KEAM 2025 Question Paper B.Pharm with Answers

Entrance Exam
2025

QUESTION
PAPER

FINAL ANSWER KEY
Question Paper Code: 9/2025/OL
Exam:KEAM 2025 BPHARM-1
Date of Test: 24-04-2025

A solution contains 9.8 g of 𝐻 𝑆𝑂 . How much NaOH is required to completely neutralize
1.
it? (molar mass of NaOH = 40 g 𝑚𝑜𝑙 )
A) 0.4 g
B ) 0.2 g
C) 8g
D ) 1.2 g
E ) 1.6 g

Which of the following statements are correct about canal rays?

(i) They carry positively charged particles.
(ii) The mass of the particles of these rays does not depend upon the gas present in the
2. cathode ray tube.
(iii) The particles behave in a different manner in electric field as those of cathode rays.
(iv) The charge to mass ratio of the particles does not depends on the gas present in the
cathode ray tube.
A ) (ii) and (iv)
B ) (i) and (iv)
C ) (i) and (ii)
D ) (ii) and (iii)
E ) (i) and (iii)

A sub-atomic particle of mass 2.2𝑥10 𝑘𝑔 is moving with a velocity of 3.0𝑥10 𝑚𝑠
3.
. What is its de Broglie wavelength? (Planck’s constant h = 6.6𝑥10 𝐽𝑠)
A) 1 pm
B ) 0.1 pm
C ) 2 pm
D ) 0.2 pm
E ) 0.5 pm

Correct Answer : Option B

4. Which of the following is a metalloid?
A) Antimony
B ) Aluminium
C ) Magnesium

D) Phosphorus
E ) Calcium

5. Main group elements are
A) s-block elements only
B ) p-block elements only
C ) both s-and p-block elements
D ) d-block elements only
E ) 4f and 5f-block elements

6. In which of the following compounds there is an expanded octet around the central atom?
A) 𝑆𝐶𝑙
B ) 𝑁𝑂

C ) 𝑁𝐻

D ) 𝑃𝐶𝑙

E ) 𝐻 𝑆𝑂

7. Which of the following molecule has tetrahedral geometry?
A) 𝑆𝐹
B ) 𝑃𝐶𝑙

C ) 𝐵𝐹

D ) 𝐵𝑒𝐶𝑙

E) 𝑁𝐻

8. Enthalpy change is always negative for which one of the following processes?
A) Enthalpy of ionisation
B ) Enthalpy of sublimation
C ) Enthalpy of vapourisation
D ) Enthalpy of bond dissolution
E ) Enthalpy of combustion

What are the thermodynamic conditions for a reaction to be spontaneous at low
9. temperature and non-spontaneous at high temperature?
A) Δ 𝐻 > 0, Δ 𝑆 > 0

B) Δ 𝐻 < 0, Δ 𝑆 > 0
C ) Δ 𝐻 > 0, Δ 𝑆 < 0
D ) Δ 𝐻 < 0, Δ 𝑆 < 0
E ) Δ 𝐻 > 0, Δ 𝑆 = 0

Correct Answer : Option D

A monobasic acid HA has pH of 3 in 0.1M solution at 298 K. What is the pKa of the acid at
10. 298 K?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
E) 2

11. The ion with the highest limiting molar conductance at 298 K is
A) 𝐻
B ) 𝑁𝑎

C) 𝐾
D ) 𝐶𝑎

E ) 𝑀𝑔

What is the quantity of current required to deposit one mole of metallic magnesium from
12. fused magnesium chloride? (1F=96500C)
A) 1.93 × 10 𝐶
B ) 1.93 × 10 𝐶

C ) 9.65 × 10 3𝐶

D) 9.65 × 10 𝐶
E ) 1.93 × 10 𝐶

13. Which of the following gas has highest solubility in water at 298 K?
A) Formaldehyde
B ) Methane
C) 𝐶𝑂
D) Vinyl chloride
E ) Argon

14. What is the unit of rate constant for a second order reaction?
A ) 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐿 𝑠
B ) 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐿 𝑠
C ) 𝑚𝑜𝑙 L𝑠
D ) 𝑚𝑜𝑙 L 𝑠

E) 𝐿 𝑠

15. Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
A) For a zero order reaction the rate of the reaction is independent of reactant concentration.
In a first order reaction the half-life period does not depend on the initial reactant
B)
concentration.
C ) For a chemical reaction the rate constant increases with increase in temperature.
In a zero order reaction plot of reactant concentration against time is a straight line with
D)
negative slope.
In a first order reaction, the time required for 75% completion of the reaction is thrice the
E)
half-life period.

16. Which of the following is a colourless transition metal ion?
A ) 𝐶𝑎

B ) 𝐶𝑟

C ) 𝑇𝑖

D ) 𝐹𝑒

E ) 𝐹𝑒

17. The 3𝑑 metal that forms fluoride in +6 oxidation state is
A) Titanium
B ) Chromium
C ) Vanadium
D ) Manganese
E ) Cobalt

Correct Answer : Option B

18. The transition metal oxide used as a catalyst in the manufacture of sulphuric acid is
A) Nickel (II) oxide

B) Vanadium (III) oxide
C ) Chromium (III) oxide
D ) Chromium (II) oxide
E ) Vanadium (V) oxide

19. The transition metal ion with the least ionic radius (in pm) is
A ) 𝑆𝑐

B ) 𝑇𝑖

C) 𝑉
D ) 𝐶𝑟

E ) 𝑀𝑛

Correct Answer : Option D

20. 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂 is prepared from Mn(II) ion salts by oxidizing it with
A ) 𝐾𝐶𝑙𝑂

B) 𝐾 𝑆 𝑂

C ) 𝐾𝑁𝑂

D ) 𝐾𝐶𝑙𝑂
E ) 𝐾𝑂𝐻

Correct Answer : Option B

21. The lanthanoid with the outer electronic configuration 4𝑓 5𝑑 6𝑠 is
A) Neodymium
B ) Samarium
C ) Europium
D ) Gadolinium
E ) Holmium

Correct Answer : Option D

22. The IUPAC name of the complex [𝐶𝑜(𝑁𝐻 ) (𝐻 𝑂) ]𝐶𝑙 is
A) triaquatriamminecobalt(III) chloride
B ) triamminetriaquacobalt(III) chloride
C ) triaquatriamminecobalt(II) chloride
D ) triamminetriaquacobalt(II) chloride
E ) triaquatriamminecobalt(III) trichloride

Correct Answer : Option B

23. The complexes [𝐶𝑜(𝑁𝐻 ) 𝐵𝑟]𝑆𝑂 and [𝐶𝑜(𝑁𝐻 ) 𝑆𝑂 ]𝐵𝑟 are examples of
A) Linkage isomerism
B ) Solvate isomerism
C ) Coordination isomerism
D ) Ionization isomerism
E ) Geometrical isomerism

Correct Answer : Option D

24. The metal ion present in the Wilkinson’s catalyst is
A) Nickel
B ) Platinum
C ) Iron
D ) Rhodium
E ) Chromium

Correct Answer : Option D

25. Which of the following is a spin free complex?
A ) [𝑁𝑖(𝐶𝑂) ]

B) [𝐶𝑜(𝑁𝐻 ) ]
C) [𝑁𝑖(𝐶𝑁) ]
D) [𝐶𝑜𝐹 ]
E) [𝑀𝑛(𝐶𝑁) ]

Correct Answer : Option D

The type of hybridization of the carbon atoms from left to right in 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶𝐻 = 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶𝑁
26.
is
A) 𝑠𝑝 , 𝑠𝑝, 𝑠𝑝, 𝑠𝑝
B ) 𝑠𝑝 , 𝑠𝑝 , 𝑠𝑝, 𝑠𝑝

C ) 𝑠𝑝 , 𝑠𝑝 , 𝑠𝑝 , 𝑠𝑝

D ) 𝑠𝑝 , 𝑠𝑝 , 𝑠𝑝 , 𝑠𝑝

E ) 𝑠𝑝 , 𝑠𝑝 , 𝑠𝑝, 𝑠𝑝

27. Which of the following group shows –R effect?
A ) – 𝑂𝐻
B ) – 𝑂𝐶𝑂𝑅
C ) −𝑁𝐻
D ) −𝐶𝑁

E) −𝑂𝑅

Correct Answer : Option D

28. The hydrocarbon with molecular formula 𝐶 𝐻 is
A) Didodecane
B ) Didecane
C ) Dodidecane
D ) Didocene
E ) Eicosane

When n-hexane is passing over 𝑀𝑜 𝑂 catalyst at 773K and 10-20 atm pressure, the
29. product formed is
A) 1–hexene
B ) 3-hexene
C ) cyclohexane
D ) benzene
E ) cyclohexene

Correct Answer : Option D

One mole of an alkene on ozonolysis gives one mole of propan-2-one and one mole of
30. formaldehyde What is the alkene?
A) 2-Butene
B ) 1-Butene
C ) Isobutene
D ) 2-Methyl-2-butene
E ) 2,3-Dimethyl-2-butene

31. The correct decreasing order of acidity of alkynes is
A ) 𝐶𝐻 ≡ 𝐶𝐻 ˃ 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶 ≡ 𝐶𝐻 ˃ 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶 ≡ 𝐶 − 𝐶𝐻

B ) 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶 ≡ 𝐶 − 𝐶𝐻 ˃ 𝐶𝐻 ≡ 𝐶𝐻 ˃ 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶 ≡ 𝐶𝐻

C ) 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶 ≡ 𝐶𝐻 ˃ 𝐶𝐻 ≡ 𝐶𝐻 ˃ 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶 ≡ 𝐶 − 𝐶𝐻

D ) 𝐶𝐻 ≡ 𝐶𝐻 ˃ 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶 ≡ 𝐶 − 𝐶𝐻 ˃ 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶 ≡ 𝐶𝐻

E ) 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶 ≡ 𝐶𝐻 ˃ 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶 ≡ 𝐶 − 𝐶𝐻 ˃ 𝐶𝐻 ≡ 𝐶𝐻

32. When toluene is treated with 𝐶𝑙 in the presence of 𝐹𝑒 in dark, the product formed is
A) Benzyl chloride
B ) mixture of 𝑜- & 𝑝-Chlorotoluene

C) 2,4,6-Trichlorotoluene
D ) 2,4-Dichlorotoluene
E ) Benzal dichloride

Correct Answer : Option B

33. Which of the following compound is used for the manufacture of phenol in large scale?
A) Chlorobenzene
B ) Benzene
C ) Aniline
D ) Cumene
E ) Cyclohexane

Correct Answer : Option D

34. When aryl halide is treated with 𝑁𝑎 in dry ether, biphenyl is formed. This reaction is called
A) Fittig reaction
B ) Wurtz-Fittig reaction
C ) Swarts reaction
D ) Williamson’s synthesis
E ) Kolbe’s reaction

35. Asprin is
A) methyl salicylate
B ) sodium benzoate
C ) acetyl salicylic acid
D ) 2-methyl salicylic acid
E ) ethyl salicylate

36. Phenol is converted into benzene by heating with
A ) 𝑁𝑎 / 𝐻𝑔
B ) 𝑍𝑛 dust
C ) 𝐶𝑟 𝑂

D ) 𝐿𝑖𝐴𝑙𝐻

E ) 𝑁𝑎𝐵𝐻

Correct Answer : Option B

37. Intramolecular hydrogen bonding is present in
A) Water
B ) Methanol

C) Phenol
D ) 𝑜-Nitrophenol
E) 𝑝-Nitrophenol

Correct Answer : Option D

38. Which of the following is the weakest acid?
A ) 𝐹𝐶𝐻 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻

B ) 𝑁𝐶 − 𝐶𝐻 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻

C ) 𝐶𝑙 𝐶 − 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻

D ) 𝑂 𝑁 − 𝐶𝐻 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻

E ) 𝐶𝑙 𝐶𝐻𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻

Benzaldehyde reacts with acetophenone in the presence of 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 at 293 K to give
39. benazlacetophenone. This reaction is an example of
A) Cannizzaro reaction
B ) aldol condensation
C ) Wolf-Kishner reduction
D ) Clemmensen reduction
E ) cross aldol condensation

Which of the following carboxylic acid is used in rubber, textile, dyeing, leather and
40. electroplating industries?
A) Methanoic acid
B ) Ethanoic acid
C ) Benzoic acid
D ) Salicylic acid
E ) Butanoic acid

41. Acetanilide is prepared by treating acetic anhydride/pyridine with
A) Ethanamine
B ) Methanamie
C ) Benzenamine
D ) N-Methylaniline
E ) N-Methylethanamine

42. Which of the following amine does not react with Hinsberg’s reagent?

A) Methanamine
B ) N-Methylethanamine
C ) N,N-Dimethylethanamine
D ) 1-Propanamine
E ) 2-Propanamine

43. Aryl fluorides are prepared from diazonium salts using
A ) 𝑁𝑎𝐹
B ) 𝐾𝐹
C ) 𝐵𝐹

D ) 𝐴𝑙𝐹

E ) 𝐻𝐵𝐹

44. Which of the following amino acid can be synthesized in the body?
A) Proline
B ) Leucine
C ) Valine
D ) Arginine
E ) Histidine

Match the following;
a) Aldohexose i) Maltose
b) Ketohexose ii) Glycogen
45. c) Non-reducing disaccharide iii) Glucose
d) Reducing disaccharide iv) Sucrose
e) Polysaccharide v) Fructose
A ) a)-(iii); b)-(v); c)-(iv); d)-(i); e)-(ii)
B ) a)-(iii); b)-(ii); c)-(i); d)-(v); e)-(iv)
C ) a)-(i); b)-(ii); c)-(iii); d)-(v); e)-(iv)
D ) a)-(iii); b)-(iv); c)-(v); d)-(i); e)-(ii)
E ) a)-(iii); b)-(ii); c)-(iv); d)-(i); e)-(v)

46.
A) 𝐿𝑀𝑇
B) 𝐿 ∘𝑀𝑇
C ) 𝐿𝑀𝑇

D) 𝐿 ∘𝑀 ∘𝑇 ∘
E) 𝐿 𝑀 𝑇

Correct Answer : Option D

An object when dropped from a height ℎ from the ground, reaches the ground in 𝑡 s. The
47. time after which the object was passing through a point at a height ℎ / 2 from the ground
is
A) √2𝑡
B)
√

C)

D) 2𝑡
E)

Correct Answer : Option B

^ and 𝐵
48. The angle between two unit vectors 𝐴 ^ is 60 ∘ . The value of ^−𝐵
𝐴 ^ is
A)

B)

C)

D) 1
E)

Correct Answer : Option D

49. A person standing on the platform of a lift will experience weight loss, when the lift moves
A) downward with uniform velocity
B ) upward with constant acceleration
C ) downward with constant acceleration
D ) upward with uniform velocity
E ) upward with variable acceleration

Three forces 𝐹 , 𝐹 and 𝐹 acting on a body of mass 𝑚 keep the body stationary. If the
50. forces 𝐹 and 𝐹 are mutually perpendicular, the acceleration of the body when the force
𝐹 is removed is
A)

B)

( )
C)

D)

E)

A body initially at rest undergoes linear motion with constant acceleration under the action
51. of a constant force. Then the power delivered to the body at time 𝑡 is proportional to
A) 𝑡 /
B) 𝑡
C) 𝑡

D) 𝑡

E) 𝑡 /

Correct Answer : Option B

52. Pick out the INCORRECT statement from the following
A) Work done in uniform circular motion is zero
B ) When a body is in dynamic equilibrium, work done is zero
C ) Work done is positive for a freely falling body under gravity
D ) Work done in a stretched string is positive
E ) Work done depends on the time taken to complete the work

A shell travelling along a parabolic path in the gravitational field of the earth undergoes
53. explosion in mid air. The centre of mass of the fragments will move
A) horizontally and then vertically down
B ) along the original parabolic path
C ) vertically down
D ) vertically up and then vertically down
E ) horizontally and then in the parabolic path

Correct Answer : Option B

The ratio of radius of gyration of a circular ring to that of a circular disc, each of same mass
54. and same radius about their respective central axes is
A) √2: √3
B) 1: √2
C ) √3: √2

D ) √2: 1

E) 1: 1

Correct Answer : Option D

Two bodies of masses 𝑚 and 4𝑚 are kept at a distance of 𝑥 . The distance on the axial
55. point from 𝑚 at which the gravitational field is zero is

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

56. Work done in a stretched wire is
A ) 𝐿𝑜𝑎𝑑 × 𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑖𝑛

B) × 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 × 𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑖𝑛
C) 𝑌𝑜𝑢𝑛𝑔 s 𝑚𝑜𝑑𝑢𝑙𝑢𝑠 × 𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑖𝑛
D) × 𝐿𝑜𝑎𝑑 × 𝑒𝑥𝑡𝑒𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑜𝑛

E) × 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 × 𝑒𝑥𝑡𝑒𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑜𝑛

57.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Correct Answer : Option B

If the value of 𝐶 / 𝐶 is unity in the equation 𝑃𝑉 = constant, then the process is
58. (𝐶 = specific heat capacity at constant pressure
𝐶 = specific heat capacity at constant volume)
A) adiabatic
B ) isochoric
C ) isothermal
D ) isobaric
E ) irreversible

The temperature at which the r.m.s. velocity of oxygen molecule is equal to that of
59. hydrogen molecule at 20 K is
A) 300 K
B ) 320 K
C ) 330 K
D ) 400 K
E ) 375 K

Correct Answer : Option B

A particle executes linear simple harmonic motion and its potential energy (P.E), kinetic
60. energy (K.E) and total energy (T.E) are measured as functions of displacement 𝑥 from the
mean position at the origin. Then
A ) K.E. is minimum when 𝑥 = 0
B) T.E. is zero when 𝑥 = 0
C) P.E. is maximum when 𝑥 = 0
D) K.E. is maximum when 𝑥 is maximum
E) P.E. is maximum when 𝑥 is maximum

A closed organ pipe and an open organ pipe have the same length. The ratio of the
61. frequencies in their third mode of vibrations is
A) 3:1
B) 2:3
C) 5:6
D) 4:5
E) 3:5

A point charge −𝑞 , is placed at a distance 𝑥 from an isolated conducting plane. The
62. electric field at any point 𝑃 on the other side of the plane is directed
A) radially away from the point charge
B ) towards the plane perpendicularly

C) radially towards the point charge
D ) away from the plane perpendicularly
E ) parallel to the surface of the conducting plane

Correct Answer : Option B

Three capacitors each of capacitance 12 μ 𝐹 , are connected in series. When this
63. combination is connected to a battery of 12 V, the charge drawn from the battery is
A) 32 μ 𝐶
B ) 24 μ 𝐶
C ) 48 μ 𝐶
D ) 16 μ 𝐶
E ) 12 μ 𝐶

64. Pick out the INCORRECT statement
A) Kirchhoff’s junction rule is based on conservation of energy
B ) Ohm’s law asserts that the plot of current I versus potential V is linear
C ) Current is a scalar quantity
D ) Electrical conductivity is the reciprocal of electrical resistivity
E ) Current density is a vector quantity

An electric cell does 10 J of work in carrying a charge of 5 C around a simple closed circuit.
65. The electromotive force of the cell is
A) 0.5 V
B ) 1.5 V
C) 1V
D) 6V
E) 2V

A wire of length 1.2 m carrying a current of 4 𝐴 , when placed in a uniform magnetic field
of
66. 5 𝑇 experiences a force of 12 𝑁 . Then the angle between the direction of current and
the
magnetic field is
A) 30 ∘
B) 45 ∘
C ) 60
∘

D) 0
∘

E ) 90
∘

When a proton moves in a uniform magnetic field such that its velocity has a component
67. along the direction of magnetic field, its trajectory will be a
A) circle
B ) straight line
C ) helix
D ) parabola
E ) ellipse

An iron ring is held horizontally and a bar magnet is dropped gently through the ring with its
length coinciding with the axis of the ring. The acceleration of the freely falling magnet
68. through the ring
(g = acceleration due to gravity)
A) is less than g
B) is equal to g
C) is greater than g
D ) depends on the radius of the ring
E ) depends on the length of the magnet

In a plane electromagnetic wave, the magnetic field is given by
69. 𝐵 = 400 × 10 𝑠𝑖𝑛 (4.0 × 10 )(𝑡 − 𝑥 / 𝑐)
T .The peak value of electric field (in 𝑉𝑚 – ) is
A) 8 × 10
B ) 6 × 10

C ) 4 × 10

D ) 3 × 10

E ) 12 × 10

A convex lens having power 𝑃 is cut into two halves perpendicular to the principal axis.
70. Then the power of each piece is
A) 𝑃
B)

C) 2𝑃
D)

E) 4𝑃

Correct Answer : Option B

In Young’s double slit experiment performed in air medium, the fringe width observed is 1.4
71. mm. If the entire arrangement is kept in a liquid medium of refractive index 1.4, then the
fringe width (in mm) will be
A ) 1.4
B ) 1.0
C ) 0.7
D ) 2.8
E ) 0.5

Correct Answer : Option B

When blue light is incident on a certain metal surface, photoelectrons are emitted. When
72. green light is incident on the same metallic surface, no electrons are emitted. If the same
metallic surface is exposed to yellow light,
A ) less energetic electrons will be emitted
B ) no electrons will be emitted
C ) more energetic electrons will be emitted
D ) electron emission depends on the intensity of light
E ) electron emission depends on the time of exposure

Correct Answer : Option B

Ionization potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 𝑒𝑉 . Hydrogen atom in the ground state
73. initially is excited by monochromatic radiation of photon energy 12.75 𝑒𝑉 . The number of
spectral lines emitted by the hydrogen atom, according to Bohr’s theory will be
A) 2
B) 4
C) 3
D) 6
E) 5

Correct Answer : Option D

74. When a radioactive material emits an α -particle, its position in the periodic table
A) is lowered by three places
B ) is increased by two places
C ) remains unchanged
D ) is lowered by two places
E ) is increased by one place

Correct Answer : Option D

75. The band gap energy of silicon is
A ) 1.1 𝑒𝑉

B) 0.7 𝑒𝑉
C) 1.7 𝑒𝑉
D) 2.1 𝑒𝑉
E) 0.5 𝑒𝑉

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