Puducherry NMMS Question Paper and Answer Key 2026

FOR PUDUCHERRY NMMS EXAM PREPARATION

Puducherry NMMS
2026
Question Paper with
Answer Key
EXAM YEAR TYPE

Puducherry NMMS 2026 Question Paper with Answer Key

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

m
m .co
m .co s e m
se g l a
a

m
m .co
m .co s e m
s e l a
g l a ag
a

m
m .co
s e
g la
a

m
m .co
m .co s e m
s e g l a
g la a
a

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 1 of 37

8011

GOVERNMENT OF PUDUCHERRY
DIRECTORATE OF SCHOOL EDUCATION

QUESTION BOOKLET

MARCH 2026

PART – I
MENTAL ABILITY TEST

Centre Code No. Register No.

INSTRUCTIONS
1 Answer all the questions. All questions carry one mark each
2. Since all questions are compulsory, do not try to read through the
Whole question paper before beginning to answer.

3. Begin with the first question and keep on trying one question after
another till you finish all the question.

4. If you do not know the answer to any question, do not spend much
time on it but pass on to the next one. If time permits, you can come
back to the questions which you have left in the first instance and
try them again.

5. Since the time allotted to this question paper is very limited, you
should make the best use of it by not spending too much time on
any one question.

6. Separate sheets have been provided for rough work in the Question
Booklet itself.

7. The answers should be marked on a separate answer sheet provided
in the Examination Hall.

8. The answer sheet has two parts corresponding to Part – I and Part –II
of the Test.

9. Answer to each question is to be indicated by shading the number of
the correct choice in the answer sheet with black ballpoint pen from
amongst the ones given for the corresponding question in the test
booklet.

0

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 2 of 37

m
m .co
m .co s e m
se
PART I
MENTAL ABILITY TEST – MARCH 2026
g l a 8011
Duration: 90 minutes a Max Marks: 90

(Qns. 1 to 5)
Directions: In each question, the numbers / letters are arranged in a sequence based on a certain
principle. Select the answer from the four alternatives given under each sequence to complete the
series.
1. ABZY, CDXW, EFVU, GHTS, ……
m
m .co
(1) KMRQ (2) ABRQ (3) IJRO (4) IJQR

c o
2. NRI, MSI, LTI,.KUI, …… e m
m (2) JII as
(1) JIT se g l
la a
(3) JUI (4) JVI
g
3. BC,aDF, FI, HL, ……
(1) KO (2) JO (3) JK (4) KJ

4. TAT, SCS, RFR, QJQ, ……
(1) PNP (2) POP (3) PPP (4) PQP

5.
o m
What is the missing number in the series: 125, 170, 135, .... , 145, ?
c
. 160
(1) 115 (2) 140
e m(3) (4) 175

l as
ag
(Qns. 6 to 10)
Directions: Choose the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives.

6. If RECOMMENDATION is coded as:
18-E-3-O-13-M-5-N-4-A-20-I-15-N
What will be the code for EVACUATION?
(1) 5-V-1-C-21-A-20-I-15-N (2) 4-R-1-C-21-B-20-I-16-N
m
.co
(3) 4-V-1-C-21-A-20-I-15-N (4) 5-W-1-C-21-A-20-I-15-N
m
c. o 7. Use the following numeric codes, decode to find what does the following
s e m code stands for?
s em g l a
la 12-6-7-8-7-26-13-23-18-13-20
a
ag

(1) AGRICULTURE (2) ABOLISHMENT
(3) OUTSTANDING (4) DANGEROUSLY

m .
c. o
1

e m
em l as
las ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 3 of 37

8. How will you code DESCRIPTION using the following codes?
8011

(1) CKUDQJOSJPM (2) CFTDQJOERWM
(3) CTRTDQJOSJP P (4) CFTDQJOSJPM

9. If EDUCATION is coded as GDWCCTKQN, what will ENTHUSIASTIC be coded as?
(1) KGEORTHWTSJK (2) GNTHWSKCSTKC
(3) QKNYTWHWSRK (4) WGNTHKCSTKC

10. If AMBITIOUS is coded as ALAISIOUR, what will RECORDED be coded as?
(1) QEBOQCEC (2) EBWBOQCI (3) NJEBOERT (4) WERGDSQA

(Qns. 11 - 15)
Directions: Choose the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives.

11. In a row of trees, a tree is 7th from left end and 14th from left end. How many trees are there in
the row?
(1) 18 (2) 19 (3) 20 (4) 21

12. Mani ranks 13th in the class of 35 students. There are 7 students below Sankar rank wise. How
many students are there between Mani and Sankar?
(1) 13 (2) 14 (3) 15 (4) 16
13. A parking lot contains 150 vehicles. Each vehicle is either a car or a truck and each vehicle is
either red or green. 65 vehicles are red, and 115 vehicles are cars. If there are 18 green trucks,
how many red cars are there?
(1) 45 (2) 48 (3) 50 (4) 54

14. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence.
(1) Nation
(2) Village
(3) City
(4) District
(5) State
(1) 2, 3, 4, 5, 1 (2) 2, 3, 4, 1, 5 (3) 1, 3, 5, 4, 2 (4) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

2

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 4 of 37

m
m .co
m .co 15. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence. as
e m
se l 8011
(1) Hecto a g
(2) Centi
(3) Deca
(4) Kilo
(5) Deci
(1) 1, 3, 4, 5, 2 (2) 1, 5, 3, 4, 2 (3) 2, 5, 3, 1, 4 (4) 5, 2, 1, 4, 3
m
m .co
.co
(Qns. 16 - 20)
em
Directions: In the following questions, find the missing term which will complete the series.
e m l as
l a
16. 9, 11, 20,s31, (......), 82
ag
g
(1) a41 (2) 51 (3) 61 (4) 71
17. 0,2,3,5,8,10,15,17,24,26, (.....)
(1) 35 (2) 32 (3) 30 (4) 28
18. 6, 11, 21, 36, 56, (…)
(1) 61 (2) 71 (3) 81 (4) 91

m
19. 4, 10, (......), 82, 244, 730
(1) 24 (2) 28
.co
(3) 48 (4) 68
20. 1, 9, 17, 33, 49, 73, (......)
s em
(1) 97 (2) 98
g la (3) 99 (4) 100
a
(Qns. 21 to 25)
Directions: Choose the correct answer from the given options.
21. A man is 24 years older than his son. In 2 years, his age will be twice his son’s age. What is
the son’s current age?
(1) 20 (2) 21 (3) 22 (4) 23
m
.co
22. If the ratio of the ages of two friends is 4:5 and the sum of their ages is 45 years, what is the
m
c. o age of the younger friend? s e m
s em (1) 18 years (2) 20 years (3) 24 years
l a
(4) 25 years
gdaughter. How is D related to
l a a
ag
23. E is the son of A. D is the son of B. E is married to C. C is B's
E?.
(1) Brother (2) Uncle (3) Brother-in-law (4) Father-in-law

24. X is the brother of Y. Y is the sister of Z. Z is the son of P. How is X related to P?
(1) Son (2) Daughter (3) Grandson (4) Father

m .
c. o
3

e m
em l as
las ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 5 of 37

8011
25. P is the son of Q. Q is the daughter of R. R is the wife of S. How is S related to P?
(1) Father (2) Uncle (3) Brother (4) Grandfather

(Qns. 26 - 30)
Directions: Choose the correct answer from the given options.
26. If EARTH is written as FCUXM in a certain code. How is MOON written in that code?
(1) NQQM (2) NQRM (3) NQRR (4) NQQR
27. If SYMBOL is written as NZTMPC is it a certain code? How is NUMBER written in that
code?
(1) NVOSFC (2) MVOCFS (3) NVOCFS (4) MVOSFC
28. In a certain code, HARYANA is written as 8197151, how is DELHI written in that code?
(1) 35489 (2) 45389 (3) 45893 (4) 45983
29. In a certain code, PUDUCHERRY is written as 139, how is KARAIKAL written in that code?
(1) 64 (2) 63 (3) 62 (4) 61
30. In a certain code, COMPUTER is written as PMOCRETU, how is DECIPHER written in that
code?
(1) IECDHERP (2) IECDEHRP (3) ICEDHEPR (4) ICEDREHP

(Qns. 31 - 35)
Directions: Choose the correct answer from the given options.

31. If a person is facing north, turns 90 degrees anti-clockwise, then 180 degrees clockwise,
which direction is he facing now?
(1) North (2) East (3) West (4) South

32. A man is facing north-west. He turns 90o in the clockwise direction and then 135o in the anti-
clockwise direction. Which direction is he facing now?
(1) North (2) East (3) West (4) South

33. I walk 30 metres in North-West direction from my house and then 30 metres in South-West
direction. After this I walk 30 metres in South-East direction. Now, I turn to my house, in what
direction am I going?
(1) South-East (2) South-West (3) North-East (4) North-West

4

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 6 of 37

m
m .co
m .co s em
se g la 8011
a
34. If South-East becomes North and South becomes North-East and all the rest of the directions
are changed in the same manner, then what will be the direction for West?
(1) South-East (2) South-West (3) North-East (4) North-West

35. I am facing south. I turn right and walk 20 metre. Then I turn right again and walk 10 metre.
Then I turn left and walk 10 metre and then turning right walk 20 metre. Then I turn right again
m
.co
and walk 60 metre. In which direction am I from the starting point?
m
(1) North-East
c. o (2) North-West (3) North (4) West
s e m
e m l a
(Qns. 36 - 39) s g
g a a
l different positions of a dice are given. Observe the positions Answer the questions
a
Direction:
that follow.
Six

m
.co
36. If the odd numbered dice have even number of dots on their top faces, then what would be the

e
total number of dots on the top faces of their dice?
m
(1) 8 (2) 10
l as (3) 12 (4) 14

ag
37. If even numbered (ii, iv, vi) dice have even number of dots on their top faces, then what would
be the total number of dots on the top faces of their dice?
(1) 12 (2) 14 (3) 24 (4) 18

38. If the even numbers of dice have odd number of dots on their top faces and odd numbered dice
have even of dots on their bottom faces, then what would be the total number of dots on their
m
.co
top faces?
m
c. o39. Two positions of dice are shown below. How many points will be on the
(1) 14 (2) 18 (3) 16 (4) 12
e m
e m at the bottom? l as top when 2 points are

las ag
ag
(1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6

m .
c. o
5

e m
em l as
las ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 7 of 37

(Qns. 40 - 44) 8011
Directions: identify the figure based on the continuation of the previous figures.
Find out the alternative figure which contains figure (X) as its part.

40.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

41.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

42.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

43.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

6

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 8 of 37

m
m .co
m .co s em
se g litsapart.
a
44. Find out the alternative figure which contains figure (X) as 8011

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)
m
m .co
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

(Qns. 45 -49)
m .co s e m
s e
Directions: Choose the box that is similar to the box formed from the given sheet of paper (X).
g l a
g l a
Choose the figure from 1, 2, 3, or 4 which closely resembles figure Z. a
45. a

m
.co
s em
g la
(1) 1 (2) 2
a (3) 3 (4) 4

46.

m
m .co
m .co s e m
s e g la
g la a
a

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

m .
c. o
7

e m
em l as
las ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 9 of 37

8011
47.

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

48.

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

49.

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

8

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 10 of 37

m
m .co
m .co s e m
se
(Qns. 50-54)
l a 8011
g the given sheet of paper (X).
Directions: Choose the box that is similar to the box formedafrom
50.

m
.co
(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)
m
m .co s e m
s e
(1) 1 and 4 only (2) 3 and 4 only (3) 1 and 2 only (4) 2 and 3 only
g l a
g l a a
51.
a

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

o m
c
. 2 and 4 only
(1) 1 and 3 only (2) 1 and 4 only
e m(3) (4) 3 and 4 only

l as
ag
52.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

m
m .co
(1) 1 and 2 only (2) 2 and 3 only (3) 2 and 4 only (4) 1, 2, 3 and 4

.co
m 53. What is the opposite face of “Red”? s e m
s e g la
g la a
a

(1) Red (2) Blue (3) Yellow (4) Black

m .
c. o
9

e m
em l as
las ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 11 of 37

8011
54. How many dots lie opposite to the face having three dots, when the given figure is folded to
form a cube?

(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6

(Qns. 55-59)
Directions: Each of the following questions consist of problem figures followed by answer figures.
Select a figure from amongst the answer figures which will continue the same series or pattern as
established by the problem figures.

55. PROBLEM FIGURE ANSWER FIGURE

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

56. PROBLEM FIGURE ANSWER FIGURE

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

57. PROBLEM FIGURE ANSWER FIGURE

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
10

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 12 of 37

m
m .co
m .co s e m
se g l a
a
8011
58. PROBLEM FIGURE ANSWER FIGURE

m
m .co
.co s em
(1) 1
s em (2) 2 (3) (4) 4
g l a
g la a
59. a PROBLEM FIGURE ANSWER FIGURE

om
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

. c
e m
(Qns. 60-66)
a s
l the correct mirror image amongst the four
alternatives. a g
Directions: In each of the following, choose

60. Which of the following images is the correct water image of the word "bridge"?

o m
m . c
c. o (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4m
s e
e m l a
las g
g 61. Which of the following images is the correct water image ofathe word "RECRUIT"?
a

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

m .
c. o
11

e m
em l as
las ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 13 of 37

62. Find the mirror image of the given figure. 8011

(1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

63. Find the mirror image of the given figure

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

64. Find the mirror image of the given figure.

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

12

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 14 of 37

m
m .co
m .co s em
se g l a 8011
65. Which of the answer figure is exactly the mirror image a
of the given figure, when the mirror is
placed on the line AB?

m
m .co
m .co s em
s e g l a
g l a a
a
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

66. Which of the answer figure is exactly the mirror image of the given figure, when the mirror is
placed on the line AB?

m
m .co
s e
l a
ag

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

(Qns. 67 - 71)
m
m
Directions: Choose the correct answer from the given options.
c. o67. Which number comes inside the circle? m.co
m s e
s e g la
g la a
a

(1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 7

m .
c. o
13

e m
em l as
las ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 15 of 37

68. Which number replaces the question mark? 8011

(1) 13 (2) 11 (3) 10 (4) 9

69. Which number replaces the question mark?

(1) 8 (2) 9 (3) 16 (4) 27

70. Which number replaces the question mark?

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

71. Which number replaces the question mark?

(1) 7 (2) 9 (3) 11 (4) 13
14

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 16 of 37

m
m .co
m .co s e m
se g l a
(Qns.: 72 - 75)
Directions: Answer the following questions. a 8011

m
.co
A B C D
m
.co
72. Which of the above diagram shows the relationship between all of these
m s em
s e g l a
a
Tamil Nadu, Chennai, Puducherry
(1)gA
l a
a (2) B (3) C (4) D
73. Which of the above diagram shows the relationship among the classes given below
Word, Sentence, Alphabet, Paragraph
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
74. Which of the above diagram shows the relationship between all of these
Indians, doctors and women
m
(1) A (2) B
m .co
(3) C (4) D

s e
l a the relationship among the classes given below
75. Choose the diagram that best represents
g
(1) A (2) B
a (3) C (4) D

(Qns.: 76- 80)
Directions: In the following Questions, choose the correct answer from the given options. Choose
the correct image as the rotated image of the given image, when the image is rotated in the specified
direction and through the angle mentioned
76.
m
m .co
m .co s e m
s e g la
g la a
a

(1) (A) (2) (B) (3) (C) (4) (D)
m .
c. o
15

e m
em l as
las ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 17 of 37

77. 8011

(1) (A) (2) (B) (3) (C) (4) (D)

78.

(1) (A) (2) (B) (3) (C) (4) (D)

79.

(1) (A) (2) (B) (3) (C) (4) (D)

80.

(1) (A) (2) (B) (3) (C) (4) (D)
16

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 18 of 37

m
m .co
m .co s e m
se
(Qns.: 81- 85)
g la 8011
a and find the odd one out.
Directions: In the following Questions, look at the given figures
81.

m
m .co
.co
(1) (A) (2) (B) (3) (C) (4) (D)
em
82.
e m l as
l as ag
ag

(1) (A) (2) (B) (3) (C) (4) (D)

83.
m
.co
s em
g la
(1) (A) (2) (B) a (3) (C) (4) (D)

84.

m
m (1) (A) (4) (D) .
co
.co em
(2) (B) (3) (C)

e m las
las ag
ag 85.

(1) (A) (2) (B) (3) (C) (4) (D)

m .
c. o
17

e m
em l as
las ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 19 of 37

(Qns. 86 - 90) 8011
Directions: Choose the correct answer from the given options

86. A train 150 meters long is running at a speed of 90 km/h. How much time will it take to cross
a platform 150 meters long?
(1) 6 seconds (2) 12 seconds (3) 18 seconds (4) 24 seconds

87. A sum of money is divided among A, B, and C in the ratio 3:4:5. If C gets ₹500 more than A,
what is the total amount?
(1) ₹ 1200 (2) ₹ 1500 (3) ₹ 2400 (4) ₹ 3000

88. A car covers a distance of 360 km at a uniform speed. If the speed is increased by 20 km/h, the
time taken reduces by 1 hour. What is the original speed?
(1) 60 km/h (2) 80 km/h (3) 100 km/h (4) 120 km/h

89. I have a few sweets to be distributed. If I keep, 2, 3 or 4 in a pack, I am left with one sweet. If
I keep 5 in a pack, I am left with none. What is the minimum number of sweets I have to pack
and distribute?
(1) 25 (2) 37 (3) 45 (4) 54

90. A man has Rs. 480 in the denominations of one-rupee notes, five-rupee notes and ten-rupee
notes. The number of notes of each denomination is equal. What is the total number of notes
that he has?
(1) 45 (2) 60 (3) 75 (4) 90

18

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 20 of 37

m
m .co
m .co s e m
se Rough Work only
g l a 8011
a

m
m .co
m .co s em
s e g l a
g l a a
a

m
m .co
s e
l a
ag

m
m .co
m .co s e m
s e g la
g la a
a

m .
c. o
19

e m
em l as
las ag
ag For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 21 of 37

8021

GOVERNMENT OF PUDUCHERRY
DIRECTORATE OF SCHOOL EDUCATION
QUESTION BOOKLET
MARCH 2026

PART – II
SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST

Centre Code No. Register No.

INSTRUCTIONS
1. Answer all the questions. All questions carry one mark each.

2. Since all questions are compulsory, do not try to read through the
whole question paper before beginning to answer.

3. Begin with the first question and keep on trying one question after
another till you finish all the question.

4. If you do not know the answer to any question, do not spend much
time on it but pass on to the next one. If time permits, you can come
back to the questions which you have left in the first instance and try
them again.

5. Since the time allotted to this question paper is very limited, you
should make the best use of it by not spending too much time on any
one question.

6. Separate sheets have been provided for rough work in the Question
Booklet itself.

7. The answers should be marked on a separate answer sheet provided
in the Examination Hall.

8. The answer sheet has two parts corresponding to Part – I and Part –II
of the Test.

9. Answer to each question is to be indicated by shading the number of
the correct choice in the answer sheet with black ballpoint pen from
amongst the ones given for the corresponding question in the test
booklet.

0

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 22 of 37

.
.co s e m
s em PART II ag
l a
a SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST – MARCH 2026
8021
Duration: 90 minutes Max Marks: 90
SCIENCE

1. Aeroplanes are streamlined to reduce
(1) fluid friction (2) sliding friction (3) kinetic friction (4) limiting friction

m
om
2. Two bricks of same mass are placed on sand as shown below. The brick in
. co
. c e m
em
figure A exerts:
l as
l as ag
ag
(A) (B)
(1) Equal pressure (2) Less pressure (3) More pressure (4) Zero pressure

3. Dilip and Kumar performed experiments taking similar bulbs and cells but two
different solutions A and B as shown in the following figure. They found that the
m
.co
bulb in setup A is glowing more brightly as compared to that of setup B. you
would conclude that _________________.
e m
l as
ag

(1) higher current is flowing through the circuit in setup A
(2) higher current is flowing through the circuit in setup B
m
.co
(3) equal current is flowing through both the circuits
m
c. o (4) none of the above. s e m
s em 4. Two mirrors A and B are placed at right angles to eachgother.
l a A ray of light
g la a
a incident on mirror A at an angle of 25 falls on mirror B after reflection. The
angle of reflection for the ray reflected from mirror B would be _____.
(1) 25 (2) 50 (3) 65 (4) 115

om
1
. c
. c e m
m as
se
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
gl
Page 23 of 37

5. If the area of contact is reduced by 50%, pressure will:
8021
(1) remain same (2) Double
(3) becomes half (4) increase to four times its original

6. Maximum part of light is reflected by
(1) opaque object (2) translucent object
(3) transparent object (4) all of these

7. Match the following;
i) Non-contact forces - a) an act of push or pull
ii) Catapult - b) perpendicular to surface
iii) Force - c) Contact force
iv) Normal force - d) action at a distant force
(1) i)-c), ii)-a), iii)-d), iv)-b) (2) i)-d), ii)-c), iii)-a), iv)-b)
(3) i)-d), ii)-a), iii)-c), iv)-b) (4) i)-b), ii)-a), iii)-d), iv)-c)

8. A bus travels 300 m in 30 s, stops for 10 s and then moves 200 m in 20 s. Its
average speed is:
(1) 10 m/s (2) 8.3 m/s (3) 7.5 m/s (4) 5 m/s

9. An electric current can produce ____________.
(1) heating effect only (2) chemical effect only
(3) magnetic effect only (4) chemical, heating, and magnetic effects.

10. A brick with dimensions 0.2 m × 0.1 m × 0.05 m weighs 50 N, the pressure
when it rests on the smallest face is
(1) 100 N m-2 (2) 1000 N m-2 (3) 5000 N m-2 (4) 10000 N m-2

11. Which of the following object is sonorous?
(1) steel bottle (2) hardcover book (3) Plastic bat (4) Porcelain plate

12. The backside of a plane mirror contains
(1) gold coating (2) silver coating (3) aluminium coating (4) copper coating

2

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 24 of 37

.
.co s e m
s em l a
a ag 8021

13. Teflon is classified under which of the following categories?
(1) Natural fibre (2) Thermosetting plastic
(3) Synthetic fibre (4)) Thermoplastic

14 The fuel that produces the most heat energy per unit mass is
m
om . co
m
(1) Cow dung cake (2) LPG (3) Coal (4) Petrol
. c s e
em l a
l as
15. Identify the hottest zone in a candle flame.
ag
ag

m
(1) Outer Zone (2) Middle Zone
c. (3)o Inner Zone (4) Blue Zone

e m
16. Magnesium ribbon on burningla
s
g in air produces
(1) magnesium oxide, wateraand light (2) magnesium oxide and heat
(3) magnesium oxide, heat and light (4) magnesium oxide, water and heat

17. Assertion: Chromium plating is done on many objects like car parts, wheel
rims and bath taps.

m
.co
Reason: The chromed layer can be decorative, provide corrosion resistance,
mease cleaning procedures, or increase surface hardness. m
m .co s e
s e (1) Assertion is correct and Reason is incorrect
g l a
g la a
a
(2) Assertion is incorrect and Reason is correct
(3) Both Assertion and Reason is correct and Reason is the correct explanation
of Assertion
(4) Both Assertion and Reason is correct but Reason is not the correct
explanation of Assertion

om
3
. c
. c e m
m as
se
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
gl
Page 25 of 37

8021
18. The substance expected to have the highest ignition temperature out of the
following is
(1) kerosene (2) petrol (3) coal (4) alcohol

19. Under which conditions does coal formation take place from plant and animal
remains?
(1) high pressure and high temperature
(2) high pressure and cold surroundings
(3) low pressure and high temperature
(4) low pressure and cold surroundings

20. The most suitable material for the preparation of handles of cooking utensils is
(1) Polythene (2) PVC (3) Nylon (4) Bakelite

21. Sodium metal is stored in kerosene. Why?
(1) It is highly reactive and catches fire in air (2) It is less reactive
(3) To keep it cool (4) To make it shiny

22. Penguins have thick fur and a fat layer to survive in which habitat?
(1) Desert (2) Polar Region (3) Grassland (4) Aquatic life

23. The force of attraction is minimum in
(1) Solid (2) liquid (3) gas (4) none of these

24. The non-metal which is liquid at room temperature is:
(1) Bromine (2) Iodine (3) Carbon (4) Chlorine.

25. Match Column I and Column II and select the correct matching:
Column I Column II
i) Kharif crops - a) animal excreta, cow dung urine and plant waste
ii) Rabi crops - b) Urea and Super phosphate
iii) Chemical fertilizers - c) Wheat, gram, pea
iv) Organic manure - d) Paddy and maize
(1) i)-b), ii)-a), iii)-c), iv)-d) (2) i)-d), ii)-c), iii)-a), iv)-b)
(3) i)-a), ii)-b), iii)-d), iv)-c) (4) i)-d), ii)-c), iii)-b), iv)-a)

4

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 26 of 37

.
.co s e m
s em l a
a ag
8021
26. __________ separates the contents of the cell from the surrounding medium.
(1) Protoplasm (2) Cytoplasm (3) Cell membrane (4) nucleus

27. Given below are events that lead to pregnancy and development of embryo.
m
co
i) Fertilization of egg
ii) Maturation ofom .
. c egg e m
iii) Release m
e of egg l as
la s ag
g
iv) Embedding of embryo in thickened uterine wall.
(1) aii, i, iii, iv (2) ii, iii, i, iv (3) i, iv, ii, iii (4) i, ii, iii, iv

28. Reproduction by budding takes place in ___________.
(1) Hydra (2) Amoeba (3) Paramecium (4) Bacteria

29. Species found in a particular area is known as ________________.

m
(1) Endemic species (2) Endangered species
(3) Extinct species
m .co
(4) Rare species

e
s which of the following elements must be
l a
30. For the metamorphosis of tadpole
present in water? ag
(1) Chlorine (2) Carbon (3) Sulphur (4) Iodine

31. According to IUCN “Red List”, what is the status of red panda?
(1) vulnerable species (2) endangered species
(3) critically endangered species (4) extinct species

m
m
32. ____________________ is an essential constituent of proteins, nucleic acids,
c. o chlorophyll and vitamins. .co
m s em
s e g la (4) Calcium
la
(1) Nitrogen (2) Hydrogen (3) Oxygen

g a
a 33. Baker’s yeast : Bread :: Lactobacillus : ?
(1) Yoghurt (2) Beverages (3) Alcohol (4) Wine

34. ____________________ was discovered by Alexander Fleming in 1929.
(1) Streptomycin (2) Erythromycin (3) Penicillin (4) Tetracycline

om
5
. c
. c e m
m as
se
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
gl
Page 27 of 37

8021

35. In a classroom discussion, three students made the following statements.
Seetha: Fertilizers are chemical substances that are rich in a particular
nutrient.
Ravi: Fertilizers increase the water holding capacity of the soil.
Ashok: Fertilizers used in excess provide lots of humus to the soil.
Which student(s) made incorrect statement(s)?
(1) Seetha and Ravi (2) Ravi and Ashok
(3) Ashok and Seetha (4) Seetha only

SOCIAL SCIENCE

36. Soyrabai, the wife of the well-known Bhakti poet ___________________.
(1) Tulsidas (2) Kabir (3) Chokhamela (4) Rahim

37. Who translated the Ramayana into Persian?
(1) Abul Fazl (2) Badauni (3) Faizi (4) Dara Shikoh

38. Ryotwari system was introduced by:
(1) Cornwallis (2) Munro (3) Dalhousie (4) Wellesley

39. The silver rupee was first introduced by ________________.
(1) Babur (2) Humayun (3) Sher Shah Suri (4) Akbar

40. In which year did Delhi become the capital of British India?
(1) 1921 (2) 1911 (3) 1925 (4) 1929

41. Match the following:
Column A Column B
A. Begum Hazrat Mahal - 1. Jhansi
B. Kunwar Singh - 2. Awadh
C. Ahmadullah Shah - 3. Faizabad
D. Rani Laxmibai - 4. Bihar
(1) A-2; B-3; C-4; D-1 (2) A-4; B-3; C-2; D-1
(3) A-2; B-4; C-3; D-1 (4) A-3; B-4; C-2; D-1
6

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 28 of 37

.
.co s e m
s em l a
a
42. Where was the Brahma Samaj formed?
ag
(1) Amritsar (2) Kolkata (3) Lucknow (4) Mumbai

43. In 1849, Governor-General Dalhousie announced the death of ________.
(1) Rani Laxmi Bai (2) Bahadur Shah Zafar
m
co
(3) Nana Saheb (4) Tantiya Tope

. c om em .
em l as
s
44. The Bastar Rebellion in Central India broke out in

la ag
a g
(1) 1900 (2) 1910 (3) 1920 (4) 1940

45. The arms Act which disallowed Indians from having arms was passed in
_______.
(1) 1855 (2) 1878 (3) 1920 (4) 1925

46. Which of the following movement is associated with Chitta Ranjan Das?

m
c. (4)o None of these
(1) Quit India Movement (2) The Salt March
(3) Non-Cooperation Movement
e m
47. Santhal rebellion took place in:la
s
(1) Bihar ag
(2) Bengal (3) Jharkhand (4) Odisha

48. _______________ is the largest producer of bauxite in the world?
(1) China (2) Australia (3) Brazil (4) India

49. Name the term that can be given to the various layers in the soil after it is cut
out like a slice of cake.
m
m .co
.co
(1) Soil Mixture (2) Sub Soil (3) Soil Horizon (4) Top Soil
e m
em 50. The Prime Meridian passes through: l as
las (3) France a
g
ag (1) India (2) England (4) USA

51. The bare ground between plants is covered with a layer of organic matter like
straw to help retain soil moisture. Name this important method of soil
conservation.
(1) Mulching (2) Contour Barriers (3) Rock Dams (4) Terrace Farming

om
7
. c
. c e m
m as
se
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
gl
Page 29 of 37

8021
52. Name the type of farming practiced to meet the needs of the farmer’s family?
(1) Commercial Farming (2) Mixed Farming
(3) Plantation agriculture (4) Subsistence Farming

53. Rows of trees planted in dry lands to prevent soil erosion is known as
(1) Contour ploughing (2) Shelter belts
(3) Intercropping (4) Terrace farming

54. Which continent is the leading producer of iron ore in the world?
(1) Asia (2) North America (3) Europe (4) Australia

55. Which of the following is not a sugarcane-producing state in India?
(1) Assam (2) Madhya Pradesh (3) Uttar Pradesh (4) Maharashtra

56. The Monazite sands of Kerala is rich in ______________.
(1) Uranium (2) Thorium (3) Aluminium (4) Magnesium

57. Platinum is found in which of the following rocks?
(1) Sedimentary and Igneous (2) Metamorphic and Sedimentary
(3) Igneous and Metamorphic (4) None of the above.

58. In which of the following spheres of the earth are living beings inter-related
and interdependent on each other for their survival?
(1) Lithosphere (2) Biosphere (3) Atmosphere (4) Hydrosphere

59. Basket weaving, pottery and other handicrafts are all examples of
(1) Small scale industries (2) Medium scale industries
(3) Cottage industries (4) Large scale industries

60. Which latitude receives direct sunlight twice a year?
(1) Tropic of Capricorn (2) Tropic of Cancer (3) Equator (4) Arctic Circle

61. The Chief Justice of India is appointed by the ___________________.
(1) Prime Minister (2) Parliament (3) President (4) Supreme Court

8

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 30 of 37

.
.co s e m
s em l a
a ag
8021
62. Who was the first speaker of the Lok Sabha?
(1) M. A. Ayyangar (2) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
(3) Ganesh Vasudev Mavlankar (4) G. S. Dhillon

m
63. When was the Supreme Court of India established?

om
(1) 15 August 1947 (2) 26 January 1950
. co
. c e m
em
(3) 15 August 1950 (4) 26 January 1947
a s
l of
l as ag
g
64. The important fundamental rights to Equality is mentioned in which article
theaconstitution?
(1) Article 14-18 (2) Article 19-22 (3) Article 23- 24 (4) Article 29-30

65. A bill finally becomes an Act after the assent of______.
(1) President (2) Prime Minister (3) Supreme Court (4) Speaker

m
66. When did the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act come into
effect?
m (3) 2001 .co
(1) 2006 (2) 1990
s e
a
(4) 2005

g l
a available to all children is an important aspect
67. Equity in the schooling facilities
of __________________.
(1) Right to safety (2) Right to life (3) Right to education (4) Right to school

68. The ________ hour is an important mechanism through which Member of
Parliaments can elicit information about the working of the government.
m
.co
(1) Both question and zero (2) question (3) Zero (4) None of the above
m
c.69.o No child below the age of ______ shall be employed to workseinmany factory.
s em (1) Three (2) Ten g l a
la (3) Twenty (4)
a
Fourteen

ag 70. Identify the body that protects and upholds the Constitution
(1) Parliament (2) Supreme Court
(3) Election Commission (4) Cabinet

om
9
. c
. c e m
m as
se
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
gl
Page 31 of 37

MATHEMATICS 8021
71. Multiplicative inverse of a negative rational number is
(1) a positive rational number. (2) a negative rational number.
(3) 0 (4) 1

72. The sides of triangles are in the ratio 3:4:5 and the perimeter is 72 cm.
Find the Sides
(1) 16 cm, 24 cm and 32 cm (2) 12 cm, 18 cm and 42 cm
(3) 12 cm, 24 cm and 36 cm (4) 18 cm, 24 cm and 30 cm

73. The number of like terms in the expression -3a2xy+2xay2-xya2+4ax2y+7xa2y is
(1)1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

74. If 3x − 4 (64 − x) = 10, then the value of x is
(1) −266 (2)133 (3) 66.5 (4) 38

75. In a pie chart, the total angle at the centre of the circle is
(1) 180° (2) 360° (3) 270° (4) 90°

76. The sum of a two-digit number and the number obtained by reversing its
digits will always divisible by
(1) 37 (2) 31 (3) 11 (4) 9

77. Ram put some buttons on the table. There were 4 blue, 7 red, 3 black and 6
white buttons in all. All of a sudden, a cat jumped on the table and knocked out
one button on the floor. What is the probability that the button on the floor is
blue?
(1) 7/20 (2) 3/5 (3) 1/5 (4) 1/4

78. Given that √5625 = 75, the value of √0.5625 + √56.25 is:
(1) 82.5 (2) 0.75 (3) 8.25 (4) 75.05

10

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 32 of 37

.
.co s e m
s em l a
a ag 8021
79. ABCD is a quadrilateral in which AB = 5 cm, CD = 8 cm and the sum of angle
A and angle D is 180°. What is the name of this quadrilateral?
(1) Parallelogram (2) Trapezium
(3) Rhombus (4) Cannot be determined

o m
m . c
. co is ______
80. A regular polygon
s e m
s em (2) Equiangular (3) Both (1) & (2) (4) None gla
(1) Equilateral

g la a
a has a marked price of Rs. 3600. A discount of 20% is offered.
81. A watch
If the cost price of the watch is Rs. 2500, find the profit on selling it
(1) ` 380 (2) ` 360 (3) ` 320 (4) ` 300

82. Which of the following vary inversely with each other?

m
.co
(1) speed and distance covered.
(2) distance covered and taxi fare.
e m
l as
(3) distance travelled and time taken.
(4) speed and time taken. g
a
83. What is the area of the largest triangle that can be fitted into a rectangle of
length l units and width b units?

(1) lb/2 (2) lb/3 (3) lb/6 (4) lb/4

84. The sum of two numbers is 31 and their product is 184. The numbers are:
m
m .co
(1) 12 and 19 (2) 46 and 4 (3) 16 and 15 (4) 8 and 23

.co s e m
s em 85. The shifting of a number from one side of an equationgltoa the other is called
g la a (4) Associativity
a
(1) Transposition (2) Distributivity (3) Commutativity

86. 12 workers can complete a work in 15 days, how many workers are needed to
complete it in 9
(1) 10 (2) 15 (3) 18 (4) 20

om
11
. c
. c e m
m as
se
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
gl
Page 33 of 37

87. Number of lines of Symmetry does a regular hexagon have
(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 9 (4) 12

88. If abc is a three-digit number, then the number abc−a−b−c is divisible by

(1) 9 (2) 90 (3) 10 (4) 11

89. In the figure, BEST is a rhombus. Then the value of y−x is

(1) 50° (2) 40° (3) 20° (4) 10°.

90. Which among the following is not a polyhedron?

(1) (a) (2) (b) (3) (c) (4) (d)

*******

12

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 34 of 37

.
.co s e m
s em l a
a ag
FOR ROUGH WORK ONLY
8021

m
om . co
. c em
em l as
l as ag
ag

m
m .co
s e
l a
ag

m
m .co
m .co s e m
s e g la
g la a
a

om
13
. c
. c e m
m as
se
For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit
gl
Page 35 of 37

For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 36 of 37

m
m .co
m .co s e m
se g l a
a

m
m .co
m .co s em
s e g l a
g l a a
a

m
m .co
s e
l a
ag

m
m .co
m .co s e m
s e g la
g la a
a

m .
.co s e m
s em l a
g la ag
a For more Question Papers, Sample Papers, Notes & Syllabus visit Page 37 of 37