Rajasthan PTET 2026 Question Paper Series B Section D English

FOR RAJASTHAN PTET EXAM PREPARATION

Rajasthan PTET 2026
Question Paper · Series
B Section D English
EXAM YEAR TYPE SUBJECT

Rajasthan PTET 2026 Question Paper Series B Section D English

Notes · Sample Papers · Previous Year Papers · Mock Tests

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as Do not open this Question Booklet until you are asked to do so.
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Number of Pages : 24
BKS-IV

Question Booklet No.
No. of Questions : 200

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Marks : 600
Time % 03 Hours
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Booklet Series
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Candidate’s Roll No. %
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O.M.R. No. % Candidate’s Signature_______________

Invigilator’s Signature % 1._______________________ 2.________________________

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INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES
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The Question Paper consists of four sections : Section-A Mental Ability of 50 questions

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(Q.No. 1 to 50), Section-B Teaching Aptitude and Attitude of 50 questions (Q.No. 51 to 100),

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Section-C General Awareness of 50 questions (Q.No. 101 to 150) and Section-D English OR Hindi

2.
of 50 Questions (Q.No. 151 to 200).
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Write your entries like Question Booklet No. and Subject selected for Section-D etc. very carefully
and fill the relevant circles on the OMR Answer Sheet.
3. For filling the OMR Answer Sheet and darkening the circle use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only.
4. Answer all questions. There will be no negative marking.
5. 3 marks are allotted for correct answer of each question of section A, C, D and 3, 2, 1 and 0 marks
are allotted respectively on preference for correct answer of section ‘B’ Teaching Aptitude.
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6. Each question has four alternative responses marked serially as A, B, C, D. You have to darken only

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one circle or bubble indicating the correct answer on the Answer Sheet using Blue/Black Ball Point

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Pen. Darkening more than one circle would be treated as wrong answer.

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case of missing pages, missing questions or any kind of printing discrepancy/defect in Question

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candidates may put their objections to invigilator within 5 minutes and obtain another
Question Booklet.
There are two copies of the answer sheet - original copy and carbon copy. At the end of the
examination, before leaving the examination hall, the candidate will hand over both the copies of
the answer sheet to the invigilator. Candidates should not separate the carbon copy themselves.
The invigilator will keep the original copy of the answer sheet with him and carefully separate the
carbon copy from the original copy by folding it along the cut line and hand it over to the candidate,
which the candidate will take with him. The candidate will have to keep the carbon copy of the
answer sheet safe till the admission process is completed.

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B-BKS-IV – (L-II English) Page 1 of 24 401
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Space for Rough Work

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as Section-A a g
Mental Ability
1. Find out the missing two words -
Supervisor : Worker :: .......... : ...........
(A) Junior : Senior (B) Elder : Younger (C) Officer : Clerk (D) Debtor : Creditor
2. If in a certain language, UTENSIL is coded as WVGPUKN, then which word would be coded as

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(A) BKQEVE (B) BKQDWE (C) BKQDVF (D) BKQDVE

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3. ‘?’ will be replaced by which of the following number?

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(A) a
6
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4. At 5 O'clock, a clock ticks 5 times. The time gap between the first and last tick is 40 seconds. How
long does the clock tick when it is 12 O'clock?
(A) 60 seconds (B) 110 seconds (C) 95 seconds (D) 105 seconds
5. When Rahul was born, his father was 32 years older than his brother and his mother was 25 years
older than his sister. If Rahul’s brother is 6 years older than him and his mother is 3 years younger

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than his father, then how old was Rahul’s sister when he was born?

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(A) 7 years (B) 10 years (C) 14 years (D) 19 years
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6. Select the option in which the words share the same relationship as that given in the following words-

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Evaporation : Cloud : Rain
(A) Sneezing : Cough : Cold
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7.
(C) Tanning : Leather : Purse
Choose the correct alternative -
a (D) Bud : Flower : Fragrance

…..?.....is to Sri Lanka as Delhi is to…..?.....
(A) Colombo, India (B) Island, Harbour (C) India, Paris (D) Kathmandu, Capital
8. If MOBILITY is coded as 46293927, then EXAMINATION will be coded as -
(A) 45038401854 (B) 56149512965 (C) 57159413955 (D) 67250623076
9. If 2 + 3 = 13

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3 + 4 = 25

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4 + 5 = 41

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Then 5 + 6 = ?

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(A) 55 (B) 61 (C) 71 (D) 65

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A dice has numbers 1-6. If 1 is opposite to 6 and 2 is opposite to 5, then what will be opposite to 3?

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(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 2
If “×” means “+” and “+” means “–”, then 8 × 4 + 2 = ?
(A) 10 (B) 14 (C) 12 (D) 6
12. If CIGARETTE is coded as GICERAETT, then DIRECTION will be coded as -
(A) RIDTCENOI (B) NORTECDII (C) NOIETCRID (D) IRDCTIONE
13. In a certain code ‘JUDICIAL’ is written as ‘LAUJICID’. How will ‘GLORIOUS’ be written in that
code?

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(A) LGSUROOL (B) SULGOIRO (C) SULGROOL (D) USGLIOOR

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14. Choose the word which is different from the others -
(A) Kanpur (B) Allahabad (C) Varanasi (D) Mathura
15. In a certain code language, ‘FIRE’ is coded as ‘DGPC’. What will be the last letter of the coded word
for ‘SHOT’?
(A) Q (B) P (C) R (D) S
16. Which term of the series 5,10, 20, 40, ........... is 1280?
(A) 10th (B) 11th (C) 8th (D) 9th
17. Four girls are sitting on a bench to be photographed. Shikha is to the left of Reena. Manju is to the
right of Reena. Rita is between Reena and Manju. Who would be second from the left in the
photograph?
(A) Reena (B) Shikha (C) Manju (D) Rita
18. If - 7 → 56
9 → 90
11 → 132
Then 13 → ?
(A) 156 (B) 170 (C) 182 (D) 196
19. Find out the missing word -
Ankle : Knee :: Wrist : ..................
(A) Elbow (B) Foot (C) Finger (D) Hand
20. Complete the series -
OTE, PUF, QVG, RWH, ?
(A) SYJ (B) TXI
(C) SXJ (D) SXI
21. Choose the word which is different from the other words in the group -
(A) Poland (B) Greece (C) Spain (D) Korea
22. Which number will replace the question mark?

18 17
4 2 5 6
12 ?

10 9
1 6 2 3
3 4

(A) 3 (B) 14 (C) 6 (D) 9
23. Complete the series -
1, 4, 2, 8, 6, 24, 22, 88, ?
(A) 86 (B) 90 (C) 352 (D) 92
24. If CLOCK is written as DMPDL, then WATCH will be written as -
(A) XBUDI (B) XCVFI (C) XBUHG (D) XBVFI

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as 25. Identify the correct logical sequence - a g
(1) Hunger (2) Eating (3) Energy (4) Digestion
(A) (1)→(2) →(4) →(3) (B) (2)→(1) →(3) →(4)
(C) (1)→(4) →(2) →(3) (D) (4)→(2) →(1) →(3)
26. Pigeon : Peace :: White Flag : ?
(A) Friendship (B) Victory (C) Surrender (D) War

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27. Complete the pattern by choosing the correct alternative -

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(A) (B) (C) (D)

28. If train is called bus, bus is called tractor, tractor is called car, car is called scooter, scooter is called
bicycle, bicycle is called moped, then what is used to plough a field?
(A) Train (B) Bus (C) Tractor (D) Car
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29. Today is Friday. On the last Monday, the date was 29 December, 1975. The date today is -
(A) 26 December, 1975 (B) 3 January, 1976 (C) 2 January, 1976 (D) 2 January, 1975

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30. If a figure is rotated 90° clockwise, then what will be its new position?

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(A) Upside down (B) Right side (C) Left side (D) Same position

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Direction : (Q. No. 31 to 34) Study the following chart carefully and answer the following questions -
Rent
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Cloth 14% a g
11% Food
45%
Fuel 9%

15%
6%

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Education

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Others
on which three heads constitutes an angle of 108° at origin? m
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31.

s e (C) Fuel, Education, Others g l a Others
la 32. What is the proportion of expenditure incurred on education and food?
(A) Fuel, Cloth, Others (B) Cloth, Rent, Others

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(D) Education, Rent,

(A) 3:1 (B) 1:3 (C) 3:5 (D) 5:3
33. If the total family income is `25000, then how much has been spent on rent and food?
(A) `11250 (B) `8920 (C) `15840 (D) `14750
34. What is the percentage of expenditure incurred on rent with respect to expenditure on fuel?
(A) 135.56% (B) 155.56% (C) 172.56% (D) 167.56%

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35. How many rectangles does the following figure have?

(A) 14 (B) 13 (C) 12 (D) 08
36. Which figure will come next in the series?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

37. One morning, after sunrise Reshma and Kiara were talking to each other face to face in a park. If
Kiara’s shadow was exactly to the right of Reshma, then which direction was Kiara facing?
(A) East (B) North (C) South (D) Data Inadequate
38. Arrange the following letters into a meaningful word and find out the 4th letter of that word formed
from the given alternatives -
R C E I P
(A) I (B) C (C) E (D) R
39. If 15 men can do a work in 40 days, then in how many days 20 men can finish the same work?
(A) 20 days (B) 35 days (C) 30 days (D) 25 days
40. The total age of Karan and Kishan is 12 years more than that of total age of Kishan and Kaushal.
Kaushal is how many years younger than Karan?
(A) Kaushal is older than Karan (B) 24 years (C) 12 years (D) Data Inadequate
41. Write the following words in the order in which they appear in the dictionary -
(i) Investigate (ii) Invariable (iii) Involuntary (iv) Invisible (v) Inventory
(A) (i), (iii), (ii), (v), (iv) (B) (v), (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)
(C) (iv), (v), (ii), (i), (iii) (D) (ii), (v), (i), (iv), (iii)
42. If the price of an induction plate is increased by 25%, then by what percentage should the new price
be reduced to bring the price back to the original level?
(A) 15% (B) 20% (C) 30% (D) 25%
43. Select the option in which the words share the same relationship as that given in the following words-
Mountain : Height : Climber
(A) River : Length : Water (B) Land : Farmer : Crop
(C) College : Building : Student (D) Sea : Depth : Diver

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Direction : (Q. No. 44 to 46) Study the following figure and answer the questions given below –

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44. If hospital requires only married trained doctors for operation, which number will represent this?

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(A) 1 (C) 6 (D) 5

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(A) 4 l a
45. By which number unmarried but trained doctors in the hospital are represented?

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46. What isarepresented by number 7?
(B) 1 (C) 6 (D) 2

(A) Trained Nurses (B) Married Doctors
(C) Trained Doctors in the Hospital (D) Married Doctors in the Hospital
47. Which Venn diagram will best represent the relationship amongst the given three elements?
Carrot, Food, Vegetables

(A) (B)
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c. (C) (D)

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48. a
The average of 5 observations is 15. If three new observations 16.5, 18 and 14.5 are added, then find
the new average -
(A) 15.5 (B) 14.8 (C) 16.5 (D) 16.2
49. Ayesha walks 20 meters North, then she turns right and walks 30 meters. Now, she turns right and
walks 35 meters. Now turning left she walks 15 meters, again she turns left and moves 15 meters. In

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which direction and how far is she from her original position?

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c. oRead the given Statements and Conclusions and then decide which conclusion/s
m logically follow/s the
(A) 45 meters, West (B) 15 meters, East (C) 45 meters, East (D) 15 meters, West

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50.

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Statement - (1) Some men are women.
(2) All women are beautiful.
Conclusion - (I) All men are Beautiful.
(II) All women are men.
(A) Only conclusion (I) follows. (B) Only conclusion (II) follows.
(C) Both (I) and (II) follow. (D) Neither (I) nor (II) follows.

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Section-B
Teaching Aptitude and Attitude
51. During parent-teacher meeting, what will be your preference?
(A) To acquaint parents with problems of their wards.
(B) Make parents aware about the role of both parents and teachers in wholesome development
of the student.
(C) Invite feedback from the parents.
(D) Give priority to parents of intelligent students.
52. While planning a lesson, your primary focus is -
(A) aligning learning activities with diverse student needs.
(B) completing the syllabus within the allotted time frame.
(C) preparing a high-quality lecture for the students to hear.
(D) finding the easiest way to deliver the content quickly.
53. Which of the following trait is most essential in the personality of the teacher?
(A) Attractive physique
(B) Command over the voice
(C) Understanding of students and subject matter
(D) Skill of presenting the subject knowledge at the satisfaction level of all students of the class
54. When communicating with parents from diverse linguistic backgrounds, a teacher should -
(A) ask the student to translate everything to their parents.
(B) avoid communication to prevent misunderstanding.
(C) use simple, jargon-free language and visual aids if necessary.
(D) use formal academic english/hindi to maintain professional standards.
55. Primary cause of declining social maturity in students is -
(A) Excessive screentime and social media
(B) Excessive involvement in co-curricular activities
(C) Excessive involvement in family activities
(D) Excessive involvement in studies
56. The classroom leadership style which promotes social maturity in learners in best way is -
(A) Authoritarian - Strict obedience to teacher’s rules without question
(B) Authoritative - High expectations with clear rules and warmth
(C) Democratic - Students participate in rule-making and decision-making
(D) Laissez-faire - Complete freedom with little to no teacher guidance
57. According to you, which one of the following leadership styles is best?
(A) Autocratic style (B) Laissez-faire style
(C) Democratic style (D) Protective style
58. What is the best practice for developing social maturity in students?
(A) Encourage them to participate in group activity
(B) Encourage them to write some of their experiences
(C) Show them some motivational videos
(D) Encourage them to listen to motivational lectures
59. You observe that in your class one student is not able to adjust with other students. As a teacher, in
your opinion, what is this problem?
(A) Lack of social maturity (B) Lack of personal maturity
(C) Lack of emotional maturity (D) Lack of cultural maturity
60. ‘Clarity of speech’ in a teacher primarily involves -
(A) using a loud and aggressive tone to command students’ attention.
(B) speaking as fast as possible to cover more information.
(C) using a sophisticated vocabulary related to subject.
(D) proper pronunciation, moderate pace and logical sequencing of ideas.
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In your school, students bring mobile phone. As a Principal, how can you discourage this habit?
(A) By punishing students
(B) By informing parents
(C) By telling students about the pros and cons of mobile
(D) By confiscating students’ mobiles
62. How should a teacher promote gender equality in a classroom setting?
(A) By occasionally talking about famous women in history

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(B) By seating boys and girls separately to avoid conflict

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(C) By ensuring equal participation and using gender neutral examples

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(D) By assigning tasks based on traditional gender roles

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63. Which of the following types of listening in communication is most vital for a teacher for solving

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problems of students in class?
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(A) Appreciative listening (B) Sympathetic listening
(C) Empathetic listening (D) Therapeutic listening
64. Which of the following statement is most indicative of a socially immature person?
(A) Does not listen to others (B) Not interested in helping others
(C) Often quarrels with peers (D) Not able to understand other’s views
65. Teachers can play a crucial role in the development of social maturity in students -
(A) By role modeling behaviour
(B) By establishing strict rules in school
(C) By role modeling behaviour and promoting collaborating learning

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(D) By establishing strict rules in classroom

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66. During group work, one student dominates while others remain silent. Your reaction will be -

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(A) Ignore the group dynamics as long as the work is completed.

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(B) Guide the group to ensure equal participation and respect among members.

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(C) Suggest that everyone should contribute to the discussion.

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(D) Let the dominant student lead the task entirely.
67. When implementing classroom activities, a teacher will -
(A) allow limited student participation in planning activities.
(B) decide all activities without student suggestion.
(C) avoid practical activities and rely solely on lectures.
(D) encourage student initiatives and shared decision-making.
68. How should a teacher respond to a colleague who speaks negatively about a student in the staff room?
(A) Redirect the conversation towards finding solutions to help the student.

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(B) Listen quietly without participating in the negative comments.

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(C) Join the conversation to share your own frustrations with the student.

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(D) Report the administration for colleague’s unprofessionalism.

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69. A teacher demonstrating instructional leadership will -

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(A) encourage collaborative learning and student participation.

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(B) deliver well-structured lectures with limited interaction.

a (C) focus on completing the syllabus quickly.
(D) teach from the textbook without any discussion.
70. For the social and emotional development of students, which of the following option is imperative
for a teacher?
(A) To encourage classroom participation and collaboration
(B) To initiate discussions about regulating emotions
(C) To provide clear classroom rules

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(D) To develop mutual trust and empathy

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71. Which of the following goals is most important for a school leader?
(A) Satisfying needs (B) Innovation
(C) Providing learning opportunities (D) Maintaining the school
72. A student criticizes your teaching approach in front of the class. How will you react?
(A) Listen calmly, appreciate feedback and clarify your approach respectfully.
(B) Explain your reasoning briefly and continue the lesson.
(C) Ask the student to discuss the issue after class.
(D) Reprimand the student immediately for being disrespectful.
73. The most appropriate meaning of learning is -
(A) Modification of the behaviour of learner
(B) Social awareness
(C) Preparing learner for getting employment
(D) Individual adjustment of learner
74. The most important factor of the success of any teacher in the class may be -
(A) his acceptance among students.
(B) his ability in handling the class.
(C) his competence towards understanding feelings of the students and command over the
subject matter.
(D) his authoritarian leadership.
75. Solving students’ indiscipline problem in school is the -
(A) joint responsibility of teachers.
(B) responsibility of class-room teacher.
(C) responsibility of parents.
(D) joint responsibility of teachers and parents.
76. What is essential for the development of the personality of your students?
(A) They should always remain present in their class.
(B) They should play with full confidence in playground.
(C) They should not waste their time in extra co-curricular activities of the school.
(D) They should always participate in all curricular and co-curricular activities of the school
up to their optimum satisfaction level.
77. When participating in community events, a teacher’s conduct should be -
(A) Observational, attending to fulfil administrative requirements
(B) Professional but keeping professional and personal lives separate
(C) Casual, as community events are not part of school duties
(D) Exemplary, acting as a bridge between school and society
78. How should a teacher use non-verbal communication (Body language) during a lecture?
(A) Maintain eye contact and move around the room to engage everyone.
(B) Stand firmly at the podium to maintain a professional image.
(C) Keep hands in pockets to appear relaxed and approachable.
(D) Look only at the notes or the blackboard to avoid distraction.
79. Which of the following is the most important requisite for a professionally committed teacher?
(A) Committed for continuous and lifelong learning
(B) To overcome the barriers that come to include all learners
(C) Meet the needs of individual students
(D) Transact the curriculum with full responsibility
80. Which of the following is most important for a teacher?
(A) Self-awareness
(B) Pedagogical awareness
(C) Awareness about managing one’s own emotions
(D) Awareness about socio-cultural background of students (learners)
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In a parent-teacher meeting, a parent blames you for their child’s poor social skills. Your
response is -
(A) Collaboratively discuss a joint plan for child’s social development.
(B) Provide data showing that other students are progressing fine.
(C) Politely explain the school’s social curriculum and your efforts.
(D) Defensively point out the parent’s lack of involvement at home.
82. For the success of a school, what is the most important component?

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(A) Environment of the school (B) Physical facilities of the school

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(C) Beautification of the school (D) Enrolment of the students

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83. A teacher’s role as a leader in classroom management is best reflected when the teacher -

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(A) creates a positive learning environment.

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(B) maintains discipline through rules.

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(C) controls the class through strict authority.

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(D) allows students to manage themselves without guidance.
84. During teaching in your classroom some students are bullying one student. At this time, what will
you do immediately?
(A) Scold students who are bullying
(B) Ignore the situation
(C) Stop students from bullying
(D) Call students to meet after class
85. A student from a different cultural background feels isolated in class. What would you do?
(A) Promote inclusivity and encourage classmates to appreciate diversity.

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(B) Talk privately with the student and offer emotional support.

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(C) Suggest the student to adjust to the class environment.
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(D) Ignore the situation because it does not affect the lesson directly.

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86. When students provide feedback about teaching methods, a teacher should -

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(A) reflect on the feedback and improve own’s teaching practices.

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(B) listen but rarely modify teaching methods.
(C) consider feedback only from high-performing students.
(D) ignore student feedback completely.
87. When should parents be invited in school in some emergency situation?
(A) Some emergency situation (B) In an annual function in school
(C) To encourage them to donate fund (D) To take important suggestion about school
88. A teacher can maintain good relations with students by -
(A) completing syllabus in time. (B) not discriminating on the basis of caste.
(C) treating with love and dignity. (D) maintaining distance with students.

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89. How should a teacher provide feedback on students’ poorly written assignment?

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(A) Read the assignment aloud in class as an example of what not to do.

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(B) Give a low grade and tell the student to ‘work harder’.

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(C) Correct every mistake with red ink and ask the student to rewrite it.

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(D) Highlight their strengths first, then provide specific actionable suggestions.

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90. As a Principal, you are instructed by higher authorities to do creative task in school. For achieving

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this task, you will -
(A) force students and teachers to work.
(B) encourage students and teachers for work.
(C) work in collaboration with students and teachers.
(D) take disciplinary action against students and teachers who do not take interest in work.
91. What is the most important outcome of a classroom discussion?
(A) Ensuring every single student has spoken at least once.
(B) Developing students critical thinking and respecting diverse views.
(C) Completing the discussion quickly to stay on schedule.

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(D) Students arriving at the one ‘correct’ answer provided by the teacher.

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92. Which one of the following is the most important attribute of a leader?
(A) Influencing others (B) Encouraging interpersonal relationships
(C) Decision making (D) Self-motivated
93. Which of the following is the most important element of social maturity?
(A) Self-sufficiency (B) Communication
(C) Self-direction (D) Social interaction
94. If a student of your class is weak in all subjects, then what will you do?
(A) I will try to know the causes of his weakness.
(B) I will try to find out his areas of interest.
(C) I will discuss with him about his fields of interest and give him opportunity to grow in those
fields.
(D) I will not care about him.
95. How should a teacher react when a student makes a socially inappropriate remark in class?
(A) Privately reprimand the student after the class ends.
(B) Publicly punish the student to set an example for others.
(C) Use it as ‘teachable moment’ to discuss social norms and empathy.
(D) Laugh it off to avoid an awkward situation in the classroom.
96. As a Principal, you observe one teacher always complains about other colleagues to get favour from
you. In this situation, what will you do?
(A) Encourage teacher to give maximum information about other teachers
(B) Ignore the teacher’s habit
(C) Warn teacher for such habit
(D) Discourage teacher for this habit
97. The primary role of a teacher in fostering social maturity among students is -
(A) modelling prosocial behaviour and emotional intelligence consistently.
(B) teaching specific lessons on ethics and social values from textbooks.
(C) maintaining a strict hierarchy to ensure discipline and order.
(D) focusing on academic content, leaving social growth to parents.
98. A new curriculum is introduced that you personally find to be ineffective for your students. What
will you do?
(A) Implement the curriculum faithfully while documenting specific concerns with data, then
formally present these findings to the academic committee with suggested modifications.
(B) Supplement the prescribed curriculum with your own materials to cover the perceived
gaps.
(C) Follow the curriculum as directed and wait for the official review cycle to raise concerns.
(D) Avoid teaching portions you find ineffective and replace them with your own preferred
content without informing administration.
99. A professionally committed teacher must be proficient in which of the following?
(A) Content knowledge and pedagogy
(B) Learning environment and diversity of learners
(C) Curriculum planning, assessment and reporting
(D) Community linkages and professional development
100. An effective teacher is one -
(A) who always pays attention to students in class.
(B) who always takes classes regularly.
(C) whose students are always curious to attend the class.
(D) who teaches with his permanently prepared notes.
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General Awareness
101. Kalidas was one of the Navaratanas (Nine Gems) of which ruler?
(A) Samudragupta (B) Ashoka (C) Chandragupta II (D) Skandgupta
102. By defeating which of the following team, India reached in the final of the South Asian Football
Federation U-20 Championship, 2026?

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(A) Bangladesh (B) Bhutan (C) Maldives (D) Pakistan

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103. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

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(A) Inscription of Sunda Mountain - 1262 A.D. (B) Inscription of Chirwa - 1273 A.D.

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(C) Inscription of Delwara - 1234 A.D. (D) Inscription of Bijoliya - 1170 A.D.

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104. Who are eligible to join the International Solar Alliance?
(A) All Kyoto Protocol Signatory States (B) All the United Nations’ Member States
(C) All the Small Island Developing States (D) All the Equatorial States
105. Which Ministry has developed PARIVESH 2.0?
(A) Ministry of Education (B) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(C) Ministry of Culture (D) Ministry of External Affairs
106. Which is the first Biosphere Reserve of India?
(A) Nilgiri (B) Nanda Devi (C) Sundarban (D) Gulf of Mannar
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107. Who among the following established the ‘Asiatic Society of Bengal’?

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(A) Warren Hastings (B) William Jones (C) Lord Macaulay (D) Lord Canning
108.
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Which of the following is not correctly matched?
a s
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Dance Region
(A) Bharatnatyam Tamil Nadu
(B) Kathakali Kerala
(C) Kuchipudi Andhra Pradesh
(D) Mohiniyattam Maharashtra
109. Khejadli Mela is associated with -
(A) Amrita Devi (B) Ruma Devi (C) Jhamku Devi (D) Anjana Devi

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110.

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Who among the following is not associated with the ‘Bengal School of Painting’?

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(A) Nandalal Bose (B) Abanindranath Tagore

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(C) Raja Ravi Verma (D) Binod Behari Mukherjee

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Which of the following statement is not true regarding Dr. Bhupen Hazarika?

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(A) Year 2026 is his birth-centenary year.

a (B) He is also known as the ‘Bard of Brahmaputra’.
(C) He was awarded Bharat Ratna in 2012.
(D) He is popularly known as ‘Sudhakantha’.
112. Where is Mahatma Gandhi Marine National Park situated?
(A) Chikmanglur (B) Wandoor (C) Puri (D) Dandi Kutir
113. During imprisonment in which fort, Jawahar Lal Nehru wrote ‘The Discovery of India’?

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(A) Ahmednagar (B) Allahabad (C) Poona (D) Raigarh

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114. Who was appointed for administration of justice by Ashok, the Mauryan Emperor?
(A) Mahamatra (B) Rajjuk (C) Teerth (D) Sannidhata
115. When was the High Court of Rajasthan duly inaugurated?
(A) 27th March, 1949 (B) 29th August, 1949
(C) 26th January, 1950 (D) 3rd September, 1949
116. Identify the incorrect pair of center of 1857 Revolt and its major leader -
(A) Kanpur - Nana Sahib (B) Lucknow - Hazrat Mahal
(C) Faizabad - Maulavi Ahmadullah (D) Arrah – Bakht Khan
117. When was Shri Gurumukh Nihal Singh appointed as the first Governor of Rajasthan?
(A) 30th March, 1949 (B) 1st November, 1956
(C) 25th October, 1956 (D) 26th January, 1950
118. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?
(A) Ban on Sati Pratha - 1829
(B) Act passed in the support of Widow Marriage - 1856
(C) Child Marriage Prohibition Act -1929
(D) Establishment of Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College - 1930
119. Identify the sea-coastal city of Harappan culture -
(A) Banawali (B) Surkotada (C) Chanhudaro (D) Rojdi
120. Which among the following book was not authored by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar?
(A) Who were the Shudras? (B) Riddles in Hinduism
(C) Waiting for a Visa (D) Gulamgiri
121. Who among the following Governor Generals of Bengal/India, was the propounder of the system of
‘Subsidiary Alliances’?
(A) Lord Cornwallis (B) Lord Wellesley
(C) Lord Francis Hastings (D) Lord William Bentick
122. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer with the help of the code given below –
List-I List-II
(i) Troposphere (a) Radio Communication
(ii) Stratosphere (b) Hydrogen Swims
(iii) Thermosphere (c) Ozone Gas Layer
(iv) Exosphere (d) Weather Occurs
(A) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a) (B) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)
(C) (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b) (D) (i)-(b), (ii)- (a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c)
123. When did the Rajasthan Land Reforms and Resumption of Jagirs Act come into force?
(A) 1952 (B) 1956 (C) 1959 (D) 1960
124. Where was the 14th Ministerial Conference (MC14) of the World Trade Organization organised from
26th to 30th March, 2026?
(A) Kenya (B) Morocco (C) Cameroon (D) South Africa
125. Who among the following Pedhi maintains the Dilwara Jain temple, Mount Abu?
(A) Shri Bhandasar Pedhi (B) Shri Sanwaliyaji Pedhi
(C) Shri Anandji Kalyanji Pedhi (D) Shri Kalyanji Paramanandji Pedhi

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Which one of the following states is not a part of the Aravalli Mountain Range?
(A) Haryana (B) Gujarat (C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Rajasthan
127. With reference to Sridhar Makam Krishnamurthy, consider the following statements -
(1) He was awarded Padma Shri in 2024.
(2) He is associated with education policy and reforms.
(3) He has contributed to defence technology in India.

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Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

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(A) Only (1) and (2) (B) Only (2) and (3) (C) Only (1) (D) (1), (2) and (3)
128.
(A) Garasia m
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The people of which tribe are found in the majority in Baran district?
(D) Saharia as
e
s esystem is mainly used for disaster management support in India? g l
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(B) Bhil (C) Meena

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129. Which satellite
NavIC (B) AstroSat (C) RISAT
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(D) INSAT
130. What is the name of the military operation jointly carried out by the United States and Israel against
Iran in 2026?
(A) Operation Desert Storm (B) Operation Epic Fury
(C) Operation Enduring Freedom (D) Operation Roaring Lion
131. Who are the mascots of the Census 2027?

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(A) Unnati - Shakti (B) Samriddhi - Vishwas
(C) Sanskriti - Virasat
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(D) Pragati - Vikas

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132. ‘Sameer’ is an App that provides hourly updates on the following -
(A) Local Weather Forecast
g l a (B) Sound Pollution Index

133.
(C) Oceanic Water Quality Index
a (D) National Air Quality Index
Among the following lakes, which one is a salt water lake?
(A) Bhimtal (B) Loktak (C) Barapani (D) Sambhar
134. Which of the following literary work is awarded by the Sahitya Akademi Award-2025?
(A) Rakt-Samadhi (B) Ek Din Achanak
(C) Dukkham-Sukkham (D) Jite Ji Allahabad

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135. Who is the developer of India’s first indigenous human spaceflight program, the “Gaganyaan

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Mission”?

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(A) DRDO (B) ISRO (C) CSIR (D) ICMR

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When was the National Green Tribunal established?

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(A) 2010 (B) 2015 (C) 2017 (D) 2018

a In the verdict of which one of the following cases, the Supreme Court has categorically laid down
that no development project can receive post-facto environmental clearances?
(A) Vanashakti V. Union of India (B) T.N. Godavarman Thirumulpad V. Union of India
(C) M.C. Mehta V. Union of India (D) Ganga Lalwani V. Union of India
th
138. Which site became India’s 44 UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2025?
(A) Ajanta Caves (B) Maratha Military Landscapes
(C) Moidams of Ahom Dynasty (D) Sundarban National Park

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139. Which one of the following works was not written by Vijaydan Detha?
(A) Chaudharain ki Chaturai (B) Duvidha
(C) Batan Ri Phulwari (D) Jog - Sanjog
140. Who was Anjana Devi Choudhary?
(A) Environmental activist (B) Famous poet
(C) Non-violent freedom fighter (D) Radical feminist
141. In which district of Rajasthan, the ‘Bassi Wildlife Sanctuary’ is situated?
(A) Dudu (B) Jaipur (C) Chittorgarh (D) Bhilwara
142. Which one of the following digital platforms integrates citizen services?
(A) DigiLocker (B) UMANG (C) AADHAR (D) BharatNet
143. Who led the Civil Disobedience Movement in India’s northwestern border region?
(A) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan (B) Raja Mahendra Pratap
(C) Sarojini Naidu (D) Womesh Chandra Banerjee
144. In the ranking of happiness (2023-2025), which country is ranked first in the World Happiness
Report, 2026?
(A) Norway (B) Sweden (C) Finland (D) Iceland
145. GEO-7 report by UNEP was released in which year?
(A) 2023 (B) 2024 (C) 2025 (D) 2026
146. Consider the following statements regarding the Rajasthan State Legislative Assembly and choose
the correct answer with the help of the code given below -
(I) The strength of the Rajasthan Legislative Assembly was 160 in 1952 and stands 200 since the
Fifth Assembly.
(II) It was not continuing in 1967, 1977, 1980 and 1992 due to the President Rule.
(A) Both (I) and (II) are true (B) Both (I) and (II) are false
(C) (I) is true but (II) is false (D) (I) is false but (II) is true
147. Who was awarded the highest Gallantry Award - Ashok Chakra on the Republic Day, 2026?
(A) Arshdeep Singh (B) Shubhanshu Shukla
(C) Doleshwar Subba (D) Anshul Baltoo
148. Consider the following United Nation’s Summits on environmental issues -
(I) One Planet Summit (II) First Earth Summit
(III) Millennium Summit (IV) First Stockholm Conference on Human Environment
Arrange the above Summits in chronological order -
(A) (I), (II), (III), (IV) (B) (IV), (II), (III), (I)
(C) (II), (III), (IV), (I) (D) (III), (II), (I), (IV)
149. Who is the Indian woman who won the FIDE Women’s Chess World Cup held in Batumi, Georgia
in 2025?
(A) Koneru Humpy (B) Divya Deshmukh (C) Harika Dronavalli (D) R. Vaishali
150. In which Congress Session, the launch of the Non-Cooperation Movement was approved?
(A) Calcutta Session of 1920 (B) Nagpur Session of 1920
(C) Amritsar Session of 1919 (D) Bombay Session of 1918

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English
Direction : (Q. No. 151 to 155) - Read the passage and answer the questions given below -
Regular physical activity provides numerous health benefits, from leaner bodies and lower blood pressure
to improved mental health and cognitive functioning. As the school physical programme promotes physical
activity and can teach skills as well as form or change behaviour, it holds an important key to influencing health
and well-being across the life span. To improve the fitness of students, we need to rethink the design and delivery

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of school-based physical education programme. Adults in the United States think that information about health

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was more important for students than to learn the content in language, arts, mathematics, science, history or any

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other subject. Our first step might be to consider ways to increase curriculum time devoted to physical education.

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151. According to Americans, health education is more important than teaching -
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(A) Social Science (B) Natural Science (C) Any Subject (D) History

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152. In order to improve physical education programme, we should -

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(A) increase school time. (B) employ qualified physical instructors.
(C) increase number of classrooms. (D) increase attendance of the students.
153. In order to tone up the physical education programme in schools -
(A) it should be made compulsory in schools.
(B) existing programme should be changed.
(C) a committee should be set up in schools.
(D) the programme should be reoriented and implemented.
154. According to the passage, we must consider ways to -
(A) give training to teachers.

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(B) improve classroom teaching.

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(C) give more time for physical education in curriculum.

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(D) give less curriculum time to physical education.

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155. According to this passage, regular physical activity is needed to -

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(A) control one’s blood pressure (B) lose one’s weight

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(C) improve one’s cognitive skills (D) improve one’s physical as well as mental health
156. Write one word for -
One who is devoid of kind feelings and sympathy.
(A) Cruel (B) Ruthless (C) Callous (D) Indifferent
157. Choose the correct Direct form -
She asked for a cup of coffee.
(A) “Could I have a cup of coffee”, she said. (B) “Can you give me a cup of coffee?”, she said.
(C) “Could I have a cup of coffee?” she said. (D) “Will you give me a cup of coffee?” she said.
158. I readily closed with his offer.
The meaning of the underlined idiom is -

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(A) accepted (B) rejected (C) postponed (D) changed

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159. Fill in the blank with appropriate modal -

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What is the point in crying over the spilt milk? You ........................... have listened to us earlier.

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(A) would (B) should (C) can (D) must

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160. Choose the correct Indirect form -

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“Who do you want to speak to?”, said the telephonist.

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(A) She asked with whom I wanted to speak to. (B) She inquired whom I wanted to speak to.
(C) She asked who I wanted to speak to. (D) She inquired who do I wanted to speak to.
161. Complete the sentence with a suitable answer -
You don’t recognise me, ..................................
(A) could you? (B) do you? (C) must you? (D) did you?
162. This is the man ................................... I suspected.
(A) what (B) who (C) whom (D) which
163. Choose the correct phrasal verb -
The little girl couldn’t .................................. the balloon.

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(A) blow out (B) blow up (C) fill up (D) blow into

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164. It ........................ rain later so take an umbrella.
(A) can (B) would (C) should (D) might
165. Identify the correct sentence from the following sentences -
(A) She will rather be quiet than answer back rudely.
(B) She would rather be quiet than answer back rudely.
(C) She would rather be quiet then answer back rudely.
(D) She will rather be quiet then answer back rudely.
166. The prisoner was released on .................................. for good behaviour.
(A) parole (B) probation (C) bail (D) guarantee
167. The bridal .............................was fringed with lace.
(A) vale (B) veil (C) wail (D) well
168. Select the option that contains no spelling error -
(A) The conversation mieandered on for hour after the meeting was over.
(B) The conversation meendered in for hours after the meeting was over.
(C) The conversation meindered in for hours after the meeting was over.
(D) The conversation meandered on for hours after the meeting was over.
169. Fill in the blank with the correct option -
We stayed .............................. days in Jaipur and visited Hawa Mahal.
(A) few (B) a little (C) a few (D) little
170. I heard my name called. In this sentence, ‘called’ is -
(A) Noun (B) Past Participle (C) Subject (D) Object
171. Identify the correct sequence of the sentence -
(P) you (Q) to stay (R) I (S) would like
(A) S P Q R (B) Q R P S (C) S R Q P (D) R S P Q
172. Choose the correct passive form -
They are demolishing the entire block.
(A) The entire block was being demolished. (B) The entire block has been demolished.
(C) The entire block was been demolished. (D) The entire block is being demolished.
173. Ram agreed to .......................................... my orders.
(A) carry away (B) carry on (C) carry out (D) carry off
174. Had you worked hard, you......................................passed.
(A) would (B) will (C) would have (D) will have
175. Mark synonym of the word ‘Vigorous’ -
(A) Clever (B) Cool (C) Energetic (D) Sharp
176. Mark the most appropriate synonym of the word ‘Primordial’ -
(A) Primary (B) Ancient (C) Classical (D) Aboriginal
177. Rahul’s father works as ........................................... electrician.
(A) the (B) a (C) an (D) no article
178. Fill in the blank with the correct preposition -
The driver jumped .................................. the car.
(A) of (B) at (C) in (D) off
179. “He liked my suggestion.” Change into a complex sentence.
(A) It was what he liked. (B) He liked what I suggested.
(C) My suggestion was he liked. (D) He liked me and suggested.
180. Choose the word with correct spelling -
(A) Pnemonia (B) Pneumonia (C) Nemonia (D) Penomonia
181. Identify the correct order of the sentence -
(p) round his grave (q) and myrtles (r) he is buried (s) near Rome (t) grow
The correct sequence is -
(A) pqrst (B) qtrsp (C) rsqpt (D) rsqtp
182. Add suitable form of “Be” Verb -
Neither Seema nor Mohan ................................ there.
(A) was (B) were (C) being (D) been
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as 183. Identify the tense used in the following sentence - a g
He has been sleeping for five hours.
(A) Present Perfect Continuous (B) Present Continuous
(C) Present Simple (D) Present Perfect
184. Choose the correct option for the sentence -
“Handwriting that cannot be read.”
(A) Ineligible (B) Illegitimate (C) Unedited (D) Illegible
185. Identify the correctly spelt word -

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(A) Abismal (B) Ebysmal (C) Abysmal (D) Abysmel

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186. Complete the sentence with the correct option -

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“The wounded soldier fell ......................................... the ditch.”

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(A) in (B) at (C) into (D) within
187.
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“Have you submitted your report yet?” Change into indirect speech.
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(A) She asked him if he had submitted his report till then.

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(B) She asked him whether he has submitted his report yet.
(C) She asked him if he was submitted the report till now.
(D) She asked to submit his report now.
188. You are unable to .............................................. the meaning of this passage.
(A) make off (B) make out (C) make over (D) make up
189. Complete the sentence with the correct option -
He must do it ................................. he likes it ................................ not.
(A) whether, or (B) rather, than (C) so, that (D) hardly, when
190. He asked if I liked fish.
The underlined word is -

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(A) Interjection (B) Preposition (C) Conjunction (D) Adjunct

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191. Choose the correct phrasal verb -

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A huge crowd .......................... to see the international football match.

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(A) turned up (B) was present (C) turned over (D) came
192. Choose the correct Indirect form -

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“Did any of you actually see the accident happen?”, said the policeman.
(A) The policeman asked if any of them actually saw the accident happen.
(B) The policeman asked if any of us had actually seen the accident happen.
(C) The policeman asked if any of us actually saw the accident happen.
(D) The policeman said if any of us had actually seen the accident happen.
193. Write one word for -
One who is an associate in crime.
(A) Co-partner (B) Criminal (C) Accomplice (D) Partner-in-crime
194. There is hardly ..................................... reason to doubt his intentions.
(A) some (B) much (C) every (D) any

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195. Mark correct antonym of the word ‘Lazy’ -

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(A) Industrious (B) Weaken (C) Begin (D) Careless

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196. Choose the correct option to complete the sentence -

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.......................... what I know .................. him, I hesitate to trust him.

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(A) By, from (B) At, of (C) From, from (D) From, of

la 198.
Rohit as well as my sister ..................................... in college now.

ag (A) am
Choose the correct option -
(B) is (C) are (D) has

She hasn’t come yet, ..............................?
(A) has she (B) had she (C) hasn’t she (D) isn’t she
199. Fill in the blank with the correct phrasal verb -
He does not ...................................... with my brother.
(A) find out (B) keep on (C) look after (D) get along
200. Choose the correct option for the sentence -
“A person who hates women.”

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(A) Intolerant (B) Misogynist (C) Bigamist (D) Gullible

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Section-D
Hindi
151. ^p^ oxZ ds O;atu dk mPpkj.k LFkku gS &
(A) daB (B) ew/kkZ (C) nar (D) rkyq
152. fuEu esa ls ew/kZU; o.kZ gS &
(A) d vkSj x (B) j vkSj B (C) y vkSj l (D) p vkSj N
153. ^iSj ls ysdj flj rd^ okD;ka’k ds fy, ,d 'kCn iz;Dq r gksxk &
(A) likn (B) fljksik (C) vkikneLrd (D) f'kjks/kk;Z
154. fuEu esa v)ZLoj gS &
(A) j (B) y (C) ; (D) e
155. fuEu 'kCnksa dks 'kCndks’k esa Øe ls la;ksftr djsa &
1- Økafr 2- {ks= 3- Ñ".k 4- d¡xuk
(A) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 (B) 1 - 4 - 3 - 2 (C) 4 - 1 - 2 - 3 (D) 3 - 4 - 1 - 2
156. fuEu esa ls fdl fodYi esa lHkh 'kCn 'kq) gS\a
(A) eqe"w kZ] 'kqJ"w kk] }kjdk] egkRE; (B) eweq"kZ] lqJ"w kk] }kjdk] egkRE;
(C) eweq"kZ] Jw’kq"kk] }kfjdk] egkrE; (D) eqeq"kZ] 'kwJq"kk] }kfjdk] egkrE;
157. O;kdj.k dh n`f"V ls 'kq) okD; gS &
(A) d{kk esa dksbZ yxHkx ipkl fo|kFkhZ vk,s FksA (B) mlus viuh ckr lizek.k lfgr dghA
(C) mlus ?kj ds vUnj izo’s k fd;kA (D) eq>s dsoy rhl #i, pkfg,A
158. fuEu esa Loj lfU/k ;qDr 'kCn ugha gS &
(A) nso $ bUnz ¾ nsoUs nz (B) lnk $ ,o ¾ lnSo
(C) vfHk $ lsd ¾ vfHk"ksd (D) vuq $ br ¾ vfUor
159. ^vk¡[k j[kuk^ eqgkojs dk vFkZ gS &
(A) I;kj djuk (B) bT+tr cpkuk (C) 'keZ vk tkuk (D) fuxjkuh djuk
160. vusd 'kCnksa ¼ijca/kksa ;k okD;ka’kksa½ ds LFkku ij ,d 'kCn dk lgh iz;ksx ugha gqvk gS &
(A) lsuk dk og Hkkx tks lcls vkxs jgrk gS & gjkoy
(B) tks viuh iRuh ds lkFk gks & liRuhd
(C) fdlh ckr ds eeZ ¼xw<+ jgL;½ dks tkuus okyk & eqeq{kq
(D) jkf= esa fopj.k djus okyk & fu’kkpj
161. fuEu esa izR;; ;qDr 'kCn ugha gS &
(A) Hkk"k.k (B) iqdkj (C) c<+kok (D) mn~;ksx
162. rRle 'kCn gS &
(A) eksrh (B) ijNkabZ (C) ;’kksnk (D) tusÅ
163. ;ksx:<+ 'kCn gS &
(A) xtkuu (B) Ñ".kkiZ.k (C) jktekrk (D) jk"Vªifr

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co m .
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as 164. fuEu esa lekl ds folaxr mnkgj.k gSa & a g
(A) izfrfnu % vO;;hHkko (B) xzkeokl % rRiq#"k
(C) ihrkacj % deZ/kkj; (D) pgkj nhokjh % cgqozhfg
165. fuEu esa v’kq) rRle & rn~Hko ;qXe gS &
(A) udqy & usoyk (B) tkekrk & nkekn (C) okeu & ckSuk (D) oØ & cxqyk

m
co
166. 'kq) okD; gS &

c om m .
(A) ;g fo"k; vR;ar dBksj gSA os viuk Hkkoh thou ;gha fcrk,¡xAs
. e
(B)

e m
(C) og vkjksX; gks x;kA (D) ogk¡ vikj tulewg meM+ iM+kA
l a s
a s ag
(A) :bZgl
167. fuEu esa 'kq) orZuh gS &

a (B) xq:
168. fuEu esa feJ okD; dk mnkgj.k gS &
(C) #Buk (D) o/kw

(A) eSa vkxs c<+ x;k vkSj og ihNs jg x;kA
(B) tgk¡ lqefr rg¡ laifr ukukA
(C) ejrk D;k ugha djrkA
(D) eq>s mu yksxksa dk Hksn ysuk Fkk] lks eSa ogk¡ Bgj dj mudh ckrsa lquus yxkA

m
. co
169. mfR{kIr O;atu dk mnkgj.k gS &

em
(A) {k (B) <+ (C) "k (D) y
170. fuEu esa L=hfyax ugha gS &
l a s
(A) jkr (B) vk;q
a g (C) Ñik (D) vJq
171. foHkfDr ;qDr 'kCn dgykrk gS &
(A) okD; (B) o.kZ (C) in (D) vuqPNsn
172. ^rRiq#"k^ lekl ;qDr 'kCn ugha gS &
(A) tUeka/k (B) ns'k HkfDr (C) ijk/khu (D) ';ke lqna j
fuEufyf[kr esa ls ^cqf)^ dk i;kZ; gS &
mizKk
173.

m c. o
(A) |qfr (B) piyk (C) eR;Z

c. o
(D)

e m
s
fuEu esa vYiizk.k O;atu gS &
em
174.

s la
ag
(A) [k (B) <+ (C) Hk ;
la 175.
(D)

ag ^^chekjh ds dkj.k eq>ls pyk ugha tkrkA^^ okD; esa okP; gS &
(A) dr`Z okP; (B) Hkko okP;
(C) deZ okP; (D) mi;ZqDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
176. fuEukafdr esa vlaxr dkjd & fpUg gS &
(A) Lkaiznku % dks] ds fy, (B) lac/a k % dk] ds] dh
(C) deZ % us (D) vf/kdj.k % es]a ij

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B-BKS-IV – (L-II English) Page 21 of 24 401
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177. ^?kksVd^ 'kCn fdldk i;kZ;okph gS\
(A) g; (B) 'kf’k (C) fo"kkn (D) Ñik.k
178. fojke fpà dh n`f"V ls 'kq) okD; gS &
(A) okg! fdruk lqUnj n`’; gSA (B) okg] fdruk lqUnj n`’; gSA
(C) okg! fdruk lqUnj n`’; gS\ (D) okg( fdruk lqUnj n`’; gS %&
179. izR;; vkSj 'kCn dh n`f"V ls lgh fodYi ugha gS &
(A) u & mM+ku (B) vkoV & fy[kkoV (C) uk & fy[kuk (D) vuh; & iwtuh;
180. ^xk¡/kh Hkkjr ds bfrgkl esa vej gSAa ^ js[kkafdr in esa laKk izdkj gS &
(A) tkfrokpd (B) O;fDrokpd (C) Hkkookpd (D) dksbZ ugha
181. ^tks ekik u tk lds^ okD;ka’k ds fy, mi;qDr ,d 'kCn gS &
(A) vifjfer (B) vukxr (C) vizR;kf’kr (D) vlaHko
182. Hkk"kk dh lcls NksVh bdkbZ gS &
(A) Loj (B) O;atu (C) 'kCn (D) /ofu
183. mnwZ milxZ ds ;ksx ls cuk 'kCn ugha gS &
(A) uknku (B) xSj gkft+j (C) det+ksj (D) fudEek
184. ^^eSa ukSdj ls dke djokrk gw¡A^^ okD; esa iz;qDr /kkrq&:i gS &
(A) uke /kkrq (B) vuqdj.kkRed (C) izsj.kkFkZd (D) foijhrkFkZd
185. ^vkneh^] ^pkdw^] ^ckx^] ^xqykc^ vkfn 'kCn fdl fons’kh Hkk"kk ls fgUnh esa vk,\
(A) vjch (B) rqdhZ (C) Q+kjlh (D) iksrqZxht
186. ^ns’kHkfDr^ esa dkSulk lekl gS\
(A) dj.k rRiq#"k (B) deZ rRiq#"k (C) laiznku rRiq#"k (D) lac/a k rRiq#"k
187. ^lagkj^ 'kCn esa milxZ gS &
(A) l (B) le~ (C) l% (D) lag
188. ^^peM+h pyh tk, ij neM+h u tk,^^ okD; esa leqPp;cks/kd Hksn gS &
(A) la;kstd (B) fo;kstd (C) fojks/kn’kZd (D) ifj.kken’kZd
189. rRle ls rn~Hko 'kCn dh n`f"V ls lgh fodYi gS &
(A) vknzd Z & vnjd (B) dw"ek.M & dqEgkj
(C) poZ.k & puk (D) pØokd & pDdk
190. *nw/k ls ngh curk gSA* bl okD; esa dkjd gS &
(A) dj.k (B) viknku (C) vf/kdj.k (D) lEiznku
191. ^nsO;iZ.k^ 'kCn dk lgh laf/k&foPNsn gS &
(A) nso $ viZ.k (B) nsoh $ viZ.k (C) nsO; $ viZ.k (D) nsok $ viZ.k
192. lekgkj }a} lekl dk mnkgj.k gS &
(A) lR;klR; (B) Hkwy & pwd (C) yksVk & Mksj (D) jk/kk & Ñ".k

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co m .
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as 193. eqgkojs vkSj mlds vFkZ dh n`f"V ls lgh fodYi ugha gS & a g
(A) Xkky ctkuk & vfHkeku izdV djuk (B) xqM+ xkscj djuk & cuk dke fcxkM+uk
(C) xk<+s dh dekbZ gksuk & cgqr ykHk gksuk (D) xq.k ekuuk & ÑrK gksuk
194. fuEu esa folaxr foijhrkFkhZ 'kCn & lewg gS &
(A) varjax & cfgjax (B) lw{e & LFkwy (C) Lkkfe"k & fujkfe"k (D) lewy & vkewy
195. ^egf"kZ^ 'kCn esa dkSulh laf/k gS\

m
co
(A) nh?kZ laf/k (B) ;.k laf/k (C) v;kfn laf/k (D) xq.k laf/k

c om m .
funsZ’k ¼iz’u la[;k 196 & 200½ vuqPNsn dk v/;;u dj iwNs x, iz’uksa ds lokZf/kd mi;qDr mÙkj nhft, &

m .
Hkk"kk ,slh gksuh pkfg, tks ljy gks vkSj Hkkoksa dks fcydqy Bhd&Bhd vfHkO;Dr djus dh {kerk ls
se
s e
lEiUu gksA bl dk;Z ds fy, gksf’k;kjh ls pqus gq, 'kCnksa dh vko’;drk gSA eSa ugha tkurk gw¡ fd gksf’k;kjh
g l a
l a a
ag
ls 'kCn pquuk fdls dgrs gSAa 'kCndks’k esa rks 'kCn gh 'kCn Hkjs gksrs gS]a ij eSa yk[k gksf’k;kjh Hkh cjrw¡ rks
muesa ls D;k vius fy, dksbZ 'kCn pqu ldrk gw¡\ eSa le>rk gw¡ fd 'kCn gksf’k;kjh ls ugha pquk tkrk]
varLlaKk mls vki pqu ysrh gS & eu ds Hkhrj ds 'kCndks’k esa lsA eq>s yxrk gS fd tc eu esa dksbZ Hkko
mBrk gS rks vius lkFk vfHkO;fDr dh laKk Hkh fy, jgrk gS tks Li"V gqbZ rks 'kCn >V fey tkrk gS vkSj
vLi"V ;k /kwfey & lh gqbZ rks l`tu dh ml izfØ;k esa ,d ds ckn nwljk 'kCn mifLFkr pqukSrh dk lkeuk
djus ds fy, eu dh xgjkb;ksa esa ls mBdj Åij vk tkrk gS & oSls gh tSls lhrk & Lo;aoj esa ,d ds ckn
nwljk ohj ml /kuq"k dh izR;apk p<+kus ds fy, vk;k Fkk vkSj viuk lk eq¡g ysdj pyk x;k FkkA tc Bhd &
Bhd 'kCn fey tkrk gS rc ltZd eu ije lq[k ls mlds xys esa ojekyk Mky nsrk gS] oSls gh tSls lhrkth
m
co
us Hkxoku~ jkepanzth ds xys esa ojekyk Mky nh FkhA esjs fy, vfHkO;fDr ,slk gh ,d Lo;aoj gSA
.
em
196. ^varLlaKk^ dk vfHkizk; gS &

a s
(A) eu dh ckr (B) vkarfjd psruk (C) vafre 'kCn (D) laKk dk Hksn
197. bl x|ka’k esa ys[kd us eq[; :i ls &
g l
(A) lhrk Lo;aoj dk fp=.k fd;k gSA
(B) Hkk"kk foKku dh O;k[;k dh xbZ gSA
a
(C) vfHkO;fDr dh izfØ;k vkSj lgt 'kCn iz;ksx ij cy fn;k gSA
(D) lekt dh eukso`fÙk crkbZ gSA
198. ^vfHkO;fDr^ gsrq vko’;d gS &
(A) 'kCndks’k dk Kku (B) gksf'k;kjh
(C) lHkh fo"k;ksa dk Kku (D) Hkhrj ls fudys lgt ljy 'kCn
m
c. o
199. lai.w kZ x|ka’k dk dsUnzh; Hkko gS &
m
c. o m
(A) lkfgR; dk egRo izfrikfnr djuk

s e
em la
(B) lkfgR; ds fuekZ.k esa peRdkjiw.kZ Hkk"kk ds ;ksxnku dks fpf=r djuk

las ag
(C) lkfgR; vkSj lkekU; vfHkO;fDr esa lgt] Lor% LQwrZ 'kCnksa dk iz;ksx Js;l gSA

g
(D) buesa ls dqN ugha
a 200. vfHkO;fDr dks Lo;aoj dgus dk rkRi;Z gS] mlesa &
(A) izn'kZu dh Hkkouk gksrh gSA
(B) lkoZtfud lg;ksx gksrk gSA
(C) ys[kd dh fo}rk izdV gksrh gSA
(D) mfpr 'kCn dks Lo;a [kkst ysus dh {kerk gksrh gSA
-----------------------------

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Space for Rough Work

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