DDCET 2024 Question Paper Pharmacy (DP-2024)

FOR DDCET PREPARATION

DDCET 2024 Question
Paper Pharmacy
(DP-2024)
EXAM YEAR TYPE

DDCET 2024 Question Paper

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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em This Question Booklet contains l a s
s 16 printed pages DP-2024g
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Total Marks : 200
Time : 150 Minutes Question A
Candidate’s
Booklet
Code :
A Seal Sticker
Seat No. :

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Candidate’s Signature Block Supervisor’s Signature

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DO NOT OPEN QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL INSTRUCTED.

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INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATE:
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6. Both, Candidate’s & Supervisor’s signature

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must be done on Certificate of OMR SHEET.

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1. Check Number printed on your OMR SHEET

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and Question Paper with your SEAT No. before Unsigned OMR SHEET would not be

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answering the questions. Consult block considered for evaluation.
supervisors in case the above mentioned 7. Candidates are not permitted to use or carry
numbers do not match with your seat number. with them any kind of literature, guide, hand
2. There are two sections in this question paper. written notes, or printed books, mobile phone,
There are total 100 questions. For answer of pagers, smart watches, camera or any electronic
each question A, B, C, D, E options are given gadgets to examination hall.
in OMR SHEET. In OMR SHEET, there is 8. Use of only Non-scientific / Non-programmable
“E” option. “E” option is for “Not Attempted”. calculator shall allow during examination.
If candidate do not wish to answer the question

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he/she should select “E” option (Not 9. Candidates are not permitted to talk/discuss in

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Attempted). All questions are compulsory. the Examination Hall. Any candidate found

em10. Candidates must fully darken circle A, B, C, D
violating supervisor's instructions will be
For Example:

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disqualified.

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Which state of India has the longest sea shore ?

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A B C D E and E accordingly with Blue / Black ball pen.
(A) Maharashtra (B) Tamilnadu If answers are marked with any other coloured
(C) Gujarat (D) Andhra Pradesh ball pen, pencil, white ink (whitner), any
In this example, the right answer is (C). corrections are done by candidate by means of
Therefore, the Circle of (C) has been darkened blade or rubber or whitner will not be
(encoded). Candidate should not give the considered for evaluation.
answer “Gujarat” in writing. 11. Candidates may carry QP with them after
The options once darkened/answered by Examination.

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candidate cannot be changed. 12. For correct answer 2 (Two) marks will be

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given.

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3. Candidates are not permitted to leave

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examination hall during examination. For negative marking :

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4. Candidates must strictly enter SEAT NO. in

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If candidate -

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the designated space provided in OMR SHEET

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• Gives wrong answer or
as well as Question Paper neatly as soon as

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they receive the OMR SHEET & Question • Darkens more
Paper. mark) as answer for one question
5. Candidates must not write name or put any in OMR SHEET then 0.50 marks will be
identification sign/symbol on OMR SHEET. deducted.
In such case strict disciplinary action will be If candidate does not want to answer a
taken against candidate & will be considered particular question and marks (E) or leave
disqualified/ineligible. Only Seat No. must be the option without encoding on OMR sheet,
entered at designated space provided in OMR then no minus marks will be given.
SHEET.

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Submit the OMR SHEET to the block supervisor after completion of examination without fail before leaving

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examination hall, failure to do so will result in disqualification of the candidature for the examination and
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disciplinary action will be taken against such candidate.

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Hydrocolloids used in the suspension increases the _______ of the continuous phase.

(A) Density (B) Sedimentation rate

(C) Viscosity (D) Gravitational force

002. As drug particle size is reduced, the surface area is

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(A) Decreases (B) Increases

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(C) No change in surface area (D) Too small

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003. Which of the

(A) g
a Erythrocytes (B) Mast cells

(C) T cells (D) Thrombocytes

004. Water attack test is used to identify the alkalinity in

(A) Type I Glass (B) Type II Glass

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(C) Type III Glass (D) All of the above

s em_______ emulsion.
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005. Soap formed from divalent base produce

(A) o/w type
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(C) Unstable (D) None of the above

006. Which of the following does not affect the rate of filtration?

(A) Pressure (B) Temperature

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(C) pH (D) Viscosity

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007. Separation of tablet in two or more distinct layer is
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(A) Capping (B) Mottling

(C) Air entrapment (D) Lamination

008. Enteric coating material used is

(A) Ethyl cellulose (B) Cellulose acetate phthalate

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(C) Hydroxy propyl ethyl cellulose (D) All of the above

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009. Shells of soft gelatin capsule is made elastic by adding

(A) Sorbitol (B) Lactose

(C) PEG (D) Povidone

010. The first edition of Indian Pharmacopoeia was published in

(A) 1994 (B) 1985

(C) 1966 (D) 1955

011. Wool fat is an example of

(A) Oleaginous base (B) Absorption base

(C) Emulsion base (D) Water soluble base

012. Plastic as a packaging material for parenteral products offer all of the following
advantages except

(A) Ease of Storage (B) Unbreakability

(C) Decreased weight (D) Improved clarity for visual inspection

013. An ideal suppository base must meet all of the following characteristics except

(A) It should melt below 30°C (B) It should be non-toxic and non-irritant

(C) It should release medicament readily (D) It should be inert

014. In Deflocculated Suspension

(A) The Particle exist as separate entities (B) The rate of Sedimentation is slow

(C) The sediment form a hard cake (D) All of the above

015. Gel property of carbopol / carbomer is affected by

(A) Solubility (B) Density

(C) Optical activity (D) pH

016. Depot formulations are also known as

(A) Slow release preparations (B) Fast release preparations

(C) Insufflations (D) Elixirs

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“Valium” famous brand name for marketed preparationaof
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(B) Diazepam

(C) Nitrazepam (D) Escitalopram

018. Propranolol is prepared by

(A)  - naphthol (B)  - naphthol

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(C) Resorcinol (D) O - cresol

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019. Identify structure of drug:

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2

HO l a a
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(A) Chlorpromazine (B) Cyclophosphamide

(C) Dopamine (D) Imipramine

020. Which one of these drug is butyrophenone derivatives used in psychosis.

(A) Promethazine (B) Meprobamate
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(C) Perphenazine
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(D) Haloperidol

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021. Which of these used in glaucoma?

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(A) Propranolol (B) Atenolol

(C) Timolol (D) Metoprolol

022. Identify structure of drug:

NH NH

N N NH2

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H

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(A) Naphazoline (B) Risperidone

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(D) Metformin

gla 023. Which of the following known as “Milk of Magnesia” as suspension?
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a (A) Potassium Hydroxide (B) Magnesium Hydroxide

(C) Sodium Hydroxide (D) Calcium Hydroxide

024. Which of the following is known as “Green vitriol”

(A) Ferrous Sulphate (B) Copper Sulphate

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(C) Zinc sulphate (D) Sodium Sulphate

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025. The cylinder for Nitrous Oxide storage is painted with which colour?

(A) Grey colour (B) White colour

(C) Blue colour (D) Yellow colour

026. Venlafaxine is used as _______

(A) Anti hypertensive agent (B) Anti convulsant agent

(C) Anti arrhythmic agent (D) Anti depressant agent

027. Which drug is not useful in treatment of tuberculosis?

(A) Streptomycin (B) Bedaquiline

(C) Delamanid (D) Gentamycin

028. Find out correct Statement

(I) Amantadine not exerts its antiviral effect against the influenza B virus.

(II) Amantadine appears to involve the inhibition of uncoating of RNA virus to there by
block the transfer of viral RNA in to host cells.

(III) Its ability to promote release of dopamine from dopaminergic neurons.

(A) I & II (B) I & III

(C) II & III (D) I, II & III

029. Which of the following ring is connected with beta lactam ring in Amoxicillin structure?

(A) Monobactam ring (B) Carbapene ring

(C) Oxythiazole ring (D) Thiazolidine ring

030. In limit test for Sulphate, HCL added to

(A) Decrease the Solution of BaSO4 (B) Enhance the reaction of BaCl2

(C) Prevent the ppt of BaCO3 (D) Increase the ppt of BaSO4

031. Which of the following drug used in myasthenia gravis?

(A) Atropine Sulphate (B) Neostigmine

(C) Pilocarpine (D) Pralidoxime Chloride

032. What is titrant used in Volhard’s method to determine iodide ions?

(A) Silver nitrate (B) Sodium chloride

(C) Potassium iodate (D) Potassium dichromate

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Which physical evaluation parameter determines the adhering dirt and sand in crude
drugs?

(A) Water soluble ash value (B) Acid insoluble ash value

(C) Water soluble extractive value (D) Alcohol soluble extractive value

034. _______ contains hydrolysable tannins that give _______ colour with ferric chloride
solution.

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(A) Myrobalan, Blue (B) Black Catechu, Blue

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(C) Pale Catechu, Brownish-green (D) Colchicum, Brownish-green

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035. The term ‘Pharmacognosy’ was coined by Seydler in 1815 in his work entitled ‘_______’.

(A) Papyrus Ebers (B) Analecta Pharmacognostica

(C) Charaka Samhita (D) Indian Pharmacopoeia

036. Which chemical constituent is responsible for the cathartic property of castor oil?

(A) Mucilage (B) Sennoside A

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(C) Ricin protein (D) Ricinoleic acid

m. the volatile oil obtained from fennel fruits?
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037. Which phenolic ether constituent is found in

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(A) Fenchone

(C) Anethole (D) Eugenol

038. Which of the following drug belongs to Nyctaginaceae family?

(A) Rakta punarnava (B) Bada gokhru

(C) Ipecacuanha (D) Turmeric

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039. Which of the following is a regenerated cellulose fiber?

c. o (A) Cotton s e m
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(B) Wool

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(C) Rayon (D) Silk

a 040. Which of the following statement is false about Asavas & Aristas?

(A) They are formed by the process of fermentation

(B) Alcohol is added to facilitate fermentation process

(C) The generated alcohol serves as a preservative

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(D) They can be kept indefinitely

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041. What is the English Common name of Strychnos nux vomica seeds?

(A) Indian ginseng (B) Devil’s dung

(C) Crow fig (D) Ma Huang

042. Which drug has a paralyzing effect on taste-glands?

(A) Gymnema (B) Cod liver oil

(C) Digitalis (D) Guggal

043. Which of the following acts as a Prebiotic?

(A) Lactobacilli (B) Bifidobacterium

(C) Inulin (D) Omega-3-fatty acids

044. Which is the general chemical test for alkaloids?

(A) Dragendorff’s test (B) Mayer’s test

(C) Wagner’s test (D) All of the above

045. Which cosmetic ingredient is aromatic and used in perfumery?

(A) Aloe vera gel (B) Almond oil

(C) Olive oil (D) Lavendar oil

046. As per the basic principles of Ayurveda, ‘Kapha’ dosha is made up of _______

(A) Water and Earth (B) Air and Space

(C) Fire and Water (D) Only Fire

047. Which of the following is not an anti-cancer drug?

(A) Vinca (B) Podophyllum

(C) Rauwolfia (D) All of the above

048. Which drug is commonly found to be adulterated with dried flowers of Carthamus
tinctorius?

(A) Saffron (B) Senna

(C) Clove (D) Capsicum

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_______ is the longest and the strongest bone of the body.as
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(A) Tibia (B) Femur
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(C) Fibula (D) Humerus

050. Blood clotting factor-X is known as ______

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(A) Stuart factor (B) Calcium

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(C) Fibrinogen (D) Prothromlin

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051.
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Erythrocytes
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(A) 14 (B) 100

(C) 3 (D) 0

052. Out of four chamber in heart, _______ wall is more thicker than other.

(A) Right Ventricle (B) Right Atrium

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(C) Left Ventricle (D) Left Atrium

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053.
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The volume of air that can be taken in forced

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is known as _______

(A) Inspiratory reserve volume a (B) Tidal volume

(C) Expiratory reserve volume (D) Vital capacity

054. Cranial nerve-I is known as _______

(A) Optic (B) Olfactory

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(C) Vagus (D) Facial

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055. Parasympathetic stimulation produce _______ effects on eye (pupil).

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(C) Mydriasis (D) Miosis

056. Common bile duct takes the bile juice to _______

(A) Duodenum (B) Stomach

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(C) Ileum (D) Large Intestine

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057. Pituitary gland secrete following hormones except _______

(A) Prolactin (B) Oxytosin

(C) Growth Hormone (D) Calcitonin

058. Insulin is a polypeptide hormone containing _______ amino acids.

(A) 100 (B) 51

(C) 21 (D) 30

059. Less than _______ of spermatozoa per CC in the semen, do not produce fertilisation.

(A) 300 millions (B) 20 millions

(C) 20 billions (D) 300 billions

060. There are _______ nephrons in one kidney.

(A) 100000000 (B) 10000000

(C) 1000000 (D) 10000

061. _______ bone of the middle car having anvil like shape.

(A) Malleus (B) Stapes

(C) Incus (D) Vestibule

062. The posterior portion of the tongue is highly sensitive to _______ substance.

(A) Sour (B) Salty

(C) Sweet (D) Bitter

063. pH of semen is _______

(A) 7.2 - 7.7 (B) 3-6

(C) 5-7 (D) 10-13

064. _______ blood group is known us universal donor blood your

(A) O (B) A

(C) B (D) AB

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The factors that affect various aspects of health are considered as :

(A) Indicators of Health (B) Protectors

(C) Determinants of Health (D) All of three

066. Fifty people are suffering from cholera in a population of 5000. Out of 50, suffering
from cholera, 10 died. But the total deaths are 50. What is the death rate?

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(A) 1 per 1000 (B) 5 per 1000

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(C) 10 per 1000 (D) 20 per 100

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067. Implants and Surgical Sterilization are examples of :

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(A) Permanent Birth Control (B) Natural Family Planning

(C) Barrier Method (D) Emergency Contraceptives

068. What is the function of Copper-T?

(A) Checks mutation (B) Stops fertilisation

(C) Stops oblituation of the blastocoel (D) Stops zygote formation

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The Reproduction and Child Health Programme was formerly launched by Govt. of

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India on:

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(A) 15th October, 1997 (B) 1st October, 1980

(C) 15th October, 1990 (D) 15th November, 1987

070. Which of the following is not a Mortality Indicator?

(A) Years of potential life lost (B) Life expectancy

(C) Infant mortality rate (D) Prevalence

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071. Which of the following statement is true regarding vaccination?

c. o (A) Vaccination is a method of passive Immunization s e m
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(B) Vaccination is a method of active Immunization

(C) Vaccination is an artificial passive Immunization

(D) Vaccination is a natural passive Immunization

072. All the given vaccines are attenuated or inactivated whole pathogen except :

(A) Salk (B) Sabin

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(C) Tetanus (D) Hepatitis A

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073. Which one among the following elements/ions is essential in small quantities for
development of healthy teeth but causes mottling of the teeth if consumed in higher
quantities?

(A) Iron (B) Fluoride

(C) Chloride (D) Potassium

074. The vitamin necessary for coagulation of blood is :

(A) Vitamin K (B) Vitamin B

(C) Vitamin C (D) vitamin E

075. Which of the following is not a body building food?

(A) Milk (B) Cereals

(C) Pulses (D) Eggs

076. Deficiency of Vitamin D causes :

(A) Night blindness (B) Beri-Beri

(C) Osteomalacia (D) Scurvy

077. Diseases that are always present in a community usually at a low, more or less constant
frequencies are classified as:

(A) Epidemic (B) Endemic

(C) Pandemic (D) Hyper endemic

078. CMA stands for :

(A) Cost Minimization Analysis (B) Cost Measurement Analysis

(C) Cost Maximization Analysis (D) None of these

079. Causative agent for Syphilis is :

(A) Treponema Palladium (B) Neisseria Gonorrhoeae

(C) Lyssa Virus Type-I (D) Brugia Malayi

080. Which is the most common STD caused by bacteria?

(A) HIV - AIDS (B) Gonorrhoeae

(C) Chlamydia (D) Genital Warts

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Which of the following is not a component of communication?

(A) Sender (B) Translator

(C) Message (D) Receiver

082. Which is a part of the process of communication from the following?

(A) Proxemics (B) Mass

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(C) Encoding (D) Writing

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083. Barriers to written communication can be _______.

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(A) Language (B) Expressions

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(C) Verbal (D) None of the above

084. What are some other factors that can affect our communication perspective?

(A) Past experiences (B) Prejudices

(C) Feelings (D) All of the above

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085. Which of these is not an element of the speaking technique?

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(A) Voice Quality

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(C) Word Stress (D) Correct Tones

086. a
_______ means communication without words.

(A) Written (B) Verbal

(C) Non-verbal (D) Spoken

087. A _______ speaker looks into the eyes of the audience.

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(A) Confident (B) Impatient

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(D) Impolite

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a (A) Non-verbal Communication (B) Body Language

(C) None of these (D) Face to Face

089. Which of these is not a step in the listening process?

(A) To stop talking (B) Misinterpreting

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(C) Receiving (D) Responding

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090. What are some of the benefits of active listening?

(A) It helps to improve communication (B) It helps to build relationships

(C) It helps to resolve conflict (D) All of the above

091. How should the subject line be in an email?

(A) Long and descriptive (B) A greeting

(C) Short and precise (D) Does not matter

092. What is effective written communication?

(A) Writing that is clear, concise and easy to understand

(B) Writing that is grammatically correct and free of errors

(C) Writing that is tailored to the audience and purpose

(D) All of the above

093. HTML stands for-

(A) High Text Machine Language (B) Hyper Text and links Markup Language

(C) Hyper Text Markup Language (D) None of these

094. What does XML stand for?

(A) Extensible Markup Language (B) Extrapolated Markup Language

(C) Extended Markup Language (D) Exclusive Markup Language

095. What is CSS stands for?

(A) Cascading Style Sheets (B) Cascade Style Sheet

(C) Color Style Sheets (D) Color Style Sheet

096. What command is used to create a new table in SQL?

(A) Create Table (B) Build Table

(C) Generate Table (D) None of the above

097. OPAC stand for -

(A) Offline Public Access Catalogs (B) Online Public Access Catalogs

(C) Online People Access Catalogs (D) Offline People Access Catalogs

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Barcode Medicine Identification Dispensing is based on five rights of patient as

(A) Right patient, drug, system, manner, time

(B) Right time, drug, Safety, dose, mode

(C) Right time, dose, patient, medicine, mode

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(D) Right mode, patient, doctor, manner, drug

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. Distribution, Management, Excretion
099. ADME in Pharmacokinetics refer to ________.

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(A) Assimilation,
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(B) Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Elimination

(C) Assimilation, Differentiation, Metabolism, Excretion

(D) Absorption, Differentiation, Metabolism, Elimination

100. ADC in pharmacy stands for -

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(A) Automated Drug Cabinets (B) Automatic Drug Cabinets

m.(D) Automated Dispensing Cabinets
(C) Automatic Dispensing Cabinets
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