Odisha CPET 2021 Question Paper Biotech

M.Sc (Biotechnology)
Entrance Examination- 2021
Time: 90 mins No. of questions: 70

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following electromagnetic wave has highest wavelength?
(a) X rays (b) UV rays
(c) Infrared rays (d) Microwaves

2. The ray of light passes through _________ part of lens without deviation.
(a) Optical centre (b) Focus
(c) Centre of curvature (d) Pole

3. The number of electrons contained in 1 coulomb of charge is ____________
(a) 6.25 x 1017 (b) 6.25 x 1018
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(c) 6.25 x 10 (d) 1.6 x 1019

4. Two bodies of masses 4 kg and 5 kg are acted upon by the same force. If the
acceleration of light body is 2 m/s2, the acceleration of the heavier body is ________
(a) 1 m/s2 (b) 1.2 m/s2 (c) 1.6 m/s2 (d) 1.8 m/s2

5. The dimensional formula of kinetic energy is ___________
(a) ML-2T-1 (b) ML2T-1
(c) ML2T-2 (d) M2LT-2

6. Calculate the pH of 0.02 M NaOH? (log 2 = 0.3010).
(a) 1.7 (b) 8.7 (c) 10.5 (d) 12.3

7. Which quantum number governs the spatial orientation of an atomic orbital?
(a) Magnetic quantum number (b) Spin quantum number
(c) Azimuthal quantum number (d) Principal quantum number

8. Which of the following properties generally decreases along a period?
(a) Ionization energy (b) Valency
(c) Electron affinity (d) Metallic character

9. What type of hybridization is exhibited by BCl3 and PCl5 respectively?
(a) sp3, sp5 (b) sp2, sp3d
(c) sp2, sp3 (d) sp3d, sp2

10. The half-life of the decomposition of a compound is 20 min. When the initial
concentration of compound is doubled, the half-life period reduces to 10 min. Find the
order of reaction?
(a) Zero (b) First (c) Second (d) Third

11. The binary equivalent of the decimal number 72 is ________
(a) 101000 (b) 100100 (c) 101000 (d) 1001000

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12. Find out the value of ‘x’, if log5 (x-7) = 1.
(a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 12 (d) 16

13. The 1st January of 2021 is Friday. What date 1st January 2023 will fall?
(a) Sunday (b) Tuesday (c) Thursday (d) Saturday

14. A train is moving at a speed of 132 km/hr. If the length of the train is 110 meters, how
long will it take to cross a railway platform of 165 meters long?
(a) 7 sec (b) 7.5 sec (c) 8 sec (d) 8.5 sec

15. The sum of three numbers is 98. If the ratio of the first and second is 2:3 and that of
the second to the third is 5:8. Find out the second number?
(a) 58 (b) 48 (c) 30 (d) 20

16. Which one of the following statement is correct?
(a) More is the degree of unsaturation in fat, more is the safonification number.
(b) Shorter the average chain length of fatty acids, higher is safonification number.
(c) Safonification number reveals the quantity of free fatty acid present in a fat.
(d) Safonification number is a measure of the number of –OH groups in the fat.

17. Which of the following glycosidic linkage is found in cellulose?
(a) Glucose (1→4) Glucose (b) Glucose (1→6) Glucose
(c) Glucose (1→4) Glucose (d) Glucose (1→6) Glucose

18. Which of the followings are known as helix breakers?
(a) Threonine (b) Proline and glycine
(c) Valine (d) Isoleucine and leucine

19. Which step of the TCA cycle is involved in the reduction of FAD?
(a) Isocitrate to Oxaloacetate (b) Succinyl CoA to Succinate
(c) Fumarate to Malate (d) Succinate to Fumarate

20. The non-competitive inhibitor of an enzyme catalyzed reaction …………..
(a) Increases Km and increases Vmax
(b) Increases Km and reduces Vmax
(c) Reduces Km and increases Vmax
(d) Reduces Km and reduces Vmax

21. The coenzymes FMN and FAD are derived from __________ vitamin.
(a) Vitamin C (b) Vitamin B1
(c) Vitamin B2 (d) Vitain B6

22. Methylated purines and pyrimidines are characteristically present in ________ .
(a) mRNA (b) hnRNA (c) rRNA (d) tRNA

23. In the conversion of lactic acid to glucose, three reactions of glycolyic pathway are
circumvented. Which of the following enzymes do not involved in the process?
(a) Phosphoenol pyruvate carboxykinase (b) Pyruvate carboxylase
(c) Pyruvate kinase (d) Glucose-6 phosphatase

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24. The decarboxylation reaction in HMP shunt is catalyzed by ____________ .
(a) 6-phosphogluconate decarboxylase (b) Glucolactone hydrolase
(c) 6-phosphogluconate dehydrogenase (d) Transaldolase

25. The common precursor molecule that involves in the biosynthesis of triacylglycerol
and phospholipids is ___________
(a) Glycerol 3-phosphate (b) 1-acylglycerol 3-phosphate
(c) Dihydroxyacetone phosphate (d) 1,2-diacylglycerol phosphate

26. Which one of the following compound does not act as second messenger during
signaling process?
(a) Triacylglycerol (b) cAMP
(c) Diacylglycerol (d) cGMP

27. Which of the following cases, the first base of the anticodon pairs with three codons?.
(a) When the 1st base of the anticodon is A or C.
(b) When the 1st base of the anticodon is A or G.
(c) When the 1st base of the anticodon is G or U.
(d) When the 1st base of the anticodon is Inosine.

28. Which of the following is not the component of rRNA present in eukaryotes?
(a) 5S rRNA (b) 16S rRNA
(c) 18S rRNA (d) 28S rRNA

29. Which of the following transcription termination technique involves RNA dependent
ATPase activity?
(a) Rho dependent (b) Intercalating agents
(c) Rho independent (d) Rifampicin

30. Which segments of the attenuator together form repression loop in trytophan operon?
(a) Segment 1-2 (b) Segment 2-3
(c) Segment 2-4 (d) Segment 1-4

31. A bacterial population increases from 103 to 109 cells in 10 hours. Calculate the
number of generations per hour?
(a) 20 (b) 10 (c) 4 (d) 2

32. Which of the following antibiotics inhibit protein synthesis by binding with the 50S
subunit of ribosome?
(a) Chloramphenicol (b) Streptomycin
(c) Tetracyclin (d) Penicillin

33. Which of the following statement is INCORRECT for Archaebacteria?
(a) The Cell wall is not made up of peptidoglycan
(b) The cell membrane have branched chain hydrocarbons
(c) The cell wall has both D- and L- form of amino acids
(d) The first amino acid to initiate polypeptide chain is methionine

34. Which of the following viruse replicate in the cytoplasm?
(a) SV40 (b) Adenovirus (c) Herpes simplex virus (d) Vaccinia virus

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35. Match the columns:
Column-1 Column-2
i. Corynebacterium diphtheriae a. Blocks release of acetylcholine
ii. Clostridium tatani b. Binds to class-II MHC molecule
iii. Clostridium botulinum c. Inactivates EF-2 by ADP ribosylation
iv. Staphylococcus aureus d. Blocks release of inhibitory neurotransmitter
glycine
(a) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b (b) i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b
(c) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d (d) i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d

36. People with Klinefelter syndrome have 47 chromosomes including three sex
chromosomes (XXY). What is the term to describe the aberration that occurs dring
meiosis that results in abnormal chromosome number?
(a) Crossing over
(b) Non-disjunction
(c) Pairing of homologous chromosome
(d) Independent assortment

37. If individuals of genotype AaBbCc are intercrossed, how many different F2
phenotypes can appear assuming complete co-dominance at all loci?
(a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 27 (d) 64

38. The deviation from the Hardy-Weinberg assumption of infinitely large population size
results in ___________
(a) Genetic lethal (b) Heterozygote advantage
(c) Consangunity (d) Genetic drift

39. Down’s syndrome is caused by presence of a third copy of chromosome 21 associated
with chromosome 21 pair. The genetic condition is known as trisomy 21, which is
caused by ____________
(a) Frame-shift mutation (b) Chromosome nondisjunction
(b) Fragile X syndrome (d) Chromosome translocation

40. A plant of genotype AB/ab is test crossed with ab/ab. If the two loci are 10 map units
apart, what proportion of progeny will be AB/ab?
(a) 5% (b) 10% (c) 20% (d) 45%

41. Which of the following is not a function of rough endoplasmic reticuum?
(a) N-linked glycosylation of proteins (b) Folding of polypeptide chains
(c) O-linked glycosylation of proteins (d) Specific proteolytic cleavage

42. Which of the following is the marker enzyme for Golgi apparatus?
(a) Acetyl-CoA synthetase (b) Galactosyl transferase
(c) Pyruvate kinase (d) Cytochrome oxidase

43. If the number of bivalents are 10 in Prophase-I, what is the number of chromosomes
during Anaphase-II?
(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 30 (d) 40

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44. Cyclin-dependent kinase activity increases steadily during G2 phase due to ________
(a) phosphorylation of mitotic cyclins by Cdks
(b) transient increase in the cytosolic GTP concentration
(c) activation of mitotic Cdk-cyclins through the phosphatase activity
(d) phosphorylation of Cdks located inside catalytic site of Cdk-cyclin complex

45. Which of the following is associated with the hyperpolarization of cell membrane?
(a) Activation of voltage-gated K+ channels
(b) Activation of the Na+ leaky channel
(c) Activation of Ca2+ voltage gated channel
(d) Activation of voltage-gated Na+ channel

46. Which of the following disease is not an autoimmune disease?
(a) Rheumatoid arthritis (b) Lupus erythematosus
(c) Bovine spongiform encephalitis (d) Grave’s disease

47. Which of the following is not true for T-cell receptor (TCR)?
(a) TCRs are not antigen specific.
(b) TCR is membrane bound.
(c) TCR does not appear in a soluble form as B-cell receptor does.
(d) TCRs are specific for antigen combined with molecules encoded by MHC.

48. Which of the following statements about complements are correct?
P. Classical pathway is initiated by IgM and certain IgG subclasses of antibodies.
Q. Alternative and lectin pathways are antibody independent.
R. The complement system mediates opsonization of bacteria.
S. Nucleated cells are more resistant to complement mediated lysis than RBCs
(a) P and Q (b) Q and S
(c) P, Q and R (d) P, Q, R and S

49. Choose the mismatch.
(a) IgG: the most abundant type in serum
(b) IgA: Major antibody in secretions such as saliva, tears and breast milk
(c) IgD: Protects against pathogens invading through gut mucosa
(d) IgE: least abundant and play important role in hypersisitivity

50. Which statements are correct about the cell mediated immune response?
P. It is dependent upon the humoral response.
Q. It is usually used to respond to virus-infected cells.
R. It involves direct recognition of the antigen by killer T-cells.
S. It requires that the antigen be presented to killer T-cells by an MHC protein.
(a) P and S (b) Q and S
(c) P, Q and S (d) P, Q, R and S

51. Which of the following rule is not considered to design primers for PCR?
(a) Tm of both primers
(b) Length of primers
(c) A+G content of both the primers
(d) Complementarity between the primers

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52. IgG has four chains. The purified monoclonal IgG was subjected to electrophoresis.
The number of bands visible by (i) reducing SDS-PAGE, (ii) isoelectric focusing and
(iii) native PAGE are _____________ respectively.
(a) i-2, ii-1 and iii-1 (b) i-2, ii-2 and iii-2
(c) i-4, ii-1 and iii-1 (d) i-4, ii-2 and iii-2

53. The absorbance of a solution X of concentration 0.005 mg/ml is found to be 0.49 at
540 nm using 1 cm cuvette. What is the absorbance, if the solution X is diluted twice
and the measurement is taken in 5 cm cuvette?
(a) 0.049 (b) 0.098 (c) 0.245 (d) 1.225

54. Which chromatographic technique is not suited for protein separation, because the
proteins get denatured by it?
(a) Ion exchange chromatography (b) Affinity chromatography
(c) Reverse phase chromatography (d) Size exclusion chromatography

55. Which of the microscopy techniques relies on the specimen interfering with the
wavelength of light to produce a high contrast image without the need of dyes or any
damage to the sample?
(a) Electron microscopy (b) Phase contrast microscopy
(c) Bright field light microscopy (d) Fluorescence microscopy

56. Mean haemoglobin level of 100 persons was estimated to be 100 gm% with standard
deviation of 1 gm%. Calculate the standard error?
(a) 0.1 gm% (b) 1 gm%
(c) 10 gm% (d) 100 gm%

57. The mean weight of 100 children was 12 kg with standard deviation of 3 kg. Calculate
the percent coefficient of variation?
(a) 25% (b) 35% (c) 45% (d) 60%

58. Poisson distribution is applied for _________.
(a) Regular random variable (b) Discrete random variable
(c) Irregular random variable (d) Constant time function

59. Calculate the variance of the given dataset: 4, 7, 6, 3, 7 and 3?
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8

60. A dice is tossed 5 times. What is the probability of getting exactly 2 Four?
(a) 0.028 (b) 0.161 (c) 0.167 (d) 0.333

61. To code 50 amino acids in a polypeptide chain, what will be the minimum number of
nucleotides in its cistron?
(a) 50 (b) 153 (c) 300 (d) 306

62. Choose the mismatch.
(a) Phagemid Part of M13 genome with plasmid DNA
(b) P1-derived artificial chromosome Combined features of P1 vector & BACs
(c) Shuttle vector Yeast episomal plasmids
(d) Ti plasmid Agrobacterium rhizogenes

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63. A 200 l of PCR mixture has 100 template DNA molecules and the reaction was
performed for 10 cycles. How many molecules of amplicons will be generated?
(a) 1.024 x 104 (b) 1.024 x 105
(c) 2.024 x 104 (d) 2.024 x 105

64. Which of the following role does opines play in Crown gall disease?
(a) Source of carbon, nitrogen and energy for Agrobacterium
(b) Transfer of T-DNA to plant cells
(c) Attachment of Agrobacterium to the plants
(d) Induction of expression of vir genes

65. Genetically engineered male sterile crop plants may be produced by inserting _____
(a) BT toxin gene (b) barnase gene
(c) lectin gene (d) chitinase gene

66. The genes required to transfer rice plant into ‘Golden rice’ were obtained from _____
(a) Carrot and Cotton (b) Daffodil and E.coli bacterium
(c) Sunflower and Cotton (d) Daffodil and Erwinia bacterium

67. Match the columns.
Column-1 Column-2
(i) Cyanogen bromide (a) Carboxyl side of aromatic amino acids
(ii) Trypsin (b) Asparagine-glycine bonds
(iii) Chymotrypsin (c) Carboxyl side of lysine and arginine
(iv) Hydroxylamine (d) Carboxyl side of methonine
(v) 2-Nitro-5-thiocyanobenzoate (e) Amino side of cysteine
(a) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-e, v-b (b) i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b, v-e
(c) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-e, v-d (d) i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d, v-e

68. The protein binding regions of DNA are identified by __________ .
(a) DNA fingerprinting (b) Southern blotting
(c) DNA foot printing (d) Northern blotting

69. Which of the following reporter gene expression does not require addition of specific
substrate for detection?
(a) Luciferase (b) -Glucuronidase
(c) Green fluorescent protein (d) -Glucosidase

70. Choose the mismatch.
(a) Jacob’s syndrome 44 + XYY
(b) Turner’s syndrome 44 + XO
(c) Huntington’s chorea 44 + XXXY
(d) Down’s syndrome 2N + 1

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Rough work

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