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FOR DDCET EXAM PREPARATION
DDCET 2025
Question Paper ·
Pharmacy Series A
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT
DDCET 2025 Question Paper Pharmacy Series A
Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests
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se This Question Booklet contains
DP-2025gl a
16 printed pages
Total Marks : 200
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Time : 150 Minutes Question A
Candidate’s
Booklet
Code :
A Seal Sticker
Seat No. :
Candidate’s Signature Block Supervisor’s Signature
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DO NOT OPEN QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL INSTRUCTED.
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INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATE: 6. Both, Candidate’s & Supervisor’s signature
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1. Check Number printed on your OMR SHEET
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must be done on Certificate of OMR SHEET.
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and Question Paper with your SEAT No. before Unsigned OMR SHEET would not be
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answering the questions. Consult block considered for evaluation.
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supervisors in case the above mentioned
numbers do not match with your seat number.
7. Candidates are not permitted to use or carry
with them any kind of literature, guide, hand
2. There are two sections in this question paper. written notes, or printed books, mobile phone,
There are total 100 questions. For answer of pagers, smart watches, camera or any electronic
each question A, B, C, D, E options are given gadgets to examination hall.
in OMR SHEET. In OMR SHEET, there is 8. Use of only Non-scientific / Non-programmable
“E” option. “E” option is for “Not Attempted”. calculator shall allow during examination.
If candidate do not wish to answer the question
he/she should select “E” option (Not 9. Candidates are not permitted to talk/discuss in
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the Examination Hall. Any candidate found
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Attempted). All questions are compulsory.
violating supervisor's instructions will be
For Example:
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disqualified.
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Which state of India has the longest sea shore ?
A B C D E
g l a and E accordingly with Blue / Black ball pen.
(A) Maharashtra (B) Tamilnadu a If answers are marked with any other coloured
(C) Gujarat (D) Andhra Pradesh ball pen, pencil, white ink (whitner), any
In this example, the right answer is (C). corrections are done by candidate by means of
Therefore, the Circle of (C) has been darkened blade or rubber or whitner will not be
(encoded). Candidate should not give the considered for evaluation.
answer “Gujarat” in writing. 11. Candidates may carry QP with them after
The options once darkened/answered by Examination.
candidate cannot be changed. 12. For correct answer 2 (Two) marks will be
given.
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3. Candidates are not permitted to leave
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examination hall during examination.
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For negative marking :
4. Candidates must strictly enter SEAT NO. in
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If candidate -
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• Gives wrong answer or
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as well as Question Paper neatly as soon as
• Darkens more
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they receive the OMR SHEET & Question
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Paper.
Candidates must not write name or put any
mark) as answer for one question
in OMR SHEET then 0.50 marks will be
identification sign/symbol on OMR SHEET. deducted.
In such case strict disciplinary action will be If candidate does not want to answer a
taken against candidate & will be considered particular question and marks (E) or leave
disqualified/ineligible. Only Seat No. must be the option without encoding on OMR sheet,
entered at designated space provided in OMR then no minus marks will be given.
SHEET.
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Submit the OMR SHEET to the block supervisor after completion of examination without fail before leaving
examination hall, failure to do so will result in disqualification of the candidature for the examination and
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disciplinary action will be taken against such candidate.
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SECTION - 1
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1. What is the primary function of the glomerulus ? a
(A) Reabsorption of nutrients (B) Filtration of blood
(C) Secretion of waste products (D) Concentration of urine
2. Which of the following hormone regulates water reabsorption in the collecting ducts ?
(A) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) (B) Aldosterone
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(C) Renin
c o m (D) Erythropoietin
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3.
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Which of the following hormones are secreted by adrenal medulla ?
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(A) Insulin and glucagon (B) Thyroxine and calcitonin a
(C)aCortisol and aldosterone (D) Epinephrine and norepinephrine
4. Which of the following gland produces melatonin that regulates the sleep-wake cycle ?
(A) Thyroid gland (B) Pituitary gland
(C) Pineal gland (D) Adrenal gland
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_______ enzyme is found in saliva, which involve in beginning of the carbohydrates
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digestion ?
(A) Pepsin
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(C) Lipase
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6. Which part of the brain controls the basic rhythm of breathing ?
(A) Cerebrum (B) Hypothalamus
(C) Medulla oblongata (D) Cerebellum
7. Which of the following is an example of connective tissue ?
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(A) Skin (B) Cardiac muscle
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(D) Cartilage
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What is the name of the valve that prevents the backflow of stomach
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a (A) Lower esophageal sphincter (B) Pyloric sphincter
(C) Ileocecal valve (D) Duodenal valve
9. Which of the following blood vessel is carrying deoxygenated blood ?
(A) Coronary artery (B) Pulmonary artery
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(C) Pulmonary vein (D) Carotid artery
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10. Which part of the neuron receives incoming signals from other neurons ?
(A) Synaptic terminal (B) Axon
(C) Soma (D) Dendrites
11. What is the primary site of fertilization in the female reproductive system?
(A) Uterus (B) Cervix
(C) Fallopian tube (D) Ovary
12. Which of the following is an example of a hinge joint ?
(A) Hip (B) Elbow
(C) Shoulder (D) Wrist
13. _______ structure in the male reproductive system, stores and matures sperm ?
(A) Epididymis (B) Vas deferens
(C) Seminal vesicle (D) Prostate gland
14. A thin and transparent outer layer of the heart wall is known as:
(A) Myocardium (B) Endocardium
(C) Epicardium (D) Mesocardium
15. What is the primary function of the epiglottis ?
(A) To prevent the entry of food in trachea
(B) To prevent the entry of food in nasal cavity
(C) To humidify incoming air
(D) To produce mucus
16. Which of the following cell represents the agranular leukocytes?
(A) Neutrophils (B) Monocytes
(C) Basophils (D) Eosinophils
17. Oral contraceptive pill POP means
(A) Progesterone Only Pill (B) Progesterone Oestrogen Pill
(C) Post Coital Pill (D) Progesterone Oral Pill
18. Carcinogen means it may cause
(A) Cataract (B) Renal Caliculi
(C) Cancer (D) Calcification of Artery
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19.
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Factors affecting Various aspects of health are considereda as
(A) Indicators of health ag of health
(B) Determinants
(C) Protectors of health (D) All of these
20. Which of the following is false for vaccine?
(A) Stimulates production of protective antibodies.
(B) Produces immunity having memory.
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(C) Produces immunity of specific kind.
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(D) Produces naturally acquired immunity.
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g lathe Odd one from followings (Hint: Method of contraception) ag
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21. Identify
(A) Condom (B) Vaginal Sponge
(C) Vaginal ring containing hormones (D) Diaphragm
22. Which gas is present in highest amount in air ?
(A) Water Vapour (B) Oxygen
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(C) Nitrogen (D) Carbon dioxide
23.
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Which of the following is mainly transmitted through fecal-oral route?
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(A) Measles
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(C) Influenza (D) Chickenpox
24. Decibel is the unit of _______.
(A) Amount of smog in air (B) Frequency of sound waves
(C) Amount of pollutants in air (D) Intensity of noise
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25. Septik tank is a method of _______.
c. o (A) Disposal of human excreta s e m
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(D) Removal of microorganism from water
26. DASH diet can be used to control
(A) Cancer (B) Hepatitis
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(C) Hypertension (D) Haemorrhage
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27. Dietary fibre can be used as supplement to control followings except .....
(A) Obesity (B) Diabetes mellitus
(C) High blood cholesterol (D) Acute gastritis
28. Which disease is also known as Hensen’s disease ?
(A) Tuberculosis (B) Tetanus
(C) Leprosy (D) Hepatitis
29. Trachoma mainly affects .....
(A) Skin (B) Kidney
(C) Liver (D) Eye
30. NVBDCP, a national health programme works to prevent and control
(A) Hepatitis (B) Dengue
(C) Polio (D) All viral diseases
31. Which vitamin can be used to Stop excess bleeding ?
(A) Vitamin E (B) Vitamin B complex
(C) Vitamin K (D) Vitamin C
32. Which is incorrect for pharmacoeconomics ?
(A) It is a branch of health economics
(B) It is a national Programme to control Price of drugs
(C) It is an area of research evaluating cost and outcome of drug therapy
(D) Health insurances costs are part of Pharmacoeconomics
33. In which year 9th edition of Indian Pharmacopoeia was published ?
(A) 2022 (B) 2023
(C) 2018 (D) 2020
34. Which type of packaging material is most suitable for light sensitive medications ?
(A) Transparent plastic (B) Amber coloured glass
(C) Paper boxes (D) Cotton pouches
35. Which preservative is most suitable for eye drops and ophthalmic solutions ?
(A) Ethanol (B) Citric acid
(C) Saccharin sodium (D) Benzalkonium chloride
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36.
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What is the primary purpose of preservatives in pharmaceutical formulations ?
(A) Prolong shelf life agtaste
(B) Improve
(C) Increase viscosity (D) Enhance colour
37. Which type of plastic is commonly used for pharmaceutical blister packs ?
(A) Polystyrene (PS) (B) Poly propylene (PP)
(C) Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) (D) Polyethylene terephthalate ( PET)
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Which type of tablet is designed to disintegrate in the small intestine rather than the
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Stomach ?
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(A) Chewable tablet (B) Enteric coated tablet
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(C) Effervescent tablet (D) Orally disintegrating tablet
39. Which type of capsule is designed to enclose liquid or semi solid medications ?
(A) Soft gelatin capsule (B) Sugar coated capsule
(C) Hard gelatin capsule (D) Enteric coated capsule
40. Which of the following additives is commonly used to improve the taste of syrups?
(A) Glycerin
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(B) Menthol
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(C) Acetone (D) Sucrose
41.
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Which formulation is typically used for insertion into body cavities like the rectum or
vagina ?
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(A) Lotion (B) Gel
(C) Suppository (D) Cream
42. Which type of water is used in the preparation of injectable formulations ?
(A) Water for injection (B) Distilled water
(C) Purified water (D) Tap water
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c. o (A) Tetanus toxoid
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vaccine
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(C) Influenza vaccine (D) Rabies vaccine
44. What does CGMP stand for ?
(A) Current General Manufacturing Procedures
(B) Common Good Manufacturing Practices
(C) Certified Good Manufacturing Protocol
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(D) Current Good Manufacturing Practice
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45. Which novel drug delivery system uses lipid bilayer vesicles to encapsulate drugs ?
(A) Microspheres (B) Liposomes
(C) Nanoparticles (D) Implants
46. Which sterilization method is most suitable for ophthalmic eye ointments ?
(A) Dry heat sterilization (B) Membrane filtration
(C) Gamma radiation (D) Pasteurization
47. Which method involves the rapid removal of moisture by freezing the product and then
removing the ice by sublimation?
(A) Freeze drying (B) Filtration
(C) Mixing (D) Extraction
48. Which of the following equipment is used for size reduction in pharmaceutical processes ?
(A) Membrane filter (B) Double cone blender
(C) Hammer mill (D) Freeze dryer
49. Which of the following is an example of a Hematinic agent ?
(A) Calcium Carbonate (B) Ferrous Sulphate
(C) Magnesium Hydroxide (D) Silver Nitrate
50. Volhard’s method of titration is an example of
(A) Back Titration (B) Direct Titration
(C) Gravimetric Analysis (D) Acid Base Titration
51. Which of the following is classify as a loop diuretics
(A) Acetazolamide (B) Frusemide
(C) Chlorothiazide (D) Spironolactone
52. Atenolol is classified as
(A) Cholinergic agent (B) Cholinergic blocking agent
(C) Adrenergic agent (D) Adrenergic blocking agent
53. Which of these drug used in diabetes ?
(A) Xipamide (B) Captopril
(C) Atropine (D) Metformin
54. Which of the following drug is used as an Anticonvulsants ?
(A) Phenytoin (B) Propofol
(C) Haloperidol (D) Olanzapine
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55.
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Which of the following drug is categorised as “True Analgesic”
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(A) Paracetamol a
(B) Morphine
(C) Ibuprofen (D) Diclofenac
56. Which drug contains Thiazolidine ring in its structure ?
(A) Penicillin G (B) Amoxicillin
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of (A) and (B)
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Give the name of Antiviral Agent
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(A) Ketoconazole (B) Ofloxacin
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(C) Ramdesivir (D) Dapsone
58. agthe name of Broad spectrum antibiotic
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(A) Doxycycline (B) Minocycline
(C) Chloramphenicol (D) All of above
59. Which cotton plug is used to trap Hydrogen Sulphide for the limit test of Arsenic ?
(A) Potassium chloride (B) Lead acetate
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(C) Sodium acetate (D) Lead sulphide
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Give the name of basic ring present in the
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(A) Pyridine (B) Pyrrole
(C) Pyrrolidine (D) Pyrimidine
61. The cylinder of carbon dioxide is painted with ______.
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c. o (C) Grey
(B) Black
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(D) White
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a (A) Vinblastine (B) Cisplatin
(C) Actinomycin (D) Dromostanolone
63. What is the use of INH ?
(A) Anti tubercular Agent (B) Anti fungal Agent
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(C) Anti malarial Agent (D) Anti Viral Agent
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64. Which of the following belongs to the Tricyclic Antidepressants ?
(A) Fluoxetine (B) Fluvoxamine
(C) Imipramine (D) Diazepam
65. Who is considered the “Father of Medicine” and contributed to the early knowledge of
herbal medicine ?
(A) Hippocrates (B) Galen
(C) Aristotle (D) Asclepius
66. The method of morphological classification categorizes crude drugs based on the
(A) chemical test used for their identification.
(B) part of the plant or animal from which they are obtained.
(C) the diseases they are used to treat.
(D) their solubility in different solvents.
67. Which type of adulteration involves mixing closely related but inferior drugs ?
(A) Substitution (B) Toxic adulteration
(C) Spoilage (D) Artificial adulteration
68. Which class of phytochemicals is detected by Keller-Killiani test ?
(A) Alkaloids (B) Flavonoids
(C) Cardiac glycosides (D) Tannins
69. Which of the following is the major therapeutic application of Ispaghula ?
(A) Anti-diarrheal (B) Bulk laxative
(C) Antipyretic (D) Anti-helminthic
70. Which of the Following Statements about Arjuna is True ?
(A) It contains cardiac glycosides similar to digitalis.
(B) It is rich in Flavonoids and tannins that strengthen heart muscles.
(C) It is used as CNS Stimulant.
(D) It works by inhibiting acetylcholine release.
71. Which Secondary metabolite is the major component of clove oil ?
(A) Piperine (B) Cinnamaldehyde
(C) Zingerone (D) Eugenol
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72. Belladonna is commonly used as a :
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(A) Bronchodilator a agent
(B) Mydriatic
(C) Analgesic (D) Sedative
73. A patient with Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL) is prescribed a drug derived from
plant source. Which of the following is the most likely source of the drug ?
(A) Cassia Angustifolia (B) Digitalis Purpurea
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(C) Catharanthus Roseus (D) Adhatoda Vasica
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74.
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Identify the crude drug among following that contains the alkaloid “emetine”.
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(A) Ipecacuanha
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(B) Gymnema
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(C)aGokhru (D) Punarnava
75. Which alkaloid from cinchona is used to treat arrhythmia ?
(A) Artemisinin (B) Quinine
(C) Quinidine (D) Ergometrine
76.
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Which crude drug obtained from Claviceps purpurea is used in the treatment of
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postpartum haemorrhage ?
(A) Quinine
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(C) Ergometrine
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77. Which herb, known as Indian Ginseng, is used as an adaptogen ?
(A) Guggul (B) Ashwagandha
(C) Tulsi (D) Squill
78. Which of the following Suture is naturally degraded by enzymatic action ?
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(B) Surgical catgut
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(D) Silk
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Which system of medicine is based on the principle of “Likegcures
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a (A) Ayurveda (B) Siddhu
(C) Homeopathy (D) Unani
80. Which of the following compound is a major component of Sandalwood oil ?
(A) Camphor (B) Eugenol
(C) -Santalol
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(D) Linalool
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SECTION - 2
81. What is HTML primarily used for in website development?
(A) Creating database
(B) Creating the structure and content of web pages
(C) Processing payments online
(D) Running server operations
82. In a pharmacy drug database, which of the following would typically by stored in the
same table as basic drug information.
(A) Drug name
(B) Patient name
(C) Pharmaceutical equivalent to drug
(D) Dosage regimen
83. What is the main purpose of CSS in web development ?
(A) To create database tables
(B) To add Styling and appearance to web pages
(C) To identify patient and its prescription.
(D) To secure web server.
84. When creating a pharmacy drug database, which of the following would be an advantage
of using MYSQL over MS-Access ?
(A) MYSQL is easier to install on a single computer.
(B) MYSQL can handle move users accessing the database simultaneously.
(C) MY SQL has a simple interface.
(D) MYSQL works better without an internet connection.
85. Which of the following best describes the main purpose of a Pharmacy Information
System ?
(A) To analyze prescription pattern
(B) To manage medication inventory
(C) To monitor patient vital signals
(D) To simulate drug design and dosage regimen
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86.
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What is the primary benefit of barcode medicine identification in hospital pharmacies ?
(A) It reduces medication dispensing error. ag
(B) It speeds up the medication inventory process.
(C) It helps medication expiration dates.
(D) It enables automatic documentation of administered doses.
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87. In the context of computerized applications in pharmacokinetics which of the following
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parameter can be calculated using mathematical models ?
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(A) Patient’s allergic reactions
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(B) Drug
(C) Medication color preferences
(D) Insurance coverage for medications
88. How do mobile technology applications primarily help with meditation adherence
monitoring ?
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(A) By automatically dispensing medications.
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(B) By replacing medications with digital alternatives.
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(C) By sending reminders andahacking medication usage.
(D) By measuring blood pressure.
89. The process of interpreting and understanding the data received by the receiver is called
_____.
(A) channel (B) decoding
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(A) channel (B) encoder
(C) decoder (D) receiver
91. Ego, anxiety, fear etc. results in _______ barrier.
(A) technical (B) physical
(C) semantic (D) psychological
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92. What is the best way to communicate with someone who has a different cultural
perspective?
(A) Be respectful of their culture and values.
(B) Just go on talking about your own culture & values.
(C) Do not listen to him.
(D) Make assumptions about their beliefs and attitudes.
93. The pitch, volume and inflection or modulation in our voice is called _______.
(A) kinesis (B) frequency
(C) tone (D) proxemics
94. Which one is not an example of face to face communication ?
(A) one to one interaction (B) group discussion
(C) public speaking (D) newspaper report
95. Which of the following is not true for direct communication style ?
(A) straight forwardness (B) ambiguity
(C) open & honest intentions (D) clarity
96. Academic lectures and user manual are examples of _______ communication style.
(A) direct (B) spirited
(C) systematic (D) considerate
97. A serious listener concentrates on:
(A) verbal and non-verbal message of the speaker.
(B) the physical appearance of the speaker.
(C) body language of the speaker.
(D) the other audience.
98. What is the purpose of a subject line ?
a) to accurately summerize the content
b) to communicate the purpose (aim) of writing
c) to attract the reader
d) to find make it easy for the reader to find the email in the inbox.
(A) a, b & c (B) a, b & d
(C) a & b (D) a & d
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99.
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Why it is important to be aware of the shades of meaning when using written
communication ?
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(A) Written communication can be easily misinterpreted.
(B) Written communication does not convey cues such as tone or facial expression.
(C) Written communication can reach to a large audience.
(D) All the above.
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100. What are the things to be considered when trying to understand your audience ?
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a) their age & education
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b) job title
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c) their
d) their responses
(A) all the above (B) a & b
(C) b & c (D) a, b & c
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