session 2 (April 2026): JEE (Main) - 2026
Online Submission of Application Form Last week of January 2026 Onwards

Last date for successful transaction of prescribed Will be notified later
Application Fee
Correction in Particulars of the online Application Will be displayed on the NTA website
Form
City Intimation Slip Second Week of March 2026 (Tentatively)
Downloading Admit Cards from the NTA website 03-04 days before the date of the Examination
Dates of Examination Between 02 April 2026 to 09 April 2026
Display of Question Paper attempted by the Will be displayed on the NTA website
Candidate and Answer Keys for inviting
challenges
Declaration of Result By 20 April, 2026

Duration of Examination for each Session of JEE (Main) – 2026

Paper 1 (B. E/ B. Tech.)
Or
Paper 2A (B. Arch.) 03 Hours
Or
Paper 2B (B. Planning)
B. Arch & B. Planning (Both) 03 Hours 30 Minutes

Timing of Examination for each Session: JEE (Main) – 2026

Duration of Examination First Shift Second Shift

For 03 Hours Paper 09:00 A.M. to 12:00 Noon (IST) 03:00 P.M. to 06:00 P.M.
(IST)

For 03 Hours 30 Minutes Paper 09:00 A.M. to 12:30 P.M. (IST) 03:00 P.M. to 06:30 P.M.
(IST)

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राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजेंसी Information Bulletin - 2026

2. Fee payable for JEE (Main) – 2026 for each Session:
(Through Credit Card/Debit Card/Net Banking/ UPI):
Fee payable for JEE (Main) – 2026 (through Type of Centres in Centres Outside
Credit Card/ Debit Card/ Net-Banking/ UPI) Candidate India (Fee India (Fee in ₹)
in ₹)
General Male 1000 5000
Paper 1: B.E./B. Tech Female 800 4000
OR Gen-EWS/ OBC Male 900 4500
Paper 2A: B. Arch (NCL) Female 800 4000
OR SC/ST/ Male 500 2500
Paper 2B: B. Planning PwD/PwBD Female 500 2500
Third Gender 500 3000
Paper 1: B.E./ B. Tech & General/ Gen-Male 2000 10000
Paper 2A: B. Arch EWS/ OBC Female 1600 8000
OR (NCL)
Paper 1: B.E./B. Tech & SC/ ST/ PwD/ Male 1000 5000
Paper 2B: B. Planning PwBD Female 1000 5000
OR
Third Gender 1000 5000
Paper 1: B.E./B. Tech, Paper
2A: B. Arch & Paper 2B:
B. Planning
OR
Paper 2A: B. Arch &
Paper 2B: B. Planning
Processing charges and Goods & Service Taxes (GST) are to be paid by the candidate, as
applicable.
Candidates are requested to fill in the Application Form carefully. Corrections in only certain fields
will be permitted during the correction window which will be notified at a later stage.
Note: Multiple Application Forms submitted by a candidate will not be accepted and will lead to the
cancellation of his/her result.
(i) A candidate can apply for Session-1 (January 2026) examination and pay the exam fee
accordingly. The candidates will be given opportunity to apply for Session-2 (April 2026) separately
(using same application number) along with the fee payment, for which separate notification will be
issued.
(ii) If a candidate wishes to apply for Session 2 (April 2026), the candidate can log in and pay the
Examination Fee for Session 2 during that period. If candidate wishes to apply only for Session-2
(April 2026), he/she can register later, when application form for Session-2 (April 2026) is
active.
(iii) The application window for Session 2 will be opened as per the details available in the
Information Bulletin and will also be notified separately through a Public Notice.
(iv) The fee can be submitted only online through Net Banking, Credit Card, Debit Card, or UPI
Services. Processing charges and GST as applicable are chargeable from the candidate (in addition to
the examination fee) by the concerned Bank/Payment Gateway Integrator.
(v) The Confirmation Page of the online Application Form for each session will be generated only
after the successful payment of the fee by the Candidate. In case the Confirmation Page is not generated
after payment of the fee, then the candidate may have to approach the concerned Bank/Payment
Gateway (in the helpline numbers and email given in Appendix - I) to ensure the successful payment or
to obtain the refund of duplicate /multiple payments.

Under no circumstances, candidates will be allowed to fill more than one Application Form.
Strict action will be taken, even at a later stage, against such candidates who have filled 3
more than one Application Form and will be treated as UFM.

राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजेंसी Information Bulletin - 2026
3. Application Procedure: Steps to be followed to apply online
Step 1: Registration Form:
Register for the Online Application Form and note down the system-generated Application
Number. The candidate should provide the required details while filling the Online Application
Form and he/she is also required to create PASSWORD and choose Security Question and enter
his/her Answer. After successful submission of the personal details, an Application Number will
be generated and it will be used to complete the remaining Steps of the Application Form and will
also be required for all future reference/correspondence. The generated Application Number will
be used/referred for both Sessions of JEE (Main) - 2026. For subsequent logins, the candidate will
be able to login directly with the respective system generated Application Number and created
Password by him/herself.
Step 2: Application Form:
The Candidates can log in with the system-generated Application Number and pre-created
Password for completing the Application Form including filling up of personal details, applying for
the Paper, choosing the Examination Cities, providing the details of Educational Qualifications and
uploading the images and documents. The candidate will have to upload his/her live photograph
at the time of filling of the application form and will also have to upload his/her Scanned Images
of Photograph (.jpeg/.jpg), Signature, Class X or Equivalent Certificate/Marks-sheet and
PwD/PwBD Certificate (wherever applicable).
The recent passport size photograph should be in colour with 80% face (without mask)
visible including ears against white background. Photograph in JPG/JPEG format (clearly
legible) between 10 kb to 200 kb.
Signature file should be JPG/JPEG format (clearly legible) between 10 kb to 100 kb.
Scanned copy of Class 10 or Equivalent Certificate/Marks-sheet should be a pdf between 50 kb to
300 kb (clearly legible).
Scanned copy of Identity Proof (for those candidates who will verify their identities through
methods other than Aadhaar or DigiLocker) should be in format JPG/JPEG between 10 kb to
200 kb (clearly legible).
Scanned copy of Disability/UDID certificate should be a pdf between 50 kb to 300 kb (clearly
legible).
Note
1. NTA reserves the right for verification of the candidate’s details and photographs.
Candidates are advised to update their details on Aadhaar Card with their recent Photograph,
Name, Date of Birth, Gender, Address etc. (for updation in Aadhaar, please follow UIDAI
Guidelines).

2. For capturing Live Photograph, candidates should switch on their camera or connect their
webcam to the device used for filling the Application Form. If your device does not support a
webcam, QR code on the right can be scanned by the candidate using a mobile device/tablet etc.
Candidates should ensure there is a light-colored background with proper lighting, and 80% face
visibility (including ears, without a mask).
3. For PwD/PwBD candidates, the details of the UDID Card as uploaded will be verified
from UDID portal of the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities
(DePwD). Those who do not have UDID Card should upload Disability Certificate in the
proper format and the same may be verified by NTA from the issuing authority.
4. The Candidate has to upload his/ her own photograph, signature, and certificate(s) as
mentioned above (and not of anybody else) in a correct/proper manner, as the facility for

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राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजेंसी Information Bulletin - 2026
correction will not be given in the future. In case, it is found at any time in the future that the
Candidate has used/uploaded the photograph, signature, and certificate(s) of someone else in
his/her Application Form/admit card, or he/she has tampered his/her Admit
Card/Result/Scorecard, these acts of the candidate shall be treated as Unfair Means (UFM)
Practices and treated with the suitable actions as contemplated under the provisions of the
Information Bulletin relating to Unfair Means Practices.

Step 3: Fee Payment:
After completing Step 1 and Step 2, the candidates have to pay the requisite examination fees. The
fees can be paid only through online mode using Net Banking, Credit Card, Debit Card and UPI.
Processing charges and GST as applicable are chargeable to the candidates (in addition to the
examination fees) by the concerned Bank/Payment Gateway Integrator.
After successful payment, candidate will be able to print the Confirmation Page. In case the
Confirmation Page is not generated after payment of fee then the transaction is cancelled and the
candidates have to approach the concerned bank for refund of amount. However, the candidate
has to make another payment/transaction, in case the Confirmation Page is not generated. Any
such cases of multiple payments (if any), will be reconciled by the NTA after the declaration of
final result and will be refunded to the concerned candidates.

Important Instruction about PASSWORD:

During online form filling, the candidate will be required to choose PASSWORD and Security
Question and its Answer. The candidate is advised to record/remember his/her password for all
future logins.

For subsequent logins, the candidate will be able to login directly with his/her respective system-
generated Application Number and the chosen Password.

The candidate is advised not to disclose or share his/her password with anybody. Neither NTA
nor NIC will be responsible for the violation or misuse of the password of a candidate.
Candidates can change their passwords after login, if desired.

Candidates should remember to log out at the end of their session so that the particulars of the
candidate cannot be tampered with or modified by unauthorized persons.

The Password must be created as per the following policy.

Password must be 8 to 13 characters long.
Password must have at least one Upper case alphabet.
Password must have at least one Lower case alphabet.
Password must have at least one numeric value.
Password must have at least one special character (!@#$%^&*-)
How to reset your Password: The following options are available to reset Password

Using Security Question and its Answer you have chosen during Form filling.
Using a verification code sent via text message (SMS) to your Registered Mobile No.
Using a reset link sent via Email to your Registered Email address.
The Application Number printed on the computer-generated Confirmation Page must be
mentioned in all such correspondences. It is therefore essential to note down the application
number printed on the Confirmation Page.

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राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजेंसी Information Bulletin - 2026

CHAPTER – 1
INTRODUCTION

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राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजेंसी Information Bulletin - 2026

1.1 About National Testing Agency (NTA)

The Ministry of Education (MoE), Government of India (GoI) established the National Testing
Agency (NTA) as an independent, autonomous, and self-sustained premier testing organization
under the Societies Registration Act (1860) for conducting efficient, transparent and international
standardized tests in order to assess the competency of candidates for admission to premier higher
education institutions with a mission to improve equity and quality in education by developing and
administering research-based valid, reliable, efficient, transparent, fair and international level
assessments.

NTA has created a system that is promoting teaching (by teachers), learning (by students) and
assessment (by parents and institutions). NTA strongly believes in the quality, efficiency,
effectiveness, equity, and security of assessments. To practice these values, NTA is constantly
engaging with its stakeholders, viz. students, parents, teachers, experts and partner institutions.

1.2 Objectives of NTA

1. To conduct efficient, transparent and international standardized tests in order to assess
the competency of candidates for admission.
2. To undertake research on educational, professional and testing systems to identify gaps in
the knowledge systems and take steps for bridging them.
3. To produce and disseminate information and research on education and professional
development standards.

The Department of Higher Education, Ministry of Education, Government of India has entrusted the
responsibility of conducting the Joint Entrance Examination (Main) to the NTA since 2019 onwards.

1.3 About Joint Entrance Examination (Main) - 2026

The Joint Entrance Examination, JEE (Main) comprises of two papers. Paper 1 is conducted for
admission to Undergraduate Engineering Programs at NITs, IIITs, other Centrally Funded
Technical Institutions (CFTIs) and Institutions / Universities funded / recognized by participating
State Governments. JEE (Main) is also an eligibility test for JEE (Advanced), which is conducted for
admission to IITs. JEE (Main) Paper 2 is conducted for admission to B. Arch and B. Planning courses
in the country.

The JEE (Main) - 2026 is being conducted in 02 (two) sessions for admissions in the next academic
session. The candidates will thus benefit in the following ways:

• This will benefit the candidates by giving them two opportunities to improve their scores in
the examination if they are not able to give their best in the first attempt.
• In the first attempt, the candidates will get a first-hand experience of taking an examination
and will know their mistakes which they can improve while attempting for the second time.
This will reduce the chances of dropping a year and the candidates would not have to waste
an entire year.
• If anyone misses the examination due to reasons beyond control (such as the Board
Examination), then candidate will not have to wait for one entire year.
• A candidate need not appear in both Sessions, if he/she so desires. However, a candidate
appears in more than one Session then his/her best of the JEE (Main) - 2026 NTA Scores will
be considered for preparation of the Merit List/ Ranking.

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राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजेंसी Information Bulletin - 2026

Note 1.3

1. The results of JEE (Main) Paper 1 will be used for B.E/B.Tech, and also other programs like
Integrated M.Sc., Integrated M.Tech, Integrated B.Tech and MBA, Bachelor of Science, Bachelor of
pharmaceutics, Bachelor of Design, etc.
2. JEE (Main) - 2026 Session 1 for Paper 1 (B.E. / B. Tech.) will be held between 21 January
and 30 January 2026 and Session 2 will be held between 02 April and 09 April 2026 tentatively. This
is being done to ensure that the JEE (Main) - 2026 does not interfere with the Board examinations,
which may be held at different times across the States/UTs. JEE (Main) Paper 2A (B. Arch) and JEE
(Main) Paper 2B (B. Planning) are also being held twice a year (January and April 2026).

***********

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राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजेंसी Information Bulletin - 2026

CHAPTER – 2
EXAMINATION SCHEME

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राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजेंसी Information Bulletin - 2026

2.1 Mode of Examination

The JEE (Main) - 2026 is being conducted in the following modes:

a) Paper 1 (B.E. /B. Tech.) in “Computer Based Test (CBT)” mode.
b) Paper 2A (B. Arch): Mathematics (Part-I) and Aptitude Test (Part-II) in “Computer Based Test
(CBT)” mode and Drawing Test (Part-III) in pen and paper (offline) mode, to be attempted on
a drawing sheet of A4 size.
c) Paper 2B (B. Planning): Mathematics (Part-I), Aptitude Test (Part-II), and Planning-Based
Questions (Part-III) in Computer-Based Test (CBT) mode.

2.2 Choice of Medium of Question Papers

Drawing from the National Education Policy (NEP), the JEE (Main) - 2026 will be conducted in
thirteen languages i.e. English, Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada Malayalam, Marathi,
Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu and Urdu the details are given below:

Sr. No. Language Examination Centres
1 English All Examination Centres in India and Abroad
2 English and Hindi All Examination Centres in India
3 English and Assamese Examination Centres in Assam
4 Examination Centres in West Bengal, Tripura, and
English and Bengali
Andaman & Nicobar Islands
5 Examination Centres in Gujarat, Daman & Diu, Dadra &
English and Gujarati
Nagar Haveli
6 English and Kannada Examination Centres in Karnataka
7 English and Malayalam Examination Centres in Kerala and Lakshadweep
8 English and Marathi Examination Centres in Maharashtra
9 English and Odia Examination Centres in Odisha
10 Based on present and permanent address in Punjab,
English and Punjabi Chandigarh, and Delhi/New Delhi (including Faridabad,
Ghaziabad, Gurugram, Noida/ Greater Noida)
11 Examination Centres in Tamil Nadu, Puducherry, and
English and Tamil
Andaman & Nicobar Islands
12 English and Telugu Examination Centres in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana
13 English and Urdu All Examination Centres in India

Note – 2.2:
1. The option of language for Question Paper should be exercised carefully while filling up the online
Application Form and it cannot be changed at a later stage. Candidates while attempting the QP must
choose the same medium as opted while registering in the Application form.
2. The Question Paper will be in both English and the language opted by the candidate. English
version will prevail in the event of any difference of opinion.

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राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजेंसी Information Bulletin - 2026

2.3 Scheme of Examination
Subject combinations for each paper, type of questions in each paper and mode of
examination are given in the table below:

PAPER SUBJECTS TYPE OF QUESTIONS MODE OF EXAMINATION
Objective Type - Multiple
Choice Questions (MCQs)
Paper 1: Mathematics, and Questions for which
“Computer Based Test (CBT)” mode
B.E. / B. Physics and the answer is a numerical
only
Tech. Chemistry value, with equal
weightage to Mathematics,
Physics and Chemistry
Objective Type - Multiple
Choice Questions (MCQs)
Part-I:
and Questions for which
Mathematics “Computer Based Test (CBT)” mode
the answer is a numerical
only
Paper 2A: value
B. Arch Part-II: Objective Type - Multiple
Aptitude Test Choice Questions (MCQs)
“Pen and Paper Based” (offline)
Part-III: Drawing Questions to test drawing
mode to be attempted on a
Test aptitude
Drawing sheet of A4 size.
Objective Type - Multiple
Choice Questions (MCQs)
Part-I:
and Questions for which
Mathematics
the answer is a numerical
value
Paper 2B: “Computer Based Test (CBT)” mode
Objective Type -
B. Planning Part-II: only
Multiple
Aptitude Test
Choice Questions (MCQs)
Part-III: Objective Type -
Planning-Based Multiple Choice
Questions Questions (MCQs)

2.4 Pattern of Examination

Paper 1: B.E./ B. Tech. in Computer Based Test (CBT) mode:
Subject Number of Questions Marks
Subject-wise distribution Section A Section B
of Questions, Total Number Mathematics 20 05 100
1 of and Marks Questions, Physics 20 05 100
Chemistry 20 05 100
Total 75 300
Each Subject will have two sections. Section A will be of Multiple-Choice Questions (MCQs) and
Section B will contain Questions whose answers are to be filled in as a numerical value. There
will be negative marking for incorrect answer in Section A and Section B. For each question
in Section B, a candidate has to enter the correct integer value of the answer using the mouse and
the on- screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer. For Section
B, the answer should be rounded off to the nearest integer.

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राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजेंसी Information Bulletin - 2026

Correct Answer or the Most
Four marks (+4)
Appropriate Answer
2. Marking Scheme for MCQs Incorrect Answer Minus one mark (-1)
Unanswered / Marked for Review
No mark (0)
(without selecting any option)
Correct Answer Four marks (+4)
Marking Scheme for
3. questions for which the Incorrect Answer Minus one mark (-1)
answer is a Numerical value Unanswered / Marked for Review No mark (0)
(without filling any Numerical value)
Conversion of the raw score in Mathematics, Physics and
Chemistry and total into NTA scores.
Method of determining
4.
merit
Overall merit shall be prepared by merging NTA scores of all
shifts of both sessions.
Tie between candidates obtaining same Total NTA scores will
be resolved in the following order:
1. NTA score in Mathematics, followed by;
2. NTA score in Physics, followed by;
3. NTA score in Chemistry, followed by;
4. Candidate with less proportion of a number of attempted
incorrect answers and correct answers in all the subjects
in the Test, followed by;
5. Candidate with less proportion of a number of attempted
5. Method of resolving ties incorrect answers and correct answers in Mathematics in
the Test, followed by;
6. Candidate with less proportion of a number of attempted
incorrect answers and correct answers in Physics in the
Test, followed by;
7. Candidate with less proportion of a number of attempted
incorrect answers and correct answers in Chemistry in the
Test followed by;
8. If there is a tie even after this, candidates will be assigned the
same rank.
Paper 2A (B. Arch): Mathematics (Part-I) and Aptitude Test (Part-II) in Computer Based Test
(CBT) mode and Drawing Test (Part-III) in Pen and Paper Based (offline) mode, to be attempted on
a drawing sheet of A4 size.
Subject Number of Questions Marks
Subject-wise distribution Part I: Mathematics 20 (Section A) and
100
of Questions, Total 05 (Section B)
Number of Questions, and Part II: Aptitude test 50 200
Marks Part III: Drawing Test 02 100
1. Total 77 400
Part –I: In Section A, 20 questions will be MCQs and in Section B, 05 (five) questions will have
answers to be filled as a numerical value. There will be negative marking for both Section A
and Section B (except Drawing Test). For each question in Section B, a candidate has to enter
the correct integer value of the answer using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric
keypad in the place designated to enter the answer. The answer should be rounded off to the
nearest integer.

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Correct Answer or the most
Four marks (+4)
appropriate Answer
2. Marking Scheme for MCQs Incorrect Answer/Multiple Answer Minus one mark (-1)
Unanswered /Marked for Review
No mark (0)
(without selecting any option)
Correct Answer or the most
(a) Marking Scheme for appropriate Answer Four marks (+4)
questions for which the
Incorrect Answer Minus one mark (-1)
answer is a Numerical
3. Unanswered / Marked for Review
value No mark (0)
(without filling any Numerical value)
(b)Marking Scheme for
Two questions are to be evaluated out of 100 marks.
Drawing Test (Part III)
Conversion of the raw score in Mathematics, Aptitude Test,
Drawing Test, and total into NTA Scores.
Method of determining
4.
merit
Overall merit shall be prepared by merging the NTA Scores of
both shifts of the two sessions.
The tie between candidates obtaining the same Total NTA
scores will be resolved in the following manner:
1. NTA score in Mathematics, followed by;
2. NTA score in Aptitude Test, followed by;
3. NTA score in Drawing Test, followed by;
4. Candidate with less proportion of a number of attempted
incorrect answers and correct answers in all the subjects in
the Test, followed by;
5. Method of resolving ties 5. Candidate with less proportion of a number of attempted
incorrect answers and correct answers in Mathematics
(Part-I) in the Test, followed by;
6. Candidate with less proportion of a number of attempted
incorrect answers and correct answers in Aptitude Test
(Part-II) in the Test followed by;
7. If there is a tie even after this, candidates will be assigned the
same rank.

Paper 2B (B. Planning) Part-I: Mathematics, Part-II: Aptitude Test, and Part-III: Planning- Based
Questions in Computer-Based Test (CBT) mode.
1. Subject-wise distribution of Subject Number of Questions Marks
Questions, Total Part-I: Mathematics 20 (Section A) and 100
05 (Section B)
Number of Questions, and Part-II: Aptitude Test 50 200
Marks Part-III: Planning 25 100
Total 100 400

Part –I: In Section A, 20 questions will be MCQs and in Section B, 05 (five) questions will have
answers to be filled as a numerical value. There will be negative marking for both Section A
and Section B. For each question in Section B, enter the correct integer value of the answer using
the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the
answer. The answer should be rounded off to the nearest integer.

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Correct Answer or the most
appropriate Answer Four marks (+4)
2. Marking Scheme for MCQs Incorrect Answer/Multiple Answer Minus one mark (-1)
Unanswered /Marked for Review
No mark (0)
(without selecting any option)
Correct Answer or the most
Four marks (+4)
Marking Scheme for appropriate Answer
3. questions for which the Incorrect Answer Minus one mark (-1)
answer is a Numerical value Unanswered / Marked for Review
No mark (0)
(without filling any Numerical value)
Conversion of the raw score in Mathematics, Aptitude Test,
Planning Based Test, and total into NTA Scores.
Method of determining
4.
merit
Overall merit shall be prepared by merging NTA Scores of all
shifts of both sessions.
Tie between candidates obtaining equal Total NTA scores
in B. Planning will be resolved in the following manner:
1. NTA score in Mathematics, followed by;
2. NTA score in Aptitude Test, followed by;
3. NTA score in Planning Based Questions, followed by;
4. Candidate with less proportion of a number of attempted
incorrect answers and correct answers in all the subjects
in the Test, followed by;
5. Candidate with less proportion of a number of attempted
Method of resolving ties incorrect answers and correct answers in Mathematics
5.
(Part-I) in the Test, followed by;
6. Candidate with less proportion of a number of attempted
incorrect answers and correct answers in Aptitude Test
(Part- II) in the Test, followed by;
7. Candidate with less proportion of a number of attempted
incorrect answers and correct answers in Planning Based
Questions (Part-III) in the Test followed by;
8. If there is a tie even after this, candidates will be assigned
the same rank.

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2.4.1 Multiple Choice Questions

While every effort will be made to ensure that each question has only one unique answer, in case,
it is found that a question has more than one option, it will be dealt in the following manner:-

1. Correct answer or the most appropriate answer: Four marks (+4)
2. Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (-1)
3. Unanswered/Marked for Review (without selecting any option) will be given no mark (0)
4. If more than one option is found to be correct then Four marks (+4) will be awarded to only
those who have marked any of the correct options
5. If all options are found to be correct then Four marks (+4) will be awarded to all those who
have attempted the question

Although sufficient care will be taken for the correctness of questions, in the event that a
question(s) needs to be dropped, full marks for that question(s) will be awarded to ALL candidates
who appear for that particular shift.

2.4.2 Numerical Value Questions

There will be negative marking for Section B. However, if any anomaly or discrepancy is found
after the process of challenges of the key verification, it shall be addressed in the following manner:
1. Correct Answer: Four marks (+4)
2. Incorrect Answer: Minus one mark (-1)
3. Unanswered/Marked for Review (without filling any Numerical value): No mark (0).
4. If a question is found to be incorrect or the Question is dropped then Four marks (+4) will be
awarded to all Candidates who appeared for that particular shift.
5. Candidates are advised to do the calculations with the constants given (if any) in the questions.
The answer should be rounded off to the nearest integer.

2.5 Duration of Test

The total time duration for Paper 1 (B.E. / B. Tech.) is given in the table below:
Total Time Duration
*For PwD /PwBD
Paper Subjects For Non-PwD/PwBD
Candidates (who are
Candidates
eligible for scribe)
Paper 1 (B.E. / B. Physics, Chemistry, and
03 hours 04 hours
Tech.) Mathematics

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Total time duration for Paper 2A (B. Arch), Paper 2B (B. Planning) and Paper 2A (B. Arch) & Paper
2B (B. Planning) both are given in the table below:

Total Time Duration
Paper Subjects For Non-PwD/PwBD *For PwD /PwBD
Candidates Candidates (who
are eligible for
scribe)
Mathematics, Aptitude Test,
Paper 2A (B. Arch)
and Drawing Test 03 hours 04 hours
Mathematics, Aptitude Test,
Paper 2B (B. Planning) and Planning Based
03 hours 04 hours
Questions
Mathematics, Aptitude Test,
Paper 2A (B. Arch) & Drawing Test, and Planning 03 hours 30 minutes 04 hours 10
Paper 2B (B. Based minutes
Planning) both Questions

Note – 2.5: *Compensatory time for PwD/PwBD Candidates of 20 minutes per hour of
Examination will be given to those who are eligible for Scribe.
2.6 Syllabus of Examination
The detailed syllabus for JEE (Main) is available on the website: https://jeemain.nta.nic.in/

***********

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राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजेंसी Information Bulletin - 2026

CHAPTER – 3
ELIGIBILITY AND QUALIFICATION

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3.1 Age Criteria

For appearing in the JEE (Main) - 2026, there is no age limit for the candidates. The candidates who
have passed the class XII / equivalent Examination in 2024, 2025 or appearing in 2026
irrespective of their age can appear in JEE (Main) - 2026 Examination. However, the candidates
may be required to fulfill the age criteria of the Institute(s) to which they are desirous of taking
admission.

3.2 List of Qualifying Examinations

i. The final Examination of the 10+2 system, conducted by any recognized Central/ State
Board, such as the Central Board of Secondary Education, New Delhi; Council for the Indian
School Certificate Examinations, New Delhi; etc.
ii. Intermediate or two-year Pre-University examination conducted by a recognized Board/
University.
iii. Final examination of the two-year course of the Joint Services Wing of the National Defence
Academy.
iv. Senior Secondary School Examination conducted by the National Institute of Open Schooling
with a minimum of five subjects.
v. Any Public School/ Board/ University examination in India or any foreign country is
recognized as equivalent to the 10+2 system by the Association of Indian Universities (AIU).
vi. Higher Secondary Certificate Vocational Examination.
vii. A diploma recognized by AICTE or a State board of technical education of at least 3
years duration.
viii. General Certificate Education (GCE) examination (London/Cambridge/Sri Lanka) at the
Advanced (A) level.
ix. High School Certificate Examination of the Cambridge University or International
Baccalaureate Diploma of the International Baccalaureate Office, Geneva.
x. Candidates who have completed the Class XII (or equivalent) examination outside India or
from a Board not specified above should produce a certificate from the Association of Indian
Universities (AIU) to the effect that the examination they have passed is equivalent to the
Class XII Examination.
xi. In case the Class XII Examination is not a public examination, the candidate must have passed
at least one public (Board or Pre-University) examination earlier.
xii. Board of Open Schooling and Skill Education (BOSSE), Sikkim.

Note 3.2:- The candidates can appear in JEE (Main) - 2026 conducted by NTA as per the above
mentioned qualifying Examination. However, the candidates should satisfy themselves for
eligibility to appear or get admission in any Institute/ University etc, as per their eligibility
criteria and visit the respective websites/ view notifications. NTA is responsible only for
conduct of JEE (Main) Examination and no grievances / RTI etc, will be entertained regarding
qualification criteria for any particular Institute/ University etc.

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3.3 Year of Appearance in Qualifying Examination

Candidates those who have passed the Class XII / Equivalent Examination in 2024, 2025 or those
who are appearing in the Class XII / equivalent Examination in 2026, are eligible to appear in JEE
(Main) - 2026.

Candidates who passed the Class XII / equivalent Examination in 2023 or before are not eligible to
appear in JEE (Main) - 2026. Passing year for class XII (or Equivalent Examination) means the year,
in which the result of the candidate has been declared as ‘pass’ for the first time in that particular
Examination (Class XII/ Equivalent Examination).

For example, if a candidate has passed Class XII with Physics, Chemistry and Biology subjects in the
year 2023 and further passed Class XII in Mathematics in the year 2024, then year 2023 will be
considered as passing year of Class XII for appearing in JEE (Main). Similarly, any attempt of
improvement in marks/percentage of class XII/ Equivalent Examination will not be considered as
their first attempt.

Note 3.3: The Candidates who are appearing for Class XII Board Examination in the year 2026 can
mention their Roll Number/ Registration Number / Enrollment Number etc. in the relevant fields
during filling up the Online Application Form for JEE (Main)- 2026.

3.4 State of Eligibility

State code of eligibility means the code of the State from where the candidate has passed the Class
XII (or Equivalent) qualifying Examination by virtue of which the candidate becomes eligible to
appear in JEE (Main) - 2026. It is important to note that the State code of eligibility does NOT
depend upon the native place or the place of residence of the candidate. For example, if a candidate
appears for the Class XII (or Equivalent) qualifying Examination from an Institution situated in
New Delhi and is a resident of Noida, Uttar Pradesh, then the candidate’s State code of eligibility
will be Delhi and NOT Uttar Pradesh.

If a candidate has passed the Class XII (or Equivalent) qualifying Examination from one State but
appeared for improvement from another State, the candidate’s State code of eligibility will be from
where the candidate first passed the Class XII (or Equivalent) Examination and NOT the State from
where the candidate has appeared for improvement.

Candidates passed / appearing for Class XII from NIOS should select the State of Eligibility
according to the State in which the study Centre is located.

For Indian nationals passing the Class XII (or Equivalent) Examination from Nepal/Bhutan, the
State code of eligibility will be determined based on a permanent address in India as given in the
passport of the candidate.

The State code of eligibility for OCI passing the Class XII (or Equivalent) Examination in India is at
par with Indian nationals. However, OCI passing the Class XII (or Equivalent) Examination from an
institution abroad are eligible for All India quota seats (but NOT for Home State quota seats) in all
NITs, IIITs and Other-CFTIs.

***********

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राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजेंसी Information Bulletin - 2026

CHAPTER – 4
RESERVATIONS

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4.1 Reservations

Indian nationals belonging to certain categories are admitted under the seats reserved for them in
accordance with the rules prescribed by the Government of India. The categories and the extent of
reservation are as follows:

1. General category belonging to Economically Weaker Section (GEN- EWS) – 10% of seats in
every course. The benefit of reservation will be given only to those General category
candidates who satisfy the conditions given in the OM No. 20013/01/2018-BC-II dated 17
January 2019, issued by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. The criteria for
GEN-EWS will be as per the prevailing norms and/or notifications of the Government of India.
2. Other Backward Classes belonging to the Non-Creamy Layer (OBC- NCL) – 27% of seats in
every course.
a) OBCs should be listed in the current updated central list of OBCs (http://www.ncbc.ac.in).
b) OBCs present in the State list but not covered in the central list of OBCs (as per the list
in http://www.ncbc.ac.in) are NOT eligible to claim the reservation.
c) The criteria for OBC-NCL will be as per the notification of the Government of India.
d) Candidates belonging to the creamy layer of OBC are NOT entitled to reservation. Such
candidates are treated as belonging to the General (GEN), i.e. Unreserved Category, and
they will be eligible only for the OPEN seats – the seats for which all candidates are
eligible.
3. Scheduled Caste (SC) – 15% of seats in every course.
4. Scheduled Tribe (ST) – 7.5% of seats in every course.
5. Persons with Benchmark Disability (PwBD) – 5% seats in each of the GENERAL, GEN-EWS,
OBC- NCL, SC and ST category seats.

4.2 Provisions relating to Persons with Disability (PwD)/ Persons with Benchmark
Disability (PwBD)

4.2.1 The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016

The Gazette of India, Extraordinary Part-II Section 1, Ministry of Law and Justice (Legislative
Department) New Delhi dated 28 December 2016 on “The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act,
2016. The relevant paragraphs of the above Gazette Notification for consideration are as under: -

Para 2 (r) “person with benchmark disability” means a person with not less than forty percent of a
specified disability where specified disability has not been defined in measurable terms and
includes a person with disability where specified disability has been defined in measurable terms,
as certified by the certifying authority;

Para 2 (s) “person with disability” means a person with long term physical, mental, intellectual or
sensory impairment which, in interaction with barriers, hinders his full and effective participation
in society equally with others;

Para 2 (zc) “specified disability” means the disabilities as specified in the Schedule; (Appendix - II)

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4.2.2 Office Memorandum dated 29 August 2018

Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment, Govt. of India, Office Memorandum No. F. No.
3402/2015-DD-III dated 29 August 2018 for conducting written examination for persons with
specified disabilities covered under the definition of Section 2(r) of the RPwD Act, 2016. The
relevant paragraphs of the above Office Memorandum for consideration are as under: -

Para IV. The facility of Scribe/Reader/Lab Assistant should be allowed to any person with
benchmark disability as defined under section 2(r) of the RPwD Act, 2016 and has limitation in
writing including that of speed if so desired by him/her.

In case of persons with benchmark disabilities in the category of blindness, locomotor disability
(both arms affected-BA) and cerebral palsy, the facility of scribe/reader/lab assistant shall be
given, if so desired by the person.

In case of other category of persons with benchmark disabilities, the provision of
scribe/reader/lab assistant can be allowed on production of a certificate to the effect that person
concerned has physical limitation to write, and scribe is essential to write examination on his
behalf, from the Chief Medical Officer/Civil Surgeon/Medical Superintendent of a Government
health care institution as per proforma at Appendix - III.

In case the candidate is allowed to bring his own scribe, the qualification of the scribe should be
one step below the qualification of the candidate taking examination. The person opting for own
scribe should submit details of the own scribe as per proforma at Appendix-V.

4.2.3 Office Memorandum dated 10 August 2022

Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment, Govt. of India, Office Memorandum No F. No. 29-
6/2019-DD-III dated 10 August 2022 for conducting written examination for persons with
specified disabilities covered under the definition of Section 2(s) of the RPwD Act, 2016 but not
covered under the definition of Section 2(r) of the said Act, i.e. person having less than 40%
disability and having difficulty in writing. The relevant paragraphs of the above Office
Memorandum for consideration are as under: -

Para 3(b). The facility of scribe and/or compensatory time shall be granted solely to those
having difficulty in writing subject to production of a certificate to the effect that person
concerned has limitation to write and that scribe is essential to write examination on his/her
behalf from the competent medical authority of a Government healthcare institution as per
proforma at Appendix-IV.

Para 3 (c). The medical authority for the purpose of certification as mentioned above should
be a multi-member authority comprising the following: -

i. Chief Medical officer/Civil Surgeon /Chief District Medical Officer, Chairperson
ii. Orthopaedic/PMR specialist
iii. Neurologist, if available*
iv. Clinical Psychologist/Rehabilitation Psychologist/ Psychiatrist/Special Educator
v. Occupational therapist, if available*
vi. Any other expert based on the condition of the candidate as may be nominated by the
Chairperson.

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(* the Chief Medical Officer/Civil Surgeon/Chief District Medical Officer may make full efforts for
inclusion of neurologists, occupational therapist from the nearest District or the Medical
College/Institute, if the same is not available in the District)”

The candidate should fill up the details of scribe as per undertaking proforma at Appendix-V.

4.2.4 Scribe and Compensatory Time

1. The candidate should have the discretion of opting for his own scribe / reader / lab
assistant or request the Examination Body for the same. The Examining Body may also
identify the scribe / reader / lab assistant to make panels at the District / Division / State
level as per the requirements of the Examination. In such instances the candidates should
be allowed to meet the scribe before the Examinations so that the candidates get a chance
to check and verify whether the scribe is suitable or not.

2. The word “extra time or additional time” that is being currently used should be changed
to “compensatory time” and the same should not be less than 20 minutes per hour of
Examination for persons who are allowed use of scribe / reader / lab assistant. All the
candidates with benchmark disabilities who are eligible for availing the facility of scribe in
terms of guidelines vide para IV of Para 4.2.2 above may be allowed additional time of
minimum of one hour for Examination of 3 hours duration whether they use the facility of
scribe or not. In case the duration of the Examination is less than an hour, then the duration
of additional time should be allowed on pro-rata basis. Additional time should not be less
than 5 minutes and should be in the multiple of 5”.

Note 4.2.4

1. Both the guidelines i.e. dated 29 August 2018 (for PwBDs) and dated 10 August 2022
(for PwDs) have other important aspects such as allowing use of assistive devices,
proper seating arrangement, accessibility of Examination centres etc. which will be
followed. The scribe will help the Candidate in reading the questions and / or keying in the
answers as per the directions of the Candidate. A scribe will NEITHER explain the questions
NOR suggest any solution to the Candidate.

2. It is to be noted that the Scribe will be provided by the National Testing Agency (NTA), if opted
for by the Candidate. If it is found at any stage that a candidate has availed the services of a
scribe and/or availed the compensatory time but does not possess the extent of disability that
warrants the use of a scribe and/or grant of compensatory time, the candidate will be excluded
from the process of evaluation, ranking, counselling and admission. In case such a candidate
has already been admitted to any Institution, the admission of the candidate may also be
cancelled.

Physical Disability certificate (Unique Disability Identification (UDID)) issued by the notified
medical authority needs to be uploaded in the Online Application Form of JEE (Main) – 2026.

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3. The NTA does not guarantee any change in the category or sub-category (PwD/PwBD status)
after the submission of the Online Application Form, and in any case, no change will be
entertained by NTA after the declaration of NTA Score for JEE (Main) - 2026. The category/sub-
category (PwD/PwBD status) entered in the JEE (Main) Database by the candidate will be used
for the JEE (Advanced). Therefore, the candidates are advised to fill in the category/sub-
category column very carefully.

4. The extent of “specified disability” in a person shall be assessed in accordance with the
“Guidelines for the purpose of assessing the extent of specified disability in a person included under
the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016.

5. Candidates must note that the benefit of reservation will be given to them subject to verification
of documents. If it is discovered at any stage that a candidate has used a false/fake/incorrect
document or has furnished false, incorrect or incomplete information, in order to avail the benefit
of reservation, then such a candidate shall be excluded from all admission processes. In case such
a candidate has already been given admission, the admission shall stand cancelled.

4.3 Reservation Policy of State Government

In the case of the Institutes run/aided/recognized by State Governments, the reservation policy of
the respective State Governments shall be applicable.

Note – 4.3

1. The benefit of reservation for admission to NITs/ IIITs and CFTIs shall be given only to those
classes/castes/tribes which are in the respective Central List published by the Government of
India from time to time.
2. The benefit of reservation will be given only to those castes and tribes that are mentioned in
the respective central list of corresponding states published by the Government of India
(websites: http://socialjustice.nic.in and https://ncst.nic.in).

***********

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राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजेंसी Information Bulletin - 2026

CHAPTER – 5
CONDUCT OF EXAMINATION

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राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजेंसी Information Bulletin - 2026
5.1 Choice of Cities

The Cities where the JEE (Main) – 2026 Session 1 will be conducted are given in Appendix -VI. While
applying, candidates can select up to a maximum of four cities of their choice within the States
provided in their Present and Permanent Address. All efforts will be made to allot the city of
Examination to the candidates in order of choice opted by them in their online Application Form.
However, due to administrative/logistic reasons, a different city can be allotted.

In case, there are very few candidates from a City, the NTA reserves the right to merge one, two or
more cities.

The decision of the NTA regarding the allotment of the City/Centre shall be final. No further
correspondence or request shall be entertained in such a case.

While filling up the Online Application Form, candidates can select maximum four Convenient
Cities from Appendix - VI as their Choice of Cities for the exam Centre in order of their priority.
Choice of Centre Cities will be limited to the State of Permanent Address or State of Present
Address only and in certain cases, only one option may also be available based on the address
criteria.

In case of foreign candidates also, Choice of Cities will be based on their Present and
Permanent address from Appendix -VI for the exam Centre in order of their priority.

For convenience, the candidates may select their own city or neighbouring cities in their State of
Residence or permanent address only. NTA will not be responsible for any inconvenience due to
the incorrect selection of cities by the candidates.

In case, the number of candidates opting for a city as a Centre with a regional language is less than
a certain minimum, candidates may be allotted a Centre in another city irrespective of the city opted
by the candidates for appearing in the examination.

Though every effort will be made to allot a Centre in one of the cities selected by the candidate, the
NTA reserves the right to allot a Centre in a city other than the candidate’s choice.

Allotment of Centres will be done mostly in one of the preferred cities of the candidates and there
will be no human intervention.

Note 5.1 –: All efforts will be made by NTA to consider the comfort and convenience of candidates,
including PwD/ PwBD Candidates while allotting Centres.

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राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजेंसी Information Bulletin - 2026
5.2 Admit Card

The e-Admit Card will be issued provisionally to the candidates through the NTA website:
https://jeemain.nta.nic.in/, subject to the fulfillment of the eligibility conditions and receipt of the
prescribed application fee by NTA.

The candidate has to download the Admit Card from the NTA website. The candidate will appear
in the Examination at the given Centre on the date and shift/timing as indicated in his/her e-Admit
Card.

No candidate will be allowed to appear at the Examination Centre, on the date and shift/time other
than that allotted to them on their Admit Card.

In case a candidate is unable to download his/ her Admit Card from the website, he/ she should
approach the NTA Help Line Number: 011-40759000 between 10.00 A.M. to 05.00 P.M.

The candidates are advised to read the instructions on the Admit Card carefully and strictly follow
them during the examination.

In case of any discrepancy in the particulars of the candidate or his/her photograph and signature
shown in the e-Admit Card and Confirmation Page, the candidate may immediately approach the
NTA Help Line from 10:00 A.M. to 05:00 P.M. In such a case, the candidate should appear in the
Examination with the already downloaded Admit Card. However, NTA will take necessary action
to make corrections in the record later.

Note – 5.2:

1. Any candidate reporting at the centre after the gate closing time will not be permitted to
appear for the Examination and any act of forceful entry or any representation/argument
with the exam functionaries will lead to consideration of the act by the candidate as UFM.
2. The Candidates may note that Admit Card will not be sent by post.
3. In no case, the duplicate Admit Card for Joint Entrance Examination (Main) - 2026
would be issued at the Examination Centres.
4. The candidates must not mutilate the Admit Card or change any entry made therein. Any
intentional act to bring in any change or tampering of Admit Card if noticed, will be
considered as UFM.
5. Candidates are advised to preserve their Admit Card in good condition for future reference.
6. No Admit Card shall be issued to the candidates whose applications are found to be
incomplete for any reasons (including indistinct/ doubtful photographs/unsigned
Applications) or who do not fulfill the eligibility criteria for the Examination.
7. Issue of Admit Card, however, shall not necessarily mean acceptance of eligibility which
shall be further scrutinized at subsequent stages of the admission process.
8. The candidates are advised to check their registered Email ID’s regularly and reply to any
clarification sought by NTA during the entire cycle of Examination.

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राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजेंसी Information Bulletin - 2026
5.3 Schedule of Examination

Session 1: Between 21 January 2026 and 30 January 2026
Session 2: Between 02 April 2026 and 09 April 2026
Dates of Examination
(Exact date, shift, and city of examination for Paper 1: B.E./B. Tech and
Paper 2A: B. Arch and Paper 2B: B. Planning will be made available to
the Candidates on their Admit Cards)
Paper 1: B.E. / B. Tech “Computer Based Test (CBT)” mode only
Part-I: Mathematics
and
Part-II: Aptitude Test
Paper 2A: B.Arch. in Computer Based Test (CBT) mode only
Mode of Examination Part-III: Drawing Test
in “Pen and Paper” (offline) mode, to be
attempted on a Drawing sheet of A4 size.
Part-I: Mathematics
Part-II: Aptitude Test
Paper 2B: B. Planning
Part-III: Planning Based MCQs
in “Computer Based Test (CBT)” mode only
Duration of
First Shift Second Shift
Examination
3 Hours (Paper 1, 2A, 09.00 A.M. to 12.00 03.00 P.M. to 06.00 P.M.
Timing of Examination
2B) Noon (IST) (IST)
3 Hours 30 Minutes 09.00 A.M. to 12.30 03.00 P.M. to 06.30 P.M.
(Paper 2A & 2B) P.M. (IST) (IST)
Entry in the Examination
Centre/ Hall/ Room,
frisking, biometric
registration/ record of
manual attendance by
Invigilator, document 07.00 A.M. to 08.30 A.M. 01.00 P.M. to 02.30 P.M.
verification/ cross-
checking of Admit Card,
signature, and photo
match to be completed
by Invigilator, etc.
Instructions by the
08.30 A.M. to 08.50 A.M. 02.30 P.M. to 02.50 P.M.
Invigilator(s)
Candidates log in to
08.50 A.M. 02.50 P.M.
read instructions
Test Commences 09.00 A.M. 03.00 P.M.

Note – 5.3: *Compensatory time for PwD/PwBD Candidates of 20 minutes for a one-hour
Examination will be given to those who are eligible for Scribe.

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5.4 Important Instructions for the Candidates

1. Candidates are advised to report at the Examination Center well on time i.e. 02 hours before
the commencement of the Examination.
2. Candidates should take their seats immediately after the opening of the Examination Hall. If the
candidates do not report before the gate closing time due to any reason i.e. traffic jam,
train/bus delay, etc., they will not be permitted to appear in the Examination since they did not
reach the centre as per the pre-intimated time. No representation will be entertained for such
candidates who report late at the Examination centre. The NTA shall not be responsible for any
delay of the candidate to reach the Examination Centre in any way.
3. The candidate must show, on-demand, the Admit Card downloaded/ printed from the NTA
website for admission in the Examination centre/ room/ hall. The Test Centre Staff on duty is
authorized to verify the identity of candidates and may take steps to verify and confirm the
identity credentials. Candidates are requested to extend their full cooperation. Candidates who
do not possess valid Admit Card and authorized Photo IDs shall not be permitted to take the
examination under any circumstances by the Centre Superintendent.
4. A seat indicating Roll Number will be allotted to each candidate. Candidates should find and sit
in their allocated seats only. In case a candidate ventures to change his/her seat and does not
sit on the allotted seat, the act will be considered as UFM and he/she may face cancellation
of candidature or debarment as per relevant clause of UFM. No plea would be entertained in
this regard.
5. The candidate should ensure that the Question Paper available on the computer is as per
candidate opted subject indicated in the Admit Card. In case, the subject of the Question
Paper is other than candidate opted subject, the same may be brought to the notice of the
Invigilator concerned.
6. The candidates may approach the Centre Superintendent/Invigilator in the room for any
technical assistance, first aid emergency, or any other information during the course of the
examination.
7. For any queries or issues regarding the Computer Based Test, the candidates may contact on
Helpline Numbers available on the Joint Entrance Examination (Main) website or refer to
Appendix VIII of the Information Bulletin.
8. In case a candidate, by furnishing false information, appears in more than one shift/date, the
candidate will be considered as UFM and will be treated as per relevant clause of UFM including
cancellation of candidature or debarment for up to 3 years.
9. For those who are unable to appear on the scheduled date/shift and pre-intimated time of the
test for any reason, no opportunity for re-test will be provided by the NTA under any
circumstances.
10. All Candidates shall ensure that the information (like his/her name, mother’s name, father’s
name, gender, date of birth, category, PwD/PwBD status, mobile number, e-mail address,
photograph, signature and choice of cities for examination Centre, etc.) provided by them in
their online Application Form is correct. Candidates are advised to exercise the utmost care in
filling up the correct details in the Online Application Form. Any request for change in the
particulars and uploaded scanned images at any stage will not be considered by NTA under any
circumstances. NTA will not entertain the corrections sent by the candidate through
Post/Fax/WhatsApp/E-mail/by Hand.
11. Candidates are NOT allowed to carry Instruments, Geometry or Pencil box, Handbag, Purse, any
kind of Paper/ Stationery/ Textual material (printed or written material), Eatables and Water
(loose or packed), Mobile Phone/ Earphone/ Microphone/ Pager, Calculator, DocuPen, Slide
Rules, Log Tables, Camera, Tape Recorder, Electronic Watches with facilities of calculator, any
metallic item or electronic gadgets/ devices in the Examination Centre/ Hall/Room.
12. Candidates are requested to retain both hard and soft copies of the Confirmation Page, Admit
Card, and Scorecard of the JEE (Main) – 2026 as the same will not be available after 31 July
2026.

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राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजेंसी Information Bulletin - 2026
13. Candidates MUST carry the following documents on the day of Examination at the test centre.
In the absence of these documents, candidates will not be allowed to appear for the Examination.

a. Print copy of Admit Card along with Self Declaration (Undertaking) downloaded from the NTA
Website (a clear printout on A4 size paper) duly filled in.
b. One passport size photograph (same as uploaded on the Online Application Form) for pasting
on the specific space in the Attendance Sheet at Centre during the Examination.
c. Any one of the authorized photo IDs (must be original, valid, and non-expired) – valid School
Identity Card/ PAN card / Voter ID/ Passport/ Aadhaar Card (with photograph)/ e-Aadhaar with
photograph/ Class X I I Board Admit Card with photograph/ Bank Passbook with Photograph.
d. PwD/PwBD Certificate issued by the authorized medical officer, if claiming the relaxation under
PwD/PwBD category or PwD/PwBD Certificate regarding physical limitation in an Examination to
write as per Annexures given in Information Bulletin, if claiming the relaxation under PwD/PwBD
category.
e. A simple transparent Ball Point Pen.

14. For Rough work

All calculations/writing work is to be done only in the Rough Sheet provided at the Test Centre in
the Examination Room/Hall and on completion of the test, candidates must hand over the Rough
Sheets to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.

Candidate must write their Names and Application Number on the top of each Rough Sheet
provided to him/her during the Examination. In case candidates are found swapping the rough
sheets, they will be considered as UFM and appropriate action will be taken as per relevant clauses
of UFM.

The rough sheets provided to the candidate will be collected by the invigilator and destroyed by
shredding after the conduct of Examination.

Note – 5.4:
1. Candidates shall appear at their own cost at the Centre on the Date, Shift and Time as
indicated in their Admit Card issued by the NTA. Under no circumstances the choice of cities
for the Centre and shift provided in the Admit Card shall be changed.
2. Candidates are advised to update their details on Aadhaar Card with their recent
Photograph, Name, Date of Birth, Gender, Address etc. (for updation in Aadhaar, please
follow UIDAI Guidelines) for verification at the Examination Centre.
3. Sikh candidates are permitted to wear their religious articles i.e. “KARA’ and “KIRPAN”.

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5.5 Unfair Means Practices and Breach of Examination Rules

5.5.1 Definition
Unfair Means Practice is an activity that allows a candidate to gain an unfair advantage over other
candidates. It refers to any actions or behaviour by a candidate that violate Examination rules and
compromise the integrity, fairness, or confidentiality of the Exam. It includes, but is not limited to-
• Being in possession/use of any item or article in the Exam Hall which has been prohibited or can
be used for unfair practices, including any stationery item, communication device, Mobile Phone,
Bluetooth device, smartwatch, calculator, electronic device, accessories, any items restricted by
the Examination Agency or any other material or information relevant or not relevant to the
Examination in the paper concerned;
• Engaging someone to write an Examination (impersonation) or preparing material for copying;
• Assisting other candidates to engage in malpractices, giving or receiving assistance of any kind
directly or indirectly or attempting to do so;
• Contacting or communicating or trying to do so with any person, other than the Examination
Staff, during the Examination time in the Examination Centre;
• Peaking and interacting, talking, whispering, cheating, writing on hands/desks, assisting others
during the Exam;
• Passing answers or communicating through hand signals or gestures, looking at another
student’s screen;
• Threatening any of the officials connected with the conduct of the Examination or threatening
any of the candidates;
• Using or attempting to use any other undesirable method or means in connection with the
Examination;
• Manipulation, Locking and fabrication of online or Physical documents/Certificates viz. Admit
Card, Self- Declaration, score card, Aadhaar Card or any certificates/documents issued by any
Government authority etc.;
• Forceful entry in /exit from Examination Centre/Hall beyond the specified time;
• Use or attempted use of any electronic device after entering the Examination Centre;
• Affixing/uploading of wrong/morphed photographs/signatures on the Application Form/Admit
Card/ Proforma;
• Passing on the rough paper with scribbling;
• Trying to hack the system, possession/use of USBs, hacking tools, cheating through Screen
recording, taking photos/screenshots, Bluetooth devices, logging in with another person's
credentials or fake ID, trying to hack the test software, tampering, pausing or altering test timer,
sharing or leaking digital copies of questions
• Creating obstacles in the smooth and fair conduct of the Examination;
• Fidgeting and looking here and there;
• In possession of bits of written/ printed paper;
• Any candidate with more than one Application Number (more than one SCORE CARDS) will be
treated as UFM, even if found at a later stage, and strict action will be taken against that
Candidate;
• Producing/uploading manipulated Disability Certificate/ Medical Certificate or Documents;
• Breaching Examination rules or any direction issued by NTA in connection with various
Examination from time to time;
• Any other malpractices declared as Unfair Means by the NTA;
• An offence punishable under the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024.

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राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजेंसी Information Bulletin - 2026
5.5.2 Punishment for using Unfair Means Practices
During the course of, before, or after the Examination if a candidate indulges in any of the above or
similar practices, he/she shall be deemed to have used unfair practices and booked under the
Unfair Means case UFM. A Committee will be constituted to review all UFM cases.
NTA reserves the rights to take appropriate action as per the procedures & norms and punishment
or punitive actions will be taken based on the nature of offence.
The candidate may be debarred up to 3 years in the future and shall also be liable for criminal action
and /or any other action as deemed fit. No representation in this regard will be entertained by the
NTA.
5.5.3 Cancellation of Result
The result of JEE (Main) - 2026 of the candidate(s) who indulge in Unfair Means Practices will be
cancelled and will not be declared. Similarly, the result of those candidates who appear from the
Centre other than the one allotted to them or allow another candidate/person to write the
examination on his behalf will be cancelled. Any candidate who appears in a Session more than
once will lead to cancellation of his/ her candidature and will be debarred as per relevant
UFM clause. No plea will be entertained in this regard.
5.6 Answer Key and Challenges
5.6.1 Display of Answer Key for Challenges

1. The NTA will display the Provisional Answer Key of the questions along with the recorded
Response of the candidate on the NTA website: https://jeemain.nta.nic.in/, with a Public
Notice, issued to this effect on the said website, to provide an opportunity to the candidates to
challenge the Provisional Answer Keys with a non-refundable online payment of ₹ 200/- per
question challenged as processing charges. The provisional Answer Keys are likely to be
displayed for two to three days.
2. Only paid challenges made during the stipulated time through the key challenge link will be
considered. Challenges without justification/evidence and those filed on any other medium
other than the prescribed link will not be considered.
3. The NTA decision on the challenges shall be final and no further communication will be
entertained. NTA will not inform the Candidates individually about the outcome of the
challenges made.
4. The subject experts will examine all the challenges received and then a final answer key will be
displayed and declared.
5. The result will be compiled based on the final answer key declared on NTA website. No
grievance with regard to answer key(s) and recorded response(s) after the declaration of
result/NTA Score of JEE (Main) - 2026 will be entertained.

5.6.2 Display of Question Paper attempted and Recorded Responses

The NTA will display the recorded responses and Question Papers attempted by the candidates on
the NTA website https://jeemain.nta.nic.in/ prior to the declaration of the result / NTA Score. The
recorded responses are likely to be displayed for two to three days. The candidates are advised
to download their Response Sheet and retain a hard copy since the same will not be provided at a
later stage.

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5.7. JEE (Main) NTA Score for Paper-1 and Paper-2

Evaluation of multiple-choice questions for Paper-1 and Paper-2 will be carried out using final
answer keys and the raw (actual) marks obtained by a candidate will be considered for computation
of the result of JEE (Main) – 2026. In Paper 2(A), the marks obtained by the candidates after digital
evaluation of Drawing Test will be added to the total marks. For multi-shift papers, raw (actual)
marks obtained by the candidates in different shifts/sessions will be converted to NTA Score.

The detailed procedure for the compilation of the NTA Score is available on the NTA Website and
also in the Appendix-VII of the Information Bulletin.

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राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजेंसी Information Bulletin - 2026

5.7.1 Compilation and display of Result of Paper-1 of JEE (Main) - 2026

a) Compilation and display of NTA Score for Session 1 of Paper-1:

The Session 1 of JEE (Main) - 2026 Paper-1 will be conducted in multi-shifts, and the NTA scores
will be calculated corresponding to the raw (actual) marks obtained by a candidate. The
calculated NTA scores for all the registered candidates will be declared on the website. This will
comprise the NTA scores for each of the three subjects (Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry)
and the total in B.E. / B. Tech of Session 1 of Paper 1 of JEE (Main) – 2026.

b) Compilation of NTA Score for Session 2 of Paper-1:

Similarly, Session 2 of JEE (Main) - 2026 Paper-1 will be conducted in multi-shifts, and NTA
scores will be calculated corresponding to the raw (actual) marks obtained by a candidate.
The calculated NTA scores for all the registered candidates will comprise the two NTA scores
for each of the three subjects (Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry).

c) Compilation and display of results including overall Merit List/Ranking of Paper 1:

The NTA scores for each of the candidates in Total in Paper-1 for Session 1 as well as for Session
2 of JEE (Main) - 2026 will be merged for the compilation of results and preparation of the
overall Merit List/Ranking. The best of the two NTA Scores in Total (and not in individual
subject) will be considered for further processing for those candidates who appeared in both
sessions.

In case of a tie, i.e. when two or more candidates obtain equal Total NTA Score in JEE (Main) -
2026, the inter-se merit of such candidates shall be determined as per “Method of resolving ties”
given in Chapter 2 for Paper 1[2.4 (5)].

The NTA scores and rank of Paper-1 of JEE (Main) – 2026 for all candidates who appeared in
Session 1 as well as in Session 2 for JEE (Main) - 2026 will be declared on the NTA website. This
shall comprise the NTA scores obtained by the candidate in Session 1, NTA scores obtained
in Session 2, and NTA scores for those who appeared in both sessions (best of the two Total NTA
scores) along with the status of those who qualify for appearing in JEE (Advanced) – 2026 is
provided subject to other conditions of eligibility being met. The rank shall comprise the All
India rank and the All India category rank.

Note 5.7.1: The Score Card of candidates will be generated as per their Names in the 10th
Certificate/ Mark sheet.

5.7.2 Compilation and display of Result of Paper-2A (B. Arch) and Paper-2B (B.
Planning) of JEE (Main)-2026

a) Compilation and display of NTA Score for Session 1 of Paper 2A or Paper 2B:

Since JEE (Main) - 2026 Paper-2A (B. Arch) or Paper-2B (B. Planning) will be conducted in two
sessions, NTA scores will be calculated corresponding to the raw (actual) marks obtained by a
candidate. The calculated NTA scores for all the shifts of Session-1 will be declared on the
website. This will comprise the NTA scores for each of the three parts (Mathematics, Aptitude
Test and Drawing Test or Planning Based Test) and the total in Paper 2A (B. Arch) or Paper

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राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजेंसी Information Bulletin - 2026
2B (B. Planning) of Session 1 of JEE (Main) – 2026.

b) Compilation of NTA Score for Session 2 of Paper 2A (B. Arch) or Paper 2B (B. Planning):
Similarly, the NTA score of Session 2 of JEE (Main) - 2026 Paper 2A (B. Arch) or Paper 2B (B.
Planning) will be calculated corresponding to the raw (actual) marks obtained by a candidate
in that session. The calculated NTA scores for all the shifts will comprise the NTA scores for each
of the three parts (Mathematics, Aptitude Test, and Drawing Test or Planning Based Test) and
the total in Paper 2A (B. Arch) or Paper 2B (B. Planning) of Session 2 of JEE (Main) – 2026.

c) Compilation and display of results including overall Merit List/ Ranking of Paper 2A (B. Arch)
or Paper 2B (B. Planning):

The NTA scores for each of the candidates in Total in Paper 2A (B. Arch) or Paper 2B (B. Planning)
for Session 1 as well as for Session 2 of JEE (Main)-2026 will be merged for compilation of results
and preparation of overall Merit List/Ranking. The best of the two NTA Scores in Total (and not
in individual subject) will be considered for further processing for those candidates who
appeared in both sessions.

In case of a tie, i.e. when two or more candidates obtain equal Total NTA Score in JEE(Main)-
2026, inter-se merit of such candidates shall be determined as per “Method of resolving ties”
given in Chapter- 2 for Paper-2A (B. Arch) and Paper-2B (B. Planning).

The NTA scores and rank of Paper-2A (B. Arch) or Paper-2B (B. Planning) of JEE (Main) – 2026
for all candidates who appeared in Session 1 as well as in Session 2 for JEE (Main) - 2026 will be
declared on the NTA website. This shall comprise the NTA scores obtained by the candidate in
Session 1, NTA scores obtained in Session 2 and NTA scores for those who appeared in both
sessions (best of the two Total NTA scores). The rank shall comprise the All India rank and All
India category rank.

A copy of the Final NTA Score of JEE (Main) – 2026 will be sent to the registered e-mail address
of the Candidates.

Note 5.7.2 –:

1 The All India Rank shall be compiled and declared after conduct of Session 2 of JEE (Main) -
2026 Examination.
2 No Score/Rank Card will be dispatched to the candidates and the candidates are advised to
download their Score/Rank Cards from the JEE (Main) website: www.nta.ac.in/,
https://jeemain.nta.nic.in/ only.
3 Only the All India Rank (AIR) is used for admissions through Central Seat Allocation Board
(CSAB)/Joint Seat Allocation Authority (JoSAA) to NITs/ IIITs/ CFTIs/ SFIs/ Others.
4 All participating Institutions that do not use the Centralized Seat Allocation Process will
prepare their own ranking based on the performance in JEE (Main) - 2026 and other criteria as
decided by them.
5 The National Testing Agency (NTA) is an examination conducting body and not an
admission giving authority. Therefore, NTA does not collect the information regarding the
total number of seats available in the institutions or the eligibility and reservation criteria
followed by the institutions.

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5.7.3 Re-evaluation / Re-checking of Result

There shall be no re-evaluation/re-checking of the result. No correspondence in this regard shall
be entertained.

5.7.4 Use of score of JEE (Main) – 2026 by other Organizations

The merit list / scores / result of JEE (Main) – 2026 may be utilized by other Entities of Central /
State Governments with their eligibility criteria / norms / applicable regulations / guidelines /
rules.

5.8. Admission

The Admission Policy, as announced by the Competent Authority of the admitting institutes, shall
be followed at the time of admission. The Candidates are advised to satisfy themselves about their
Eligibility for Admission from the respective websites of admitting authorities.

For admission to NITs, IIITs, CFTIs, SFIs, State Engineering Colleges in the Participating States, and
Other Participating Institutions, the recommendations submitted by CSAB 2025 are as under:

“5.8.1 Eligibility for Admission to NIT+ System i.e. NITs, IIEST, IIITs (Triple-I-Ts), and
Other-GFTIs participating through JoSAA/CSAB

The candidates seeking admission to NIT+ System must have passed class XII (or equivalent) Board
examination with a minimum of five subjects and secured at least 75% aggregate marks [for SC, ST,
and PwD candidates should be at least 65%] of these five subjects OR must have passed class XII (or
equivalent) Board examination with a minimum of five subjects and be within the category-wise
(category as per the central list https://www.ncbc.nic.in, https://socialjustice.gov.in, and
https://ncst.nic.in) top 20 percentile of successful candidates in their respective Class XII (or
equivalent) board examination.
The detailed eligibility criteria for admission to NIT+ System are mentioned in the JoSAA Business
Rules/CSAB Information Brochure. For eligibility details, candidates may refer to the websites
https://josaa.nic.in/ and https://csab.nic.in/.
Subject combinations required in the qualifying examination for admission to various programs based
on ranks secured in Paper 1/2A/2B in NIT+ System shall be as follows.
Course Subjects Requirement for Class XII / Equivalent qualifying Examination
Programs based on Passed the qualifying examination with Physics, Mathematics, a language,
Paper 1 rank one from the Chemistry/Biotechnology/Biology/Technical Vocational
subject, and any subject other than the above four.
Programs based on Passed the qualifying examination with Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics,
Paper 2A rank and two more subjects other than the above three.
Programs based on Passed the qualifying examination with Mathematics and four other
Paper 2B rank subjects.
For all seat allocation-related procedures/queries, the candidates are advised to refer to the websites
of Joint Seat Allocation Authority (JoSAA) and Central Seat Allocation Board (CSAB) after the
declaration of result/ranks of JEE (Main) - 2026.
NOTE 5.8.1: JoSAA/CSAB authority explicitly reserve the right to modify the eligibility criteria, seat
allocation rules, and related procedures at any time, based on administrative, academic, or policy
considerations.

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5.8.2 Eligibility for Admission to Other Institutions

The policy mentioned in Section 5.8.1 could also be adopted by other Technical Institutions
participating in counselling through JoSAA/CSAB. In case a State opts to admit students to the
engineering Colleges affiliated with State Universities, the State may prepare a separate rank list
based on criteria decided by them.

For B. Plan., the candidates should have passed the qualifying examination with at least 50% marks
in Mathematics and 50% marks in aggregate of the qualifying examination.
As per the Gazette of India dated: 19 July 2023, F. No. CA/498/2023/MSAE (Regulations), the
eligibility criteria for B.Arch. has been updated as mentioned below:

“No candidate shall be admitted to architecture course unless she/he has passed 10+2 or equivalent
examination with Physics and Mathematics as compulsory subjects along with either Chemistry or
Biology or Technical Vocational subject or Computer Science or Information Technology or
Informatics Practices or Engineering Graphics or Business Studies with at least 45% marks in
aggregate or passed 10+3 Diploma Examination with Mathematics as compulsory subject with at
least 45% marks in aggregate.”

Note 5.8.2:
1. Institutes may have their own eligibility criteria, seat allocation rules and admission process.
2. The letters / e-mails / grievances / queries / RTI applications / Court cases pertaining to
admission related matters/procedures will not be entertained by NTA. The same may be
addressed to the concerned Counseling/Authorities/Admitting Institutions. “

Note 5.8: NTA is responsible only for conduct of JEE (Main) Examination and not for admission to
NIT+ system or any other institutions.

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राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजेंसी Information Bulletin - 2026

5.8.3 Seat Allocation Process and Admission Procedure

Candidates shall be offered admission based on their choices and All India Ranks of JEE (Main) -
2026 through a Seat Allocation Process to be announced later by CSAB/ JoSAA. The authentication/
verification of relevant documents in support of identification, date of birth, qualifying
examination, State of eligibility, category and disability (if any) of the qualifying candidates would
be done at the time of the Seat Allocation/ admission process. On failing to produce any of the
authentic documents, the candidate may not be considered for admission.

Gen-EWS, SC, ST, OBC and PwD/PwBD candidates will be required to produce the original
certificate as per prescribed formats issued by the competent authority at the time of the Seat
Allocation/admission process failing which they will not be considered for admission.

5.8.4 Eligibility Criteria for Indian Nationals Appearing in JEE (Advanced) – 2026

Candidates should be among the top 2, 50, 000 successful candidates (including all categories)
in B.E./B.Tech. Paper of JEE (Main) – 2026. The candidate may refer JEE (Advanced) website
https://jeeadv.ac.in/ for the latest information.
5.9. Correspondence with NTA
All the correspondence should preferably be addressed by e-mail. The email query shall be
addressed only if it is not anonymous and contains the name, application number, postal address
and contact number of the sender. An email containing vague or general queries and other queries
as contained in the Information Bulletin shall not be entertained. Queries shall not be entertained
from a person claiming to be representatives, associates or officiates of the applicant candidate.
The following information shall not be revealed by phone or email:

a. Internal documentation/status.
b. The internal decision-making process of NTA. Any claim/counterclaim thereof.
c. Dates and venue of internal meetings or name of the staff/officers dealing with it.
d. Any information which cannot be revealed in the opinion of NTA.

5.10. Weeding Out Rules

The records of Joint Entrance Examination JEE (Main) - 2026 will be preserved up to 90 days from
the date of declaration of result.

5.11 Legal Jurisdiction

All disputes pertaining to the conduct of the JEE (Main) – 2026 Examination including Results shall
fall within the jurisdiction of Delhi/New Delhi only. Further, any grievance/representation
arising out of the Result shall be entertained only when raised within 30 days from the declaration
of the result. Further, the copy of the Legal Notice or Writ Petition/ Petition/Appeal/ Reply may
be served to NTA only through: [email protected]

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राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजेंसी Information Bulletin - 2026

5.12 RTI
Information uploaded on the website shall not be provided to the candidate or any other person
under R.T.I. Act, 2005. The information uploaded on the website shall remain for a specific period
only. Therefore, the candidates are advised to download the uploaded information and keep it with
them for the future. In due course of examination or in the midway of process, neither any
application under the Right to Information Act, 2005 shall be entertained nor will information be
provided.
***********

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राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजेंसी Information Bulletin - 2026

Appendix –I

Procedure for Online Payment of Fees and Helpline for Payment-Related Queries
After completing Step 2 of the Online Application Form, the candidate may remit the
examination fee (Step 3) in the following manner:
▪ Check the validity of the Debit/ Credit Card and keep it ready with you while logging on
to the website for submitting the Application Form. The candidates should enter the
information asked for and make payment through a Debit/ Credit Card.
▪ Through Net Banking, check the balance in your account and keep all credentials ready
with you while logging on to the website for making payments. The candidates should log
in with his/ her credentials of net banking and make payments accordingly.
▪ For payment through a UPI Service, check whether there is a requisite balance in the
Bank Account/ Wallet to which the concerned UPI is linked.
The prescribed Examination Fee (please see the Information at a Glance) can be paid
through any Bank/Payment Gateway of ICICI/ HDFC/ Canara/ SBI Banks in any Payment
Mode [service/processing charges per transaction and GST as applicable are to be borne
by the candidate].
Note: In case, the fee payment status is not ‘OK’, or the Confirmation Page of the Online
Application is not generated after fee payment (completion of Step 3) of the candidate is
advised to contact the helpline number/email of the concerned Bank/ Payment Gateway
Integrator, as mentioned below:-
(a) If Paying through HDFC Bank:

Level Name Email ID Contact Number
1 PG Service [email protected]
2. Pradeep Yadav [email protected] 9625622301
3. Vivek Chandra [email protected] 7838748226
(b) If Paying through State Bank of India (SBI):
Level Name Email ID Contact Number
1. Helpdesk3 [email protected] 011-26391804
2. Customer Care [email protected] 1800112211
3. Through SMS - 8008202020
(c) If paying through Canara Bank:

Level Name Email ID
1. Help Desk [email protected]; [email protected];
[email protected]; [email protected];
2. Complaint Management [email protected] [email protected];
Services [email protected]; [email protected]
3. Customer Care [email protected] [email protected];
[email protected]; [email protected]
(d) If Paying through ICICI Bank:
Level Name Email ID Contact Number
1. Customer support [email protected] 18602332332
Helpline number
(9AM to 6PM)

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Appendix –II

Appendix – II

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Appendix – III

(Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment, Govt. of India Office memorandum No F. No. 34-02/ 2015-
DD-III dated 29 August 2018)

Certificate regarding physical limitation in an Examinee to Write

This to certify that, I have examined Mr/ Ms/ Mrs (Name of the
candidate with disability), a person with (nature and percentage of
disability as mentioned in the certificate of disability), S/ o/ D/ o a
resident of (Village/ District/ State) and to state that
he/ she has physical limitation which hampers his/her writing capabilities owing to his/ her disability.

Signature

Chief Medical Officer/ Civil Surgeon/ Medical Superintendent of a

Government health care institution

Name & Designation.

Name of Government Hospital/Health Care Centre with Seal

Place:
Date:

Note:- Certificate should be given by a specialist of the relevant stream/ disability (eg. Visual
impairment — Ophthalmologist, Locomotor disability — Orthopedic specialist/ PMR).

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Appendix – IV (Less than 40 %)
(Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment, Govt. of India F. No. 29-6/2019-DD-III dated 10 August
2022)

Certificate for Person with Specified Disability covered under the definition of Section
2 (s) of the RPwD Act, 2016 but not covered under the definition of Section 2(r) of the
said Act, i.e. persons having less than 40% disability and having difficulty in writing

This is to certify that, we have examined Mr/Ms/Mrs …………. (Name of the candidate), S/o /D/o
……………………, a resident of ……………… (Vill/PO/ PS/ District/ State), aged …………….. yrs, a person with
……………………. (nature of disability/condition), and to state that he/ she has limitation which hampers
his/her writing capability owing to his/her above condition. He/she requires support of scribe for
writing the examination.

2. The above candidate uses aids and assistive device such as prosthetics & orthotics, hearing aid
(name to be specified) which is /are essential for the candidate to appear at the examination with the
assistance of scribe.

3. This certificate is issued only for the purpose of appearing in written examinations conducted
by recruitment agencies as well as academic institutions and is valid upto __________ (it is valid for
maximum period of six months or less as may be certified by the medical authority)

Signature of Medical Authority

(Signature (Signature & Name) (Signature (Signature & (Signature & Name)
& Name) & Name) Name)
Orthopedic Clinical Psychologist/ Neurologist Occupational Other Expert, as
/ Rehabilitation (if available) therapist (if nominated by the
PMR Psychologist/Psychiatrist available) Chairperson (if any)
specialist / Special Educator
(Signature & Name)
Chief Medical Officer/Civil Surgeon/Chief District Medical
Officer………Chairperson

Name of Government Hospital/Health Care Centre with Seal

Place:

Date:

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Appendix – V

Letter of Undertaking for using Own Scribe

I ____________________, a candidate with __________________ (nature of disability/condition) appearing for
the ______________________(name of the examination) bearing Roll No. ___________________________ at
_______________________ (name of the centre) in the District ____________________, ____________________________
(name of the State). My educational qualification is _____________________.

2. I do hereby state that __________________________ (name of the scribe) will provide the service of
scribe for the undersigned for taking the aforementioned examination.

3. I do hereby undertake that his qualification is ______________________. In case, subsequently it is
found that his qualification is not as declared by the undersigned and is beyond my qualification. I shall
forfeit my right to the post or certificate/diploma/degree and claims relating thereto.

(Signature of the candidate)

(Counter Signature by the parent/guardian, if the candidate is minor)

Place:

Date:

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Appendix - VI

List of Examination Cities for JEE (Main) – 2026
State-wise/UT-wise list of Cities in India and Abroad:-
JEE (Main) - 2026 will be conducted in the following Cities, provided there are sufficient
numbers of candidates in the City.
STATE CITY CITY CODE
Arunachal Pradesh Itanagar/Naharlagun AL01
Assam Guwahati AM02
Assam Jorhat AM03
Assam Silchar(Assam) AM04
Assam Tezpur AM05
Assam Dibrugarh AM01
Andaman & Nicobar Port Blair AN01
Andhra Pradesh Anantapur AP01
Andhra Pradesh Bhimavaram AP03
Andhra Pradesh Chittoor AP05
Andhra Pradesh Eluru AP06
Andhra Pradesh Guntur AP07
Andhra Pradesh Kadapa AP08
Andhra Pradesh Kakinada AP09
Andhra Pradesh Kurnool AP10
Andhra Pradesh Nellore AP11
Andhra Pradesh Ongole AP12
Andhra Pradesh Rajahmundry AP13
Andhra Pradesh Srikakulam AP14
Andhra Pradesh Tirupathi AP16
Andhra Pradesh Vijayawada AP17
Andhra Pradesh Visakhapatnam AP18
Andhra Pradesh Vizianagaram AP19
Andhra Pradesh Narasaraopet AP20
Andhra Pradesh Proddatur AP21
Andhra Pradesh Surampalem AP23
Andhra Pradesh Machilipatnam AP27
Andhra Pradesh Nandyal AP29
Andhra Pradesh Tadepalligudem AP30
Andhra Pradesh Adoni AP33
Andhra Pradesh Amalapuram AP34
Andhra Pradesh Madanapalle AP35
Andhra Pradesh Markapur AP36
Andhra Pradesh Puttur AP37
Andhra Pradesh Rayachoty AP38
Andhra Pradesh Tadpatri AP39
Andhra Pradesh Tiruvuru AP40

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STATE CITY CITY CODE
Bihar Aurangabad(Bihar) BR01
Bihar Bhagalpur BR02
Bihar Darbhanga BR04
Bihar Gaya BR05
Bihar Muzaffarpur BR06
Bihar Patna BR07
Bihar Purnea BR08
Bihar Arrah BR09
Bihar Samastipur BR12
Bihar Bihar Sharif BR38
Bihar Sasaram BR17
Chhattisgarh Bilaspur(Chhattisgarh) CG02
Chhattisgarh Raipur CG03
Chhattisgarh Jagdalpur CG08
Chhattisgarh Bhilai Nagar/ Durg CG01
Chhattisgarh Ambikapur CG04
Chandigarh Chandigarh/ Panchkula CH01
Daman & Diu Diu DD02
Delhi Delhi/New Delhi DL01
Dadra & Nagar Haveli Silvassa DN01
Gujarat Ahmedabad GJ01
Gujarat Anand GJ02
Gujarat Jamnagar GJ06
Gujarat Junagadh GJ07
Gujarat Rajkot GJ10
Gujarat Surat GJ11
Gujarat Vadodara GJ12
Gujarat Mehsana GJ08
Gujarat Gandhinagar GJ23
Gujarat Bhuj GJ17
Gujarat Vapi GJ34
Gujarat Bardoli GJ35
Gujarat Bhavnagar GJ03
Gujarat Godhra GJ24
Gujarat Navsari GJ15
Goa Panaji/Madgaon/Margao GO01
Himachal Pradesh Hamirpur(Himachal Pradesh) HP03
Himachal Pradesh Shimla HP06
Himachal Pradesh Mandi HP08
Himachal Pradesh Una HP09
Himachal Pradesh Kullu HP10
Himachal Pradesh Bilaspur(Himachal Pradesh) HP01
Himachal Pradesh Kangra/Palampur HP04

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राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजेंसी Information Bulletin - 2026
STATE CITY CITY CODE
Haryana Ambala HR01
Haryana Gurugram HR04
Haryana Faridabad HR03
Haryana Hissar HR05
Haryana Kurukshetra HR07
Jharkhand Bokaro JH01
Jharkhand Dhanbad JH02
Jharkhand Jamshedpur JH03
Jharkhand Ranchi JH04
Jharkhand Hazaribagh JH05
Jharkhand Ramgarh JH06
Jammu & Kashmir Jammu JK02
Jammu & Kashmir Srinagar(J & K) JK04
Jammu & Kashmir Pulwama JK06
Jammu & Kashmir Samba JK03
Jammu and Kashmir Baramulla JK01
Karnataka Ballari KK03
Karnataka Belagavi(Belgaum) KK02
Karnataka Bengaluru KK20
Karnataka Davangere KK06
Karnataka Gulbarga/Kalaburgi KK08
Karnataka Hassan KK09
Karnataka Dharwad KK10
Karnataka Mangaluru(Mangalore) KK12
Karnataka Mysuru(Mysore) KK14
Karnataka Shivamoga(Shimoga) KK15
Karnataka Tumakuru KK16
Karnataka Chikmagalur KK23
Karnataka Hubli KK27
Karnataka Udupi/Manipal KK17
Karnataka Bidar KK05
Karnataka Chikaballapur KK22
Kerala Idukki KL05
Kerala Kannur KL07
Kerala Kasaragod KL08
Kerala Kollam KL09
Kerala Kottayam KL11
Kerala Kozhikode/Calicut KL12
Kerala Malappuram KL13
Kerala Palakkad KL15
Kerala Pathanamthitta KL16
Kerala Thiruvananthapuram KL17
Kerala Thrissur KL18

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STATE CITY CITY CODE
Kerala Wayanad KL19
Kerala Alappuzha/Chengannur KL01
Kerala Ernakulam/Moovattupuzha KL04
Lakshadweep Kavaratti LD01
Ladhak (UT) Leh LL01
Ladakh (UT) Kargil LL02
Meghalaya Shillong MG01
Meghalaya Tura MG04
Manipur Imphal MN01
Manipur Churachandpur MN03
Manipur Kakching MN04
Madhya Pradesh Balaghat MP01
Madhya Pradesh Bhopal MP03
Madhya Pradesh Gwalior MP06
Madhya Pradesh Indore MP07
Madhya Pradesh Jabalpur MP08
Madhya Pradesh Sagar MP12
Madhya Pradesh Satna MP13
Madhya Pradesh Ujjain MP15
Madhya Pradesh Khandwa MP29
Madhya Pradesh Chhatarpur MP24
Maharashtra Ahilyanagar MR01
Maharashtra Akola MR02
Maharashtra Amravati MR03
Maharashtra Chhatrapati Sambhaji Nagar MR04
Maharashtra Chandrapur MR09
Maharashtra Dhule MR10
Maharashtra Jalgaon MR13
Maharashtra Kolhapur MR14
Maharashtra Latur MR15
Maharashtra Nagpur MR17
Maharashtra Nanded MR18
Maharashtra Nashik MR19
Maharashtra Pune MR22
Maharashtra Sangli MR25
Maharashtra Satara MR26
Maharashtra Solapur MR27
Maharashtra Thane MR28
Maharashtra Wardha MR29
Maharashtra Beed MR30
Maharashtra Bhandara MR31
Maharashtra Buldhana MR32
Maharashtra Ratnagiri MR24

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STATE CITY CITY CODE
Maharashtra Parbhani MR38
Maharashtra Gadchiroli MR40
Maharashtra Jalna MR42
Maharashtra Mumbai/Navi Mumbai MR16
Maharashtra Kopargaon MR44
Maharashtra Pandharpur MR45
Maharashtra Raigad MR23
Maharashtra Sinnar MR46
Mizoram Aizawl MZ01
Nagaland Dimapur NL01
Nagaland Kohima NL02
Odisha Balasore (Baleswar) OR02
Odisha Berhampur / Ganjam OR03
Odisha Bhubaneswar OR04
Odisha Cuttack OR05
Odisha Dhenkanal OR06
Odisha Rourkela OR08
Odisha Sambalpur OR09
Odisha Angul OR10
Odisha Bhadrak OR11
Odisha Baripada/Mayurbanj OR12
Odisha Jajpur OR13
Odisha Kendrapara OR14
Odisha Kendujhar (Keonjhar) OR15
Odisha Puri OR16
Odisha Jagatsinghpur OR17
Odisha Jeypore(Odisha) OR19
Odisha Balangir OR20
Odisha Baragarh OR21
Odisha Rayagada OR26
Odisha Jharsuguda OR22
Punjab Amritsar PB01
Punjab Bhatinda PB02
Punjab Jalandhar PB04
Punjab Ludhiana PB05
Punjab Pathankot PB07
Punjab Patiala/Fatehgarh Sahib PB08
Puducherry Puducherry PO01
Rajasthan Ajmer RJ01
Rajasthan Alwar RJ02
Rajasthan Bikaner RJ05
Rajasthan Jaipur RJ06
Rajasthan Jodhpur RJ07

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STATE CITY CITY CODE
Rajasthan Kota RJ08
Rajasthan Sikar RJ09
Rajasthan Sriganganagar RJ10
Rajasthan Udaipur RJ11
Rajasthan Bhilwara RJ12
Rajasthan Bharatpur RJ16
Rajasthan Dausa RJ17
Rajasthan Hanumangarh RJ23
Sikkim Gangtok SM01
Tripura Agartala TA01
Telangana Karimnagar TL02
Telangana Khammam TL03
Telangana Mahbubnagar TL04
Telangana Nalgonda TL05
Telangana Warangal TL07
Telangana Nizamabad TL08
Telangana Suryapet TL09
Telangana Siddipet TL11
Telangana Jagtial TL15
Telangana Kothagudem TL17
Telangana Hyderabad/Secunderabad TL01
Telangana Adilabad TL12
Telangana Kodad TL25
Telangana Peddapalli TL26
Tamil Nadu Chennai TN01
Tamil Nadu Coimbatore TN02
Tamil Nadu Cuddalore TN03
Tamil Nadu Kanchipuram TN05
Tamil Nadu Kanyakumari/Nagercoil TN06
Tamil Nadu Madurai TN08
Tamil Nadu Namakkal TN10
Tamil Nadu Salem TN11
Tamil Nadu Thanjavur TN12
Tamil Nadu Thoothukudi TN13
Tamil Nadu Tiruchirappalli TN14
Tamil Nadu Tirunelveli TN15
Tamil Nadu Vellore TN18
Tamil Nadu Virudhunagar TN20
Tamil Nadu Krishnagiri TN21
Tamil Nadu Tiruppur TN22
Tamil Nadu Viluppuram TN23
Tamil Nadu Dharmapuri TN26
Tamil Nadu Dindigul TN27

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राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजेंसी Information Bulletin - 2026
STATE CITY CITY CODE
Tamil Nadu Erode TN28
Tamil Nadu Karur TN29
Tamil Nadu Pudukkottai TN31
Tamil Nadu Ramanathapuram TN32
Tamil Nadu Thiruvallur TN34
Tamil Nadu Tiruvannamalai TN35
Tamil Nadu Kallakurichi TN39
Tamil Nadu Nagapattinam TN30
Tamil Nadu Theni TN40
Tamil Nadu Tirupattur TN41
Uttarakhand Dehradun UK01
Uttarakhand Haldwani UK02
Uttarakhand Roorkee UK06
Uttarakhand Pauri Garhwal UK08
Uttarakhand Almora UK09
Uttar Pradesh Agra UP01
Uttar Pradesh Aligarh UP02
Uttar Pradesh Allahabad/Prayagraj UP03
Uttar Pradesh Bareilly UP04
Uttar Pradesh Ghaziabad UP07
Uttar Pradesh Gorakhpur UP08
Uttar Pradesh Noida/Greater Noida UP09
Uttar Pradesh Jhansi UP10
Uttar Pradesh Kanpur UP11
Uttar Pradesh Lucknow UP12
Uttar Pradesh Mathura UP13
Uttar Pradesh Meerut UP14
Uttar Pradesh Moradabad UP15
Uttar Pradesh Muzaffarnagar UP16
Uttar Pradesh Varanasi UP18
Uttar Pradesh Azamgarh UP19
Uttar Pradesh Ballia UP20
Uttar Pradesh Ayodhya UP06
Uttar Pradesh Firozabad UP22
Uttar Pradesh Ghazipur UP23
Uttar Pradesh Ambedkar Nagar UP25
Uttar Pradesh Bulandshahr UP29
Uttar Pradesh Mau UP35
Uttar Pradesh Raebareli UP37
Uttar Pradesh Saharanpur UP38
Uttar Pradesh Chandauli UP41
Uttar Pradesh Pratapgarh UP43
West Bengal Asansol WB01

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राष्ट्रीय परीक्षा एजेंसी Information Bulletin - 2026
STATE CITY CITY CODE
West Bengal Burdwan(Bardhaman) WB02
West Bengal Durgapur WB04
West Bengal Hooghly WB06
West Bengal Howrah WB07
West Bengal Kalyani WB08
West Bengal Kolkata WB10
West Bengal Siliguri WB11
West Bengal Kharagpur WB13
West Bengal Purba Medinipur WB14
West Bengal Bankura WB16
West Bengal Murshidabad WB21
West Bengal Suri WB22
West Bengal Malda WB20
Baharain Manama ZZ01
Qatar Doha ZZ03
UAE Dubai ZZ04
Nepal Kathmandu ZZ05
Oman Muscat ZZ06
Saudi Arabia Riyadh ZZ07
UAE - Sharjah Sharjah ZZ08
Singapore Singapore ZZ09
Kuwait Kuwait City ZZ10
Malaysia Kuala Lampur ZZ11
Nigeria Lagos ZZ12
Indonesia West Java ZZ14
Washington DC Washington ZZ15
Germany Munich ZZ16
UAE - Abu Dhabi Abu Dhabi ZZ17

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