Puducherry NMMS Question Paper and Answer Key 2025

FOR PUDUCHERRY NMMS EXAM PREPARATION

Puducherry NMMS
2025
Question Paper with
Answer Key
EXAM YEAR TYPE

Puducherry NMMS 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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GOVERNMENT OF PUDUCHERRY
DIRECTORATE OF SCHOOL EDUCATION

QUESTION BOOKLET
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MARCH 2025
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ag MENTAL ABILITY TEST

Centre Code No. Register No.

INSTRUCTIONS
1 Answer all the questions. All questions carry one mark each
2. Since all questions are compulsory, do not try to read through the
Whole question paper before beginning to answer.
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3. Begin with the first question and keep on trying one question after

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another till you finish all the question.

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4. If you do not know theganswer
time on it but pass onato the next one. If time permits, you can come
back to the questions which you have left in the first instance and
try them again.

5. Since the time allotted to this question paper is very limited, you
should make the best use of it by not spending too much time on
any one question.

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6. Separate sheets have been provided for rough work in the Question
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Booklet itself.

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7. The answers should be marked on a separate answer sheet provided

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of the Test.

9. Answer to each question is to be indicated by shading the number of
the correct choice in the answer sheet with black ballpoint pen from
amongst the ones given for the corresponding question in the test
booklet.

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PART I 8011
MENTAL ABILITY TEST – MARCH 2025
Duration: 90 minutes Max Marks: 90

(Qns. 1 to 5)
Directions: In each question, the numbers / letters are arranged in a sequence based on a
certain principle. Select the answer from the four alternatives given under each sequence to
complete the series.

1. 0, 1, 1, 2, 4, 7, 13, 24, 44, ___.
(1) 64 (2) 68 (3) 75 (4) 81
2. 12, 32,72,152,____, 632
(1) 254 (2) 270 (3) 312 (4) 354
3. 4, 6, 8, 15, 16, 24, 32, 33, 64, ____ .
(1) 42 (2) 48 (3) 55 (4) 64
4. B, E, J, Q, ?.
(1) X (2) Y (3) Z (4) V
5. A, C, F, J, O ?
(1) T (2) U (3) V (4) W

(Qns. 6 to 10)
Directions: Choose the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives.
.
6. If 6x43 ‒ 19y4 = 4639, then the value of x is
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 9

7. If vowels are left out, which letter would be the 13 th consonant?
(1) M (2) N (3) P (4) Q

8. Rakesh is eighth in a queue from either end. How many people are there in the queue?
(1) 13 (2) 14 (3) 15 (4) 16

9. The unit digit in (364)102 + (364)103 is
(1) 0 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 6

10. The sum of first 6 odd positioned letters in complete listing of all 26 alphabets in
ascending order is
(1) 16 (2) 25 (3) 36 (4) 48

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(Qns. 11 - 12)
g la are same in a certain way
and so form a group. Find the odd one that does not belongato the group.
Directions: In the following questions three out of the four alternatives

11. Which one of the following words will come at second place in the Dictionary?
(1) Acidity (2) Acupuncture (3) Accident (4) Accumulate

12. Which one of the following words will Come at fourth place in the Dictionary?
(1) Raise (2) Rain (3) Rapport (4) Rapid
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(Qns. 13 - 17)
Directions: Each letter of the alphabet from Z to A bas been given a value from 1 to 26 serially.
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Solve the questions on the basis of value of words.
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a has the maximum value at most?
13. Whichlword ag
(1) a
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Mouth (2) Table (3) Tanker (4) Thank

14. Select the Correct Statement?
(1) ROOT +Y is STEM. (2) STEM - Dis LEAF.
(3) LEAF +Tis FRUIT (4) FRUIT -Q is STEM

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15. Which words have the equivalent Value?
(1) FEAR : ACID
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(2) BASE : THANK (3) WATER : SEAT (4) SOUR: SALT

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16. Which equation is Correct?
(2) U+J=D g
(1) S+J=A
a (4) Y+J=l

17. If ROOT = 40, LEAF = 84, then FRUIT = ?.
(1) 54 (2) 61 (3) 64 (4) 67

(Qns. 18 - 19)
Directions: Which term will come in the place of question mark?

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18.
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(1) J 10 O (2) J 10 Q (3) P 10 Q (4) G 10 P
20. A die is thrown 24 times. How many times do you expect the number ‘4’ to come up?
(1) 6 times (2) 24 times (3) 4 times (4) 12 times

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(Qns. 21 to 25)
Directions: Choose the correct answer from the given options.
21. Assertion (A): James Watt invented the steam engine.
Reason (R): It was invented to pump out the water from the flooded mines.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.
22. Statement 1: A is bigger than B but shorter than C
Statement 2: D is smaller than C and bigger than A
Statement 3: B is greater than D
If statement 1 and statement 2 are true, statement 3 will be -
(1) True (2) False (3) Uncertain (4) None of the above

23. What is Geeta's rank in the class?
I. There are 30 students in the class.
II. There are 10 students who scored less than Geeta.
(1) Statement I alone is sufficient, but statement II alone is not sufficient
(2) Statement II alone is sufficient, but statement I alone is not sufficient
(3) Neither I nor II is sufficient
(4) Both I and II are needed

24. If you are a fitness walker, you don't need to go to a health gym. You also don't need any
fitness equipment for workout. All you need is a pair of comfortable athletic shoes.
This paragraph supports which of the following statements;
(1) Fitness walking is better than weight lifting.
(2) Walking outdoors provides more health benefits than walking indoors.
(3) Fitness walking is an effective and convenient form of exercise.
(4) Poorly designed shoes can cause foot injuries.

25. Statements:
I) All heroes are villains.
II) All villains are zeros.
III) Some heroes are jokers.

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Conclusion:
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i) Some Jokers are heroes a
ii) Some villains are jokers
iii) Some zeros are villains

(1) Only I, II follow. (2) All I, II, III follows.

(3) Only I, III follows. (4) Only I, II follows.
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(Qns. 26 - 35)
Directions: Choose the correct answer from the given options.
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26. If PINK is coded as 1691411, then RED will be coded as -
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(1) 1853 (2) 1854 (3) 1954 (4) 1963
27. In a certain code, NAGPUR is coded as OBHQVS, then BENGALURU will be coded as
(1) DGPICMVSV (2) CROHBMVTV (3) DGPICNWTV (4) CFOHBMVSV
28. If GOLD is coded as HOME and COME is coded as DONE then SONS can be coded as ------
(1) TTOT (2) TOOS (3) TOOT (4) TONT

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29. If SALVAR is coded 123456 and SAINT is coded as 12789, then SALIVA will be coded as
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. 123724
(1) 127342 (2) 127324
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30. If ZEBRA is coded as 1-22-25-9-26, WOLF is coded as 4-12-15-21, then RABBIT is coded
as ------
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(1) 9-26-25-25-18-7 (2) 18-1-2-2-9-21 (3) 18-1-2-25-18-7 (4) 9-26-2-2-18-7
31. In a certain code RAIN is written as 8$% 6 and MORE is written as 7#8@. How is REMAIN
written in that code?
(1) 8@7$%6 (2) 7@#$%6 (3) #@&$%6 (4) #@7$%6

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32. How many such digits are there in the number 57692483, which after rearranging the digits

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of the number in descending order from left to right will remain at the same position as

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before the rearrangement?
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(4) Three
gB. Each one gets down at a
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33. Five friends were travelling by train between stations A and
different station one after the other. Nitin gets down before Lata and Shikha but not before
Sunil. Anil is not the last to get down. Who got down first from the train?
(1) Sunil (2) Nitin (3) Shikha (4) Cannot be determined

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8011
34. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word from the first, the fifth, the seventh, the
eighth and the eleventh letters of the word DEPARTMENTAL, first letter of the word is your
answer.
(1) A (2) D (3) R (4) None of these
35. If a means “walk”, B means “stand”, y means “run” and 6 means “sit”, how many times does
the following sequence of commands require sitting?
αβγδβγαδδγββααβδγαδγαδαγ
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 6
(Qns. 36 - 37)
Direction: In each of the following questions, different positions of a dice are given. Answer the
questions that follow.

36. Which number is opposite to 5?
(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 4

37. Which number is opposite to 2?
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6
(Qns. 38 - 40)
Direction: Three different positions of a dice are given. Observe the positions Answer the
questions that follow.

38. Find the number of dots on the face opposite to the face with one dot?
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5

39. Find the number of dots on the face opposite to the face with six dots?
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2
40. Which of the following figures has a line of symmetry?

(A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
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(Qns. 41 - 45)
la figures.
Directions: identify the figure based on the continuation of thegprevious
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(1) (2) (3) (4)
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(1) (2) (3) (4)

43.

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(1) (2)
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44.

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(1) (2) (3) (4)
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(1) (2) (3) (4)

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(Qns. 46 -51)
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Directions: Choose the box that is similar to the box formed from the given sheet of paper (X).
46.

(X)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

47.

(X)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

48.

(X)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

49.

(1) (2) (3) (4)
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50.
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(1) (2) (3) (4)
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lie opposite the face having five dots, when the given figure is folded to as
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51. How many dots
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form a Cube?
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(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 6

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(Qns. 52 - 53)
Directions: Figure A, B, C and D constitute the problem set while figure 1, 2, 3 and 4 constitute
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the answer set. There is a definite relationship between figures A and B. Establish a similar
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relationship between figure C and D by choosing a suitable figure (D) from the answer set
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52. Which of the following figures complete the second pair in the same way as the first pair?

(1) (2) (3) (4)
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(1) (2) (3) (4)

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8011
(Qns. 54 - 58)
Directions: Each of the following questions consist of problem figures followed by answer
figures. Select a figure from amongst the answer figures which will continue the same series or
pattern as established by the problem figures.
54. PROBLEM FIGURE ANSWER FIGURE

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

55. PROBLEM FIGURE ANSWER FIGURE

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

56. PROBLEM FIGURE ANSWER FIGURE

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

57. PROBLEM FIGURE ANSWER FIGURE

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

58. PROBLEM FIGURE ANSWER FIGURE

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

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(Qns. 59-63)
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Directions: In each of the following, choose the correct mirror
alternatives.

59.

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(1) 1
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(3) 3 (4) 4
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60.
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(1) 1 (2) 2
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(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

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(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

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63. Find the mirror image of the given figure. 8011

(1) (2) (3) (4)

(Qns. 64 - 70)
Directions: Choose the correct answer from the given options
64. What is the missing figure in the given series?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

65. Count the number of cubes in the given figure.

(1) 80 (2) 88 (3) 89 (4) 91

66. How many squares in the given figure?

(1) 10 (2) 9 (3) 8 (4) 7
67. How many squares in the given figure?

(1) 10 (2) 11 (3) 12 (4) 13
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(1) T (2) U (3) V (4) Z
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69. If day after tomorrow is Friday, what day was three days before yesterday?
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(1) Sunday . e
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70. Which
R = 81 Y = 52
X = 42 ? = 91
(1) S (2) Q (3) O (4) L

(Qns.: 71 - 76)

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Directions: All the faces of wooden cube with 8 cm length are painted in the same colour. This

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cube has been cut into small cubes with a 2 cm length. Answer the following questions.

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71. How many small cubes are to be cut out?
a
(1) 4 (2) 8
a gl (3) 64 (4) 32

72. How many times that cube is cut out?
(1) Four times (2) Eight times (3) Nine times (4) Twelve times

73. How many small cubes will be there whose only one face is colored?
(1) 12 (2) 24 (3) 8 (4) 32

74. How many small cubes will be there whose no face is coloured?
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(1) 8 (2) 12 (3) 32 (4) 16
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(1) 24 (2) 8 (3) 12 (4) 32
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(1) 12 (2) 16 (3) 24 (4) 8

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(Qns.: 77- 81) 8011
Directions: In the following Questions, answers are based on the diagram given below, where the
circle represents advocates, the triangle represents doctors, the rectangle represents players.

Advocates players

Doctors

77. Which number represents players who are neither advocates nor doctors?
(1) 10 (2) 8 (3) 6 (4) 5

78. Which number represents advocates who are also players and doctors?
(1) 7 (2) 10 (3) 5 (4) 9

79. Which number represents advocates who are players but not doctors?
(1) 10 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) 9

80. Which number represents doctors who are advocates but not players?
(1) 7 (2) 8 (3) 9 (4) 5

81. Which number represents doctors who are neither players nor advocates?
(1) 6 (2) 9 (3) 8 (4) 5

(Qns. 82 - 85)
Directions: Choose the correct answer from the given options

82. A clock shows time as 4.45 p.m. What is the time shown by the mirror image of the clock?
(1) 6.45 (2) 8.15 (3) 7.45 (4) 7.15

83. When the 45 students of a class were asked to stand in a line in the playground Aiswarya
was 20th from the left in the line and Vaishnavi was 32nd from the right of the line. Then
how many students are standing between Aiswarya and Vaishnavi?
(1) 5 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 3

84. In a month of 31 days third Monday falls on 15th. What will be the last day of the month?
(1) Fifth Friday (2) Fourth Friday (3) Fifth Wednesday (4) Fourth Saturday

85. A man travelled westwards 4 Kms, turned left and travelled 4 Kms turned right and
travelled 8 Kms. He then travelled North 4 Kms. How far was the man from the starting
point now?
(1) 4 Kms (2) 6 Kms (3) 8 Kms (4) 12 Kms

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(Qns. 86 to 90)
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Directions: In the following questions, find the missing number,
row- wise or column -wise.
86.

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(1) 169 & 81 (2) 67 & 121 (3) 64 & 115 (4) 70 & 110
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(1) 81 (2) 85 (3) 98 (4) 104

88. 1 9 ?
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2 12 14

3 117 105
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(1) 7 (2) 8 a (3) 9 (4) 11

89.

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(1) 48 (2) 58 (3) 65

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(1) 7 (2) 14 (3) 21 (4) 42

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Rough Work only 8011

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GOVERNMENT OF PUDUCHERRY
DIRECTORATE OF SCHOOL EDUCATION
QUESTION BOOKLET

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MARCH 2025
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s e SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST g l a
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ag Code No.
Centre Register No.

INSTRUCTIONS
1. Answer all the questions. All questions carry one mark each.

2. Since all questions are compulsory, do not try to read through the
whole question paper before beginning to answer.
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3.
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Begin with the first question and keep on trying one question after

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another till you finish all the question.

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a to any question, do not spend much
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4. If you do not know the answer
time on it but pass on toathe next one. If time permits, you can come
back to the questions which you have left in the first instance and try
them again.

5. Since the time allotted to this question paper is very limited, you
should make the best use of it by not spending too much time on any
one question.

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6. Separate sheets have been provided for rough work in the Question
m Booklet itself.
c. o 7. The answers should be marked on a separate answerssheet
e m provided
s em g l a
la a
in the Examination Hall.

ag 8. The answer sheet has two parts corresponding to Part – I and Part –II
of the Test.

9. Answer to each question is to be indicated by shading the number of
the correct choice in the answer sheet with black ballpoint pen from
amongst the ones given for the corresponding question in the test
booklet.

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PART II 8021
SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST – MARCH 2025
Duration: 90 minutes Max Marks: 90
SCIENCE

1. Which statement is / are true?
a) The ball bearings used in bicycle is an example for Rolling Friction.
b) In science, the gases and liquids are named as fluids.
c) Vehicles have treaded tyres to reduce friction.
d) Sliding friction is slightly larger than the Static friction
(1) a) and b) are correct (2) a) and d) are correct
(3) a), b) and c) are correct (4) c) and d) are correct

2. If a coin is placed between two plane mirrors making 60o angle with each other,
then how many images of coins are formed?
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6

3. The person who represented India on Braille problems in UNESCO is
(1) Ravindra Jain (2) Diwakar (3) Helen A. Keller (4) Lal Advani

4. The motion of seconds hand in a clock is
(1) Oscillatory (2) non-uniform (3) uniform (4) rectilinear

5. Match the following;
i) Hans Christian Oersted -p) Coloured Disc appearing white
ii) Newtons’s Disc -q) Liberation of oxygen and hydrogen by electrodes
iii) Benjamin Franklin -r) Magnets’ deflection by current
iv) William Nicholson - s) lighting phenonomena
(1) i)-r), ii)-p), iii)-s), iv)-q) (2) i)-q), ii)-p), iii)-s), iv)-r)
(3) i)-s), ii)-p), iii)-r), iv)-q (4) i)-q), ii)-p), iii)-r), iv)-s)

6. Chromium plating is done in
(1) Iron bridges (2) Kitchen gas burners (3) Gold ornaments (4) Food parcel foil

7. The Pitch of the sound is determined by its
(1) frequency (2) speed (3) amplitude (4) loudness

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8. Two objects repels each other. This repulsion could be due to
(1) Frictional force only (2) Electrostatic force only
(3) Magnetic force only (4) Either an Electrostatic force or a Magnetic force

9. Consider the terms given below

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(i) Tsunami (ii) Landslide (iii) Floods (iv) Lightning

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Earthquakes can cause
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(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) (2) (ii) and (iv) (3) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (4) (iii) and (iv)
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10. The conversion of dead vegetation into coal is
(1) aCarbonisation (2) Calcification (3) Condensation (4) Canonisation

11. Desert plants have spine-like leaves to reduce loss of water by
(1) transportation (2) transposition (3) transpiration (4) transmission

12. _______________ lives in the roots of plants like gram, peas, moong

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(1) Agrobacterium (2) Rhizobium (3) streptomyces (4) Bacillus subtilis

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13. Match Column I and Column II and select the correct matching:
Column I
l as Column II
i) Edward Jenner ag- p) Pencillin
ii) Louis Pasteur - q) Anthrax
iii) Alexander Fleming - r) Fermentation
iv) Robert Koch - s) Vaccine
(1) i)-q), ii)-p), iii)-r), iv)-s) (2) i)-s), ii)-r), iii)-p), iv)-q)

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(3) i)-p), ii)-q), iii)-s), iv)-r) (4) i)-q), ii)-r), iii)-p), iv)-s)

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14. Which among the following is not an endocrine gland

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(1) ant (2) Book lice (3) Mealy bug (4) scale insect

16. Which among the following is not a fungi
(1) Aspergillus (2) Bread mould (3) Spirogyra (4) Penicillium

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17. Which among the following reproduce by asexual reproduction 8021

(1) frog (2) starfish (3) Fern (4) Rose

18. Asian lions are found only in
(1) India (2) America (3) China (4) Singapore

19. Match the following
i. Charge - P. Seismic Zone
ii. Lightning - Q. Electroscope
iii. Earthquake - R. Richter Scale
iv. Seismograph - S. Thunder Storm.
(1) i – R, ii – P, iii – S, iv – Q (2) i – S, ii – Q, iii – R, iv – P
(3) i – Q, ii – S, iii – P, iv – R (4) i – S, ii – R, iii – P, iv – Q

20. ‘X’ is a good conductor of electricity. Which of the following could be ‘X’?
(1) Solid sodium chloride (2) Vinegar (3) Distilled water (4) Liquid oxygen.

21. The blood pressure in humans is greater at the feet than at the brain because
(1) of gravitational force (2) weight of the human is concentrated at the feet.
(3) of height of blood column (4) concentration of the blood is more at the feet.

22. Which of the following practices does NOT improve the fertility of soil?
(1) keeping the land fallow (2) practicing crop rotation
(3) practicing multiple cropping (4) practicing monocropping.

23. A cube of side 0.2 m and weighing 100 N rests on the floor. What is the
pressure exerted by the cube on the floor?
(1) 10 N m-2 (2) 100 N m-2 (3) 500 N m-2 (4) 2500 N m-2.

24. Study the given circuit diagram

How many bulbs will light up when switches A and B are closed in different
situations?
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Only switch A is closed Only switch B is closed
(1) 4 2
(2) 4 3
(3) 0 3
(4) 0 2
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25. The killing of animals illegally is referred to as
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(1) Assassinating (2) Poaching (3) Killing (4) Hunting
l a
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26. The oldest
(1) aMathura (2) Digboi (3) Haldia (4) Kochi

27. The calorific value of a fuel is expressed in a unit called ________________
(1) Kilojoule per kilogram (2) Kilogram per Kilojoule
(3) Joule per Kilogram (4) Kilojoule per gram

o m
28. The purpose of applying lubricants to the moving parts of a machine is to
c
. (3) Clean the parts (4) Cool the parts
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(1) Increase Friction (2) Decrease Friction

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29. Imagine you’re conducting an lexperiment where you bring a charged object
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close to another object. Youaobserve that the second object moves without any
direct contact. Which type of force are you likely observing in this scenario?
(1) Pressure (2) Muscular force (3) Electrostatic force (4) Gravitational force

30. IUCN stands for
(1) Indian Union for the Conservation of Nature and Natural resources.

o m
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(2) International Union for the Conservancy of Natural resources

c. o (3) International Union for the Conservation of Nature and
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Natural resources.

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s (4) Indian Union for the Chemical Nomenclature.
g
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(1) Cloning (2) Fertilisation (3) Metamorphosis (4) Embedding

32. The defect due to which a person is not able to see the distant objects clearly
_______
(1) Myopia (2) Hypermetropia (3) Cornea (4) Cataract

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Page 21 of 31

8021
33. Which figure shows the correct direction of frictional force when a wooden
block is moving up on an inclined plane?

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D.

34. A figure of a periscope is shown below. Which labelled parts should be adjusted
to view an object placed higher?

(1) P (2) Q (3) R (4) All of these.
35. A boy feels difficult to pull the two similar rubber suckers apart as shown
below. This is because

(1) The air pressure is pressing on the suckers with negligible force.
(2) The air trapped inside the suckers is exerting a large pressure.
(3) There is no air inside the suckers.
(4) The air pressure is pressing on the suckers with a great force.

SOCIAL SCIENCE

36. Lithosphere is made up of
(1) Soil and minerals (2) Rocks and minerals and Soil
(3) Minerals, soil and water (4) Water and rocks

37. Silica and magnesium are the constituents of
(1) Rock (2) Inner Core (3) Outer Core (4) Mantle
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38. A massive earthquake hit Bhuj Town on
ag 8021
(1) 16th December 2001 (2) 26th January 2004
(3) 26th January 2001 (4) 16th December 2004

39. March 22 is celebrated as World

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(1) Earth Day (2) Environment Day (3) Water Day (4) Soil Day

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40. Ladakh is also known
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(1) Khapa-tuaregs
s
(2) Khapa-chan
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(3) Khapa-bedouins (4) Khapa-drass a
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41. _________________in Indian Constitution defines equality and prohibits any kind
of social discrimination?
(1) Article 10 (2) Article 12 (3) Article 15 (4) Article 21

42. Which method was adopted by the women’s movement to fight for women's
right
o m
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(2) Campaigning . (3) Harassment
(1) Violence
e m (4) War

l as
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43. A law was passed in ____ to give women who face physical and mental violence
a domestic violence, some legal protection
within their homes, also called
(1) 2004 (2) 2005 (3) 2007 (4) 2006

44. Order of Chain of marketing
(1) Producer-Agents -Retailer- Wholesaler
(2) Agents- Producer -Wholesaler-Retailer
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(3) Producer-Wholesaler-Retailer-Agents
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c. o (4) Producer-Agents-Wholesaler-Retailer s e m
s em 45. In recent times goods are also sold through advancedgmeans
l a such as
g la anewspaper
a (1) Internet and Home delivery (2) Radio and
(3) Internet and Radio (4) Advertisement and TV

46. The fourteenth-century chronicler Ziyauddin Barani wrote his chronicle first in
_________
(1) 1256 (2) 1556 (3) 1456 (4) 1356

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8021
47. Who were subordinate to the Pallava kings of Kanchipuram
(1) Pala (2) Rashtrakutas (3) Chera (4) Cholas

48. Akbar became an emperor at the age of ____ years.
(1) 15 (2) 17 (3) 20 (4) 13

49. Mundas and Santals lived in the region of
(1) Orissa and Bengal (2) Bihar and Orissa
(3) Bengal and Assam (4) Bihar and Uttar Pradesh

50. Which state was called Rajputana by the British
(1) Madhya Pradesh (2) Rajasthan (3) Punjab (4) Gujarat

51. Lilatilakam, was composed in
(1) Manipuralam (2) Manipravalam
(3) Manipurvalam (4) Manipravolam

52. What defines the introduction to our constitution?
(1) Preamble (2) Sovereignty (3) Constitution (4) None of these

53. Which is the highest law making body in our country?
(1) Rajya Sabha (2) Lok Sabha (3) Court (4) None of these

54. How many members are there in the Rajya sabha?
(1) 240 elected members (2) 233 elected members
(3) 230 elected members (4) None of these

55. Which is the Article of Constitution that states that untouchability has been
abolished?
(1) Article 16 (2) Article 18 (3) Article 28 (4) Article 17

56. The law against child labour was implemented in
(1) 2001 (2) 2003 (3) 2005 (4) 2006

57. Name the term that can be given to the various layers in the soil after it is cut
out like a slice of cake.
(1) Top Soil (2) Soil Horizon (3) Sub Soil (4) Soil Mixture

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58. Name the term given to the commercial rearing of silk worms to supplement the
income of the farmer.
(1) Horticulture (2) Viticulture (3) Sericulture (4) Pisciculture

59. __________ tribe practiced settled agriculture.

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(1) Khonds (2) Santhals

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(3) Labadis of Andhra Pradesh (4) Mundas of Chottanagpur plateau.
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60. Which of the

la mining industry ag
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(1) Coal
a fishing
(3)
(2) Tourism industry
(4) agriculture

61.___________ continued to fight a guerilla war against British.
(1) Rani Lakshmi bai (2) Nana Saheb
(3) Tantia Tope (4) Peshwa Baji Rao II

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c. o (3) 1876
62. Widow remarriage act was passed in the year

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(1) 1826 (2) 1856 (4) 1886

l as
ag (2) Sardar Vallabhai Patel
63. The fight for Purna Swaraj was fought under the presidentship of
(1) Mahatma Gandhi
(3) Jawaharlal Nehru (4) C. Rajagopalachari

64. Subjects such as taxes and defence were covered under _______.
(1) Union List (2) Princely List

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(3) State List (4) Concurrent List

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65. __________ has been called the backbone of industry.

em (1) Diamond (2) Iron (3) Steel
las (4) Petroleum
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la 66. Sustainable Development is ag
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(1) A right Balance between use of resources and conservation of resources
(2) Allow the resources to be renewed
(3) Promote recycling of technological devices
(4) Allow clearing of forests to construct apartments

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Page 25 of 31

67. ______ was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee. 8021
(1) Rajendra Prasad (2) T T Krishnamachari
(3) S C Sinha (4) B R Ambedkar
68. The Constitution states that there should be no _____ exercise of power.
(1) Mediatary (2) arbitrary (3) illegal (4) custom
69. The President appoints ____ members of Rajya Sabha.
(1) 12 (2) 15 (3) 14 (4) 20
70. The type of soil is determined by
(1) landforms (2) soil erosion (3) water sources (4) Globalisation

MATHEMATICS
71. The sum of rational numbers -3/16 and 5/12 is _______________
(1)-7/48 (2) 11/48 (3) 13/48 (4) 1/3
72. _______________is the multiplicative identity for rational numbers.
(1) 1 (2) 0 (3) -1 (4) 1/2
73. Zero has _______ reciprocal.
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) No
74. Solve: (5/2) x + (3/2) =6/4
(1) x =1 (2) x =2 (3) x =3 (4) x =0
75. If A= -7 then the value of A2 - 3A
(1) 28 (2) -28 (3) -70 (4) 70
76. There are 2 Red, 3 Blue and 5 Black balls in a bag. A ball is drawn from the
bag without looking in to the bag. What is the probability of getting a blue ball?
(1) 3/5 (2) 2/5 (3) 3/10 (4) 10/3
77. There are ____________ non-square numbers between the squares of 5 and 6.
(1) 11 (2) 12 (3) 13 (4) 10
78. How many zeros will be there in the cube root of the number 8000000?
(1) 6 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 3
79. The product of two integers is 4 less than 49. If one of the integers is (- 9) the
other integer is
(1) 5 (2) 40 (3) -45 (4) -5

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80. Avanti’s present age is Y years and her mother’s age is 4 years less than
3\times her age, then her mother’s present age
(1) (3Y-4) years (2) (4-3Y) years (3) (3Y+4) years (4) (4Y+4) years
81. A sum of money at simple interest amounts to ` 5500 in 1 year and to ` 6600
in 2 years. Find the sum
m
om (2) ` 4200 . co
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(1) ` 4400 (3) ` 4300 (4) ` 4100
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82. In a cricket match, India has scored 104 runs for 2 wickets by the end of the
e l
20 overs.sIf they maintain the same run rate without losing any more wickets.
g
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lwould be their final score at the end of 50 overs? a
a
What
(1) 156 for 2 (2) 208 for 2 (3) 260 for 2 (4) 312 for 2
83. Which of the following is / are two-dimensional figure?
a. Square b. Circle c. Cube d. Cuboid
(1) a,b only (2) a, b, c only (3) b, c, d only (4) All of them
84. Which of these can be expressed as a power of 5?
m
(1) 22+32 (2) 5+5+5+5+5+5
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(3) 4x4x4x4x4 (4) (7-2) x (7-2) x (7-2)
85. A rhombus is symmetrical about e
sthe mid-points of opposite sides.
l a
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(1) Each of its two lines joining
(2) Each of its two diagonals
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) None of these.
86. The marked price of an article is Rs. 60 and it is sold at Rs.45, then the
discount rate with be
(1) 25% (2) 35%
o
(3) 15%m (4) None of these
87.mSubash covers a distance of 1200 meters in 10 minutes. What c
. is the speed of
c. o Subash? s e m
e m l a (4) 72 kmph
las (1) 1.2 kmph (2) 7.2 kmph (3) 12 kmph
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88. The ratio of Ritu’s income to her savings is 4:1. The percentage of money saved
by her is
(1) 20% (2) 25% (3) 40% (4) 80%

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456 8021
89. Find the area of the given quadrilateral.

(1) 26 cm2 (2) 27 cm2 (3) 29 cm2 (4) 25 cm2

90. In the following figure, a transversal cuts two parallel lines l and m respectively
and the angles thus formed are marked. If ∠1 is an acute angle, then, which of
the following statements is false?

(1) ∠1 + ∠2 = 180° (2) ∠2 + ∠5 = 180° (3) ∠3 + ∠8 = 180° (4) ∠2 + ∠6 = 180°

*******

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FOR ROUGH WORK ONLY
8021

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Page 29 of 31

NATIONAL MEANS CUM MERIT SCHOLARSHIP SCHEME
EXAMINATION 2025
KEY FOR MAT
SL. NO. KEY SL. NO. KEY
1 4 46 4
2 3 47 1
3 1 48 1
4 2 49 2
5 2 50 4
6 1 51 3
7 4 52 3
8 3 53 3
9 1 54 4
10 3 55 3
11 4 56 2
12 2 57 1
13 2 58 4
14 4 59 1
15 2 60 2
16 3 61 3
17 2 62 4
18 4 63 1
19 2 64 1
20 3 65 3
21 1 66 2
22 2 67 4
23 4 68 4
24 3 69 4
25 2 70 1
26 2 71 3
27 4 72 3
28 3 73 2
29 4 74 1
30 1 75 1
31 1 76 4
32 2 77 3
33 4 78 1
34 2 79 1
35 4 80 2
36 3 81 4
37 4 82 2
38 1 83 1
39 3 84 3
40 3 85 4
41 4 86 1
42 2 87 4
43 1 88 1
44 4 89 3
45 3 90 2

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m
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NATIONAL MEANS CUM MERIT SCHOLARSHIP SCHEME EXAMINATION 2025

g
KEY FOR SAT

SL. NO. KEY SL. NO. KEYa SL. NO. KEY
1 1 36 2 71 2
2 3 37 4 72 1
3 4 38 3 73 4
4 1 39 3 74 4
5 1 40 2 75 4
6 2 41 3 76 3

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7 1 42 2 77 4

m 1
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8 4 43 4 78 2

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9 44 4 79 4

s e1011m 1 45 1 80 1
l a
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ag
a 13 2
2
47
48
4
4
82
83
3
1
14 4 49 1 84 4
15 1 50 2 85 2
16 3 51 2 86 1
17 3 52 1 87 2
18 1 53 2 88 1
19 3 54 2 89 2
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20 2 55 90 4

m
21 3 56 4
22 4
s e
57 2
23 4
g la 59
58 3
24
25
3
2
a 60 4
2
26 2 61 3
27 1 62 2
28 2 63 3
29 3 64 1
30 3 65 3

m
31 3 66 1

m .co
32 1 67 4

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33 1 68 2

e m 34 1 69 1
l as
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ag
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